#linear-algebra
2 messages Β· Page 84 of 1
thx and sry
How did you get this far without thinking of the answer to your quick question quickly?
i think slow and type quick
What are free variables?
I understood elimination the following way,
Given a 3x3 system, (Gauss Jordan) elimination aligns each plane parallel to each axes passing through the solution. So an equivalent system that directly provides the solution is obtained.
Now suppose we have a dependent equation, then during elimination, the dependent plane overlaps the other plane. So two planes are sufficient to actually describe the system. This is called rank, the total independent number of equations required to describe the system.
During elimination, we find pivot columns and free columns, and call the variables belonging to the free columns, free variables and we are able to assign... anything to those variables. Why is that? Is it possible to describe it in this context?
i feel like the insistence on viewing everything geometrically is just a tiny bit too restrictive
Totally agreed, I'm trying to come out of it... but is there a interpretation?
maybe it's also best not to restrict yourself to only systems of 3 variables with 3 equations bc let's face it those things are kinda small
Small... ahem , yeh .. okay π
alright so
Okay what's your take on it
let me produce an example of a matrix that's already had gaussian elimination applied to it all the way to RREF
$A = \begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 & 7 & -5 & 0 & 8 \\
0 & 1 & 6 & 4 & 0 & 11 \\
0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 & 6
\end{bmatrix}, x = \mat{x_1 \\ x_2 \\ x_3 \\ x_4 \\ x_5 \\ x_6}, b = \mat{54 \\ 22 \\ -11}$
Ann:
so here the pivot variables are x1, x2 and x5
our system is Ax = b obviously
and if you translate the matrix equation into an actual system of three scalar equations
you'll see that each of the three equations is one step away from having x1, x2 and x5 isolated, respectively
and can be expressed in terms of the other variables x3, x4 and x6
$\begin{cases} x_1 + 7x_3 - 5x_4 + 8x_6 = 54 \ x_2 + 6x_3 + 4x_4 + 11x_6 = 22 \ x_5 + 6x_6 = -11 \end{cases}$
Ann:
can be rewritten as
$\begin{cases} x_1 = 54 - 7x_3 + 5x_4 - 8x_6 \ x_2 = 22 - 6x_3 - 4x_4 - 11x_6 \ x_5 = -11 - 6x_6 \end{cases}$
Ann:
so any assignment of values to $(x_3, x_4, x_6)$ lets us recover a solution of the system of equations
Ann:
uniquely, at that
ie any solution of the system is completely determined by the values of its free variables (x3, x4 and x6), and the system puts no restrictions on these three (and that's why they're called free)
Okay... please bare with me, but why does elimination do this?... I mean, yes, we are able to express the pivots in terms of these variables, but what's the mechanics behind elim that leads to this?
i mean
elimination consists of row operations, right?
like the whole process is just a long sequence of row operations
each row operation is merely an algebraic move
swapping rows is swapping equations (not even an algebraic move at all in some sense)
adding a multiple of one row to another is adding a multiple of one equation to another
and scaling a row is scaling both sides of an equation
ann what happend to ur cute homstuck pic
i changed it
why ;-;
reasons
and scaling a row is scaling both sides of an equation
@dusky epoch okay... π€
multiplying both sides of the corresponding equation by the scaling factor Β―_(γ)_/Β―
i mean ... oi understand the ops don't alter the solution
okay let me try to reason this
gaussian elimination is in essence a systematic method of obtaining pivot columns
idk, u could try doing gaussain elimination with just the equations
in terms of equations
a pivot variable is one that's been excluded from all equations but one
Does the solution space contain the "free variable" components?
If they don't, are they like, whatever they are... they are crushed into... a line (for 3x3)for example
Free variable components... what ever they are, they will be crushed onto the span of the pivot variables
Is that it?
Is that why the values of free variables don't matter?
Oh wait... that's. Darn, I don't know. Excuse me if that's gibberish
it kinda is
it's not that the values of the free vars don't matter
they do
it's that the system does not put any constraints on 'em
Is it possible to approximate complex eigenvalues using the power method?
Like in the case of equal magnitude, opposite sign eigenvalues.
when talking about Logarithms and Exponentials what should I focus on?
uh
yeah this visual is pretty meh
3 dimensions just isn't enough for this idea to be sufficiently visceral from a geometric point of view
plus the division into free vs pivot variables is a bit arbitrary anyway; in most cases you can have multiple different pivot sets
I totally agree... I'm finding it difficult to digest many stuff on LA, I probably have to drop the visual intuition with LA
But
Is the idea right
the idea is hard to even follow
Hmmmm
and i don't think it'd be a good use of your time to attempt to further it
visual intuition has its use sometimes, it's just not universal
and i don't think it'd be a good use of your time to attempt to further it
@dusky epoch Yeah... I just don't know what to do now; boredom
visual intuition has its use sometimes, it's just not universal
@dusky epoch Unfortunately.. yes π¦
@dusky epoch What's exactly wrong in it?
that's a tricky question
a very tricky question indeed
i take it you wouldn't take "the premise" for an answer
Hey I have this linear transformation T(A)=BA+AC
And I want to find the eigenvalues given B and C, for any A
How should I proceed? I applied the transformation to some x values of A and now have a matrix composed of the linear transformation on some x values.
i take it you wouldn't take "the premise" for an answer
@dusky epoch nah π I'm not able to spot it right
i think the mistake is in trying to visualize it geometrically in the first place
-.-
π
is a basis just a span that spans the entire vector space? sorry if that's a dumb question, just trying to wrap my head around some things
ah, nevermind, i think i understand now
kinda
a set of vectors S is called a basis for a vector space V if S is linearly independent and span(S)=V
is the vector space { (a, b, c, d, e) | a - b - c - d - e = 0 } over the complex field?
I feel like there's a question here but I don't get it
what's the difference between linear independence and affine independence?
If xA + yB = I (for A, B square matrices and x, y real), then e^(A + B) = e^A e^B only if x and y are non zero, right?
I'm pretty certain it's certainly true for some values of x,y.
That's a strange question; e^(A + B) = e^A e^B is always true when A and B are commuting matrices
So, for example if A = B = I, one could choose any numbers x,y with x + y = 1 to fulfil xA + yB = I, and e^(A + B) = e^A e^B is certainly also always true
so yeah, x and y can also be zero
If I have a matrix with an eigenvalue that has multiplicity > 1
does that imply that the set of its eigenvectors is linearly dependent
I'm guessing the "different" eigenvectors that produce the eigenvalues are either the same eigenvector or linear combinations of each other
no
firstly, you choose eigenvectors so that they're linearly independent
if they were linearly dependent, you would just discard that eigenvector and not consider it
secondly, just look at the identity matrix, all of its eigenvalues are the same
and it will always still have n eigenvectors (for n x n identity)
how can we tell without context
my guess is that this is just stating some properties of scalar-matrix multiplication
but its impossible to tell knowing absolutely 0 context
Can a matrix with integer entries have an eigenvalue which is not an integer?
Tuong:
eigenvalues should be sqrt(2) and -sqrt(2)
I think the 1 has to be positive
But yeah there's a perfect counterexample thank you

So $\begin{bmatrix}0&2\1&0\end{bmatrix}$ has eigenvalues $\sqrt{2}$ and $-\sqrt{2}$
Whoever:
I'm trying to find if it is possible to have a real, symmetric matrix with orthogonal columns, a determinant of 1, and integer entries that is not the Identity.
I have no idea if it's impossible, or if there are an infinite number of them.
$\begin{pmatrix} 0 & 0 & -1 \0 & -1 & 0 \-1 & 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix}$
Zopherus:
satisfies all those conditions
I see. I'm gonna tinker around with that one and see if I gain any insights. Thank you!
oh this has determinant -1, if you want determinant 1, just change them all to 1's instead
The negative version actually does have determinant 1. π
What does R^[0,1] mean
The set of continuous real-valued functions on the interval [0; 1] is a subspace of R^[0;1]
yep
yep cool thanks
you might have seen the notation $\bR^{\bN}$ used to denote real sequences
Namington:
since formally, sequences are functions that take natural numbers {1, 2, 3, 4, ....} and map them to real numbers {a_1, a_2, a_3, a_4, ...}
no, the system is called homogeneous if you're looking at Ax=0
what unnecessary s?
What don't you understand?
The position vector is literally (6t + 1, t + 3, t)
The direction vector is a bit more work
What's r? Haha
you can do some algebra to rewrite the position vector as constant vector+t*direction vector
Alright that was easy just wish I had examples in my book
In GilbertStrang's lectures, it's told that the best way to find null space solutions is to make one free variable 1 and the others zero. Is this done, just to make calculations easy, or is there an actual reason behind it
https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/540211747613704221/702489450092953720/183668144404037632.png
In this one for example, first make x3=1 others zero, then x4=1 others 0 ...
im not sure what you're looking for
a proof of "best"ness?
just a proof that it works?
No, I know that it works
but
why not some random numbers, why make one var 1 and others 0
To make calculations easy?
well, you set every free variable except one to 0 to make it easily linearly independent
so setting the remaining free variable to 1 tends to be easiest for calculations
you could, in theory, pick random values
but then you have to check linear independence after
having only one nonzero free variable makes this "automatic"
well, why is the standard basis linearly independent?
same thing that's going on here
if we represent each solution as a solution vector
Ahhh
we have a bunch of random junk for the solutions
but the free variable rows
are essentially a standard basis now
one sec, can you please do a simple example if possible
ie we have $\begin{pmatrix}\text{random}\\text{junk}\\vdots\{until}\1\0\0\\vdots\0\end{pmatrix}, \begin{pmatrix}\text{random}\\text{junk}\\vdots\{until}\0\1\0\\vdots\0\end{pmatrix}, \begin{pmatrix}\text{random}\\text{junk}\\vdots\{until}\0\0\1\\vdots\0\end{pmatrix}, \cdots \begin{pmatrix}\text{random}\\text{junk}\\vdots\{until}\0\0\0\\cdots\1\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
where everything below "until" is our free variables
the junk are the pivot vars?
so of course this is linearly independent
yeah, the junk is the variables corresponding to the pivots.
it doesnt affect linear independence in this case
Why wouldn't they affect linear dependence
well, you can take the sum of a linear combination of the above
$a_1\begin{pmatrix}\text{random}\\text{junk}\\vdots\{until}\1\0\0\\vdots\0\end{pmatrix} + a_2\begin{pmatrix}\text{random}\\text{junk}\\vdots\{until}\0\1\0\\vdots\0\end{pmatrix} + a_3\begin{pmatrix}\text{random}\\text{junk}\\vdots\{until}\0\0\1\\vdots\0\end{pmatrix} + \cdots + a_n\begin{pmatrix}\text{random}\\text{junk}\\vdots\{until}\0\0\0\\cdots\1\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}\text{something}\\text{that doesn't}\\vdots\\text{matter}\a_1\a_2\a_3\\vdots\a_n\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
so if this sum is equal to 0
we must have a_1, a_2, a_3, ... a_n = 0
necessarily
now, that isnt to say that you cant get linear independence if you pick other values
but it isnt guaranteed
this way, you get it "automatically"
since in order for the sum of the free variable rows to be all 0s
we must have the coefficients all 0
[you'll note that if you replace the 1s with some other nonzero constant, this still works; 1s just tend to be computationally easier]
wow nice tex
missing \text{ } on the βuntilβs tho
hi, i need help with an easy question
im pretty sure this is not a subspace, but my professor said it is
show your work
there's a list of stuff to check
so that it satisfies being a subspace
,rotate
lol ok
i am very good at basic arithmetic as you can see
I don't understand what you're doing
Why do you try to get 0=0
What's the point in that you already know that fact
ah i see what u mean
Does anyone know how you would get a matrix from this linear transformation?
orthogonality, for one
in general, it has some powerful geometric properties
to use something youre probably already familiar with, it can be used to prove the law of cosines
anyway, the dot product is useful for calculating certain scalar quantities in physics
work is the dot product of force and displacement, for example
from a more mathematical perspective, the dot product is the prototypical example of an inner product
which is kind of, like, super duper important
cauchy-schwarz et al
and hilbert spaces are used everywhere in physics, of course
I have a question too, I guess you're done:
if V is a finite dim vect space, and P is a subspace of V, we define quotient sets, V/P would be x + P for all x in V.
x and y are both in same class if x-y is in P. Thats ok.
What would be V/{0}?
Is V/{0} = { {x} | x in V}?
yep.
im trying to grasp 2nd isomorphism theorem
hence the question
i tried to visualize (P+Q)/Q and P/(P intersect Q)
I imagine P and Q as lines in R^2
they intersect at origin, so i would have P/{0} on the rhs
@limber sierra ty
yeah mistake
if so, then using your line-visualization
and am I wrong to say this matrix has no inverse
P+Q is the "plane" formed by taking each entry of P and adding it to each entry of Q
if you quotient out Q, you "remove the importance" of the entry of Q
so you just get P again, basically
(formally you get the set {{x} | x in P} but yeah)
so in this case the isomorphism is easy to check
since they're just the same set
not every subspace can be viewed "nicely" as a line in R^2
consider, for example, the vector space P_3 of real polynomials of degree at most 3
then the following sets are subspaces:
{p in P_3 | p'(-1) = 0 and p''(1) = 0}
{p in P_3 | p(4) = 0}
these are both subspaces, so the second isomorphism theorem applies
but without that theorem it'd be pretty difficult to check these properties
since they're fairly "different" spaces in "feel"
@amber bridge that is noninvertible, yes
a square matrix is invertible iff its RREF form is the identity matrix
ok, i get why i need to prove general case, but what can i do with those weird looking quotient sets, where will I stumble upon something where I can say, "hey look! I can apply 2nd isomorphism theorem!" (and why would I?)
Hope you get my question
I just need to see something on the horizon, makes me learn better
first isom. thm is easy: in every homomorphism hides a isomorphism
the second isomorphism is mostly a tool for verifying isomorphisms in certain "special" settings
i just quotient out the kernel
i cant think of a particularly insightful one for module isomorphisms on-the-fly
but the second isomorphism theorem also holds for rings
i think that it holds for groups even
and its a very important fact that $2\bZ/(2\bZ \cap 3\bZ) \cong (2\bZ + 3\bZ)/3\bZ \cong \bZ/3\bZ$
Namington:
bleh i cant type
but that is to say, if youre working with the even numbers but also need to work mod 3
you're basically working in the ring Z/3Z
and the second isomorphism theorem is the "slickest" way to verify this
of course, in this case the numbers are small so you could verify this by hand
anyway AFAIK the second isomorphism theorem is certainly less "well-used" than the others from a "proving-things" standpoint
its computationally useful for verifying isomorphisms when quotients are involved
but thats about it
tyvm
in fact, the second isomorphism theorem can be viewed as just a special case of the first isomorphism theorem
also, you're right that the second isomorphism theorem holds in groups
in fact, it works over "most" algebraic structures
[for a certain meaning of "algebraic structure"]
you lose a lot of structure there so it's less insightful
but an analogous statement holds "as much as it makes sense"
π
@limber sierra wait what so it does have an inverse
oh ok
and its not the identity matrix
I got confused lol
reduced row echelon form form
hush
oh by the way @golden cloak , I will say that I don't use the second isomorphism theorem for vector spaces(/modules) much, but I have used it a ton for groups
in particular, if you've ever done Sylow stuff before
if we take Sylow p,q-subgroups for distinct primes p, q
we know the intersection is just 1
which gives immediately that (P+Q)/Q is just P
this should be fairly intuitive but it simplifies calculations nonetheless
(and is one motivation for why we care about structures "built off" primes so much, such as p-adics and whatnot)
(they don't "bump into each other" much which makes computation nice when we compare the different spaces)
I really just scratched all that stuff
the study of normal series comes to mind here
but again, the main purpose of the second isomorphism theorem is as a "special computational case" of the first
it is quite handy to have around, but it certianly comes up less than the first one
and is generally less necessary
the proof reorganizes statement to the point where you just say "as the 1st isom. thm states..."
a two liner really
yeah
my lin. algebra class (as the rest of the classes) are really theory-heavy, this 1st year linear algebra has 400+ pages of thick text
I kinda like it
i go slowly but when i grasp something i can do whatever you tell me with that theory
is the square matrix that represents a rotation by 180 degrees =
-1 0
0 -1
that would be 270 i think
think of the columns of a matrix
as a coordinates where basis vector land AFTER the transformation
so, in your case,
-1
0
in the first col is a transformed version of
1
0
oh you were right
-1 0
0 -1
but i suggest that you grasp that idea: columns of a matrix are just the coordinates of "where the each of the basis vector landed after the transformation"
V is just a subspace
no
what is V
how is V defined
since you're asked to give a vector u β V and a scalar c such that cu β V i really doubt that V would be a subspace of R^2
so
do they not
are you sure they do not
this is part b of a question
can you scroll back up to read part a and maybe the instructions preceding both
ok great
$\mat{2 \ -2} \notin V$
cause y is negative
Ann:
yes
see
things turn out to be a lot easier if you take the time to read problems carefully
hey guys, I have a quick question. To calculate the determinant of a matrix, I need a square matrix, but I can't find any info regarding if they need to be coefficient or augmented matrices.
You can only calculate determinants of square matrices. it doesnt really matter what they are i dont think.
,rotate
So the system is consistent, so there has to be a point of intersection
yes and you found it
but of only two lines right?
I am having trouble understanding why the third line "doesn't matter"
You showed that all three lines intersect a specific point.
Because apparently one of the lines is a linear combination of the other two.
I believe L1-L2=L3
I just plotted them, does this have to do with the fact that blue and green are similar?
Wait, I think I am unclear. Let me think about how to phrase it
ughh like green and blue are symmetrical no?
$\begin{bmatrix}1\-3\4\end{bmatrix}\in col\left(\begin{bmatrix}1&-4\2&-1\-1&-3\end{bmatrix}\right)$
nix:
I am trying to understand how the linear dependency would look visually. Probably parallel lines are linearly dependent, right?
If we imagine the coefficient matrix $A$ as a linear transformation $T_A: \bR^2\to\bR^3$, then the vector $(1,-3,4)$ happens to lie in the range of $A$ which is a plane.
nix:
Alright fair. I think I get it.
The last two sentences at least. For the other I need some extra studying to understand notation
I am still at the first chapter of the book so I am lacking knowledge. Thanks for dumbing it down for me
so, lets say we have P and Q, subspaces of V. What would be the elements of (P+Q)/Q?
By definition of quotients, elements would be p+q + Q?
But, + is associative, so its the same as p + Q?! (because, p+(q+Q), and q+Q = Q)
Then, whats the difference between (P+Q)/Q and just plain P/Q?
how does a basis B for a vector space V relate to a coordinate system? does the B determine the coordinate system?
precisely, yes
awesome, thanks
also, are the B-coordinates of x just a set of weights s.t. the linear combination of B = x?
trying to make sure i understand this properly
yes
you know how I like to think about it?
you know that bicycle locks?
the ones you rotate to get the right combination?
yeah
on b. lock you have 1 to 9
here, you have all R on every one of the places
so you just "rotate" them to get your vector
i think i understand
A matrix with only the trivial solution is just another way of saying a=b=c=0. Right?
If I have a set of vectors. I put them into a matrix then row reduce. If one of the columns is not a pivot column does that mean the set of vectors is linear dependent?
yes it does mean the set of vectors is linearly dependent
furthermore, it even tells you that the columns with no pivot correspond to the vectors that are linearly dependent
^ b/c then it has a free variable and therefore there is more than just the trivial solution to the eqn. Ax=0
So let's say you have a basis {v1, v2}. Is it the same as Span{v1, v2}?
no
{v1, v2} is a set of two vectors
Span{v1, v2} is the set {c1v1 + c2v2 | c1, c2 in R} (or whatever field of scalars ur using)
yeah span{v_1, v_2} will usually have a lot of vectors in it
[infinitely many, in the case of infinite vector spaces]
that said, there IS a relation between "basis" and "span" in the sense that
a subset S of a vector space V is a basis of V if and only if Span(S) = V and the vectors of S are linearly independent.
Ah yeah that's exactly what I was looking for ^. There seemed to be a relationship, but my professor didn't go in depth about it
How to know if a system has a free variables
You can put the coefficients into a matrix and augment it with the solution of each equation. Then reduce the matrix. If you have columns that aren't pivot columns those are your free variables
Does the first one not work cause of what happens why u multiply a negative constant
what exactly is the difference between a basis and complete basis?
@half ice do u know how to show work properly for these types of problems
im still kinda confused
This is what I have
ok
And for number 2 of that problem
I just showed f(o) = a +0 ^2
f(0) = a
where do i go from there
You just need one counter example. You don't need to verify that two of the three axioms hold
(1,0) is in H
But -1(1,0) is not in H
So H is not closed under scalar mult and is not a vector space
ahh ok
Here's a pretty easy way to break #2
Is the zero vector in H?
help me on rpbalit plz\
um im not sure because i get f(0) = a
What would be the zero vector in this case?
how would i find 0 vector in a polynomial
sorry polynominals confuse me when i do these problems π
the vectors are polynomials
in this context
what polynomial b satisfies a + b = a?
0
Yes in this very specific case, the words "vector" and "polynomial" mean the same thing
but what is the space
H
sorry, the set
Well, we don't know if H is a vector space yeah
the first problem i know where the set is bc they hint me it will be in the first quadrant
The zero vector is f(x) = 0
Which you can't get no matter what you choose for a
here they dont give me anything
oh
oh lol i was overcomplicating this
wait why cant x and a both be 0 though
You can't set x
but isnt that what we did in the first problem we made x and y to 0
The difference is
"The polynomial"
And
"The polynomial at one specific value"
so for polynomials u cant set x?
A polynomial is "a + bx + cxΒ² + dxΒ³ + ..."
yes
so ur saying for polynomials the only time it would work is if the coefficients were all 0
since u cant set x
A polynomial is NOT
"a + b(3) + c(3)Β² + d(3)Β³ +..."
That's a number, not a polynomial
the only way for a polynomial to be the 0 polynomial is for all its coefficients to be 0
if that's what you mean
yeah
[in fact, it's a fairly important theorem that polynomials are uniquely determined by their coefficients, but that's beyond the scope of this convo]
ok so number 2 doesnt work
becuase u get f(x) = x^2
which is not in the scope of H right
ok
Another way to do it,
xΒ² + 1 and xΒ² + 2 are both in H
Add them together, you get 2xΒ² + 3
Which is not in H. H is not closed under vector addition
yep
in fact, this leads to a useful "heuristic trick":
if you're ever "fixing entries" (whether in a column vector, a set of coefficients, whatever)
and you're NOT fixing it to 0
that's probably not a vector space
since it's probably not closed under addition
exceptions apply but they're rare
Gottem!
ok and I think I got #3 , its just because when u add u and v you can get something in the second or fourth quadrant right @half ice
would i explain this by just showing an example?
Yaya exactly
<@&268886789983436800>
?
@half ice for number 4
shoudlnt it work?
the solution says it doesnt work bc of case 3 ( coefficient case) but i dont get it
lets say u have 5x^2 + 3x
if u multiply a coefficient to it, it still retains the same format right
f(x)= ax^2 + bx
@pale shell dm me the problem, might be able to help u
Think about scalar multiplication
If I scale a polynomial by 0.5 what happens
Does it still have integer coefficients?
Oh fk oops yes
ohhhh
smart
6 is simply because it fails to be a 0 vector right
f(0) will always be 1
@half ice
If f(0)=1 and g(0)=1 and h(x)=f(x)+g(x), then what is h(0)
is it?
yeah that isnt 1 is it
lmao
Scalar multiplication also fails and that might be easier to show
if f(0)=1 then what is 2f(0)
2
thats not 1 either
oh
i see
Could u help me with #5
the 0 test passes
but idk how to test for u +v
@hollow finch
come up with two examples and see what happens if you add them together
ok
1, 1
and 0,0
that works right
and when i add them i get 1,1
which lies in the circle
so it works?
(0,0) works but 1^2+1^2 is not less than or equal to 1
I like your thinking of having 1s though
oh shit
oops
ok make x and y sqrt 1
wait no
ill just do a fraction
1/2, 1/2
and when i add i get 1/2, 1/2
which works as it lies in the circle right
(1/2, 1/2) definitely works
maybe lets try scalar multiplication first since we only have 1 nonzero vector at the moment
when youre testing if something is a vector space, i like to imagine im trying to break the rules. i think "can i use scalar multiplication or vector addition to escape this space"
is it possible to use scalar multiplication to take 1/2, 1/2 out of the unit circle?
Absolutely
ok cool
@sharp merlin
You asked about 6 and are correct
yup i finished
The zero vector is not in H so 6 is not a vector space
The much more interesting space is the one where f(1) = 0
That is a vector space!
Np feel free to ask if you have any others!
I have a quick question !
Is a complete eigenvalue the same thing as a repeated eigenvalue?
complete=algebraic multiplicity equals geometric multiplicity
so the dimension of the eigen space must equal the multiplicity ?
if you say multiplicity, pls specify alg or geo
thanks for the help!
so AM=GM, or alternatively worded as dim of eigenspace=AM
how did he know those 3 columns lie in a plane

fuck 
i got trolled big time

start by getting their eigenvalues and eigenvectors at least
the eigenvectors and eigenvalues for the matrix [-4 -2;5 2] right?
yes
not necessarily; that holds in the case of square matrices in row reduced form
but it doesn't necessarily hold if, say, there's more columns than rows
(more variables than equations)
or if the matrix(/system) isnt in REF
this is an example of free variables if you want to see it in action
That is a big matrix
Lets see
So once the bottom row is all zeroes you just declare a free and solve for the rest
But how esle to know if tou have a free variables
I know
and declare them free
usually you dont have to include the free variables in the general soln but I do
can you rephrase that?
Like because heres the deal
I get what a free variable is and how it helps you find solutions
And I get that when the bottom rows are zeros
But what other cases imply a free varibl
@pale shell a column represents a free variable when, if the matrix is in Row Echelon Form, that column does not contain a pivot.
that's the entire condition
in the case of square matrices, this often corresponds to "zero rows"
isnt it about rows
@river jasper have you tried anything/made any progress?
@pale shell what does "about rows" mean? if you expand $A\vec{x}$ you'll see that the entries in $\vec{x}$ (the variables) correspond to the columns of $A$, so naturally there's a relation between columns of $A$ and the variables, but not necessarily the rows
Namington:
a column in a matrix represents a variable in the underlying system, yes.
the original motivation for matrices is to write systems in a "simpler" way
rather than writing say
$4x_1 + 3x_2 + 5x_3 = 0, -2x_1 - 5x_2 = 3, 5x_1 - x_4 = 3$
Namington:
we can write
$\begin{pmatrix}4&3&5&0\-2&-5&0&0\5&0&0&-1\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}x_1\x_2\x_3\x_4\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}0\3\3\end{pmatrix}$
Namington:
Ax=b
only the author can use react buttons, earl
Sorry
and then we can manipulate the augmented matrix $\begin{pmatrix}4&3&5&0&0\-2&-5&0&0&3\5&0&0&-1&3\end{pmatrix}$ to solve the system
Namington:
Why are the dimensions of row space and column space equal?
there's a plethora of proofs available online
first google result is https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1900437/proof-that-the-dimension-of-a-matrix-row-space-is-equal-to-the-dimension-of-its
wikipedia provides some too
(afaik the second proof there is the same proof mentioned in the first link)
So let's say you get a fully reduced matrix. Is the only time a row isn't a pivot row when there is a row of all zeros? That's what it seems like to me
yes, thats by definition in a matrix
however in an augmented matrix, the last column is allowed to be nonzero
and usually its pivot column rather than pivot row
each pivot column corresponds to a pivot variable
Can anyone give hint?
what did you try
all i know is to use the rank nullity thm
ok lets think about this
so the problem says that range and null space are disjoint right
and I redefined the thing I want to prove by a bit
so think about what happens when they arent
think about T^2 and T on a vector in that intersection
ok, I'll think about it and see if i can get anywhere
so you are hinting at a proof by contradiction?
yeah
hey, is this the way to do these kind of things?
I used the formula that says mVa=a^1/m
"mVa"?
is that supposed to be a shoddy plaintext approximation of $\sqrt[m]{a} = a^{1/m}$?
Ann:
yea
@torn hornet mind if I run you through my proof?
I'm not that certain at one point
My uncertainty is: Suppose T:V->V and Im(T^2) = Im(T)
does that imply ker(T^2) = ker(T)?
Ok, I'll try but theres another thing where I supposed a in Ker(T) intersect Im(T)
I can prove that there exist a B such that B is in Ker(T^2) but not Ker(T)
yeah this is what i did too
but I can't prove that a is in Im(T) but not in Im(T^2)
wondering if thats possible to show
want a hint?
well not for this exactly, but to use the kernal information to finish the problem
oh
so if I can prove that ker(T^2) = ker(T) I'm done, is that part what you mean by the hint?
i mean that use your information that ker(T^2)> ker(T) to prove the problem statement
before that, you think its possible to show a is in Im(T) but not Im(T^2) just by using the info that aβ 0 is in the intersection of Im(T) and Ker(T)?
I just want to see if theres more methods
yeah sure
its p much the same thing tho i imagine
a lot of the time if you wanna play around with this things
just get a nice basis for your space V
T(a) = 0, and exist b in V such that T(b) = a, where aβ 0
and see what happens as T and T^2 act on it
I want to show that suppose c in V such that T(c) = b, then actually theres a contradiction and c doesn't exist
but I don't know how to show that
im not sure what you mean
Like since we know a is in Im(T), I want to show a is not in Im(T^2)
right
i mean hmm if i went this route id do a dimention argument, which is basically the same for kernal
np. that was the hint btw, dimention
unrelated question: if T:V->W its not necessarily true that Im(T^2) = Im(T) then ker(T^2) = ker(T)?
Because they can be in different spaces
and you cannot apply the dimension thm
better way to formulate question
would be to ask if im(A) =im (B) implies ker(A) = ker(B)
where A,B are linear operators from V to W
I guess not true
not true in general. take for example R^n -> R
because B can have a really larger kernel or something
and maps that take the 1st component and the second. different kernal but same image
ic
anyways I think I could just first prove that ker(T) is subset of ker(T^2), then use the dimension argument to prove equality right?
yeah
alright ty
Curious whether if T:V->V and Im(A) = Im(B) then whether ker(A) = ker(B) is true. When I imagine things like R^3 and certain examples of T's that it seems true
not in general. try constructing a counter example
ah right
like if T maps the xy plane to yz plane and U maps xz-plane to yz plane, then the kernel of T, U are different
T(x,y,z) = (0,x,y), U(x,y,z) = (0,x,z), seems to work
yeah
I have no issues setting up part A, but my mind blanks for part B
itβs still βdiagonizedβ but somehow different because of the A and B restrictions and nothing Iβve done works
because I either need to get eignevalues that are the same
Or eigwnvalues that transposed are inverse of each other
I get my eigenvalues as 2+-2i
Iβm absolutely positive that Iβm missing something but Iβm not sure what
@smoky lagoon Can you show me what you got for part a
Similar matrices have the same eigenvalues. For real eigenvalues the easy way is to just make a diagonal matrix.
For complex ones, we can represent the complex eigenvalues $a\pm bi$ with a real matrix as $\begin{bmatrix}a&b\-b&a\end{bmatrix}$
nix:
Or its transpose it's the same thing
OH I knew it was something simple
._.
Zoom university got me like
and my Q,Q-1 are the same as D,D-1 ?
iirc to get Q, you take one of your complex eigenvectors and separate it into real and imaginary parts. The left column of Q is the real part, the right column is the imaginary part (don't include the i). I could be wrong, though, but i think that's right.
so I would get a=2, b=2, and -b=-2
Yeah exactly
The reason you only need one eigenvector, by the way, is because they are complex conjugates
does it matter which one I take?
also just thinking for part C I have that R value I can factor out but I need the cos and sin to get me what I want
Ideally I want cos and sin to both equal one but since I have alpha in all of them that obviously wont work
It does not. As long as the right matrix is Q^-1
actually
Sin and cos are equal at pi/4
so I could factor out an 8/pi to get what I want
as my r value
no?
Remember that every complex number can be written in the form: $a+bi=r(\cos(\theta)+i\sin(\theta))$
nix:
There is absolutely going to be a pi/4 in your answer
bruh I donβt remember learning any of this stuff but it makes sense
r=2 theta = pi/4 ez
$2+2i=r\left(\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)+i\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\right)=r\left(\frac{1+i}{\sqrt{2}}\right)$
nix:
I keep thinking pi/4 evaluates to one when it does not
Haha
The easy way to find $r$ though is to use $r=\sqrt{a^2+b^2}$
nix:
No it is not sqrt22
this is what I get for not memorizing the unit circle
2sqrt2 as r
Yeah
open note final got me feelin some kinda way
note: that was not the final
just π ±οΈractice
can I jump in with my question? π
I guess that's yes
so, P and Q are subspaces of V.
Quotient (P+Q)/Q contains elements of the form (p+q)+Q, am I right?
but, since addition is associative, it's just p+(q+Q), and q is already in Q so it sucks it up, so to say, and we are left with (P+Q)/Q = {p + Q | p in P}
so, what's the difference, then, between (P+Q)/Q and just plain P/Q?
wrong channel
oh
can a set of vectors be linearly dependent but still have a basis for R^n?
sure, why not
the right notion is that that set is "complete"
i. e. it spans that space
man this is so confusing
its not really
take for example
R^3
vectors in that space look like (a, b, c) right?
a, b, c are random
yep
so, you get that space by taking (1, 0, 0) and (0, 1, 0) and (0, 0, 1)
multiply every one of them with right number, add them up
viola, you get the vector you want
so, what if I put another vector alongside those 3 vectors
say, (1, 1, 0)
does it contribute in some way?
uhhhh no since the 3 vectors already cover all of R^3
right
so, if i call them something like e1, e2, e3 and that last vector a
i can still make linear combos with all of them
3e1 + 2e2 + 0e3 + 6a
and it spans the whole space
So if a is causing a linear dependency. You can still say e1, e2, e3 is a basis of R^3?
it is a basis
a is just redundant there
so {e1, e2, e3, a} does span the whole space, i.e. it's COMPLETE in R^3
and yes, it CONTAINS basis
but it's not THE basis itself
so in order to have a basis, you need maximal linearly independent set, or minimal complete set (those are synonyms really)
maximal linearly independent set meaning the entire set of vectors is linearly independent?
...and if you add any other vector to it, it stops being lin. independent
in other words, it has maximal number of elements possible while being linearly independent
so if you have vectors of R^n there should be n or less vectors?
a basis of R^n has exactly n elements
you can have m<n linearly independent vectors
but they don't span THE WHOLE thing
just the part of it
yeah only a part of it
so if you have vectors that are in R^3, but only two vector and they're linearly independent it will only span a 2d subspace of R^3
correct
Find a basis for the space spanned by the given vectors So if the set of vectors linearly dependent. We can still find a basis for the space spanned by the vectors, but the basis just won't be the entire space right?
guys help me i need 3 couples for 2x - y =0
a basis is a maximal linearly independent subset
so remove vectors from that set until they're all linearly independent
and youll have a basis
@limber sierra you helped me quite nicely yesterday, can I address you again for my question?
Sure although I'm working from mobile right now
So it may be difficult to give detailed answers
ill just paste it
so, P and Q are subspaces of V.
Quotient (P+Q)/Q contains elements of the form (p+q)+Q, am I right?
but, since addition is associative, it's just p+(q+Q), and q is already in Q so it sucks it up, so to say, and we are left with (P+Q)/Q = {p + Q | p in P}
so, what's the difference, then, between (P+Q)/Q and just plain P/Q?
Why do you assume addition with the "+ Q" notation works the same as standard addition?
Remember that "+ Q" is abuse of notation for meaning "equivalent if it differs by an element of Q"
IE given $p_1 + q_1$ and $p_2 + q_2$, we have $p_1 + q_1 \sim p_2 + q_2$ (belong to the same equivalence class) iff $p_1 + q_1 - p_2 - q_2 \in Q$
Namington:
This is what the "+ Q" is actually meant to represent. Because this isn't "actual" addition, nothing really justifies the "rebracketing" you're doing, I'm afraid
That might not be the most satisfying answer, though
Let me think of a more intuitive way to explain this
nono its perfect actually
im just trying to grasp what will happen when i add vectors from P and Q and "divide" Q out
they could be disjunctive or they can have nonempty intersection
i guess they would both have zero
ok
Well, yesterday I brought up the example of $(2\bZ + 3\bZ)/3\bZ$
Namington:
This is of course a ring quotient, not a vector space, but the same idea applies
This isn't isomorphic to $2\bZ/3\bZ$; it's actually isomorphic to $\bZ/3\bZ$
Namington:
Don't worry, this kind of stuff is counterintuitive at first
a lot of new info so i just get stucked sometimes
Totally normal
ty alot
it really helps when you can ask someone right away when you are fresh on the subject
So we can generate matrices with specific eigenvectors/values by starting with PDP^-1, but is there a similar way to generate matrices with defective eigenvalues?
google jordan decomposition
can anyone help a brother out with this one?
take Lambda to be the matrix on RHS, S to be identity
work what out lol
but wait, it wants you to find the matrices
S and lamda
Ohhhh
wait one second
I am dumb
Thanks for letting me know that 
don't be so hard on yourself
lol
i imagine it's prooobably meant as a diagonalization problem
if there's someone you can e-mail for clarification, you might wanna do that
we did do that in lecture
but is that also a valid way of approaching it?
just be like boom! Identity matrix!
i mean, as it's written, that would be a correct solution; i imagine though that's not what they want you to do
and you learn more by actually doing the diagonalization
Can you show me diagonalization?
uuuh it's a lengthy process, so it's best you revise your lecture notes or look up a youtube tutorial lol
noice
Thanks for the help Sonja and Lartomato!
cool man!
I need more help on my other problems in the hw
so ill be back with some data fitting problems
So I got some imaginary stuff when I diagonalized it
diagonalize the matrix, so you'll have $A = P^{-1}DP$, where D is a diagonal matrix
PorosInMyAshe:
and in this case $\Lambda = D$
PorosInMyAshe:
$S = P$
PorosInMyAshe:
