#linear-algebra
2 messages Ā· Page 77 of 1
good to hear, try to stay that way, beware the covid role
yep, not going out at all
how do you do this given Q and P are orthogonal
prove it**
i know the inside Ps cancel out
actually you're in danger of getting the role the more i talk to you so i just stop talking
@pallid rampart saw you typing, you can handle this one
i was trying to warn him
KS42:
but idk how to prove the next step
because matrix multiplication isn't commutative
@pallid rampart
sorry I don't know how to lin alg š¤·āāļø
bruhhh
Mods aren't watching the question channels you don't need to worry
<@&286206848099549185>
i'm confused by 77.2 and 77.3
I'm not sure how to relate the concepts of invertible and nullity to eigenvalues
<@&286206848099549185>
can someone tell me how to do this? I am pretty bad at this š¦
or some good resources other than khan academy which will help me, though I'd really appreciate specific help for this
lmao
a) is just matrix multiplication
b) is describing what A does to vectors u and v
for 1
like rotation, flip, etc
@wintry steppe
If zero is an eigenvalue then:
det(E - 0I) = det(E) = 0
Which means E isn't invertible
@half ice how does it relate nullity. And how would I relate it to Nulity(E-3I)
can you elab @maiden silo ?
@wintry steppe
Remember a matrix A is invertible iff det(A) ā 0
do you know how row reduction changes eigenvalues?
well, i'd recommend reading that section then
applying row reduction operations can change the eigenvalue
in predictable ways
yeah row reduction easily changes eigenvalue
have intelligence ok please
if i multiply a row
eigenvalue doubles
and if i switch
it becomes negative
and i forgot the last rule
if i multiply a row
eigenvalue doubles
uhhhhhh
i think i get what you mean, but as stated, this is not true
oh i was thinking of detemrinant sorry
there is a pattern here, but in general, row reducing is not a good way to determine eigenvalues
Are there only 3dimensions. Do 3+n dimensions exist, or is it just a theory ?
Cuz whenever I look at my linear algebra book. It says for example " suppose we have a base { v1, v2, v3, v4,....}.....Why tho. I myself can only visualise 3 basis vectors.
<@&286206848099549185>
a theme of most branches of math is that they take some concept that we are used to, and generalize it as much as they can while still being useful
Just because you can't visualize it doesn't mean it isn't useful. Oftentimes, we care about vector spaces that aren't really "meant" to be visualized
@viscid kernel
hmm, Is it also possible turn to learn all proofs in linear algebra just by visualising in 3d ?
yes. I was just about to say: the nice part about these generalizations is that you can usually think of the way things work in the n = 3 case, or at least think of some close analogy to something you are used to
hmm ok, so basically anything which can be proved in 3d works always in 3+n dimensions ?
no, but anything that works in n dimensions works in 3 dimensions.
However, lets say you want to prove something for n dimensions: you don't have to literally visualize all n dimensions. You think about the definitions and theorems you have to work with, and you can work out cases like n=2 and n=3 where you have your visual intuition to help you, and clever ideas from working in those cases could help in a proof of the general case.
this is more or less just a general strategy whenever you are trying to understand some abstract generalization of a concept that you understand well visually. Not all linear algebra problems are convenient to understand in the dim V =3 case or anything like that.
@slow scroll thanks, Ill keep that in my mind. š
I think a good example of something that breaks down is rotation axis
in 4D or higher you no longer have a single 1D axis perpendicular to your plane of rotation
is this happening in a complex vector space?
yes
yeah the dot product is antilinear in the second component then
$v \cdot (cw) = \overline{c} (v \cdot w)$
Ann:
part of the defn
oh okay thank you
i thought that only worked for matrices tho and lambda is a numver no?
so is the eiganvalue not a number then?
arent v and w matrices
they're vectors.
and the cdot denotes the inner product, in compliance with the notation you used in your picture
arent vectors and matrices pretty much the same thing
vectors can be, but need not be, interpreted as single-column matrices
yeah it's part of the defn of a complex inner product
oh alright thank you!
Just a random interest question but when else in math/physics/engineering/etc is knowing how to change basis useful?
literally everywhere
Fourier series are essentially a change of basis
There are other things like the JohnsonāLindenstrauss lemma where a change of basis helps you compress data without losing much information
And singular value decomposition is another tool used in compressing data that essentially comes from changing bases
all of math is just changes of bases
Is the basis of an eigenspace always an eigenbasis (I feel like this is a dumb question)
what definitions were you given for these words?
hey all - is there a good resource to explain inverting a matrix in simple terms? (maybe ELI5? only thing I could find ELI5 was "what is an inverse matrix" rather than "how to do it", unfortunately)
I get the gist of doing row reductions, but am uncertain if that's applicable in a programmatic way, as I'm looking to concretely understand a function that achieves inversion (but doesn't seem to be doing row reductions)
looks like I got it! if anyone is curious, link that I'm using that seems straight forward is: https://www.mathsisfun.com/algebra/matrix-inverse-minors-cofactors-adjugate.html
@serene widget will do; do you understand the definition of a matrix inverse?
One can say that an $n\times n$ matrix $A$ is invertible and has inverse $A$ if and only if $AA^{-1} = A^{-1} A = I_n$
Sadly Lachrymose:
Let's focus on the first term: $AA^{-1} = I_n$
Sadly Lachrymose:
Define $A^{-1} = [a_1, a_2, ..., a_n]$, where we have yet to find the columns
Sadly Lachrymose:
We note that the matrix identity essentially states that $Aa_k = e_k$, where $e_k$ is the standard basis vector with a 1 in the kth coordinate
Sadly Lachrymose:
and we can find the a_k via Gaussian elimination
The adjugate formula for the inverse of a matrix is extremely inefficient if you use the Laplace expansion for the determinant, and it's a roundabout way of doing the row reduction if you use row reduction to find the determinants.
I think for the time being, inefficiency is acceptable - I have constraints of a 10x10 matrix at most. if I find myself with additional time after implementing what (to me) appears to be the simpler to grasp solution (given that I don't have education beyond Alg2), I'll check back in on Gauss. elimination and determine if I can achieve that solution
thank you for your answer š
The computation of a determinant by Laplace expansion is O(n!),, so you might be able to get away with a 10x10 matrix, but you won't get away with an 11x11 or a 12x12.
somewhere proportional to 3.6 million multiplies and adds
It's not just inefficient; it's about as inefficient as sorting a list by shuffling until it's sorted.
Does anyone see anything wrong with my proof of axiom 4? This has already been marked and my instructor says my proof for a4 isnāt bidirectional but I am not seeing it.
"due to real number properties"?
i mean
let me take a counterexample
neither of these vectors are 0
but
er wait
hold up
i just had a major brain fart lmao
anyway the point is
you haven't given any justification
just "real number properties"
why is it impossible for $2v_1^2 + v_2^2 + 4v_3^2$ to be $0$ if $\mathbf{v} \neq \mathbf{0}$?
Namington:
Well arenāt v1,v2 and v3 real numbers since they are in r3 and since each of them are squared the inner product has to be greater then zero unless the vector V is the zero vector?
since each of them are squared the inner product has to be greater then zero
this is the idea, but why?
Because the way the inner product is defined?
Multiplies it by itself
like for example, if i had 4 + (-4), that would give 0
why is it impossible for me to have something like that?
Well if each vector component is zero then it is = to 0 if anyone component isnāt it will be greater than zero
why will it be greater than 0?
in the latter case
why can't we get something like 4 + (-4)?
well, if a number has 0 degree with the real numbers axis, multiplying with another 0 degree number would be still 0 degree, since degrees are summed, and result will be a positive real number
Sorry I am not trying to be difficult I am just not seeing it this is my first truest proof based course.
Namington:
what if this was $2v_1 + v_2 + 4v_3$
Namington:
Namington:
You are squaring each component though
and what does that do?
Makes them all positive
there we go
squaring negative numbers makes them positive
and the sum of positive numbers is positive
so we have a sum of positive numbers, which can't be 0.
i think you understood this, but you need to explain why
as I did
So saying by real number properties doesnāt cover that?
it's just really vague
By comparison here is my instructors proof I just donāt see how this is any less vague
ah, huh
i assumed they wanted you to be more explicit
but that certainly seems pretty vague too
thats weird, then
maybe they wanted you to explicitly compute
2(0) + 0 + 4(0)?
that seems really nitpicky though
i wouldnt reduce marks for that
personally
also yuck
this looks like 20^2 š¤¢
That is what that is
as in, it looks like (20)^2
but yeah, i wouldn't take marks for that personally
maybe you can ask your prof?
[aside; are you going to a school in western canada?]
Yes I am
hehe, you're at my undergrad
Oh really neat
oh wait nvm
your school uses the same numberings
though
thats interesting
anyway yeah, i'd ask the prof in your shoes
I did and they basically said they liked iff proofs to be bidirectional which I feel mine is. I really donāt care that much this costs me like a fraction of a percent of my final grade. Just wanted to get a second opinion and see how I can improve my proof writing.
i guess they wanted to make sure it's like, "hammered into your head"
that you need to prove both directions
but i would personally count that since
2(0)^2 + 0^2 + 4(0)^2 = 0
is pretty obvious
oh well
On a side note I am planning on doing a Physics and either math joint major or minor once I leave this crappy community college this summer. Should I maybe consider taking a logic course before tackling some of these harder proof based courses?
it might be helpful, but i wouldnt worry about it too much
Okay well thanks
I'm not very good at math lol, but I think u should try to row reduce first
after ref: row1=(a,1,0); row 2=(0, -1, a-2); row3=(0,0,a+1)
I mean you don't exactly have to row reduce. You can already see an easy case, of when alpha=0. Then you look at the 3rd column and notice that the rank there is only affected by a-2=a+1, which cannot ever happen. Lastly, you look at the the top and bottom row and see if they can be multiples of each other (the middle row cannot be a multiple of either row due to the 0 in the middle). and it turns out they are multiples of each other when a+1=0, or when a=-1
so only 2 cases you have to look at:
a=0, a=-1
can just derive that from analyzing what affects rank instead of tedious row reduction and taking care of all the divide by 0 exceptions that could come up
wow, thank you so much! @steady fiber
may I also ask how to find for which parameter a is the matrix regular?
by regular do you mean invertible?
(I've only seen regular used rarely for matrices, and there's like 3 things it can mean)
yes, invertible
just find when the rank is 3
never?
?
the rank is definitely 3 in a lot of cases
in fact in almost every case the rank is 3
isn't it at most 2?
I'm gonna think some more on it š
thank you very much for your help @steady fiber
I am trying to orthogonally diagonalize a matrix. I have gone through all the steps but for some reason the transpose of my matrix of Eigen Vectors is symmetric but the inverse has all the signs flipped. I want to flip all of the signs but I donāt really understand if that is mathematically correct.
the inverse of what has the signs flipped?
The inverse of the matrix of column Eigen Vectors to be exact.
If $P_R$ is a projection matrix onto the row space of $A$, does $A(P_R)\vec{x}=0$ have only the trivial solution if $A\neq \vec{0}$?
nix:
how could i find a basis for row(A) (1b) knowing a basis for null(A), rank(A) and nullity(A)?
row(A) is the orthogonal complement of null(A)
So if you could find rank(A) vectors orthogonal to every vector in null(A) you would have a basis for row(A)
ahh sweet tysm @hollow finch!!
can someone help me with this defective stuff its giving me hell
what's your question
sorry something popped up ill come back soon with my question
okay never mind
okay so
so for question a there is a repeated eigen value of -1
and [ 2 , -1 , -1 ] is the first eigen value they found, so why does that have the (c2 + c3t) term? shouldnt the second eigen value you find for the repeated eigen value have that term becuase you do (A-lamda I) v2 = v1
[2, -1, -1]
eigenvalue
Does anyone know how to do this?
I was going to multiply them and try to solve for x but when I multiply the first 2, i end up with a "3x2" and a "3x1" which means I cant multiply them anymore, so I dont see how I'll be able to do this.
if you multiply the first two correctly you should get a 1 X 3 matrix
multiply that by a 3 X 1 matrix is then just the usual dot product
check your work
I see the problem thnx
<@&268886789983436800>
they gone already

<v, u> and v * u the same thing right?
but different meaning
<v1 + v2, u1 + u2> = v1u1 + v2u2
right?
no wait
<(v1,v2,....), (u1,u2,....)> = v1u1 + v2u2 + .....
yeah
that's the standard inner product for R^n and C^n
can someone please help with this question?
i'm seeing different solutions everywhere
i can tell you what i've tried??
Post what you tried @formal pond I'm in lecture but will check if noone answers
@formal pond iirc the columns of the transition matrix must sum to 1. Hope that helps.
no this is a change of basis, you're thinking like a stochastic matrix
look, both of these are bases which mean linear combinations need to represent a vector
$v = a \vec u_1 + b \vec u_2$
Merosity:
Merosity:
notice the left sides are the same v, but the right sides are different coefficients in different bases. so what's the relationship from a,b to a', b'?
so just equate them, "factor out" the coefficients into a column vector times a matrix of basis vectors
then multiply by the inverse depending on which direction you want to go
I did 1a-1b = 2 and 7a - 1b = 2
then I found a and b
a = 0
b = -2
I did 1a-1b= 4
7a - 1b=-1
a = -5/6
b = -19/6
so matrix equals to: a=0,-5/6; b=-2, -19/6
still got it wrong though
this entire thing was my second attempt
I did 1a-1b = 2 and 7a - 1b = 2
@formal pond why?
so that I could cancel the b variable and find a
i did this twice, for u1 and u2
why are you "doing" those
where did you come up with those equations
idk I already described what to do but it's different from what you're doing entirely so
maybe just read what I wrote and do that and show me what you get
actually i had described it because @acoustic swallow asked what I did
so i used this link: https://www.slader.com/discussion/question/consider-the-bases-b-u1-u2-and-b-u1-u2-for-r2-where-u1-2-2-u2-4-1-u1-1-3-u2-1-1-b-find-the-transitio/
Consider the bases B = {u1, u2} and B' = {u'1, u'2} for R2, where u1 = [2, 2], u2 = [4, -1], [u1 = 1, 3], u2 = [-1, -1] (b) Find the transition matrix from B to B'.
but i can try what you said. lemme read over it.
my way is equivalent to what they describe in the link you sent, except I do the calculations with matrices instead of working with the equations one by one manually like that
yeah so that's why i did it with equations
your equations were just wrong
it's not about the fact that you used equations at all
it's what you wrote was unjustified
got who? i am just trying to understand where i am going wrong
can you please tell me what is wrong with the equations?
my goodness
if you can't explain where you are getting your equations come from
then all I can say is it's just wrong, do what I say or what the link says
you're messing up somewhere in translation
these are false
okay
u1=u2 if that's the case
which is obviously not a basis
go back
and read what I wrote
and ask a question about what I say where you get stuck
I didn't just say all that to be ignored, that's just rude when I'm trying to help you
thanks, i am currently reading through it... can you tell me what the arrows mean?
wait those are vectors
i gotcha
yup good good
what do you mean by this?
then multiply by the inverse depending on which direction you want to go
let me back up a bit to make sure you know what I'm referring to
when you equate the vector represented in two different bases you have this:
$$a \vec u_1 + b \vec u_2 = a' \vec u_1' + b' \vec u_2'$$
Merosity:
which I then say to factor as a matrix of the basis vectors with the column vectors as
$$\begin{bmatrix} 2&4\2&-1\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}a\b\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 1&-1\7&-1\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}a'\b'\end{bmatrix}$$
Merosity:
so if I want to find the matrix that takes me from (a,b) to (a',b') then I have to multiply by the inverse of the matrix on the right
$$\begin{bmatrix} 1&-1\7&-1\end{bmatrix}^{-1} \begin{bmatrix} 2&4\2&-1\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}a\b\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix}a'\b'\end{bmatrix}$$
Merosity:
see how this product of matrices gives the required transformation matrix?
if we wanted to go the other way we'd multiply by the other matrix inverse to go backwards
ah i gotcha and ultimately what do we do with the variable column?
just multiply it out?
it's just a stand in for a generic vector coefficients represented in that basis
all we care about is given any vector, what transforms it? That product of two matrices is the answer for the change of basis
you could pick a=1 and b=0 or a=0 and b=1 if you specifically want to look at the basis vectors themselves
which is just looking at the individual column vectors individually, basically like multiplying by an identity matrix
okay i think i am just weak with matrices in general so that's why attempted with the equations... really am going over it though but maybe if i understood where I went wrong with the equations i can better connect it to your method
yeah you don't have to use matrices
once you have this
$$a \vec u_1 + b \vec u_2 = a' \vec u_1' + b' \vec u_2'$$
Merosity:
just look at the equations for corresponding parts with a=1 and b=0 for your first basis vector and a=0 and b=1 for your second basis vector
okay i think you guided in me in the right direction. i'll post what i got soon
the example they give is nearly identical to your problem
in the link?
yeah
only difference is like one entry of one of the vectors is 3 instead of 7 I think
yeah definitely so i feel i am close
Ī» is an eigenvalue of A
If det(A - λI) = 0
Ya
ty
An = λn
An - λn = 0
(A - λI)n = 0
the only solution is n = 0 which is trivial, so you have to have infinite solutions which only happens (by cramer's rule) when the determinant of A - λI is zero
Is n a vector
So Ī» is not an eigenval by definition
Just a way of remembering it, is cramer's rule
They call λ an eigenvalue if you can write An = λn
sorry for some reason I put Ī» before the A
yes, if you notice in that picture
the bottom is a determinant, this will find the solutions to a system (and find the elements of n
but An = λn has the solution n = 0
this is a trivial case
a system can either have no solutions, one solution (which n = 0 is) or infinitely many solutions
Cramer's rule which generalizes the 2x2 case above generalizes for any size system
which has a fraction
in this case
Too bad I donāt know what a determinant is <o/
|A-λI| = 0 will cause divide by 0 error and cause infinite solutions
well look at work
Ok one sec
What are the matrix looking things
the straight lines?
yes means determinant
So is the point that a finite dimensional vector space canāt have infinite distinct eigenvalues, so the zero vector canāt be an eigenvector?
so in conclusion, the eigenvalues λ are the values of λ which gives the system infinitely many solutions for the n vector when you try and do An = λn
they just call it a trivial solution
since every system can have this case
n = 0 works for any system
notice also
the original expression
(A-λI)n = 0
you can plug the eigenvalues Ī» to find the n's
notice that since the entire idea was to have infinitely many solutions, n will not be a particular vector
the terms in the vector will depend on other terms for example
n = {n1, n2} , then you might be able to find n1 = 2n2 for example, then people say n1 = 1 and therefore n2 = 2 and get a nice vector n
but you could have also have {2,4} etc
if it's a eigenvalue then the determinant of that matrix on the RHS which is (A-λI) needs to be zero
if it doesn't only the trivial case n = 0 will allow you to write An = λn
(3)(-4)-(-12)(1) = -12 --12 = 0
Therefore it is a eigenvalue of the matrix A
Yea idk for my textbook they just explicitly exclude the zero vector in the definition of an eigenvalue, I guess I see why if it causes so many issues
It doesn't cause issues
The problem is, if this is your only solution
Then you can't do every much
It doesnāt seem convenient to have that in the definition
since n = 0 doesn't tell much information
it's like y' = y
y(x) = 0 is a solution to every DE
every?
Are constants not allowed in differential equations?
Are you talking about that specific example you brought up
y(x) = 0 will just make every DE not even a DE
y''(x) - 2xy'(x) = 2xcos(x) will just become 2xcos(x) = 0
with y(x) = 0
Oh ok
It's like that
in the equation An = λn
Also note there is stuff you can do with using this change, but with n = 0, well you get nothing, and as a result of cramer's rule you can force infinitely many solutions rather than just n = 0 solution by making |A-λI|=0
also just to note you need the I (identity matrix) since Ī» would just be a number and they consider Ī» to be the equivalent of multiply by 1 normally
so does standard coordinates mean once i find my T matrix i multiply by e1 e2 etc?
or by finding the matrixes is that already done for me?
You're finding everything in terms of the "regular way to express R³"
If that makes no sense, you're safe to ignore it
You can express R³ as a scaled version of itself. But you don't want to do that here
so for say part D once i find my rotation and projection matrix (through combination) i am not required to multiply by e1 e2 e3 and make them the columns?
If you have the matrix, don't you already have the columns?
You can also see where e1, e2, e3 goes. This also gives the columns
Doing either should give the same result. But there's no need to do both
oh ok. i wasnt given many good examples. The few i had it was plugging in the standard vectors into T to find the columns of T so i didnt know if the reverse was like that also
also
do i use the orthogonal basis for the formula A((ATA)^-1)AT in part b?
or do i just use my span matrix
if you have an orthogonal basis you can just do AA^T, otherwise you have to have the whole A((A^TA)^{-1}A^T
*i mean orthonormal basis
if you have an orthornomal basis than A^T A = I so the longer formula just reduces to the formula AA^T
oh i see. and that formula gives me T using standard coordinates?
im very confused to what using standard coordinates mean
have you done change of basis already?
yes but since the shift online the quality of videos/lectures have gone very downhill so im not sure how that plays in here
not many examples to go off of
standard coordinates mean the usual coordinates where like (1,0,0) points in the x-axis direction, (0,1,0) points in y-axis, etc.
if they had just written "Find the matrix of T"
it would mean the same thing, since it's always the "standard coordinates" unless otherwise specified
You can get T's matrix by seeing where the standard basis on R4 goes
oh cause thats the identity right
Let's say you multiply T by [1,0,0,0]. Then you'll get the first column of T.
We can do this backwards instead, by seeing where T sends [1,0,0,0] and recognizing that's the first column of R
Hmm. Kinda hard to say where the vectors go, though
for this problem it's probably fastest to use the orthonormal basis in (a), put it as the columns of a matrix Q, and compute T = QQ^T
oh i misread
i thought (a) asked for orthonormal
not just orthogonal
well i'd just continue to orthonormal
and then do (b)
and so just to make sure i understand it, unless specified it is always using standard coordinates
because they always tell me to use standard coordinates and it makes me think there is an extra step
past finding T
Yes, if they ever want non-standard coordinates they have to specify which non-standard basis to use
and thats when i would have to change the basis of T?
yeah, they would have to say something like "find the matrix of T with respect to the basis B = {v1,v2,v3,v4}"
oh ok that makes sense. got most of 4 done but thought i had to convert T to standard basis or something
thank you both
anyone know how I might go about proving this? been stuck on it for a few hours, not sure what to do
of course I want to show $\vec v_i\cdot\vec n=0$, but it's proving move work than just doing some simple algebra
Stract:
I tried expanding out into $v_{i_1}C_{11}+\ldots+v_{i_n}C_{n1}=v_{i_1}\mathrm{det}(A(1,1))+\ldots+v_{i_n}(-1)^{n+1}\mathrm{det}(A(1,n))$ where $A(i,j)$ denotes $A$ with the $i$th row and $j$th column removed
Stract:
but this feels like a dead end
I can do some factoring if I expand out dets into their cofactor based definition, kinda, but it doesn't really help anyways
I feel like it's kind of a nasty proof either way but in any case if anyone sees a route that might work then I'd appreciate it!
for 3c i found the null space right
and its two vectors
does that mean that x can be either?
@teal topaz you might find the proof of Cramer's rule useful. For general matrices A with columns b_1,...,b_n, the cofactor expansion shows that b_1 * n is exactly det(A), because vector n contains the cofactors corresponding to the 1st column of A. Note that vector n does not depend on the values in the 1st column of A. Now if you take any vector v, and compute v*n, then this gives you det(B), where B is the matrix where you replace the 1st column of A with the vector v.
If you apply this reasoning (which shows up in the proof of Cramer's rule) it should give you a quick proof
ah interesting, I'll take a look at that. Thanks!
@limpid nymph unless I'm mistaken you don't need to actually compute the nullspace since being in the nullspace already tells you what is T(x)
oh wait T(x) would be zero then right?
yeah maybe i have to prove that?
I wouldn't expect so, if you defined nullspace as the set of all vectors x with T(x)=0
yeah one of the earlier questions had us do something like that idk why they repeated
so for this question basically
i know what to do
but when i make the matrix that the transformation equals
would i write (3,-4,5) as a column or row?
you'd write it as $T\begin{bmatrix}1\1\0\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}3\-4\5\end{bmatrix}$
uhh
how do i call the texit bot
aaaaaaa:
oh yay
ok thats what i thought and did for all 3 vectors but a TA told me i was wrong
but im pretty sure thats right
if T is 3x3 it has to act on a 3x1 (which is a column vector) not 1x3 (which is a row vector)
unless you want to write things like x T = b instead of Tx=b
but that would be weird
like did what you did but added 2 more columns for the other two results
and then built my equations and solved
i agree rows seems off
well she just told me that my final answer should be transposed
since no TA has been able to answer my questions i have one more for you if you dont mind
for this one i found my basis for null(T)
and know that T should have one lin independent vector due to rank theorem
but would i write my null basis and variable vector as columns or rows? and does order matter for that?
seems like it would change the transformation matrix if you dont put them in the right "order" but i also have never seen it matter
which leaves me confused
is the question asking you to find T?
oh yes
I think you could solve it just like the previous question, since once you have your two basis vectors v1 and v2 for the nullspace, you have T(0,0,-1)=(1,-1,1) and T(v1)=0, T(v2)=0
but write (0,0,-1), (1,-1,1), etc as columns
so that matrix multiplication is ok
oh i see
so my resultant matrix would be filled with two columns of zeros right?
would order effect that at all?
$T\begin{bmatrix}0&1/2&-1/2\0&0&1\-1&1&0\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}1\0&0\-1&0&0\1&0&0\end{bmatrix}$
aaaaaaa:
$T\begin{bmatrix}0&1/2&-1/2\0&0&1-1&1&0\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}1&0&0-1&0&0\1&0&0\end{bmatrix}$
aaaaaaa:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
\\
$T\begin{bmatrix}0&1/2&-1/2\0&0&1\-1&1&0\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}1&0&0\-1&0&0\1&0&0\end{bmatrix}$
aaaaaaa:
thanks weird it did that, it seems to remove the second \
thanks, thats what i had i just didnt know how to fill the matrix
hypothetically would the outcome be the same if i say flipped the positions of the first column and second column?
yeah, because then you'd also switch the columns in the right side matrix
in this case they're the same
but if T is a matrix that satisfies TA = B, then if you swap the same 2 columns in A and B it'll still satisfy
since T*(column i of A) = column i of B
that makes sense. I really need to remember that if you plug a nullspace vector in you get zero
thanks for your help!
you're welcome!
I_m?
usually indicates an m by m identity
^
Im probably being extremely dumb here, but can someone help explain to me whats going wrong with my gram schmidt calculations
Im supposed to find an orthogonal basis of the column space of that matrix
And the correct answer for v2 should be (1, 3, 3, -1) according to the solutions
there are infinitely many vectors orthogonal to v1. you're fine @viscid vale
i'll also say that the book's answer seems to suggest you're allowed to cut down on effort by just guess & checking a vector that's orthogonal to v1. for example off the top of my head i notice that (1,1,1,-1) is orthogonal to v1 and so is also a fine choice for v2
no prob
show us the problem then
For invertible matrix problems is it just knowing the invertible matrix theorem?
what's an "invertible matrix problem"
Unless otherwise specified, assume that all matrices in these
exercises are n x n. Determine which of the matrices in Exercises
1ā10 are invertible. Use as few calculations as possible. Justify
your answers
i guess the invertible matrix theorem might help but it sounds like the work will amount to glorified algebraic manipulations
What's the quickest way to determine if a matrix is invertible? I watched a video on khan academy where I can just find the det(A) = 0, but I only know how to do it for a 2x2 matrix.
oh okay
if you get a row of all zeroes, stop and conclude the matrix is not invertible
if you get all the way to the identity, the matrix was invertible
seems like everything in linear algebra is just row reducing matrices
I'm still confused about exactly what R^n is. I know (1 2) is in R^n, but everything in the form (x y) is also in R^2 right?
I know (1 2) is in R^n
iff n = 2
R^n is the space of all possible ordered lists of n numbers
an element of R^n is a vector with n components, if you wish
oh okay
that explanation makes more sense
Oh when row reducing to see if a matrix is invertible or not. It feels like there can be more possibilities than two options. Like you can row reduce fully and not get the identity
if you get a row of all zeroes, stop and conclude the matrix is not invertible
if you get all the way to the identity, the matrix was invertible
if you get a triangular matrix with no zeroes on the diagonal you can also conclude invertibility
Does it matter whether or not the triangle is in the upper or lower half?
it doesn't
That's D^4 / (2-D^2)^(1/2) = 3D^2 (2-D^2)^(1/2). Multiplyboth sides by (2-D^2)^(1/2)
now we have D^4 = 3D^2 (2-D^2)
D^4 = 6D^2 - 3D^4
Or 4D^4 - 6D^2 = 0
i think..
what is D here..? You sure this is a linear algebra question?
So I understand the concept of subspaces, but not sure how to do this problem.
What subspace does v1 and v2 generate?
span(v_1, v_2)
It is part of a larger calculus question
I figured since I was just having trouble with that part I would ask here
depth
when you simplified did you remember the sign at the first D?
-D^4
oh I see what you did...I think you did remember it
next time #prealg-and-algebra
ok no problem
Let's say I have v1 and v2. If v1 and v2 are linearly independent does that mean there's no x where x * v1 = v2 or x * v2 = v1?
Yes
Let's say I have a span(v1, v2) would the basis just be {v1, v2}?
only if they're linearly independet
"the" basis
Am I using the term basis incorrectly o.o?
you're pretending that some vector spaces have one and only one basis
if {v1, v2} is linearly independent then it is a basis for span(v1, v2)
but {v1+v2, v1-v2} will also be a basis for span(v1, v2)
and {7v1 + 6v2, 5v1 + 11v2} will be yet another basis
oh okay
gotcha
thought there was only one basis
I'm kind of confused of Null space. Is Nul A where A is a matrix always equal to the 0 vector?
The vectors you multiply with A
To get the 0 vector
The set of v such that Av = 0
Oh it's the vectors you multiply A with. That's what I was confused about
So the answer key says k = 5. Can't k be anything in this question?
oh nevermind....
forgot you can't just mutiply terms
Let's say you have an n x n matrix A. When would the columns of A not span R^n?
when they're linearly dependent lmao
who deleted my message
me because that was a joke in poor taste
sorry, i'll make better jokes in the future
hmm
is this channel free?
if dim Col(A) = 1, then all non-zero vector in Col(A) is an eigenvector of A
so the columns are all scalar mults of one another to form a basis of dim 1
but idk what to do now
you want to prove it?
if you have dim Col(A) = 1... then you immediately have that column space is spanned by a single vector
this is clearly the minimum number of spanning vector you need, since if span set is empty then you have V=0, so that vector form a basis
<@&286206848099549185>
oh wops missed that statement
that's ok
i'm not exactly sure how to relate eigen stuff with a matrix whose colums are the same
btw whats ur pfp its cute
If the dimension of the column space is 1, then all of the columns in the matrix are a scalar multiple of eachother. But wait, that's what an eigenvector is
Actually, no it's not. There's no guarantee your matrix isn't square?

oh sorry its all n by n
i did assume n by n above sorry lol
Okay, sick. That's what we needed, the input space and the output space are the same
Alright, let's get our fishes in a row
:P there's a fish and a cat and a doggi
We have a square matrix A. We are interested in the multiplication Ax where x is a size n vector
the most superior one is obviously cat 
but i am catfish
We have a square matrix A. We are interested in the multiplication Ax where x is a size n vector
@half ice
why multiplication?
can you confirm whether or not my method also works..?
there does exists a scalar to fit there
$(\sum \alpha_j\beta_j)/\alpha_i$
Publius:
If the dimension of the column space is 1, then all of the columns in the matrix are a scalar multiple of eachother. But wait, that's what an eigenvector is
@half ice
this I get, up to the "but wait"
eigenvectors are scalar multiple of some column vector
actually thats big wrong i think^ i'll stop talking
can i see the original problem again
wops sorry ed
you @lean yacht yourself
let v be such that Col(A) = span(v)
A is just a buncha v's
then v is an eigenvector of A because Av ā Col(A) and hence Av = cv for some constant c
yeah u lost me there
seems familar... :( one sec lemme see if this is in my book
Av is a linear combination of the columns of A
o
Col(A) is literally defined as the set of all vectors of the form Ax
Av is one of those
Av ā Col(A)
yes yes
what happens if Col(a) is 0 vecotr
then dim Col(A) will not be 1
o ccause span 0-vect is empty
mkay... i think i get it... just need to digest
Is any nXm invertible matrix a tensor?
why not write n x n
every matrix is invertible when you give it to a physicist
I mean in practice every matrix is invertible 
thonk
@pallid rampart
It's not more of a personal question, it's just so that I can tell it to this dude
His statement is ludicrous, but I don't know enough math to prove him wrong
How do i prove that sin(xt) and cos(yt) are linearly independent?
hand waved?
x = 0 usually does it I think @quaint sun
errr
@shrewd slate what do you mean? I plug in x=0 and get c_1=-c_2*cos(yt)
His statement is ludicrous, but I don't know enough math to prove him wrong
it's like when someone said they found non trivial integer soln to x^3 + y^3 = z^3
O my b didnāt realize it was cos(yt) instead of cos(xt)
I think you can also do y=0 tho
The point is that since the functions arenāt scalars of each other, theyāre lin indep
And if they were scalars of each other, they would be scalars multiples of each other at any point
So, let a and b be constants, let y=0,a*sin(xt)+b=0, b=-asin(xt)
x=0 and y=0
what
what is the question
show that sin(xt) and cos(yt) are lin. independent for all x, y?
How do i prove that sin(xt) and cos(yt) are linearly independent?
what are the variables
x,y,t
.........
could you give the exact statement
of the question
with full context
"Show that {sin(xt), cos(yt)} are a linearly independent set"
The first thing i did to try and solve this is let t=0, so i got asin(0)+bcos(0)=0, b=0
thats all the information you have?
Yes
alright, sure
Could i plug that back in and assume sin(xt) isnt zero to show a=0
im not sure what you mean by "plug that back in"
a*sin(xt)+(0)*cos(yt)=0
oh, sure
Would that prove that both of the constants would have to be zero for this statement to be true and therefore they are linearly independent?
how do you know sin(xt) is nonzero?
Well i dont lol
this is a weird question though since, if x = 0 then this set clearly isnt linearly independent
hence why im asking for clarification
if you assume x is nonzero though [and also y is nonzero]
then you can set t = pi/(2x)
just as an example
then sin(xt) is certainly nonzero
while bcos(yt) is zero since b = 0 is given by taking t = 0
I am also given the assumption that x doesnt equal y
Yeah, i missed that part because it was a 2 part question, I have to do the same thing but with sin(xt) and sin (yt)
Does anyone know this?
this is not linear algebra
I don't know where to put it
see #prealg-and-algebra or a generic questions channel
but uh
asking for help during exams
is against the rules
@limber sierra probably not a good idea to recommend a channel for that lol
yeah i onyl realized that it was an exam
after posting that
had i seen that it was an exam, i wouldnt have recommended
all good she went to that channel anyway to get answers lol
https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/linmultialg/diffeqdim.pdf
If anyone else has read this, why does Theorem 4.1 not work for real function coefficients? Does something go wrong with the conjugation operation I'm not seeing? (this is a short article btw not a textbook so I don't scare anyone away) (crosspost from diffeq chat)
can someone check this proof that a zero vector is unique (I know itās really easy but this is my first time with proofs and Iām on my own)
that works in this case, yes
but a couple small notes:
(i) Going from $v + 0_1 = v + 0_2$ to $v-v+0_1 = v-v+0_2$ is not actually a valid mathematical operation. I mean, how do you describe what you just did? ``Added $-v$ to both sides, but in the middle?"
Namington:
Fortunately, this problem is easily fixed by instead writing $-v + v + 0_1 = -v + v + 0_2$ instead
Namington:
or by noting that vector addition commutes
and so it doesnt matter
still, for a first proof, its worth noting that technically, without those axioms, this step wouldnt be justified
(ii) It might be preferable to use "+ (-v)" notation for now, if you haven't yet defined subtraction.
but besides those nitpicks, the argument totally works
ok thanks! Iām permitted the use of the other axioms (the little this proof is trivial part said you would need additive inverse)
yeah, i'm just mentioning that
if you had a theoretical structure without commutativity, you wouldnt be able to do this
in quite the same way
ok good to know for my future adventures š
like ok let me give a quick example
to clarify what i mean
you will probably prove at some point that function composition is associative
but function composition is NOT commutative
for exampe, if $f(x) = x+1, g(x) = x^2$, then $(f\circ g)(x) = f(x^2) = x^2 + 1$ while $(g\circ f)(x) = g(x+1) = (x+1)^2$
Namington:
as a result, lets say as a hypothetical we define
$f(x) = x + 1, g(x) = x^2, h(x) = 2x$
Namington:
then
[
(f \circ g)(x) = x^2 + 1
]
but it wouldnt make sense to ``compose the function $h$ in between $f$ and $g$"
Namington:
like on the left hand side, you'd get $(f \circ h \circ g)(x)$ sure
Namington:
but what would that mean on the right hand side?
anyway, as i said this doesnt really matter in the case of vector spaces
since we could just write
$(h \circ (f \circ g))(x) = h(x^2 + 1)$ and then use commutativity to swap the $h$ and $f$
Namington:
if we had commutativity
but we don't have commutativity in the case of functions
anyway, that's a side tangent
ok yeah I see what youāre saying that makes sense
just making sure it's clear why you're allowed to do what you're doing
ok thank you!
that said, that's a far better first proof than 99% i see
so take solace in that
i've seen a shocking amount that start from what they want to prove
and then reduce until they get 0 = 0 or whatever
haha I mean Iāve attempted some... bad ones before I wouldnāt even call proofs more like random spurts of math
done that
which is quite a powerful technique, let me tell you
exampe
"proof" that 1 = 2
1 = 2
multiply both sides by 0
0 = 0
true!
i cant really blame students for being confused though, its very much a "new" type of math
or at the very least, a new way to think about it
at this level, students can usually handle the argument perfectly well, it's just that stating that argument in a coherent way that doesn't abuse logic
is a bit tricky at first
Is this better?
yep, perfectly fine
if you want to be suuuuper explicit about it
you could note that $-v + v + 0_1 = (-v + v) + 0_1$
Namington:
because of associativity
and -v + v = 0
but i think that bit goes without saying
yeah I was assuming that would be understood
i certainly wouldnt dock marks for that
or anything
and it seems like you understand the idea
would you mind looking at this one for uniqueness of the additive inverse? My gut feeling is that I have an issue but Iām not sure how to tell what it is
same idea there, you're using the associative axiom without mentioning it but thats not a big deal
i'd recommend adding -v_1 instead of -v
it doesnt really matter but
that way its clear that you're not "introducing a third inverse"
ok ty!
u can have vectors inside vectors?
mm bad notation
i guess they just didn't want to write $\mathbf{w} = \mathbf{u} + \lambda \mathbf{v}$ fsr
Ann:
and wanted to be fancy schmancy
I was confused as hell at first and then when I looked at the solution they ended up writing $\mathbf{w} = \mathbf{u} + \lambda \mathbf{v}$ anyways
Clementine:
thank you!
here's some more abuse of notation
Someone can correct me if I'm wrong, but isn't del cross f a valid notation because del is an operator on the abstract vector space of functions? Just like you can define a square matrix D of nxn to differentiate in Pn?
even if that's the case, it's pretty dodgy putting operators as entries of a matrix
could someone explain what exactly an eigenspace is?
I don't understand why the basis of an eigenspace takes the same value as my eigenvectors at that given lambda
for an operator A, the eigenspace associated to an eigenvalue λ is just ker(A - λI)
wat
haven't learned about kernels yet
but am I right in that i'm getting my "basis of the eigenspace" as the eigenvectors at the given lambda?
no
the eigenspace is the set of vectors $\mathbf{v}$ that make $(A - \lambda I)\mathbf{v} = \mathbf{0}$
Namington:
so you have to find a basis for that
No I understand that
the eigenvectors for Ī»= 3 are the same as the basis for the eigenspace
I'm lazy so I didn't do that by hand but
which I'm just trying to understand fundamentally why this is happening
if the set of eigenvectors happens to form a basis, then yes, they are in fact a basis
but this doesnt always happen
there are a variety of conditions that let the above scenario happen
I feel like I should understand this but when wouldn't they form a basis
In the case of the stuff I'm doing it's looking like everything is nice because I keep getting my basis as the eigenvectors themselves
consider, for example
this matrix
how many eigenvectors does each eigenvalue of this matrix have?
hint: a lot
our eigenvalues are Ī»=1 and =2
correct?
oops forgot Ī»= 4
Because I'm not having a bad time finding all the eigenvectors and I verified with a calculator
actually, let me give a better example here
a bit simpler
take this matrix
one can calculate the eigenvectors and eigenvalues; if they do, they get these answers
but what about the eigenbasis?
lets say, the eigenbasis for lambda = 8
give me a sec, this takes a while to type
no worries
so it's basically just seeing if the eigenvectors are linearly independent of each other>?
but for most of what i'm doing im only getting one or two eigenvectors at most
couldn't I just look at the r.e.f of the eigenvectors
why does the number of eigenvalues affect if I have a basis of eigenvectors? Isn't it a basis within the eigenvalue, sort of
yes
I think I get it now I did more problems
I'll ask my prof in office hours tomorrow, I'm sure its a simple thing that I'm overthinking
You can have an eigenbasis without dim V distinct eigenvalues. Consider the identity map. There's only one eigenvalue, and any basis will be an eigenbasis.
you need at least V distict eigenvectors, it's fine to have more ^^
not too sure about this one
What's the span of the last matrix?
Well, if H is four dimensional, those three vectors cannot form a basis for H.
If you can write the last vector as a linear combination of the first three, then they could span H.
but if the last one is a linear combination of the other three wouldnt that make them linearly dependent
Well, it's asking if those first three vectors form a basis for H. If the last one is a linear combination of the first three, that means that it's already within the span of those three vectors, so the span of both sets of vectors would be equal. Because the first three vectors are linearly independent, this would mean that it forms the basis.
For H.
So they do form a basis
If I did the mental math correct (-2,3,4), then yes. another way to check would be to take the determinant of the matrix formed by those four vectors. And if that's zero, then that means that those four vectors are not linearly independent (and hence have span less than 4).
that last vector is a linearly dependent on the three others so yeh
Span with dimension less than four*
Alright that makes sense
Thank you
I am not familiar with the notation of the b subscript on x, what does that mean?
I don't know, but if I were to guess, it means to express it as a sum of those three basis vectors.
Subscript B meaning representation with respect to that basis.
Oh its asking to find the weights so you were right
This would just be R2 because there are 2 vectors right?
yes B contains 2 vectors
Therefore v is a vector in R2
no v is a vector in a subspace of R^3. the coordinate vector of v in the (probably ordered) basis B is a vector in R^2
So because H is in R5 did we subtract 2 because there are 2 vectors?
er that q got cut off so i assumed that reads "H is a subspace of R^3" but doesn't matter if it actually says R^5 instead
the main point is how many vectors B contains
But if the basis contains 2 vectors then wouldnt the vector be in R2 then?
it's an issue of terminology for you
$v$ is a vector in $H$ while $[v]_B$ is called the coordinate vector of $v$ wrt the ordered basis $B$
RokettoJanpu:
I think it is the terminology
But still if there are 2 vectors that form the basis
There can only be 2 weights on those, one for each vector
So wouldnt it be in R2
Why would it be in R3?
what you said is fine. also i never said that. here's what i have issue with
Therefore v is a vector in R2
v is a vector in H which is a subspace of R^5. you meant to say [v]_B is a vector in R^2
to break it down further, v is a vector in R^5 while [v]_B, the ordered tuple of "weights" of v relative to the basis B, is in R^2
A brief description and guide on how to use me was sent to your DMs! Please use ,list to see a list of all my commands, and ,help cmd to get detailed help on a command!
Does this row reduction look right? Iām confident until the last step
what's step 1?
Multiply the top by four then subtract it by the bottom
To replace the bottom
Oh, just figured out I can check on wolfram alpha
yeah you messed that up
Did think it would be able to do row reduction
I got the same answer as it is on Wolfram Alpha, could've just been luck though
What should I have done instead?
what's 4*row1?
what

š¤ 