#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 87 of 1
nottt really i get what you mean
everything gets lost in what i said
when you do this for each entry, the effect is that the matrix's rows become its columns and its cols become its rows
oh so you can just swap either wta then
i think you have the gist, it's just you have a tendency to misconstrue some stuff i say and run really far with it
i never said swap position
Am i allowed to run /nick
the swap of position you refer to is the swapping of each entry's row position with its col position
if you swap the cols with the rows
then you are swapping the rows with the cols
but you switch the position
more specifically
oh
you are misunderstanding how transposing works i think
if you have to preface your question with "but" even though it doesn't make any counter to what i said, something's gone over your head
ooof
perhaps work through an example to get a better feel
yeah i should do that
no you move the entries
when you transpose, the entry in the (i,j) spot is sent to the (j,i) spot
@gray dust
Yes
both of you stop for a sec, earl just post a matrix you want to transpose
$\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$ Here try transposing this one
Abhijeet Vats:
Ok
Uhh
Is just becomes
Flipp
So is three ones down and same on the other
Okay so that whole row
Becomes a columb
So is
Veryicle
So then its not even a matrix
Its a vectis
it's a matrix
it's a matrix
it's a matrix
matrices sit around and do nothing
i guess you missed the defn of matrix
1st sentence of wiki page
It maps one dimensional vectors to n dimensional vectors
Isnt a very good surce
It's a fine matrix
i still think you should read the 1st sentence
no, i'll be stubborn too
Do you really not spellcheck yourself?
I mean
Dude are you trolling?
Wikipedia is a fine source for math
Ohhhh
ok sorry
I mean, i know you're not a troll
It's just that you should really spellcheck yourself so that you're saying shit that makes sense.
Ok sorry about
even with spellcheck, some of it doesn't make sense 
? American math?
Not lot of rescource in french
I didn't know something like that existed
In other countries they have resources for math
I think he means the information is in english
Like american textbooks
which makes it hard to understand
Why not just use french materials to learn?
Use bourbaki's textbooks, they're really good. 
earlten wikipedia is a good source of math also symbolab can be helpful if you want to see steps
wiki yes, symbo no
I am use khan academis
why is symbo bad
Thank
I'm only joking lol
Oh
Use Klaus Janich's Linear Algebra, i really like that book and I'm sure you'll enjoy it
Is ferench
Nope, german but it has an english translation
Yes, gilbert stank
I liked Strang
Sounds like good
I have a package for Tony Stank
Its like a very good oke
whats oke?
I don't like gilbert's strang book but it might work for you
Sounds like a very good one
Didn't really work for me
@ocean sequoia HAHA i remember that scene
😄
I am looking a lectur
who is
hmm
like great
There's a series of linear algebra lectures by Dr Aviv Censor from Technion. I found his lectures rather enlightening on many issues.
You can watch those. They're theoretically-oriented, though. So, you don't really get matrices and such thrown your way every lecture. He builds the subject up from vector spaces.
Well, there is computational material in there but it's limited to very basic stuff.
It's meant to be rigorous. That might be what you need
Because, as of right now, you seem to be struggling with formulating mathematical statements or questions, hence why jintarou has had to make many clarifications about the questions you ask. That course is likely to teach you how to ask questions properly or formulate statements properly.
Janich's book will help you do that as well and I suggest you use both of them in conjunction with each other.
and multiplying λ by x gives the SAME value that you would get by transforming x by A anyways
that is exactly what Ax = λx means
your explanation is correct
you are right
multiplication from the left by a matrix A is applying a linear transformation
multiplication by a scalar \lambda is however just scaling
first case is matrix vector multiplication, second is scalar vector multiplication we just use same notation for it
wait
its only scaling of this particular vector
or actually the subspace spanned by this vector
like, the standard example for this happening is an rotation in 3 dimensions around some axis
the axis of rotation will be an eigenvector with eigenvalue 1
do you have a globe at home?
basically spinning a globe
so yeah, as long as the axis of rotation goes through 0
it has to go through 0 just because of the fact that all linear transformations have to fix 0
(thats also the reason why you have to disallow the zero vector from qualifying as an eigenvector, because otherwise all scalars would be eigenvalues)
Can you use eigenvalues and eigenvectors as another way to solve a system of equations?
in what sense?
Like can I use it as an alternative in any way to rref
Idk if that is even a thing
But with the emphasis on eigenvalues I thought it would be another way to solve a system
I know you can use it in diff eq but I mean like a regular system of linear equations
Suppose A ∈ Mn×n, λ is an eigenvalue of A, and A2 = I. Prove that λ = ±1.
I've done some work and established some proofs but I don't know how to finish it
a^2 +bc = 1
bc + d^2 = 1
ab + bd = 0
ac+cd = 0
b = c
a = -d
ad - bc = -1
lambda^2 - (a+d)*lambda + (ad-bc) = lambda^2 - 1
hold up
i think i got it
a decent proof for this doesn't require playing with so many junk constants
Hello, can someone solve this ?
Not sure if I'm stupid
Or its actually hard
Kinda new to the linear algebra scene so ye
Ye I know how to find the inverse
Kinda new to the linear algebra scene so ye
You're not stupid, it gets easier over time
What's the trouble you're having?

to find the inverse, you need to first set up Matrix | A ones(3)|
What is 1/A^{-1} lul
If you have an n x n matrix A, then its inverse, if it does exist, is denoted by $A^{-1}$
Abhijeet Vats:
If you multiply A with its inverse, you must get the identity matrix back
So, do you know how to calculate the matrix inverse?
Don't think people emphasize this enough but learning it is necessary. If you have specific problems with the theory, you can come to us.
You're not as bad as you think
I study computer science for the programming part of it, but still gotta pass through some maths
Anyways, if you're approaching linear algebra by starting off with matrices, I would actually recommend looking at The Theory of Linear Spaces by Georgi Shilov. It begins with a wonderful treatment of determinants that makes sense and will teach you how to do the theory and compute as well.
I'll do my best, thanks again for your time
@wintry steppe i couldn't comprehend what you're saying but I figured it out
a = -d
b = c
d = sqrt(1-c^2)
if c = 2,
-sqrt(3)i 2
2 . sqrt(3)i
By any chance would u be willing to help me?
ok thanks
Can someone explain to me why a matrix needs to be full rank for it to be invertible?
there are a ton of ways to prove this
have you been exposed to elementary matrices and how they relate to row operations?
alternatively, have you been exposed to the determinant?
are you referring to things like gaussian elimination?
yes
yeah but I still don't quite fully understand determinant
alright i'll go with the first one
so, you can represent gaussian elimination as right-multiplication by "elementary matrices"
each operation in gaussian elimination corresponds to multiplication by an elementary matrix
if we have a square matrix that has a nonzero rank, that means we can eventually row reduce it to an RREF matrix that is not the identity matrix
i.e. that has a zero row
....
ok there we go
this means we can write $A = E_{1}E_{2}E_{3} \cdots E_{n}B$ where $B$ is our original matrix and $A$ is its RREF form
that's better
Namington:
ugh i really cant type today
wtf
anyway
E_1, E_2, ... E_n here are elemtnary matrices
now suppose B is invertible
that means there's a $B^{-1}$ such that $BB^{-1} = I$
Namington:
where I is the identity matrix
in that case we should be able to write
$AB^{-1} = E_1E_2\cdots E_n BB^{-1} = E_1E_2 \cdots E_n$
Namington:
so $AB^{-1}$ must be a product of elementary matrices
Namington:
that is to say, we should be able to row-reduce $AB^{-1}$ to get $I$
Namington:
but because we assumed that $B$ has unfull rank
Namington:
$A$ must have a zero row
Namington:
so the product $AB^{-1}$ must have a zero row
Namington:
which means it can't be reduced to the identity matrix
contradiction
so, $B$ is not invertible
Namington:
and thus our theorem is proven
yeah that makes sense
thank you!
Wait in the beginning didn't we assume that B was invertible, how are we allowed to assume that later on in the proof that B has an unfull rank? wouldn't the assumption contradict before we fully prove the theorem?
we assume B is invertible so we can contradict it later
nah mb I should have read more carefully
Hm I'd like to prove that $A$ has the same rank as $A^TA$ but I can't think of quite where to start. How exactly do you show rank?
nix:
Show that they have the same null space.
First start with the fact that if $x \in \mathcal{N}(A)$, then $x \in \mathcal{N}A^\top A$. To show that if $x \in \mathcal{N}A^\top A$, then we have that $A^\top A x = 0\implies x^\top A^\top A x = 0 \implies |Ax|_2^2 = 0$. We know that this implies that $Ax = 0$. Therefore $x \in \mathcal{N}(A)$.
Stephen James:
how would I find two vectors that are orthogonal to a given vector? and those two vectors have to be linearly independent
a vector is orthogonal to another vector if the dot product between your new vector and your given vector = 0
and a vector is linearly independent from another vector if it can't be defined as a linear combination of the other vectors
@spiral sonnet you can complete to a basis and do gram-schmidt
or well, complete to however many linearly independent vectors you need
How would you do this problem?
i think it has something to do with your matrix being rank-deficient.
since it's rank deficient, it's got a column that depends on another column
What about a 3x3 matrix in which it has row 1 being (1,0,0), row 2 being (0,1,0), and row 3 being (0,0,0)?
The rank is 2, and I don't think that it is linearly dependent on each other
every set containing the zero vector is trivially linearly dependent
Hmm ok
since you can change the coefficient of the zero vector arbitrarily and it doesnt change the linear combination
i..e you can always make it a nonzero coefficient
anyway, the approach to this sort of question depends on what you've already covered in class
perhaps the most elementary explanation is:
if a matrix is rank-deficient, then its corresponding system, when row reduced, will have free variables
we know it has at least one solution, so it can't be inconsistent
and you can adjust the free variables
of course, you need to justify why it has free variables
and what that actually means
So if b = [1,1,0], x can be [1,1,x] for any x?
i'm... not sure what you mean
Ax = b is a matrix equation representing a system of linear equations
A is the matrix representing the "left hand side" of the equations, x is the vector consisting of variables in the system, and b is the vector representing the "right hand side" of the equations
when we talk about "solutions" to the system, we're talking about values of x
So, is it the fact that x_3 can be anything, since it is a free variable, that the is not unique?
yes... you have less equations than variables
Ok
the key term here is "underdetermined"
So if the solution for x is multiplied by a scalar, is the original solution still "unique"?
So I'm given a vector [2, 6, 5]. I need to find two vectors that are orthogonal to it and lineraly independent. A vector is orthogonal to another vector if their dot product is 0. So I have 2x + 6y + 5z = 0. I solve for x and get x = -3y -5/2(z). I plug in an y and z, but apparently my vectors still aren't correct. I checked the dot product of the vector I got and the given vector and I get 0. Not sure what I'm doing wrong
So is a non-unique solution defined by when a element of it changes the other values continue to stay the same?
no... a nonunique solution is just a different set of values for the variables
for example, consider the system:
x + y + z = 0
x + 2y = 4
this has multiple (indeed infinitely many) solutions, such as:
x = 0, y = 2, z = -2
x = 2, y = 1, z = -3
x = 4, y = 0, z = -4
and so on
meanwhile, the system:
x + y = 0
x + 2y = 4
would only have one solution, namely:
x = -4, y = 4
@spiral sonnet one of your vectors can be [6,-2,0] and the other one can be [8, -3, -2]
So if there is only one solution to a system, then it is unique? While if there is multiple, it is not unique?
Ok, I thought that unique meant that there are multiple solutions to the system, where as the values of the variables differ
i think the solution is not unique (if a solution exists) because you have two columns (vectors) that are dependent on one another
So if a column is the zero vector, it is automatically dependent because you can multiply any vector by 0 to get it?
Is that correct?
Any set that contains the zero vector is linearly dependent, yes
row vectors are just the transpose of column vectors and vice versa, so both can be dependent
A set of vectors are linearly dependent if you can make any one out of a linear combination of the others
Is the set of eigenvectors for a nxn matrix necessarily independent?
yah
wait why? I would assume no because if the matrix has two non distinct eigenvalue then it would have two of the same eigenvector which could result in linear dependence if one of the element is 0
ah, then in that case i think you're right; it would be no
i hadn't thought of that. my bad
yeah but I'm still not sure
that is indeed not the case
you should be able to find a counterexample
as mentioned, it holds if all the eigenvalues are distinct
but nondistinct eigenvalues may have dependent eigenvectors
alright cool thanks
So I'm given vectors w1, w2 and v. The set {w1, w2} is an orthogonal basis of a subspace W = span(w1, w2) of R^3. How can I find a vector u that is orthogonal to W and v - u is in W?
the projection of v onto W lies in W, and v - that projection is orthogonal to W.
Okay yeah I just figured it was the projection haha
Can somebody explain the Zassenhaus algorithm to me
i found an example of its use on the wikipedia page https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zassenhaus_algorithm
Zassenhaus algorithm
In mathematics, the Zassenhaus algorithm
is a method to calculate a basis for the intersection and sum of two subspaces of a vector space.
It is named after Hans Zassenhaus, but no publication of this algorithm by him is known. It is used in computer algebra systems.
but i dont follow the steps
how did they just decide on the 4x8 matrix there, and what is going on with the 0 vectors on the bottom right entries
In mathematics, the Zassenhaus algorithm
is a method to calculate a basis for the intersection and sum of two subspaces of a vector space.
It is named after Hans Zassenhaus, but no publication of this algorithm by him is known. It is used in computer algebra systems.
they describe the algorithm in the "algorithm" section
it calls for creating this matrix
where the notation is defined here
my bad, thanks 🙂
this colour coding might help
got it, i was just confused by the zeroes as i didnt see where they were coming from.
thats a super useful algorithm
yeah they're just fixed
Anyone got an idea of how to do this?
I'm not confident with basis so don't know what to do
I think the last one is e
plug in the standard basis vectors of R^3 and u'll see 1 is d, 2 is c, 3 is b and 4 is e
@wintry steppe Do you still need help with that question
yea
If $S$ has full rank, it is clear that $S = I$. There are two cases that we have to check. If it has a rank of $0$, then it is clear that $S = 0$. If $S$ has a rank of 1 and ${v_1, v_2}$ is the basis for the domain, we have that either $S(v_1) = \alpha v_1$ and $S(v_2) = 0$ or the other case. If it is the first case, we are done because we can just choose ${\alpha v_1, v_2}$ as our basis, but if its the other case, then we can just choose the basis ${\alpha v_2, v_1}$.
Stephen James:
I understand most of it, but why is it clear that S = I if S is full rank?
how do you show that
Can I do this?
S(a) = S^2(a) so S(Sa-a) = 0, but since ker(S) = {0}, it must be Sa = a, and so S = I
Excuse me?
Can someone help me with slope intercept form
it's been pretty easy for me but there's like 5 questions that I Just don't get
@plucky hull this is the wrong channel for that. ask #prealg-and-algebra
different thing
Nah, people make this mistake all of the time. linear algebra is the study of vector spaces and the linear maps between them (think matrices). So yeah
Can someone help me with this, I am struggling so much
With this problem
I broke it into 3 cases, but I couldn't think of a way to create a basis if rank(S) = 1
I tried to use S(Sa-a) = 0 for all a in R^2, but can't find anything interesting
oh i figured it out
any idea to do b) better
i just used matrix multiplication
wondering if theres better way
Hello, this is the first time I post here, pleased to meet you all, I wanted to know whether a question about linear algebra should be asked here or in one of the question rooms

Thank you, I'll write my question and then post some references, wait!
If I have an operator over a complex vector space, with finite dimension, I know, because of the result in the image, that I can always find a basis with respect to which its matrix is upper-triangular. I also know that this isn't always the case for operators over real vector spaces. So my question is: if I have an operator A over a real vector space V with dimension at least 3, that has only one real eigenvalue, whose corresponding eigenspace has dimension 1, can I find a basis that makes A triangular?
Or in another way, can I find other 2 vectors that are linearly indipendent and whose span is A-invariant, in the situation I stated above?
Images from "Linear algebra done right" by Sheldon Axler
My doubts come from this operator/matrix that has, correct me if I'm wrong, one real eigenvalue 1 and its eigenspace is span{(1,0,0)}
no you're correct
From what I understood, if I had an eigenvalue with eigenspace of dim 2 or two eigenvalues with eigenspaces dim 1 respectively, I could just complete a basis of R^3 with a vector that is linearly indipendent to the other two and have a basis for an upper-triangular matrix
But in this case, if I randomly complete a basis, with first vector (1,0,0), I don't necessarily get an upper-triangular matrix, just by taking the standard basis of R^3 I get D again, which, I forgot to say, is the matrix of an operator associated with the standard basis
That's where I'm stuck: should I immediately give up on finding a basis as soon as I see that the real eigenvalues are "not enough"?
can someone help me with finding the eigenvalues of this matrix? v1={0 0 1} v2={1 0 0} and v3={0 1 0}. Note: these are column vectors. I got the characteristic polynomial of (-lambda)^3 + 1 but I couldn't simplify it.
@river jasper use the sum of cubes
how do I show this?
just choose a basis
you can start by expressing an arbitrary $x\in\bR^n$ wrt whatever ordered basis, like $\brc{v_1,\dots,v_n}$, for $\bR^n$. there exist scalars $x_1,\dots,x_n$ where
$$x=x_1v_1+\dots x_nv_n$$
using the fact that $A$ is linear, show that $A(x)$ can be rewritten as a matrix-vector product
RokettoJanpu:
That's where I'm stuck: should I immediately give up on finding a basis as soon as I see that the real eigenvalues are "not enough"?
@lime granite Axler only means that it won't always work if the vector space is real. it might work for some matrices anyway
Hey guys I know I should show some thinking I did of my own, but I honestly don't know how to approach the question. Can someone give me a hint, on what I have to do ?
Thanks in advance!
@lime granite Axler only means that it won't always work if the vector space is real. it might work for some matrices anyway
@vital swallow I understand, but then at what point do I know that a particular matrix cannot be put into upper-triangular form, using only real eigenvalues in the process?
if it has only real eigenvalues, you can put the matrix into upper triangular form
the eigenvalues will end up lying on the diagonal if a matrix can be put into upper triangular form by a similarity transformation, so the eigenvalues would have to be real
Can anyone prove this theorem? The book just gives it but doesn’t give any proof that it is true
If I have a subspace U = <(1,1,0,0),[1,0,1,1]> and W = <[0,0,1,1],[0,1,1,0]. I
I've claculatred the basis of U+W to be <[1,0,0,0], [0,1,0,0],[0,0,1,0]> and the basis of their intersection to be [0,-1,-1,-1]
i did this using this algorithm: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zassenhaus_algorithm
In mathematics, the Zassenhaus algorithm
is a method to calculate a basis for the intersection and sum of two subspaces of a vector space.
It is named after Hans Zassenhaus, but no publication of this algorithm by him is known. It is used in computer algebra systems.
which then implies than the dimension of U+W is three, and U intersect W is 1
but in my answer key, it says that their dimensions are 4 and 0 since the basis of their intersection is the zero vector
not sure what im missing or what i did wrong, i can post a pic of the work i did if needed
posting it would help
I posted mine, just waiting for a response
The vector (0,1,-1,-1) is not in your subspace W
wdym the dimensions are 4 and 0 @placid oracle
I mean [0,1,-1,-1] is not in the span of [0,0,1,1] and [0,1,1,0]
the dimension of U+W is 4 and th edimension of U intersect W is 0 since its basis is the zero vector. Thats whats in my answer key
am i doing that algorithm wrong then? i dont see what im missing in the calculations
I have never used that algorithm, so I'm not going to try to follow the calculations. But I checked that what you gave as a basis for U \cap W is not in fact contained in W (though it is contained in U).
@vital swallow how would you set this up then
is "basis of U+W to be <[1,0,0,0], [0,1,0,0],[0,0,1,0]>" right at least
or did i get the whole thing wrong
I really don't know. sorry!
@wintry steppe ?
do you know how to set this problem up in a differeent way
<@&286206848099549185>
yes
and from there their dimensions, but thats pretty simple
@bitter saddle isnt that only if dim of their intersection is 0 => the basis of the their intersection is the zero vector
which i know to be true, but im not sure how to actually show that
@bitter saddle do youy know how to find the basis of their intersection, i think thats all i need an then i know how to figure the rest of the problem out
thats what i was doing actually
the second thing you said
whats the basis for U+W ?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/25371/how-to-find-basis-for-intersection-of-two-vector-spaces-in-mathbbrn does this help?
you have to make linear combinations of your given vectors equal 0
@wintry steppe yeah, for U int W, it clearly => that all constants in the equation for here have to be 0
which means the basis is just {0}
=> dimension is 0
whats confusing me is I've put both vectors in matrix form and using row reduction i found that every column has a pivot => the basis is the set of vectors [1,0,0,0], [0,1,0,0], [0,0,1,0], [0,0,0,1] this is for U+W
@wintry steppe does that part make sense?
maybe you didn't row reduce correctly
@wintry steppe i put it in a calculator, thats the row reduction
which would be the basis right?
whats wrong about that
that seems correct
How do I find the basis for which the matrix $\begin{matrix} 2& 0 & 0\ 0& 2 & 0\ -1& 1 & 2 \end{matrix}$ is in Jordan form?
Have a Banana Bitch:
find the eigenvalues, then the eigenvectors
if there aren't enough eigenvectors
find the generalized eigenvectors
and put all the eigenvectors and generalized eigenvectors as column vectors in a matrix
The eigenvalue is 2 w/ multiplicity 3. The eigenvectors are (1,1,0) and (0,0,1)
Since the only eigenvalue is 2, the 3rd generalized eigenvector is (0,1,0)
is this the required basis?
the eigenvalues will end up lying on the diagonal if a matrix can be put into upper triangular form by a similarity transformation, so the eigenvalues would have to be real
@vital swallow if the matrix has only one real eigenvalue with eigenspace of dim 1, and the vector space is R^3 (dim 3) I don't know how to find a basis to transform it into upper-triangular and whether such a basis exists in the first place, if it was always possible the theorem I posted above would be valid not only for complex vector spaces but for real ones too
@steady fiber is the list of the generalized eigenvectors the required basis
if it only has one real eigenvalue, it will not be upper triangular
I think we should also add the fact that the eigenspace of that single eigenvalue is of dimension 1, if we are talking of real vector spaces of dim > 2
With dim 1 it's not even necessary to do anything obviously
With dim 2 you complete a basis with another linearly indipendent vector and you're done
With dim=n, n>2, the eigenspace of that single vector has to be at least of dim=n-1 to easily complete a basis to make the matrix upper-triangular or maybe for the basis to exist at all
Or that's what I'm getting from all of this
@vital swallow thanks for the answers!
@vital swallow Think you can help me out with the jordan form problem?
Still, the best way to check is to find all the eigenvalues and as soon as you find a complex one you're done, that is, you can't do it
yep TitorP
For the Jordan form, you first find eigenvectors, then pseudoeigenvectors if necessary
yup
I have those
Eigenvectors: (1,1,0) and (0,0,1); Generalized eigenvectors: (0,1,0)
what do I do next?
just throw them all together into a matrix as the columns
Alright, thanks
I for the life of me cant figure this out... does anyone have a hint i could use
If it's not a subspace it must violate other axioms for a subspace
It has to contain the zero vector for it to closed under multiplication I believe so I cant go there
So i have to have it violate closed under addition
Yes
{(x,y) E R^2: x + y = 1} that wont work cause its not closed under scalar multiplication
Ok think about this visually
What does it mean for a subset in R^2 to be closed under multiplication
What does it mean visually
Yes
So if a point p is in the subset, then the line through the origin and p is also in the subset
But what if you have two different points
Yes
It's closed under scalar multiplication
yep thanks!
I was thinking of something more simple
Like $\brc{(x,0):x\in\bR}\cup\brc{(0,y):y\in\bR}$
Whoever:
what does ig mean?
i guess
sure
@pallid rampart do you have any idea on what to do with the problem i sent earlier?
so k=+-i?
For part b, the solution of a differential equation in the form of ${\bf x}'=A{\bf x}$ is ${\bf x}(t)=e^{At}x_0$ where ${\bf x}_0={\bf x}(0)$
Whoever:
where $e^{At}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{A^nt^n}{n!}=I+At+\frac{A^2t^2}{2!}+\frac{A^3t^3}{3!}+\cdots$
Whoever:
and use the fact that A^2=-I
To reduce the power series into the power series of familiar functions

Then it follows that $\lim_{t\to\infty}\frac{t!^t}{\text{Whoever}(t)}=0$
Whoever:
Yes
Keep in mind this is #linear-algebra

@keen reef
Since you pinged me personally
Try to simplify the summation
$I+At+\frac{A^2t^2}{2!}+\frac{A^3t^3}{3!}+\cdots=\br{I+A^2\frac{t^2}{2!}+A^4\frac{t^4}{4!}+A^6\frac{t^6}{6!}+\cdots}+\br{At+A^3\frac{t^3}{3!}+A^5\frac{t^5}{5!}+\cdots}=\br{I-I\frac{t^2}{2!}+I\frac{t^4}{4!}-\cdots}+\br{At-A\frac{t^3}{3!}+A\frac{t^5}{5!}+\cdots}$
Whoever:
@keen reef
Then obviously factor out A and I
and you get sin(t) and cos(t)
Then idk
Probably write A as [a,b;c,d]
and compute the limit explicitly
It's probably 0 I feel like
Any ideas on the second one? Thank you guys
ples, sorry for ping @pallid rampart
o damn ok, thank u for help on first one and so sorry for ping
I just learned about it since you brought it up, but I don't know how to solve the second one
ah ok, thank you!
Question 1
"Use calculus"
hmmm where should i post this question
#linear-algebra seems right!
the $(i,j)$ element of $A^k$ counts the number of paths of length exactly $k$ from vertex $i$ to vertex $j$.
Ann:
So then why do I have to sum every matrix and not just keep the A^k?
ive a really short question: Why is (f+g)(x) = f(x)+g(x)?
If it's not too much effort that would be great! @dusky epoch
@wintry steppe because that's how we define addition of functions
ic, thanks
@unique pewter alright so for the base case k=1
a 1-path is simply a single edge
and A is the adjacency matrix of your graph, so its (i,j) entry is 1 if there's an edge from i to j and 0 if there isn't
which can be looked at as counting the number of edges from i to j
makes sense?
Yeah so far
alright
now suppose we already know that $A^k$ counts the $k$-paths (in the sense that $(A^k)_{ij}$ is the number of $k$-paths from $i$ to $j$) and we wanna show that $A^{k+1}$ counts the $(k+1)$-paths in the same sense
Ann:
so how can we construct a (k+1)-path from i to j?
we can pick some arbitrary vertex which i'll call $m$, walk from $i$ to $m$ along a $k$-path (which gives $(A^k){im}$ options), and then go along the edge from $m$ to $j$ if it's present (which gives $A{mj}$ options)
Ann:
and we simply sum that for all m from 1 to...
...well however vertices there are in the graph, let's say it's N (so that A is an N by N matrix)
and so we get $(A^k){i1} A{1j} + (A^k){i2} A{2j} + \cdots + (A^k){iN} A{Nj}$
Ann:
which is the definition of the (i,j) entry of A^k * A
like straight up it comes down to the definition of matrix multiplication
and so our sum is $(A^{k+1})_{ij}$ as desired
Ann:
Gimme a sec to process the info
Probably stupid question but aren't we looking for the sum of all matrixes until A^k and not A^(k+1)?
ahh wait no.
$(A^k){i1} A{1j} + (A^k){i2} A{2j} + \cdots + (A^k){iN} A{Nj}$
Baroque:
this is basically it
_
anywayg
i'm specifically talking about the fact that A^k counts the paths of length exactly k.
if you want the paths of length at most k, you'll wanna add up A + A^2 + A^3 + ... + A^k
I don't get why we have to multiply the two A's together at the previous equation. I am sorry but can you dumb it down a bit further?
Like I get the summing part, but not how you formed the equation
IDK if this falls under this or some other channel, but in order to do a cross product, your vectors have to be in R^3, don't they?
the cross product is only defined on R^3
there's a certain sense where it can be viewed as a specific case of the composition of the hodge dual with the exterior product mapping V * V -> Lambda^2 V
but this generally isnt a helpful generalization.
imo the specific creation of cross product seems to be because of physics than math
absolutely
mathematically the cross product is a random thing from a fairly mundane vector space
but it's certainly quite useful in physics (and 3D computer engines and whatnot)
Thanks @dusky epoch I get it now. Your explanation helped a lot!!!
So I'm given a vector V = [2, 6, 5]. I need to find two vectors W1, W2 such that both W1 and W2 are orthogonal to V and w1 and w2 are linearly independent. I got [6, -2, 0] and [8, -3, -2], but apparently my answer is incorrect. Anyone know what I did wrong? I setup 2x + 6y + 5z = 0. Then solved for x and I plugged in numbers to get my two vectors
is it possible to write every element of $\mathrm{SL}_n\mathbb{R}$ as the product of 2 elements of $\mathrm{SL}_n\mathbb{R}$ having eigenvalue 1
Lochverstärker:
Hi, I've a question. In the topic of linear transformations, the dimension of a matrix is the numbers of elements it has?
no, a matrix has 2 dimensions
Always?
yes
Right, and in the case I've a vector like this:
((x, y)). The dimension now depends on the number of elements?
a vector lives in a vector space
for example that 2d vector could be in R^2
a 2 dimensional space
yeah
Thank you 🙂
How do I even start on part B
here's a hint: suppose v is an eigenvector of A with eigenvalue λ. show that v is also an eigenvector of A^-1. what must its eigenvalue be?
I have those, but I meant the Basis part
That is where I am utterly stumped
I can't even find eigenvectors
If I have a Matrix $T=V V^T$ with $V \in \mathbb{R}^{n\times m}$, is it possible to get a symmetric factorization $ LL^T = T$ with $L\in \mathbb{R}^{n\times n}$ in some way that leverages the existing factorization instead of just applying cholesky on $T$?
c3aa:
(with T being symmetric positive definite)
So I'm given a vector V = [2, 6, 5]. I need to find two vectors W1, W2 such that both W1 and W2 are orthogonal to V and w1 and w2 are linearly independent. I got [6, -2, 0] and [8, -3, -2], but apparently my answer is incorrect. Anyone know what I did wrong? I setup 2x + 6y + 5z = 0. Then solved for x and I plugged in numbers to get my two vectors
@spiral sonnet
If two vectors are orthogonal then their dot product will be zero
With that in mind, it's quick to check that [8,-3,-2] doesn't work
But something like [0, 5, -6] would
Prove that the interesction of two subspaces U1,U2 is also a subspace? I know how this works i think im just having some trouble expressing it mathematically and not in english... So because the points in the intersection belong to both U1 and U2 and those are subspaces those points must also exhibit the axioms of a subspace
just check each of the requirements
in order for a subset of a vector space to be a subspace, it must satisfy the following:
- It contains 0
- It is closed under vector addition
- It is closed under scalar multiplication
this is both necessary and sufficient
so go one-by-one
[Hint: Use the fact that, since U_1 and U_2 are subspaces, they are also closed under addition and multiplication]
Hm. it has to contain the zero vector because both U_2 and U_1 must contain the zero vector.
Which means the interesction must contain it as well.
Go on
I think im stuck on scalar addition f(x) + f(y) = 0 = f(x + y) where x, and y are in the intersection of U1 and U2?
that feels... wrong tho
You have to show that if $v,u \in U_1 \cap U_2$, then $v+u \in U_1 \cap U_2$.
Abhijeet Vats:
No. Why did you introduce a random f in there? We are not talking about linear transformations/functions.
The condition I stated above is what namington meant by 'closed under vector addition'
Of course you are. That's why you're putting in effort into understanding this. So, go ahead and prove that it is closed under addition.
Because U1 is a subspace then v + w must be an element of U1 and the same goes for U2 which thus means it must be in the interesction
I can probably make that more formal
Sure, but what makes you say that w is in U_1?
If v,w is an element of U1 intersection U2 and U1, U2 is a subspace they are closed under addition thus v+w is still in the U1 and U2 thus it is still in the intersection of U1 and U2
Shoot
Let $v,w \in U_1 \cap U_2$. Then what can you say about $v$ and $w$? Forget about $v+w$ for just a second.
Abhijeet Vats:
They belong to both U1 and U2
Yeap. So, $v \in U_1$ and $w \in U_1$. So, $v+w \in U_1$ and the same can be said for $U_2$. Hence, $v+w \in U_1 \cap U_2$.
Abhijeet Vats:
Ah thats what i was trying to say is that enough?
That second sentence where I wrote 'the same can be said for U_2' is basically another way of saying 'write the same thing down for U_2'.
and we know that v + w is in U1 because U1 is closed under addition right? Or no?
Yes.
You can include that as well. Generally speaking, there comes a point where you stop writing down details that explicitly. Since you're just starting out, you should just write all of them out.
Ok i will I appreicate the help thanks!
In the same way, you can prove that the intersection is closed under scalar multiplication. That proves that it is a subspace.
v E U1 so cv E U1 and v E U2 so cv E U2 thus v E U1 intersection U2 and cv E U1 intersection U2
I need to learn how to use the TeXit
No. You have to show that $c \in \mathbb{F}$ and $v \in U_1 \cap U_2$ implies that $cv \in U_1 \cap U_2$.
So, start with that and work your way through each step.
Abhijeet Vats:
I think im a bit confused. Since, U1 and U2 are subspaces that means that if v is an element of U1 and c is an element of F than cv is an element of U1 . Also if v is an element of U2 then cv is an element of U2. Doesnt that imply that cv is in the intersection?
Indeed, that's correct.
I need to be more explicit I cant "math language" what i mean
'math language'?
Symbols are just as much a part of math as anything else that you might use in your proof. You could write the entire proof in symbols or you could use English. It really doesn't matter so long as you're presenting your work properly.
Lul
In any case, let $c \in \mathbb{F}$ and $v \in U_1 \cap U_2$. So, $v \in U_1$ and $v \in U_2$. Since $U_1$ and U_2$ are subspaces, it follows that $cv \in U_1$ and $cv \in U_2$. Hence, $cv \in U_1 \cap U_2$.
Abhijeet Vats:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
That should be the way you present the argument. Since you're just starting out with this, you could make it even more detailed by writing out, explicitly, why cv has to belong to U1 and U2.
because U1 and U2 are closed under scalar multiplication. Im writing this down thank you.
You're welcome.
It should be noted that you don't actually have to check if 0 belongs to the subspace. If it is closed under scalar multiplication and vector addition and if you've proved that 0v = 0 for any vector v in the vector space, then any subset that is closed under scalar multiplication and vector addition must contain the 0 vector. It's just a condition placed in there for.........actually, i'm not quite sure why but oh well
@cursive narwhal its just to make sure its nonempty
you could technically check for the existence of any vector
but 0 is generally most convenient
I do remember a text I was reading where it stated that a subspace has to be non-empty anyways.
how do you practice linear algebra proofs? What are the fundamentals?
There are problem books on linear algebra available online, you can check them out. For example, Linear Algebra Problems Book by Ikramov has some nice problems. Each chapter focuses on problems related to a particular topic and the author summarizes what you need to know before attempting the problems.
It's not meant as an introduction to linear algebra, it's meant to supplement a linear algebra text that lacks problems.
@cold topaz
^I should also say that a lot of them are proof problems. There are relatively few computational problems. A lot of them go through the basic proofs you should've encountered in the main body of a linear algebra text. A lot of them go outside of those proofs so you'll have plenty to contend with.
is det(λI-A)=0 applicable to ALL matrices to find their eigenvalue?
it doesnt work on this one. right? because i get this for det: λ(λ^2 - 11λ + 39) + 3.
for matrix A ?
yes
it should work for that
i have tried to get its determinant different way and i end up with this all the time: λ(λ^2 - 11λ + 39) + 3.
your eigenvalues should be 3 (with a multiplicity of 2) and 5
the determinant is correct btw
If I want to find the projection of a vector b onto a column space a. Would I just do summation of the projection of b onto each column?
Nevermind! I think I got it!
nevermind I do not have it!
does this help
Why is ker(A) the set of all vectors orthogonal to the rows of A? Shouldn't it be the set of all vectors orthogonal to the columns of A?
Yes it should be set of all vectors orthogonal to the columns of A
why's that?
the way im intuitively thinking of it the kernel is orthogonal to the image of A
uh
the kernel and image live in different spaces
the kernel lives in the domain
the image lives in the codomain
@spare crystal This is just looking at the definition of orthogonality and matrix multiplication. Let A by an m by n matrix. So, Ker(A) is the set of n-dimensional vectors x such that Ax = 0, where 0 is the zero vector in m-space. So, take the i-th row of A and multiply that with this vector x that supposedly belongs in Ker(A). You can see that it just produces the i-th 0 in that zero vector. Now, you can just view this as the standard inner product on R^n so the inner product of the i-th row of A with x just gives 0. In other words (A_i,x) = 0 and so, they are orthogonal.
Let me know if I'm misinterpreting anything you've said.
Hi, I have a quick question that I want cleared up that I believe is pretty basic. If anyone could help a bit that would be great. I'm kind of confused about how matrices can be interpreted as linear transformations
What are you specifically confused about with regards to that?
I know how a vector can be interpreted as a linear transformation, but I have no idea how a matrix can
I have an example right here hold on
So here you can alter a through g to transform the icon on this graph
I know that c does horizontal transformations and f does vertical transformations but I have no idea how to interpret the rest
or why c and f do that
If you multiply the rows of the matrix by the vector [x,y,1], then you have the following equations relating x and y to x' and y':
ax+by+c = x'
dx+ey+f = y'
Geometrically, c does affect the value of x' after the transformation occurs. f does affect the value of y'. The other constants a,b,d,e also affect x' and y' in exactly the way described by the equations above.
oh so if I interpret the rows as equations, the variables are affecting x' and y' which do the transformations?
You do not interpret the rows as equations. The matrix is, indeed, transforming x and y into x' and y'.
Ultimately, this is going back to a more fundamental question about why matrices are multiplied to vectors in that specific way. Do you agree that that's the root cause of your confusion right now? I just want to make sure I'm understanding where you're confused.
oh so the x and y in the first vector are the coordinates of the icon before the transformation, and the x' and y' are the coordinates after?
and the matrix determines how it transforms
I think I was looking at everything from a different perspective than I should have
Yeap, the matrix controls that. So, depending on the entries in the matrix, the vector [x,y,1] transforms in a very particular way that is a consequence of how matrix multiplication with vectors is defined.
In any case, if you're concerned about why matrices can be 'interpreted' as linear maps, which was your original question, there is a very nice proof that shows that there is a bijection between the set of m by n matrices and set of linear maps between F^n and F^m. In other words, every linear map has a matrix associated with it and a matrix is always associated to some linear map. If you're interested, you can find a proof for this result. The proof of this that I have seen shows you exactly why matrix multiplication is defined in the way that it is and why you can 'interpret' a matrix as a linear map.
Anyways, if you didn't understand any of that, it's fine. It was just extra information directed towards the first question that you asked.
Thank you very much
You're welcome.
hey
i want someone to cofirm if i solved this question right ?
Here's a better pic
For a) my bottom row is (3, 2, 1)
Hmmm
from where did the I appear here?
https://www.slader.com/textbook/9781118879160-elementary-linear-algebra-applications-version-11th-edition/301/exercises/34/
@cursive narwhal ah, thank you, that makes sense!
Hmmm
So my steps are correct but the calculations are wrong
Well anywho, thanks man. I'll recheck it
ah np
You're welcome.
oh my god what is the name of hte set of linear functionals that map everything to 0
Kernel?
Uh, there's only one linear functional that maps everything to 0
I'll be taking Linear Algebra next year, is there a way to prepare before it?
Are you taking a proof course on LA or a computational course? Do you have a list of things you'll be covering in that course?
If $M=\begin{bmatrix}A&B\0&D\end{bmatrix}$ where $A,B,D$ are square matrices, how do I prove that $\det M=(\det A)(\det D)$
Whoever:
I can prove it using Leibniz's formula for determinant, the one with permutations
It's a proof course @cursive narwhal
But how do I prove that without using permutations?
Expansion by minors
my hunch would be inducting on the size of A, B, D
which seems like it really fucking sucks
probably a better way
maybe you could use the way determinants behave under row operations. There exists some invertible transformation E_A that reduces A to something triangular and some other transformation E_D that reduces D to something triangular, and we know how E_A and E_D affect the overall determinant. maybe thats not rigorous enough for you idk.
that's nicer but AFAIK those properties dont have nice proofs either from just the minors definition
besides inductive ones
i mean, in general, most things involving the minors definition will require induction to prove
so maybe thats unavoidable
I have this here
$\begin{bmatrix}A&B\0&D\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}I&0\0&D\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}A&B\0&I\end{bmatrix}$
Whoever:
I is identity
fIx a kxk matrix A and prove by induction that det([A B][O I]) = det(A)
similarly for [I O][O D]
the induction for this is much simpler because most minors are going to give 0 det
you can use a schur complement and invert blockwise
What is a pre hilbert space ?
a space with an inner product
it's often used in contrast to "hilbert space" which is a complete space with an inner product
you might know the term "inner product space", which is equivalent but is often used in a different "context"
in the sense that calling it a "prehilbert space" emphasizes that it can be completed to become a hilbert space
If you didn't understand this, you should go learn these things before trying to think about pre-hilbert spaces
I dont know what an inner product is
I do know what a dot product is but google says that the inner product is a generalisation of the dot product. What do they mean with “ generalization”
an inner product is a function < , > that takes two vectors as inputs and produces a scalar, satisfying the following for all x, y, z in the vector space and all real scalars a, b:
- <ax + by, z> = a<x,z> + b<y,z> (linearity in the first argument)
- <x,y> = <y,x> (symmetry)
- <x,x> >= 0 for all x, and <x,x> = 0 if and only if x = 0 (positive definiteness)
the dot product on R^n satisfies these axioms
it is a trivial matter to show that an inner product must be linear in its second argument despite that not being an axiom
this is the definition of a real inner product. the complex case is a bit different
Thanks, I only want to stick to the reeel case for now.
for example: $\ang{f, g} := \int_{-1}^1 f(x) g(x) \dd{x}$ defines an inner product on the space of real-valued continuous functions $[-1,1]$
Ann:
i invite you to show this yourself
So I'm given an eigenvector v which is an eigenvector of Matrix A. How can I find the corresponding eigenvalue?
Nevermind!
Does anyone know how they want me to show Symmetry and Transitivity? I wrote down the definitions but I don't know how I should explain or prove it.
the equivalence relation is defined in a way that all scalar multiples are equivalent, so $(a, a') \sim (b, b') \iff (b, b') = \lambda\cdot (a, a')$ for some $\lambda$
Lochverstärker:
wouldn't that only be true if lambda is 1 ?
no nevermind, sorry I mixed it up with reflexivity
$(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{4}) \sim (2, 1)$
Lochverstärker:
They want us to show Reflexivity, Symmetry and Transitivity seperately I think. This is like one of the earliest exercises
yes, its not hard
and there is not much more i can say without giving you the solution
I see, maybe that's the problem. I am overcomplicating it
((a, a') ~ (b, b') => (b, b') ~ (a, a'))
For symmetry I wrote this down because it's how it's defined, but I don't understand how or if I have to formally prove this.
Am I on the wrong track?
you did not show anything
yeah
"don't understand how or if i have to formally prove this" The question is asking you to prove it. There is a definition given for this relation so start by using that.
you start with $(a, a') \sim (b, b') \iff (b, b') = \lambda \cdot (a, a')$, and have to show that that also $(b, b') \sim (a, a')$, i.e. that there exists $\lambda_2$, such that $(a, a') = \lambda_2 \cdot (b, b')$
Lochverstärker:
I don't know how to do this in a general way quite often. For proving things for sets I say let x be any element of M and then go with that, but here I can't just prove it for 1 example right, it has to be in general
yes, hence why you let (a, a') and (b, b') be arbitrary elements of Q^2
i mean, this is just the same as the example you gave 🤔
you let (a, a') and (b, b') be any elements of Q^2, then further assume (a, a') ~ (b, b'), and (try to) show (b, b') ~ (a, a')
yeah
would it be sufficient to say that any element of Q\{0} can be represented as the quotient of two elements of Q\{0}?
In the problem above, you've been given that (a,a') ~ (b,b') so there exists an x such that x(a,a') = (b,b'). Now, you're asked to show that (b,b') ~ (a,a') so there needs to exist an x' such that x'(b,b') = (a,a'). Relate x' and x.
You are guaranteed the existence of x, now show the existence of x' by relating x' to x. Since x exists, x', then, has to exist.
would it be sufficient to say that any element of Q\{0} can be represented as the quotient of two elements of Q\{0}?
@autumn kraken i would just comment "nothing shown" and give you 0 marks
you have to find a constant such that your tuples are related in the way that i (or abhijeet) wrote
that was kind of my thought process too but I don't know how to prove that x' exists. I will try it now though, thanks
Look at what you started out with and what you have at the end. Compare them and see if there's an obvious way in which x' related to x.
Over here, you sort of have to work backwards like in an epsilon delta proof. You need to look at what you get at the very end so that you can make a clever choice of the stuff you need in the middle.
I am not familiar with the tuple notation, so I write them down as lambda * a = b and lambda * a' = b' but that's the same thing right?
Tuple notation is very similar to what you do with, say, a 2D or 3D coordinate system. But yes, it does come down to the same thing.
In fact, the original question defined the relation as what you have just written, not in terms of tuples. That's something that loch introduced into the problem because it's easier to read in that way.
okay I see
I didn't find a way yet to express x' as x, but I have x = b/a and x = b'/a' for the first one and x' = a/b and x' = a'/b' for the second one. Doesn't that prove the existance of x' already?
or can you not do this
because they're connected with and
I mean, look very closely at how x and x' are related there. Can you really not see how they're connected? [x = b/a and x' = a/b]
Yea precisely. Since x is a nonzero rational, it has a multiplicative inverse so that proves the existence of our desired x'
damn that was complicated
lol
thanks for the help, I will try transitivity now ...
thanks I appreciate it
Is my reflexivity proof correct? I said (a; a') ~ (a; a') is true because for lambda = 1 it becomes 1*a = a and 1*a' = a'
and the definition asks for at least one lambda
How do I find the determinant of a 2x3 matrix again
You don't. Determinants are only defined for square matrices.
Oh wtf
Madmike, that works.
How do I find the wronskian when I only have two solutions for y then

😭
btw. does lambda have any special meaning or do mathematicians just like weird symbols ? 😛
It has a very special meaning
It's called the suckondeeznuts constant of an equivalence relation

how is it a weird symbol 
It actually looks like some person showing off their leg to someone else
like those fashion models and such
$\lambda$ $\Lambda$
Lochverstärker:

I like the lambda symbol
but it's just not something I have seen before university
it's okay, the suckondeeznuts constant is prevalent in math
it just so happens that the roman alphabet doesnt have enough letters
and at some point you stop making a distinction between the alphabets
there are some "conventions", like lambda is often used for eigenvalues, but your example shows that conventions are made to be broken
interesting
A quick (maybe) question, if I have an nxn real matrix A that is similar to a diagonal matrix B, can I say that A is symmetrical?
Wait I figured it out, sorry
Hi is anyone here familiar with spectral decomposition?
In a vector space
Does every vector have to have an inverse such that
v+(-v)=0
Or do inverses not have to exist
additive inverses do exist
What's a positive vector? Haha
Much easier to digest is the three axioms of a subspace. If you know V is a vector space, and W is a subset of V, then W is also a vector space if
- Closed under addition
- Closed under scalar multiplication
- Has zero vector
Oh so you could just say
Is not closed under scalar multiplication
Also when you prove a vector space
Do you have to prove all ten axioms?
@pale shell Something like $\bR$ is, indeed, a vector space over $\bR$. The set of real numbers does have an ordering associated with it and you can, therefore, talk about positive vectors. In general, however, there is no such notion of ordering for vector spaces in general.
What you're confused about is the fact that we're using + and -, the same symbols that we use for addition and subtraction on the reals.
Abhijeet Vats:
o
There's no such thing as 'proving a vector space'
wot
You prove that a set is a vector space over some field and in order to do that, you need to verify that that set has elements that satisfy the vector space axioms.
99.999% of the time, in order to prove a set is a vector space, you'll actually use the three axiom version
Mk
And take it as a subspace of a larger space
Or you'll use other theorems you've learned in class
Also what do you think
Would be the best way to prove like
Basic transpose properties
Use the definition of transposition.
Okay so kinda draw out a matrix and show that
how did you define transpose?
