#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 88 of 1
i mean yeah, then you have to work with that
you can form a basis by $\left{\begin{pmatrix}0&1\0&0\end{pmatrix},\begin{pmatrix}1&0\0&0\end{pmatrix},\begin{pmatrix}0&0\1&0\end{pmatrix},\begin{pmatrix}0&0\0&1\end{pmatrix}\right}$
Namington:
hence dimension 4
You can make the set of 2×2 matrices into a vector space over R. If you do, it will have that basis ^^
Thank you
If the Matrix is 2x4, the linear Tranformation is R2--->R4?
T(X) = M. x
Or otherwise?
well, can you multiply a 2x4 matrix with a 2 dimensional vector?
@split heart
No
If the Matrix is 2x4, the linear Tranformation is R2--->R4?
@split heart So this is right?
if M is 2x4 and x is 2 dimensional, then M.x makes no sense, so certainly it can't be from R^2 into anything?
Alright, I get it
does this theorem state that if two linear transformations generate the same space, then they are the same?
So R4 ---> R2
yes
Thank you very much @subtle walrus
it seems like this sentence is incomplete @fossil wagon
If the (Vn...) notation means that those vectors form a basis
yes
Then that is true, but it doesn't have to do with what space they generate
but I don't understand why
What would it take for the two transformations to be completely identical
the matrix is identical?
I just don't understand what that theorem states to be honest
it says that if the two transformations do the exact same things to a set of basis vectors, then they do the same thing to every vector
a.k.a all you need to know about a transformation to completely classify it is what it does to a set of basis vectors
it's a very powerful theorem
That means that the two transformations are equal
If you put the same vector into both of them, the same vector will pop out
but the matrix is not necessarily the same?
a.k.a all you need to know about a transformation to completely classify it is what it does to a set of basis vectors
I don't get this
like, if you know what a transformation does to a set of basis vectors then using that information you can figure out what it does to every vector
ah yeah I get it now
thank you
okay so, I just don't understand an exercise that said okay if we have a W = {(x,y,z)/ 2x+-y+3z=0} then the basis vectors are (1,2,0) and (0, 3, 1), so we can do T(1,0) = (1,2,0) and T(0,1) =(0,3,1)
and in general T(x,y) = (x, 2x+3y, y)
why are the basis vectors of R^2 assigned those two vectors in that order?
What do you mean? The linear transformation tells you exactly how one vector in one vector space transforms into another vector in another vector space. It is a function. To be more explicit, the rule for your map is given by:
$T(x,y) = (x,2x+3y,y)$
So, $T(1,0) = (1,2 \cdot 1 + 3 \cdot 0,0) = (1,2,0)$ and the same thing follows for the other standard basis vector of 2-space.
Abhijeet Vats:
@fossil wagon
what does this theorem state?
what about the statement are you confused about?
does this mean there's only one linear transformation that can generate w?
what does generate w mean
like with Tvi I can find any single element of W
I mean sure?
The theorem doesn't state that T is unique though
There could be many different possible T's that satisfy this condition
I'm not really understand what it means ;-;
that's the part I don't really understand why using a base of V I can find W
You can't "find W"
like with a linear transformation
what does that even mean
I mean the elements of w
sorry I'm nervous rn 😭
can you find me a function f from A to B such that f(1) = 4?
Is that a function from {1,2,3} to {4,5,6}?
oh no
You don't need to specify functions with a formula
you can always specify functions by just saying
f(1) = 4, f(2) = 4, f(3) = 4
And that's a function from {1,2,3} to {4,5,6}
You don't have to?
hmm ok
Maybe it'd help to review what a function is
Since linear transformations are just a special type of function
I just have so many questions because we are covering this, and I tried learning the theorems, and solving some exercises but I don't understand this question on the book and I thought this theorem would make it more clear
"Let v1,v2,v3,...,vn a base of R^n, and let w1,w2,...,wn a base of P n-1. So there are two linear transformations S and T such that Tv1 = w1 and Sw1 = v1 for every i = 1,2,...,n
Since linear transformations are just a special type of function
yeah maybe
I just have so many questions because we are covering this, and I tried learning the theorems, and solving some exercises but I don't understand this question on the book and I thought this theorem would make it more clear
"Let v1,v2,v3,...,vn a base of R^n, and let w1,w2,...,wn a base of P n-1. So there are two linear transformations S and T such that Tv1 = w1 and Sw1 = v1 for every i = 1,2,...,n
And I thought this was true, but my books says otherwise
What's P n-1
A vector space made of polynomials like ax^(n-1) + bx^(n-2) + ... + k
Yeah, there's only one such linear transformation
why
The important part here is the dimension of the vector spaces
Both have dimension n
I mean
Try it when n = 2 for example
Let (1,0) and (0,1) be your basis for R^2
and let 1, x be your basis for P n-1
I thought that was true because T would be something having x's in it, and S would be full of scalars or whatever
what do you mean
ehmmmm I thought T had to be a matrix
a linear transformation is a function between vector spaces
It can be represented as a matrix multiplication yes
But you should think of it as a function
idk how to explain to you that its false
unless you tell me why you think its true
like, i could give you a proof of the fact, but you probably wouldn't understand it
I thought that was true because T would be something having x's in it, and S would be full of scalars or whatever
I don't know if this makes sense
it doesn't
T(0,1) = 1
T(1,0) = x
T(a,b) = ax + b
is a function from R^2 to P 1
You should also check that this is a linear function
and how can I figure out what T is?
That is T
like how do I go from T(0,1) = 1
T(1,0) = x
to T(a,b) = ax + b?
hmmm I think I'm struggling understanding all of this because what a linear transformation is not that clear to me
when we represent T(v) = w, then this means T is gonna convert v from what ever space it is to the space of w?
That's how functions work yes
Again, this makes no sense
T is a function
T can be represented by a matrix yes, but ultimately, T is a function
I mean if we say Tv = Ax (where A is a matrix)
Circulation:
okay
so can matrices contain variables? like (y^2,y,a)?
I just don't understand how a linear transformation can go from R^n to P n-1
using matrix multiplication
I did
the matrix will give you coordinates in terms of the ordered basis you used
you multiply each row of the resulting matrix by the ordered basis
okay
like
if I have T(0,1) = (0,1,0) and T(1,0) = (1,0,0) then
T(x,y) = xT(1,0) + yT(0,1)
is that what you mean?
First of all that transformation is not linear unless you mean like T(z) where z = (x,y)
I'm talking about the matrix representation of a linear transformation
using matrix multiplication
@fossil wagon lets use this example
I just don't understand how a linear transformation can go from R^n to P n-1
@fossil wagon .
lets fix n to some number
how about $$T:R^3 \rightarrow P_{2}(R)$$
Circulation:
okay
give me some linear transformation with those domain/codomain
also the notation that i will use might be confusing idk what textbook you are using
T x = xp^2 + yp + z
y
z
ok so $$T(r) = T((x,y,z)) = x p^2 + yp + z$$
Circulation:
where $$r \in R^3$$
Circulation:
good so far?
yes
ok now lets pick an ordered basis for $$R^3$$ and $$P_2(R)$$
Circulation:
for p2 is (x^2, x, 1) (I'm not sure about the 1) and for R^3 is ((1,0,0),(0,1,0),(0,0,1))
yes that is correct we usually write it in the opposite order you wrote it
oh ok
lets call the ordered basis for $$R^3$$ this symbol $$\beta$$
Circulation:
and lets call the ordered basis for $$P_2(R)$$ this symbol $$\gamma$$
Circulation:
so $\beta = {(1,0,0),(0,1,0),(0,0,1)}$ $\gamma = {1,x,x^2}$
Circulation:
okay this makes sense to me so far
ok we want to create a matrix A such that when we multiply A by a coordinate vector of $R^3$ we get a coordinate vector of $P_2(R)$
Circulation:
yes
we also write this matrix as $[T]_\beta^\gamma$
Circulation:
the way we compute A is we first apply T to every one of our basis vectors for $R^3$
Circulation:
so what is $T(1,0,0)$ and $T(0,1,0)$ and $T(0,0,1)$
Circulation:
okay write those in terms of the coordinate vector of $P_2(R)$
Circulation:
then those will be the columns of A
then you can multiply A by coordinate vectors of R3
then you get ur answer in terms of coordinate vector in P2
got it?
like
p^2 0 0 x
0 p 0 y
0 0 1 z
uh no
x^2 = (0,0,1) in coordinate vector
cuz (0,0,1) * (1,x,x^2) = x^2
so ur first column will be 0,0,1
$$A = [T]_\beta^{\gamma} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 1 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$$
Circulation:
T x = xT(1,0,0) + yT(0,1,0) + zT(0,0,1)?
y
z
uh idk maybe
but like why is it the other way around?
why
x 0 0 p^2
0 y 0 p
0 0 z 1
?
hmmm it's the same thing(?
like in general
mine is $Ax = b$ where x is the coordinate vector for R3 and y is the coordinate vector for P_2
Circulation:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
[a] [d e f]
[b] [g h i]
[c] [j k l]
Isn't a valid matrix multiplication
but I wrote it the other way around
I need help diagonalizing this into A = QΛQT
A = QΛQ^T
Q is orthogonal
<@&286206848099549185>
What does orthogonal mean again
google exists
yikes okay
anyway @hidden sable are you sure thats supposed to be $Q\Lambda Q^T$ and not $Q\Lambda Q^{-1}$?
Namington:
I thought that Q^t is equal to Q^-1?
Q is orthogonal
lol
in any case
the process is described here
In linear algebra, an orthogonal diagonalization of a symmetric matrix is a diagonalization by means of an orthogonal change of coordinates.The following is an orthogonal diagonalization algorithm that diagonalizes a quadratic form q(x) on Rn by means of an orthogonal change o...
that specifically diagonalizes a quadratic form and youre diagonalizing a matrix but nonetheless
it just means you already know what A is
is anything in specific confusing you/do you need help with any step?
When I try to reduce the columns of X to length 1, then try finding the inverse, the inverse is not the transpose
That's what I am stuck on
sorry, what's X?
Set of eigenvectors
so the basis you constructed for the eigenspace wasnt orthogonal, it sounds like
The X in XΛX^-1
Does the order matter?
Yeah, basically
That's what I was stuck on
the order of the columns of eigenvectors doesn't matter, as long as each entry on the diagonal in Lambda corresponds to the column from X
that is to say, if (for example) 5 is an eigenvalue with eigenvector (1, 4) and you make (1, 4) the first column
then 5 has to be the top-left entry on the diagonal
if you make (1, 4) the second column, 5 would have to be the second entry on teh diagonal
etc
anyway
you're struggling with finding an orthogonal basis?
Yeah
If I have a matrix 3x3 matrix A and a matrix E = [1], we can't multiply them, right?
Or does it act like multiplying by a scalar
what techniques have you learned? gram-schmidt?
reducing the length to 1 is how you normalize an orthogonal set
(to make it orthonormal)
but first it has to be orthogonal in the first place
Oh
so there are a few techniques to orthogonalize a set
first verify that the vectors in your basis aren't orthogonal; then you can construct a new basis by
this technique
where proj is defined as such
so if you have two vectors in your basis, v_1 and v_2
you can create a new orthogonal basis by setting u_1 = v_1
and then $u_2 = v_2 - \frac{\langle v_2, v_1\rangle }{\langle v_1, v_1\rangle} v_1$ where $\langle a, b \rangle$ is the inner (dot) product of $a$ and $b$
?
Namington:
sorry my brain is fried right now
using the equation i gave
oh
$u_2 = v_2 - \frac{v_2 \cdot v_1}{v_1 \cdot v_1}v_1$
Namington:
and then to normalize these, just divide them by their lengths
ie $\frac{u_1}{||u_1||}$ and $\frac{u_2}{||u_2||}$
Namington:
I am assuming that in order to multiply 2 1x2 vectors, i will have to take the transpose?
since this is a 2x2 matrix
the $\cdot$ here is a dot product
Namington:
can you take the dot product of 2 1x2 vectors?
yes... are you not aware of what a dot product is?
just making sure
you might be familiar with the term "inner product"
or even "scalar product" but this is a weird name
What do we know about the eigenvalues of a matrix A such that A^3=0
I'm sure at least one eigenvalue is 0 since there's no way it's invertible, but apparently it's incorrect that they are all necessarily 0
Assume $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue for $A$, then that means that there exists a nonzero vector $v$ such that $Av=\lambda v$, then $0=A^3v=\lambda^3 v$. Since $v$ is not zero, it follows that $\lambda^3$ must be zero, so $\lambda=0$
Whoever:
@hollow finch
That's what the person put on the test but they lost points. Apparently they can also be complex? I mean I think the real part of the eigenvalues must all be zero, but idk.
I agree that at least all real eigenvectors must have eigenvalue zero I think...
Thinking in terms of the simplest matrix A can be similar to, wouldn't it have to be upper/lower triangular with zeros on all diagonal entries?
Oi I feel dumb rn
for my question, i still cannot reach the answer
nvm
wait, the inverse is still not the transpose
even though v1*v2 is 0
if youre referring to orthogonal matrices, then the columns must be normalized @hidden sable
whats not the identity when you multiply them
if youre getting things off the diagonal your columns are not orthogonal, and if the diagonal is not 1s then your columns are not normalized
the diagonal has to be 1?
$(A^TA){ii}=(AA^T){ii}=1$
nix:
because its the identity
I understand that
for this matrix, i just cant seem to find the orthogonal matrix
I have to reduce it?
?
Find the matrix which orthogonally diagonalizes it?
QΛQ^T
What are the eigenvalues/eigenvectors
Eigenvalue = +$\sqrt2 -\sqrt 2$
bladexyz17:
ew
sqrt 2 and negative square root 2
but go on
lol
eigenvalues = [-(sqrt2) + 1, 1], [ (sqrt2) + 1, 1]
$[-(\sqrt2) + 1, 1], [ (\sqrt2) + 1, 1]$
bladexyz17:
And those are orthogonal so yeah thats right
The reason I said ew was because I knew the eigenvectors would be a bitch to normalize
The magnitude for the first is 4-2sqrt2 and the second is 4+2sqrt2
So what are your normalized eigenvectors
$[\frac{\sqrt{2}+1},{\sqrt{4+2\sqrt{2}}}]$
bladexyz17:
uhhh
no comma between
$[\frac{\sqrt{2}+1}{\sqrt{4+2\sqrt{2}}}]$
$[\frac{\sqrt{2}+1}{\sqrt{4+2\sqrt{2}}}]$
bladexyz17:
$\frac{-\sqrt{2}+1}{\sqrt{4-2\sqrt{2}}},\frac{1}{\sqrt{4-2\sqrt{2}}}]$
bladexyz17:
Good
?
$Q=\begin{bmatrix}\frac{\sqrt{2}+1}{\sqrt{4+2\sqrt{2}}}&\frac{-\sqrt{2}+1}{\sqrt{4-2\sqrt{2}}} \
\frac{1}{\sqrt{4+2\sqrt{2}}} & \frac{1}{\sqrt{4-2\sqrt{2}}}]\end{bmatrix}$
oh god wtf
yea
nix:
Just another question
Is the diagonalization of a symmetic matrix always orthogonal?
It can always be made orthogonal. If you have multiple eigenvectors for a single eigenvalue you need to make them mutually orthogonal to get an orthogonal matrix of eigenvectors. But yes, the eigenvectors from different eigenspaces are always orthogonal for symmetric matrices.
ok thank you
Yus
An invertible matrix is an iso between spaces
And all isos have an invertible matrix
someone lost points on a test for saying that all eigenvalues of a matrix A where A^3=0 must be zero. Supposedly, there can be complex eigenvalues, but i cant see how.
do you know the size of the matrix?
yeah thats what i thought. but the professor said otherwise. im going to email him because i really cant see how it can have a nonzero eigenvalue.
Just send him a proof
$A^3v=\lambda^3 v$
$0=\lambda^3 v$
Therefore $\lambda=0$ since $v$ is an eigenvector which implies $v\neq 0$
nix:
There are matrices such that A^3 = 0, but A is not 0
That was my thinking
for example $\begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix}$
Zopherus:
yeah that's the right idea
Are all nilpotent matrices similar to an upper triangular matrix which has all zero diagonal entries?
Yeah, that should be true
Yeah then the characteristic equation will just be t^n=0 and all roots will be zero. im wondering if im missing part of the question or something.
all that seems right
Hm I seem to remember as well that theres some theorem that states that a plugging in a matrix to its characteristic polynomial also gives the zero matrix. Are there conditions that make this unique? As in, say A is 3x3, are there two or more distinct 3rd degree polynomials such that p(A)=0?
It's called the Cayley-Hamilton theorem
and there could be multiply polynomials yes, even if you require the polynomial to be monic
That's right. Thank you very much for the help @sonic osprey 🙂
For isomorphic the kernel does need to be 0, and onto. the thm requires T to be one to one and onto to be isomorphic
to prove isomorphic if in the format T(v)=Av why not prove A is invertible ? if A^-1 is true the transformation is isomorphic. Basically if det(A)=/=0 then T(v)=Av is isomorphic
I think it is much easier to just prove A invertible, I used that to prove isomorphism
there are three conditions, if one is true the rest are true
By proving condition 3. Condition 2 and 1 are true
Not sure if your professor would like you to solve this way. You first learn to prove one to one and onto then you learn of this thm
I would try an example with finding one to one and onto with an invertible A
you will see how using an invertible matrix always yields the same results
"invertible" and "one to one & onto" are
literally the same thing
this isnt unique to linear operators either
any bijective function is invertible, and vice versa
yes sorry I bad at explaining
see theorems 1 and 2 here http://math.colorado.edu/~kstange/has-inverse-is-bijective.pdf
👑
so yes, if you know a linear function is invertible (or, equivalently, you know it has an invertible matrix representation)
you know it's one-to-one and onto
as for where "isomorphisms" come from out of this
the idea behind an isomorphism is it lets us say "two structures behave the same"
this means that the isomorphism should preserve the space's structure (i.e. be a homomorphism), but moreover
that we should be able to use it to "go between" the two vector spaces
and indeed to "go back"
hence, it makes sense to ask for isomorphisms to be invertible
if two things are "the same", we should be able to convert between them in both directions
for 21 I get Range(T)=[-1/4;1/4;1]. The textbook's format is Range(T)= [4a,4b,a-b]. I cant seem to find what I do wrong
RREF(A)=[1 0 1/4;0 1 -1/4]
Letting x3=s I get my answer s[-1/4;1/4;1]
Hi, I have an exercise to show the equivalence relation of f ~ g <=> f(3) = g(3) in the set of all functions from R to R.
Is proving the symmetry here trivial or am I missing something? f(3) = g(3) => g(3) = f(3)
all three properties are pretty trivial to prove
since they boil down to the same properties of equality
Yeah I mean it's obvious that if f(3) = g(3) then g(3) = f(3) is the same thing. So I don't understand what they expect me to write down
"real number equality is an equivalence relation, therefore..."
that's what i'd say, at least
Okay thanks
Just wondered because I often assume things are trivial but then they are not at all
i'm guessing that this funky tilde is just their definition of their relation
like
:<=> is "is by definition equivalent to"
oh I see
by the way is it a mistake to mix those up?
or are they just a tool to show intent
they're a tool to show intent
I must be missing something.. Proving that it's an equivalence relation boils down again to just saying "real number equality is an equivalence relation, therefore..." right?
this is weird
why?
this is kinda supposed to happen if your equivalence relation is defined in terms of "=" for real numbers
because doing the same thing twice for seperate exercises seems weird to me. Anyway xD
a quotient of a set is defined with modulo, and it basically is just a subset of that set? Is that correct?
@wintry steppe most of what you said is sorta incomprehensible. if you're taking your answer directly from RREF(A) then something definitely went wrong. at most you can use RREF to find the dimension of range(T), or count off the pivots of RREF(A) to determine which and how many of A's columns can be used to build a basis for range(T)
also the question doesn't seem to ask for much so really you can just say range(T)=span{(5,1,1),(-3,1,-1)} and be done
@autumn kraken i assume you didn't cover enough content yet to do interesting examples of equivalence relations, so your prof just wants you to get a feel by doing a few trivial calculations
for your question you would have to tell me what you mean by quotient of a set and by modulo
@gray dust thank you !
@subtle walrus for example Z/~ which we call "Z modulo ~"
or Z/n
I know this would give the remainder if you did this on two simple numbers
i think you mean the correct thing
an element of Z/~ is a subset of Z that contains all equivalent elements(by that equivalence relation)
thanks
Is this correct? I'm pretty sure the only eigenvalues are zero.
seems ok to me
So there are complex eigenvalues? @dusky epoch
no
well we know e1 is going to be one
i mean can you see what both eigenvalues have to be by inspection?
6 and 4
[1/2,1],[1,0]
What is e1?
@hollow finch
Is there a generalized eigenvector for this matrix?
$e_i$ is a vector with all zeros except the $i$th row has a 1
nix:
<@&286206848099549185>
Not too sure about that symbol
@hidden sable what do you mean generalized eigenvectors?
Are you asking what they are?
it is in the null space of (A-lambda(I))^2 and is orthogonal to the eigenvector of (A-lambda(I))
I am asking how to find the generalized eigenvector for this matrix
I thought that a matrix had to be defective in order to find the generalized eigenvector, but this matrix is not defective
$W^\perp$ denotes the orthogonal complement of $W$, which is the set of vectors that are orthogonal to the vectors in $W$
RokettoJanpu:
@gloomy arrow
How do you calculate the span of a set of vectors?
And by that I mean
Like
The space it spans
what do you expect the result to be?
like it's usually a set of infinitely many vectors, so
Usually there's no great way to express the space
The span itself is the way we normally express it
@pale shell Yes, you would express it as a sum. So, let $B = (v_1,v_2,\ldots,v_n)$ be a list of vectors. Then, the linear span of these vectors is the following set:
$L(B) = {v= \sum_{k=1}^{n} \alpha_k v_k | \alpha_k \in \mathbb{F} }$
Abhijeet Vats:
The above is a linear combination of the vectors in B
a matrix is bijective
if you mean "the linear map the matrix represents"
then yes
the linear map is bijective iff the matrix is invertible
because every matrix has a unique inverse
i'm not sure what the "because" is implying here though
[also, only invertible matrices have a unique inverse - noninvertible matrices don't have any inverse - but i'd assume that's just weird wording]
"i am not a dog, therefore i am a human"
it is true that I am not a dog, and it is also true that, if I were a dog, I would not be a human
it is not true, however, that I am a human because I am not a dog
indeed, it would be possible for me to be, say, a cat if that's all the information you know
just because nonunique inverses would imply not injective does not mean that the matrix is injective because of unique inverses
you're affirming the consequent
the proof is a bit more sophisticated
generally the proof strategy is
bijective linear function <=> invertible linear function <=> invertible matrix representation
proving a bijective function is invertible (and vice versa) is very standard, there's a bunch of proofs online
and proving that a linear function is invertible iff its matrix is is done here https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2294040/1-1-correspondence-between-texthom-k-u-v-to-set-of-all-m-times-n-matri
[implicitly]
not only if
er wait
nvm misinterpeted that sentence, yeah thats correct
assuming you've proven surjectivity in the first place
well, if it's invertible then it cant be noninjective
that's the whole point here
"bijective" and "invertible" are
literally the same thing
and if there exists an invertible (AKA bijective) map between two spaces, then that map is an isomorphism
Why are the possible eigenvalues for an orthogonal and symmetric matrix only 1 and -1?
note that an orthogonal symmetric matrix is its own inverse
you should be able to prove it from this fact
since $Ax = \lambda x$ and therefore $A^{-1}Ax = A^{-1}\lambda x$ so $x = A\lambda x$
Namington:
hence $x = \lambda A x = \lambda^2 x$ (since $Ax = \lambda x$)
Namington:
rearranging gives $(1-\lambda^2)x = 0$
Namington:
so $\lambda\in {-1, 1}$
Namington:
alright thanks, the online explanation were so confusing
will a real symmetric matrix ever have an eigenvalue with algebraic multiplicity greater than geometric multiplicity?
So I have a question where
A is an n×n matrix such that A^4=In and M = A^3+A^2+A+In
It wants me to show that if |M| does not equal zero, show that A=In
I know that I should multiply M by A, look at the results and use the inverse of A
But can someone explain how that's done ?
I did that but still no idea
Or am I supposed to.use a different way ?
@tranquil trail forget they are matrices for a second. If I gave you 2 vectors u,v in 4D and said W= span(u,v) would you know how to find a basis for $W^\perp$ ?
Timon:
jkonyan:
It's called the orthogonal complement
$W^\perp$ is the set of all vectors which are orthogonal to every vector in W
Timon:
What would a 1x3 matrix mean geometrically as a transformation
@pale shell projection of a 3d vector onto a 1D subspace (a line)
@tranquil trail in other words for every $w\in W$ and and $q\in W^\perp,;; (w, q) = 0$
Timon:
where (w,q) is the bi-linear form in this case $\mathrm {Tr}(B^TA) $
Timon:
How do I find a generalized eigenvector of a matrix?
in JCF, the power in the min poly determines the largest sub-block size, but say you char poly is (x-9)^2(x-7)^3, then what happens if your min poly is (x-9)?
does that mean that in JCF the block for 7 is 0?
your minpoly cannot be (x-9) for a matrix with an eigenvalue of 7
I see, so if our char poly is (x-$\lambda_1)^n_1 (x-$\lambda_2)^n_2....$ then our min poly has to be at least contain each factor once?
I forgot the formula for determining the linear dependence of a matrix given the dimensions
for n x m, doesn't m > n indicate that the columns must be independent?
if there are more columns, than rows then there must be linearly dependant columns
same thing for rows
the coefficients of a polynomial are uniquely determined by the polynomial.
Can anyone phrase that in a different way im kinda confused as to what that means
this is coming from Linear Algebra the Right Way so i can put it some where else if need be
I need help with this one I don't understand what formula to use
this is not linear algebra
#prealg-and-algebra would be a better fit
@ocean sequoia basically, there's only one "set of coefficients" for each polynomial
if you have a polynomial and you know how it behaves, you know how to write its coefficients
it's impossible for, say, 5x^3 + 2x to be the same polynomial as 6x^4 - x^3 + 2x^2
or whatever
in other words, "polynomials are uniquely determined"
👍
another question: would det(A^5)=32?
Can a linear transformation which is injective be invertible (or have an inverse transformation) if its not surjective?
no
you can make a new function that "corrects" the codomain to the range
[i.e. force it to be surjective]
in fact, this isnt unique to linear transformations
a function is invertible if and only if it is bijective (injective and surjective)
"invertible" and "bijective" are literally the same thing
@limber sierra Could you theoretically define a pseudo inverse?
$T: V \to W$
$T^{-1}: \text{Range}(T) \to V$
nix:
With the condition that T is injective
dont call it a pseudoinverse, that term is "reserved"
but sure
in that case you're just defining an inverse for the function $T^*\colon V \to \text{Range}(T)$ though
Namington:
i.e. the function i mentioned that "corrects" the codomain to the range
as far as T^{-1}'s relation to T
let me use f and g here actually for simplicity
suppose $f\colon V\to W$ is injective and we want to define an ``inverse-like object" $g\colon \text{Range}(f)\to V$
Namington:
then $g$ would be a left inverse of $f$, in the sense that $g \circ f = \text{id}$ the identity function
Namington:
but there's no way to make a right-inverse of f unless it's surjective
[in which case g would just be an inverse]
this is captured more generally by the theory of monomorphisms and epimorphisms
and more broadly by elementary category theory as a whole
[though the terminology doesnt quite coincide; it's possible for a monomorphism to not be left-invertible, but it is in "nice enough" contexts]
[but left-invertible functions are always monomorphisms, and therefore injective functions are always monomorphisms]
Can we say:
:Since we have a 3x3 matrix, and λ=1 is the only value that is more than 0and less than or equal to 3, then 1 is the possible dim of eigenspace."?
ooooh, is that from gallian?
my hardbound copy is at my other house, which i can't get 😢
@limber sierra Thank you for the very thorough answer. So if I'm understanding right, essentially sometimes we can find a right/left inverse but not necessarily both
unless it's bijective?
I'm looking at the values for λ. and 1 is the only positive value that is not more than 3. that's how I got to that conclusion. Is that a right approach?
uh
what if your polynomial was (λ-10)(λ-20)(λ-30) instead?
what would the same reasoning have led you to?
then my n = 3.
what's n?
meaning Ann.
what?
the size of the matrix is 3 in either case, but that's not what i was talking about.
@cold topaz The degree of the C.P. is 3 so it's a 3x3. Every eigenvalue has at least one eigenvector, and at most the multiplicity of its root in the C.P. So what is the multiplicity of each root?
also there is no sense in looking at eigenvectors for a nonsquare matrix. that just doesn't make any sense. how do you stay on your span in a different dimension
nor can you even evaluate the determinant
from my textbook
yeah but what you said is distorted to the point where your reasoning was impossible to follow
thats based on the multiplicity not the eigenvalue
tbh thats pretty shitty and confusing to have your eigenvalues be exactly the same as their multiplicity. no wonder youre having trouble lol
this is not one of those issues
i mean
ok yeah no that example was bad
but the wording is fine
if the C.P. was $(\lambda-3)^1 (\lambda+1)^2$ then the dimension of the eigenspace for $\lambda=3$ is at most 1 because its $(\lambda-3)^1$, and the dimension of the eigenspace for $\lambda=-1$ is at most 2 because its $(\lambda+1)^2$
nix:
so the power is the hint?
we also know each eigenspace has a dimension of at least 1. so we definitely have an eigenvector for each. whether or not -1 has a second eigenvector is not guaranteed.
the power is everything in terms of the dimension of the eigenspace
the number of eigenvectors you get for a given eigenvalue has nothing to do with the actual eigenvalue itself. only its multiplicity in the C.P.
dim(range) = 2 and dim(R^2) = 2
im confused on which value do we base n of rank(T)+Nullity(T)=n on isnt it R^n->R^m
or can you use the dimensions of m
rank + nullity = dimension of domain
ok I see now, much clearer answer than textbook
is I_{n} = I_{m} for an identity matrix ?
Well
if n≠m, then they're not even the same size
can you compare two matrices with different size?
Well
One of the first things you learn when learning matrix multiplication is that
AC=BC does not mean A=B
Where A,B,C are matrices
Well AC=BC doesn't imply A=B means that there are matrices A,B,C such that A≠B and AC=BC
It doesn't mean that AC=BC doesn't imply A=B is always false
But ok
i get the idea now i thought identity matrices do not need to have same number of rows and columns
but that is not the case
Well there is an identity matrix for each n
Hey, I'm a little confused. When I first encountered the determinant, it was defined as a mapping from $\mathbb{R}^{n\cross n}$ to $\mathbb{R}$. Under this definition, non-invertible matrices simply have zero determinant. However, in group theory I came across the definition det: $GL_n(\mathbb{R})\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^*$. The determinant isn't a group homomorphism under the first definiton, right? Then why is the determinant usually referred to as one without mentioning the domain and codomain that we choose? Also, under the second definition, what happens when we have a non-invertible matrix, i.e. one that is not an element of $GL_n(\mathbb{R})$? Do we just not consider them? But if so, then why define it this way, considering that we often have to deal with non-invertible matrices?
Paddy:
I mean it can’t be a group homomorphism in the first case simply because $\R^{n \times n}$ is not a group under matrix multiplication
Sascha Baer:
(it is a ring where matrix multiplication is the ring multiplication, but that is not useful here since det does not respect addition)
I guess the sensible way to think about it is:
\begin{itemize}
\item det is a mulitlinear map $(\R^n)^n \to \R$
\item restricted to invertible matrices, it is also a group homomorphism between $(\mathrm{GL_n}, \cdot)$ and $(\R^*, \cdot)$.
\end{itemize}
Sascha Baer:
Oh, I see! So there aren't two separate definitions - the domain and codomain restrictions are just used to be able to use/study the properties of groups. That's where I got confused. Thanks!
Ping if anyone can help me do this transformation! 🙏🙏
Basically rotate the coord. Sys. In pic to match regular one, using Householder and angle rotation!
which question a or b ?
@void minnow
we've done the proof to the same problem in my uni today
have u tried to do it on your own yet ?
both of them
yeah, i've been pretty much looking at it trying to like do anything for the past two hours now
absolutely no clue to it :c
what do u think those $(a_i)$ represent?
Nabil:
I mean it should be obvious looking at the linear combination
if u understood that I think it should be clear how to construct the proof
ai is the i-th column of the matrix A?
yes
but i don't see how could that help @severe magnet
in the exercise we've done we didn't take the same approach
they gave us the solution form
and they told us to prove it's that one
which is this form
well what I wanted to get at was something else
have u done linear transformations?
that proof is basically showing that every linear transformation can be represented by matrix multiplication (speaking of finite vector spaces)
u can start by showing that Ae_1 = a1e_1 right
then u know that every vector x can be written as a linear combination of basis vectors e_i in V
since th elinear combination is unique
u can use that to show that the linear combinations of the columns is unique proving (a)
can i ask you a quick question real quick ?
alright
they want u to show that every linear system is a affine subspace of a homgenous linear system + x_o right
hm quite odd that u have done linear systems without having defined linear maps
since there is a theorem u can use to prove this
i can send u a pic of the proof
i don't really get it
or do you have a source on the internet
?
can i send you the proof and u tell me if this proof uses linear transfomations ?
sure
becquse i m hqving the course in german
i am german
haha nice
this is the first part
and this is the second
the Aufgabestellung
i forgot about it
one second
what exactly confuses you tehre?
Kasadraf:
alright so x_0 is the solution corresponding to the linear system Ax_0 = b
for b as a non zero vector
well the solution to that specific system
that is
v is the solution to the homgenous system
think about it this way
a linear system is Ax=b whereas x is the solution to the linear system
which is denoted here by x_0
nothing more
oh thanks i see now how that works
no problem
once u introduce linear transformations it should be clear why this holds
oh ok thanks again
anytime
So my geometric argument for part a would be that P1x+P2x us just writing x as the sum of orthogonal vectors, which is always possible. But I'm struggling to come up with a concise proof of it. The one I came up with wasn't very convincing imo.
$(P_1+P_2)q_1=q_1q_1^Tq_1+q_2q_2^Tq_1=q_1$
$(P_1+P_2)q_2=q_1q_1^Tq_2+q_2q_2^Tq_2=q_2$
nix:
So the sum has two independent eigenvectors of eigenvalue 1
Which I'm pretty sure can only be the identity for a 2x2
But I dislike that reasoning
If anyone could nudge me in a better direction, I'd appreciate it
<@&286206848099549185>
yo anyone has a second?
tiny doubt
Let W be the vector space of all polynomials in t. Moreover, for each k ≥ 1,
let fk(t) = 1 + t + · · · + t_k.
For any n ≥ 1, let Hn be the subspace of W spanned by the polynomials f1(t), f2(t), · · · , fn(t), i.e., Hn = Span{f1(t), f2(t), · · · , fn(t)}. Find the dimension of Hn.
do I have to prove that f1(t), f2(t) ... fn(t) are linearly independent?
You don't necessarily need to prove that they're linearly independent
You can do it that way but it's obviously not the only way
But if you prove that they're linearly independent then you're basically done
since f1t is [1,0,0,...], f2t is [1,1,0,0,...], so on till fnt is [1,1,1,1,...,1]. This makes them linearly independent right @pallid rampart?
Well you need to prove that those are linearly independent
anyone who has a helping hand proving this?
if I use G on both sides I would get $G(w) = \sum_{i=1}^k \alpha_i G(v_i)$ and would need to show that the vectors on the right side span the eigenspace of G
Nabil:
that's the only attempt I have
<@&286206848099549185> anyone who can help?
its a good attempt to always start with a linear combination
when talking linear independence
What is the difference between a columnvector and a rowvector. I always thought that only the columns of a matrix represent the vectors.
@real plaza actually thats what made me confused even more. So the columns of a matrix dont always represent the vectors ?
Ahhhhh
So its a matter of interpretation, you could also consider your rows as the vectors or the columns
@real plaza dont mind my question, I was gonna delete it xd
well linear dependence means that there is a nontrivial linear combination a_1v_1+....+a_nv_n=0 right
what is the name of such a matrix ?
Ok but that 4th variable isn't like the other 3
well I said linear dependence means there is a nontrivial solution meaning v_i != 0 and a_i!=0 to some extend
@wintry steppe yes
The other 3 are being multiplied by the 4th variable
a coefficient
you want to check whether u find a nontrivial solution to the linear combination
r is coefficient
Are the answers to these types of problems unique? Ignore about the part that says "using the Example x method..."
yes r is a coefficent
so how do i proceed ?
x y z aren't
well thats just a system of eqautions. its not even a matrix
if you want it to be a matrix you have to put it in matrix form
i know but like after doing that i need to solve the matrix according to the value of r
but i can't seem to find another apparent value of r rather than 0
r cant be 0
cuz youre multiplying every variable (x, y, z) with r
and if you multiply a variable with 0 u get 0
r is 1
and one of x, y, z is 1, while the other are 0
r is a real number it can take any value in R unless you mean when r is zero the matrix has no solution right ?
choosing r as 1 seems like a coincidence
i need to know how do i find these apparent values
i need to know how do i find these apparent values
anyone able to help please ? 
<@&286206848099549185>
if r = 0, then all the answers to the equations will be 0
ok what about every other possible value of R ?
for every other value of R thats not 1, you'll get an equation where r*(either x,y,or,z) equals a number greater than 1
@real plaza vectors in a linear combination are linear independent if the coefficients are 0 that's what u probably mean by only one solution (which is equivilent to what I said above)
well u should index them differently
two different eigenvalues corresponding to the eigenvectors
say x = 1, and y = z = 0
for the first equation, you need a value r, such that r*x + y + z = 1
what would your value of r be in this case?
r needs to be 1
exactly
now apply that to the 2nd and 3rd equations
x + r*y + z = 1; if r = 1, then you get 1 + 1(0) + 0 = ?
fill in the ?
yup
i know it works but i need to write a formal solution wait a sec i ll show you
look here
so this one obviously does not have any solution
for those fixed values of a
it's apparent
in the matrix i ve given it's not that clear what the values of r should be
if i could write it in a formal way or i reduce the matrix
it will be easier to see which values are possible for r
but thanks a lot anyway
shouldnt your matrix have 3 rows
no i just gave another example
um you want to check v and w for linear independence right?
might wanna edit that abit
a little thing to point out is also that you work with different eigenvalues
so rather $c_1 \lambda_1 v + c_2 \lambda_2 w = 0$
Nabil:
Kasadraf:
not sure what you mean, there are infinitely many solutions and that equation expresses them all
do you want, like, a basis for the solution space? where solutions are vectors of the form $\begin{pmatrix}x\y\z\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
Is this channel in use? I just want to have someone look at one of my answers on an already marked test I am 99% sure my prof marked it incorrectly but just don’t want to look stupid if I fight it and am wrong.
go ahead
Actually taking a second look it is definitely wrong how can t=6 give you infinite and no solutions
Whoops that’s does not =6
does the system have infinitely many solutions for t = 1?
er
let me rephrase
how many solutions does that system have for t = 1?
Sorry for interruption but can someone (eventually) help with this question. Let $V$ be the volume of the parallelepiped spanned by the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$ and let $V'$ be the volume of the parallelepiped spanned by the reciprocal basis $e^1,e^2,e^3$. Prove $VV' = 1$
Joshua S:
anyway, the point is paolo
you only addressed 3 possible values of t
0, 3, and 6
rather than, you know, all possible values of t
you are correct that there are only infinitely many solutions when t = 6
in every other case, there's no solutions
so your answer for no solutions should be $t \neq 6$
Namington:
is this a correct way of writing eigenvector using math language?
(λI - A) x = 0
my book has it the other way around.
both ways are correct
i just googled it and what i said came up first but either way is not wrong
https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/540211747613704221/707317121553793074/ajsdfbgliasjdhfoiasduf.PNG anyone here who could help me on this?
when λ= 1, -2, -2 , do we say the eigenvalues are 1, -2, -2, or just 1 and -2?
uh i think the first thing
somebody said the latter in a different server lol
U would say the latter
Eigenvalues span open corresponding eigenspaces which contain vectors depending on the eigenvalue
Vectors with the same eigenvalue are linearly dependent
What is a direct sum
Sorry for posting this again but I think it’s getting lost in the chat. Can someone help me with this question? Let $V$ be the volume of the parallelepiped spanned by the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$ and let $V'$ be the volume of the parallelepiped spanned by the reciprocal basis $e^1,e^2,e^3$. Prove $VV' = 1$
Joshua S:
If we know a 2x2 matrix has two eigenvectors with eigenvalue 1, does it have to be the identity? Does it change if we know it is symmetric?
I wasnt sure if being symmetric or not decides the question. I just need to figure out how to prove it now.
I think it decides the question, if I'm understanding correctly
would at^6 be in the subspace of P^6? I think it’s yes because it contains the 0 vector (t=0) and you can add and multiply and it would still be a 6th degree polynomial right?
@real plaza you should have (1 -1) as your first row
even still, you should have (1 -1) as your top row
because the first entry of the matrix should pretty much always be 1 if possible
in this case it's possible so you should make it (1 -1)
so your left with 1x -y = 0, which equals x - y = 0
so x = y
so your first eigenvector should be
[1
1]
@real plaza
it's [ 1 1] because when you reduce x and y, it becomes [1 1]
for example, if you set x = y = 6, you'll get [6 6]
but [6 6] can reduce into [1 1]
no that's not wrong
you can pick an arbitrary value but you have to reduce it after
so its just easier to choose [ 1 1]
it would but its a rule of thumb that when you can reduce, you should reduce
yo @wintry steppe would at^6 be in the subspace of P^6? I think it’s yes because it contains the 0 vector (t=0) and you can add and multiply and it would still be a 6th degree polynomial right?
i think thats correct
@meager bolt the proper way to phrase that question is "is the set S={at^6 | a is any scalar} a subspace of P_6?" yes it is but your reasoning doesn't support any of it. S contains the 0 vector because "a is any scalar" covers the case when a=0, giving the 0 polynomial, and so S is nonempty. you can easily show that the sum of any 2 vectors in S as well as any scalar multiple of a vector in S is of the form scalar*t^6 and therefore S is closed under addition & scalar multiplication. THEN you can say S is a subspace of P_6
So I'm supposed to be finding all values of d which make the matrix A positive definite. I know matrices are positive definite when their eigenvalues are also positive. The issue I'm running into is that I have this gross cubic equation. I think I might have to use the cubic discriminant... Can you guys think of any alternate route I could take
Did you learn about the relationship between the pivot elements and the positive definiteness of the matrix?
If I have two diagonisable, linear maps $F,G: V \to V$ with $F \circ G = G \circ F$ and pairwise distinct eigenvalues $\lambda_1,...,\lambda_k$ and $\mu_1,...,\mu_j$ and I've already proven that $F(\text{Eig}(G,\mu_j)) \subset \text{Eig}(G,\mu_j) $, what can I say about $F|_{\text{Eig }}:\text{Eig}(G,\mu_j) \to \text{Eig}(G,\mu_j)$ denoting the linear map restricted to the domain of all the eigenvectors of G with eigenvalue $\mu_j$? Can I say the map is injective/surjective?
Nabil:
since that would help for a proof alot
but I feel like it's too fast saying that considering we only have a subset relation
Without any more information, F could be zero on some eigenspace of G, so nah, neither injective nor surjective
e.g. V one-dimensional, F = 0 and G = id
hm damn ur right
quite hard to do the proof to the exercise but maybe I'm missing something
mainly this
<@&286206848099549185> maybe
Hello, my textbook asks "What does x^2 + y^2 + z^2 <= 3 represent?"
When I try to graph the equation in GeoGebra, nothing shows up, why is that ?
can geogebra graph 3d graphs?

