#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 6 of 1
@dusky epoch can you help me get a better idea of how T-cyclic spaces work
what's a T cyclic space
not q sure if I have right idea for what it means if V is a T-cyclic space (where T in End V)
what's the defn
Let T ∈ Endo(V), and we'll keep it simply and say V is fdvs. Then we say W is a T-cyclic subspace if there exists v ∈ V such that {T^k(v)} is a basis for W
think that's right

i.e., v,Tv,T^2v,...
never seen that before & don't immediately recognize it
yeah, it's a bit confusing
so you get what a T-cyclic space is?
So um
Can V be T-cyclic when min poly is not full rank?
ie its degree differs from characteristic
sorry, sorta thonking today
@dusky epoch ?
@wintry steppe

is there any good linear algebra book that you guys can recommend?
linear alg with applications seems alright
explanations aren't too difficult generally
There's many linalg books, and many are good, but they go in different directions. What "flavour" of linalg do you want? Do you want the "pure math" approach of full generality and lots of proofs, or do you want to work with matrices and learn about their applications?
I'd probably prefer the latter, but i think i might be interested on both lol
Hi guys, is S1 the only set which is a basis for R^4
Thank you! @winter reef what about this question? my answer is that all statements are false due to the inconsistent linear system , not sure about III though
this is the whole question, i'm wrong about that
I mean vector (-1,-1,10) has to be ins span R^3
not sure what's S
without knowing whats S you cant al;so determine first question I think
because if S is something like (x1,x2,0) then u1,u2,u3 span S
ill let sascha answer your questions
span(S) will be either all of R^3 (if they’re linearly independent) or a 2-dimensional subspace (if they’re not), I’m too lazy to check if they are
they gotta be lienarly dependent
oh yea cause they are in the row echelon form eh?
cause you can reduce with 1,0,0
yes
then it’s a 2-dimensional subspace
does that mean v does not belong to span(S)
okay I got it
Is I and III the answer? I is not true because w is a non zero vector and III is not true because there are 4 coordinates when there should be 3 only
yea, I agree
Thanks! For this question, are II and IV the only statement that is definitely false?
oo I forgot about that, is IV definitely false because we know since the span represent a plane in R^3, that would imply it is linearly dependent, so IV is definitely false
if say, span(u1, u2, u3) is linearly dependent, can we say that u2, u3 or u1, u3 etc, is linearly dependent?
no
consider the set (1,2,3), (4,5,6), (7,8,9)
each pair is linearly inpendent
but the whole set it dependent
all you know is that there is some finite subset which is dependent, but it need not be a pair
here’s an interesting example:
consider the set
(1, 0, 0,…), (0, 1, 0,…), … together with (1, 1, 1,…) in the space of sequences in ℝ
is this set linearly dependent?
so like for eg (1, 0, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0, 0), (0, 0, 1, 0), (0, 0, 0, 1), (1, 1, 1, 1)?
don't you list the vectors down in a matrix
to determine if its linearly dependent or independent
I see, how do you tell if its independent or dependent then? that question you posed
and stuff like row echelon form really only makes sense for finite matrices, so forget about all that
they’re linearly dependent if and only if there is a nontrivial linear combination of the vectors resulting in 0
equivalently, they’re linearly independent if the only linear combination resulting in 0 is the trivial one (all coefficients 0)
ahh
important reminder: linear combinations are finite sums
thanks for the help! @broken hawk
linearly dependent right?
why?
you can express it in a non trivial combination but i think i'm thinking about it wrongly because I'm thinking about it in terms of matrix
what’s the combination?
-1 (1) + 1(1) = 0
uh, what?
for a bit of notation, let’s call e_i the vector with a 1 at the i-th position and 0s everywhere else
and then idk, v is the one with all ones
and remember, these are infinite vectors and there are infinitely many of them
we’re in the space $\mathbb{R}^\mathbb{N}$, if you will
Sascha Baer:
-1( e_1 + e_2 + ... + e_i) + 1(v) = 0 ?
wouldn't v take care of it
the v adds a 1 there
right now, that left sum is 0s for the first i positions
and then 1s afterwards
yeah
I assume what you actually want is you take v and then subtract all the e_i
yeah
but you can’t do taht cause that’s an infinite sum
and we only allow for finite ones in linear combinations
yea, vectors can live in infinite-dimensional spaces
how am I gonna express it in finite linear combination
when they are infinite
it just keeps going on and on
are you happy to say that π+e is a finite sum?
π?
π as in 3.14159etc
is 1/3 finite
it is. finite sum just means ”finitely many numbers in the sum”, which numbers they are doesn’t matter
(note number ≠ digit)
(digits don’t matter)
similarly, each of those vectors are just… vectors. you need infinitely many bits of information to write them out, but they’re still just single vectors
just trying to clear up the confusion
so the thing is this
you cannot find a finite collection of the e_i and v that sum up to 0 in a nontrivial way
you would need all of them
because obviously any collection of just the e_i are linearly independent since they all have a 1 at a different location and you can’t “annihilate” that with the others
so we’d have to add v to it, but then we get infinitely many 1s and can only subtract finitely many
so we cannot get to 0
this means that indeed the set
(1, 0, 0, 0, …)
(0, 1, 0, 0, …)
(0, 0, 1, 0, …)
⋮
together with
(1, 1, 1, 1, …)
is indeed linearly independent
which is counter-intuitive if you ask me
it’s because the vector-space of sequences is actually uncountably-dimensional!
"only subtract finitely many" is referring to the condition for calculating linear combination?
yes
wow
there’s a reason why intro linalg tends to just kinda look the other direction when you mention infinite dimensional vector spaces
they’re a lot more counterintuitive and a bunch of important theorems only work in the finite case
for example:
”Let V be a vector space and W a subspace of V. If W is isomorphic to V, then W=V”
this is only true in the finite dimensional case
am I right to say that, referring to the example you gave, the set linearly independent because we can't calculate it to be equals to 0 base on the condition of linear combinations
could you try and say that again?
the set is linearly independent because we can't sum it up to zero
and that's because of the condition
I wouldn’t call it a condition as much as a definition
yeah so because of the definition we can't find the non-trivial solution
well, it doesn’t exist, rather :P
“we can’t find it” makes it sound like there is one, but we’re too dumb to find it
oh, I was referring to the idea of summing up e_i and subtracting v which is not allowed by definition
thanks for sharing though learnt something new today 
oh btw do you want a reason as to why we only allow finite combinations?
like, just an example that would break otherwise
didn't you mention it is definition
yea but definitions have reasons
and you can always wonder why it was defined that way
and what would change if we altered it
in fact you should always do that
infinite sums are icky in fields that aren't, like, R or C
I guess that’s one reason
or generally non-topological fields
but I was gonna give a much more pragmatic argument
which is? 😃
so, polynomials, right?
the polynomials form a vector space
seen that example yet?
nope
the standard basis is {1, x, x², x³, …}
you can see that every polynomial is some finite sum of these
you can just read off the coefficients, really
3x² + 2x - 1 has coefficients (-1, 2, 3, 0, 0, 0, …)
with me so far?
yes
now the important thing about polynomials is that they’re always finite
like, there’s always a highest power of x
(otherwise they’d be power series)
but now the thing is, if we allowed for infinite linear combinations, suddenly you could get a “polynomial” like 1 + x + x² + x³ + …
e^x would be a polynomial too
lol
and we definitely don’t want that
one thing that is to be noted there is that in introductory linalg classes you sometimes encounter findim subspaces of that (i.e. the space of polynomials of degree at most n or sth) in practice problems
so if we want the set of all polynomials to be a vector space we really don’t want to allow infinite combinations
wow
anns argument is pretty important too though
you’re probably only familiar with vector spaces over ℝ and maybe ℂ
which are very “well-behaved”
but there’s e.g. the field 𝔽₂
which is just the numbers 0 and 1, with the rule 1+1=0
(and everything else works as you’d expect)
(e.g. adding 0 does nothing)
take any finite field tbh
now, for example 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 0, which you can verify quickly
shush, examples are easier if you can actually show them
abstract nonsense is nice but not always useful to get a point across
what is 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + …?
now of course not all infinite sums in ℝ make sense either
but at least some do. but in 𝔽₂ most don’t
in finite fields the only infinite sums that make sense are really just ones with a tail of zeroes
also btw the reason I chose 𝔽₂ over all the other finite fields is because it has characteristic 2 and that tends to produce counterexamples like crazy
so it’s a good one to have in the back of your mind
hahaha I came here asking a few questions and am leaving with so much more knowledge
anyway I should go back to my probability homework
which I’m definitely not just avoiding rn
thank you!
stats 
U still need help? @primal beacon
Just use the midpoint formula
The answer in the pic is correct
Nah it's ok
Just practise more
Depends on the difficulty
Usually more is better but don't overwork ur brain and have some time to take a break
Oh good luck
work smarter not harder
so i found the matrix for 1.i
[r 2s]
[s r]
but i’m not quite sure what 1.ii is asking for
Elementary column operations are rank preserving, right?
yes
thanks!
yes, but not determinant-preserving!
(they change it in very predictable ways though)
Preserves whether or not the determinant is zero, but that's implied by rank preserving
Could I get some help with this one?
find 2 linearly independent eigenvectors with eigenvalue 1 and 1 vector in Ker φ, and that'll be your basis
OOH
I see
thanks
Also a question: if I have transformation R4 into R4 and it has only one eigenvalue but a double one then basis of subspace of these eigenvecotrs are just 2 vecotrs? How would a matrix of this transformation in this basis look like? on first two entries of diagonal 2s and rest are zeroes?
2 vectors can hardly make a basis of R⁴ x')
Yeah that's what I thought, so if I find eigenvalues and I get only one but a double one (transfromation is in R4) then it's not possible for this to be diagonalizable?
indeed, it's not diagonalizable
wait maybe im just stupid and did a transpose, the first row in the matrix of this transforamtion should be 2,0,0,0?
Ok I did a transpose I think fuCK
2,0,0,0 should be column right?
I mean how should the matrix look like
of the transformation
I think I did trnaspose instead,
@winter reef split the transposed vector up into linear combinations of xk's
ye
what i mean is that you can split up that whole vector on the right hand side into:
x1 v1 + x2 v2 + x3 v3 + x4 v4
and use the def of matrix multiplication w/ a vector to create a matrix:
[v1 v2 v3 v4]
I know
Im just studying for 10 hours
and im just not sure
of anything
so its the columns right?
thats what im asking, if I cant do that I wont do what you said as well lol im tired
the transformation here is just transposed. I usually rewrite as column vectors
could you PLEASE tell me how the matrix of this transformation looks like
or draw in paint
whatver
pLEASE
Thank you
but I still dont get it
since
it breaks my fucking problem
I mean the question doesnt make sense now I think idk
think of the column by coordinate definition of matrix w/ vector multiplcation. This is that in reverse.
yeah thats what I did, I did it correctly (if you did) but this matirx now is not diagonalizable and my homework doesnt make sense now
so idk
maybe thats a bait
guys I dont udnerstand, one person said to find two eigenvectors with eigenvalue 1, but how do I do taht if its a transformations from R3 to R5? (different dimensions)
<@&286206848099549185>
ye
@slow scroll why
think about the matrix that describes a transformation from R5->R5. It is a square matrix. If the transformation is onto, then its matrix in echelon form has a pivot in every row. If a square matrix has pivot in every row, then it has a pivot in every column (meanings its injective).
If you don't want to introduce matrices, you can think about how you could construct a linear transformation from R5 -> R5 that is surjective. Any surjective transformation you can construct (mappings between basis vectors) would also have to be injective.
got it! the matrix explanation helped
np
I have a couple more questions for u if thats ok
ah thats right it need to go tthrough the origin
true. also "a" is like the transformation of the basis vector in R. i.e. T(1) = a. Linear combinations of 1 will tell you how T affects the rest of R. b just ruins everything :p
the exception is when 2 of the linear equations are linear combinations of the other i think
if you write the 3x2 matrix that it represents, the two bottom rows should get zeroed out leaving you with only one pivot row/column.
you said 3 linear equations in 2 variables
oh uh. I wasn't really talking about the augmented matrix. You can do all of that if you want, but it is sufficient to work with Ax = 0, that way the augmented part is just always zero
@placid oracle wait oof that was dumb. yes ur right. its a 3x3 augmented matrix
yea row pivots concern existence. pivot columns concern uniqeness
there are only two columns, so there can only be one free variable here
errr uh two columns in the coefficient matrix lol
ur right that the third column does matter, especially when you are dealing with inconsistent equations where there is a pivot in the last row of the augmented matrix. It just wasn't too important in this case, thats why i keep forgetting about it lol
the free variable is special case. You were asking about the exception. a 3x2 matrix can certainly have a pivot in every column, so there are definitely situations where there are no free variables
Basically, the echelon form of a 3x2 matrix could look something like this:
$ \begin{pmatrix} 1&0\0&1\0&0 \end{pmatrix}$ or this $ \begin{pmatrix} 1&0\0&0\0&0 \end{pmatrix}$ @placid oracle
bigboy77584:
ok, so using an augmented matrix is not necessary
It is, but im only paying attention to pivot columns. Pivot columns in the augmented matrix mean basically nothing. If you had something like this $ \begin{pmatrix} 1&0&a\0&1&0\0&0&b \end{pmatrix}$ then we get that the system is inconsistent because 0!=b. i.e. there is a pivot in the last row
bigboy77584:
other way around xd. this happens $ \begin{pmatrix} 1&0\0&0\0&0 \end{pmatrix}$ whenever the two bottom linear equations are linear combinations of the top
bigboy77584:
no pivot in the second column = free variable
yes mb mixed it up
{0} is not linearly independent.
other than the trivial one mb, it says x is nonzero
oh i didn't see non zero. I don't think so. at least not in R^n. There might be examples in C or something tho.
the complex numbers. I was thinking about something wrong tho. I don't believe there are examples in C. Not sure about other fields tho 🤷
and ok, i havent really learnt muich about complex numbers since algebra 2 anyways
yea mea either. im def. not qualified to talk about complex numbers 
someone say complex numbers?
C as a real vector space is isomorphic to R^2
(and admits a rather obvious basis, too: {1, i})
a set consisting of a single nonzero vector is LI in any vector space.
suppose the E1E2E3E4...En A = B, where each Ek is an elementary row operation, then
Ac = 0
E1E2E3E4...En Ac = E1E2E3E4...En 0
Bc = 0
If A can be transformed to B by elementary row operations, then the inverse of those operations take you back to A.
so like Ann said, the other direction is kinda trivial.
okay, round 2... I was thinking about using rank(A) in some way, but that way seems kind of flawed now...
why do you even need RREF tho
what does the subscript number j on Col_j mean?
@wintry steppe so um
linear algebra
T*T
T__T
in the real case T*T is symmetric, in the complex case it's hermitian
yeah idk what else u can do
feel as though you want to apply spectral theorem somehow tho
i don't know 
@placid oracle are we talking about polynomials here?
in latex, its \begin{pmatrix} \end{pmatrix}
put &'s between each coordinate and do \\ to start a new row of the matrix
bigboy77584:
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Enzo:
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right so you need the transformation $T:\mathbb R^3 \to \mathbb R$ described by $T(\mathbf x) = \frac{a}{3} + 2b + 3c$ assuming that calculus is all right lol.
bigboy77584:
it is, not sure where to go from here though
you want to separate the rhs into linear combinations of a, b, and c. and use the definition of a matrix to write [v1 v2 v3][a b c]^T
does that make sense?
did u forgot the word calculations and wrote calculus
nah i meant as in "if i am integrating polynomials correctly"
oops
@slow scroll not really...
,$ \frac{1}{3} a + 2 b + 3 c = \begin{pmatrix} \frac{1}{3} & 2 & 3 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} a \ b\c \end{pmatrix}
bigboy77584:
the standard basis for polynomials, yea
its like x^2 = (1, 0, 0), x = (0,1,0), 1 = (0, 0, 1)
its just the "standard basis" just like how we use linear combinations of (1, 0, 0) (0, 1, 0) (0, 0, 1) to describe 3 tuples.
@placid oracle err i should say the standard basis is linear combinations of x^2, x, and a constant.
oh i knew it was the standard basis, i just thouight it was diff for polynomials
ok, so what next
different how? 
Enzo:
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\begin{pmatrix} 1&0&0\0&1&0\0&0&1 \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} a\b\c \end{pmatrix}
bigboy77584:
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this? what?
well thats a map from R3 to R3. An integral maps to R.
its what I had before:
https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/540211747613704221/554917938847678465/195237017049759744.png
a 1x3 matrix
1/3, 2, 3 are the columns i.e. the transformations of the basis vectors T(x^2) = 1/3, T(x) = 2, T(1) = 3
then I just did the reverse of the column by coordinate definition of a matrix in order to figure out the right hand side
its onto, but not one to one
why, what matrix u using to check
take a look at the picture I have above. We have
1/3 a + 2b + 3c where a, b, c can be anything we want. Is there a number we can't represent as a linear combination of 1/3, 2, and 3? Nope. Therefore the columns span all of R, and this equation is onto because it always has a solution for input (a, b, c).
Is it one to one? Well for it to be one to one, the columns of our matrix have to be linearly independent so that the solutions are unique. For what entries of (a,b,c) does 1/3 a + 2b + 3c = 0. An infinite number of entries. Therefore the columns are linearly dependent and solutions to our transformation are not unique, so its not one to one.
You can also use the usual column/row pivot argument too, just thought it seemed a bit overkill for this particular setup.
thank u mate, i get it completely !
u help me out almost everyday btw, ur amazing 😄
yea np. I'm a beginner in LA too. Answering people's questions just helps me get more comfortable, so I'm happy to help 
👌
is the < > notation consistent with the definition of "a cyclic group generated by"?
<> is a notation used for different things in different contexts
Take <M, v> for example
Not really linear algebra I don't think
I've seen the notation in linear algebra, so wondered if it's consistent with the abstract algebra definition
span
It's C. Because that's the one with a slope of 3 that contains (3,0). Also this isn't linear algebra.
reality check pls: if $T \in \End V$ induces an eigenbasis ${l_k:1 \leq k \leq dim V}$ we have by def that
$$
T(x) = T(\sum \alpha_k l_k ) = \sum \alpha_k T(l_k) = \sum (\alpha_k \lambda_k)l_k
$$
for $\lambda_k$ the eigenvalue associated with $l_k$.
flimflam:
ye
whew
quick question
For $V=U⊕W$ does $T ∈Endo(U⊕W)$ generally refer to like
$$T = T_U + T_W∈ Endo V: T_U|{U} ∈ Endo U, T_W|{W} ∈ Endo W$$
or can it still be anything in $T ∈ Endo(V)$?
feel as though I might want like
$$T = T_U +T_W \in Endo(U) \oplus Endo(W) \subset Endo(U \oplus W) = Endo(V)$$
flimflam:
@dusky epoch r u there
@jagged pendant, @lean aspen
@honest swift does this make any sense
you do not necessarily have such a nice decompostion
well
I know that
I meant more like notation
Endo(U+W) not really meaningful then on its own I imagine?
since that's just EndoV?
ya like the way i view this in my head is
like
(for niceness purposes V is finite dimensional)
you split the matrix of T into blocks
the nice decomposition is when the scribbles are 0
Mentally I imagine it works something like the following:
Say, $V= V_1 \oplus V_2$, we have
$$\End(V,W) \cong \End(V_1 \oplus V_2,W) \cong
({V_1 \oplus V_2})^\ast \otimes W \overset{?}\cong
(V_1^\ast \otimes W) \oplus (V_2^\ast \otimes W)$$a
then if you let V=W the matrix u posted will have a map like
$$\End(V_1) \oplus \End(V_2) \cong
(V_1^\ast \otimes V_1) \oplus (V_2^\ast \otimes V_2)$$
flimflam:
tbh not even sure why (U⊕W)* would be U*⊕W*
e: (U⊕W)* = Hom(U⊕W, k) = Hom(U, k)⊕Hom(W, k)?
I mean for fdvs everything seems to check out at least
Would these classify as proper rotation matrices?
These are rotations for 4D but I multiplied the orthogonal planes together which is why XY and ZW are in the same matrix, XZ and YW are, etc
Does this work, or am I screwing up the math since matrices aren't commutative?
first one looks okay since it's the direct sum of rotations in 2D
@jagged pendant how simultanuous diag work 
why does there exist such a basis
also umm
just thonks but
if you assume you have commuting maps, their rank is equal (and thus kernel). If they're diagonalasible , then
how do you show that there will exist a basis diagonalising them simultaneously
@jagged pendant
you said you didn't get to weight spaces right
is there a "trick" to this question or is just expanding out P*P and solving the only method
I'm trying to find a linear transformation to send functions f which are continuous over the interval [a,b] to g. Is there some property I'm overlooking? Some way I can manipulate the integral?
Do you already know it’s possible because it doesn’t seem doable to me
should probably be f →g, and seems like convolution
it's a homework assignment, so im presuming it's possible, and yes, f is a function put in the transformation L sent to g(x)
g(x) = Stuff( g(t-x) )

seems a bit, circular
BUT, assuming stuff is well defined
wouldn't L{ f(t) } = ∫ f(t)g(t-x)dt = g(x) be linear anyway?
There's a problem in the definition sinxe it says it sends f from C[a,b] to C[a,b]
But g(x) is a value
So it should be g, not g(x), or it should be R instead of C[a,b] on the right
Hello guys, the two conditions for a set to be a basis for V is when the set is linearly independent and it spans across V
when checking if a set is linearly independent, assuming it is linearly independent, wouldn't the results of gaussian elimination tells us also that the set spans across V? since the linear system would be consistent
yep
no
you can have, say, a set of two vectors in R^7 be linearly independent
but those won't span all of R^7
also it's "spans V", not "spans across V"
If the number of vector linearly independant is equal to the dimension of the space, then linear independance is enough to say it's a basis
ok but a spanning set of vectors is consistent for all v in V
I was about to say that @wanton spoke , thanks for confirming
thank you @dusky epoch as well !
what do you mean by "a spanning set is consistent"
if you wrote the the set of vectors in a matrix, there is a solution x that solves Ax = b for all b in the space
a set of vectors spans a space iff Ax=b is consistent for all b im pretty sure
and u can use elimination to figure out whether thats the case
When checking if a set of vectors spans a vector space, if it is verified (using gaussian elimination) that one of the vectors in the vector space is a linear combination of the set of vectors, is it safe to assume that the set of vectors spans the vector space?
since the numbers in the linear system would always be the same when doing gaussian elimination except for the results which is dependent on the vectors in the vector space
actually no, scrap that, we can't assume
how abusive notation is it to use A for a matrix and linear map if V = F^{n x m}
idk I prefer using $L_A$ for the map, or alternatively $[T]_\mathcal{B}$ for the matrix
Sascha Baer:
wait, hang on, the space is the space of matrices
wait
then a linear map would be a matrix of matrices
idk you said that V was the space of n×m matrices over F
I assumed you actually meant that A: Fⁿ → Fᵐ
slash A in F^{n×m}
Clarification: A in M(n,F), also A in Endo F^n
imo, it’s fine as long as it’s absolutely clear what the basis is
s t a n d a r d b a s i s
but a matrix representation always fixes a basis
I don’t really believe in the standard basis tbh
like in its existence
every basis is the standard basis if we label it that way
we typically distinguish 1_F from other units (nonzero elements)
such is linear algebra
does this make sense:
Write
$$A = [T]{\mathcal J}= \bigoplus{k} [T|{W_k}]{\mathcal J_k} =
\bigoplus_k J_{n_k}(\lambda_k)$$
for the jordan block decomposition $T$ with respect to jordan base $\mathcal J = \bigcup \mathcal J_k$ formed from the jordan bases of the irreducible blocks.
flimflam:
what

the fuck is this saying
What are A and W_k and J_k?
yeah this is correct
you are just saying that jordan blocks are a thing
and yeah they are
yeah I haven't proven anything yet
looks fine
thanks
hey does anyone know good programs for linear algebra/multivariable calculus functions?
does eigenvector mean generalized eigenvector or eigenvector
😰
like $$A := \begin{pmatrix} \lambda & 1 \ 0 & \lambda\end{pmatrix}$$
has eigenvector $(1,0)^T$, and generalized eigenvector $(1,1)^T$right?
e: also eigenvalue λ & generalized eigenvalues λ
but the latter isn't an "eigenvector"since
$$(\lambda I - A)(1,1)^T \neq (0,0)^T$$
flimflam:
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@wintry steppe
is there any special properties about a transpose of a matrix multiplied by a matrix
then taking the inverse of that matrix
like whats the relationship of the inverse of that matrix and the inverse of the original matrix
Both the inverse and the transpose are order reversing.
(AB)' = B'A'
(AB)¯¹ = B¯¹A¯¹
' being transpose
Np! Feel free to ask if you have anything else!
ok sry for asking again so soon
but the solution has an 85 in the bottom right and i have no idea where that comes from
im not getting it from A-1(A-1)'
this is what the inverse of K looks like
but that is nowhere near A^-1(A^-1)'
oh crap
i solved A-1 wrong lmao
nvm nvm yikes
you only need two linearly independent vectors to span R2 so....
the third vector has a y coordinate, so it works out. In fact, you only need 1 of the first 2 columns and the third column to get a spanning set
ah alright.
ty
np
can someone help me on 37
why is the anwwer clockwise rotation of theta = pi/2
<@&286206848099549185>
surely you mean counterclockwise rotation by π/2
try considering what happens to the standard basis vectors
what happens to [1;0]? where does it get sent?
sorry i dont gt wat that means
the unit vectors in the x axis and y axis
what is A*[1;0]?
0 1
and what is A * [0;1]
[-1;0]
right
so do you see now
so would you agree that the basis vectors are rotated 90 deg counterclockwise
they both got rotated a quarter turn ccw
ohhhh
in general
the matrix [cos(θ) -sin(θ); sin(θ) cos(θ)] rotates ccw by an angle of θ
owo
what is this called? Linear map rotations?
rotational matrix
ok
i mean the matrix that ann posted is called that
sorry for asking dumb questions this is a quick intro to linear algebra unit
it wasnt a dumb q
also
you can read off what happens to the basis vectors by looking at the columns of that matrix
the 1st column is [0;1]
so i gets sent to 0,1
lol
ok
i saw on the internet that [0 -1; 1 0] is 90 ccw, [-1 0; 0 1] is 180 ccw and [0 1; -1 0] is 270 ccw
that's right
are we just applying this info
...kinda? not really those specific matrices but did you see the matrix that ann posted
[cos(θ) -sin(θ); sin(θ) cos(θ)]
exactly
rt3/2 is sin(pi/6), yes
but we are looking for something else
...cos, since the first entry of that matrix is cos theta
i mix up the unit circle all the time haha
so the linear map would just be a rotation by pi/6 rad
not really
the rotational matrix is usually defined for rotation by theta in ccw direction
ok thx
rt3/2 is sin(pi/6), yes
cos(π/6)
i corrected myself afterwards 
@flat pasture cw is just ccw but negative
thank u so much
If dot product is -1
Does that tell you anything about linear Independence
Example:
(1,-1,0)•(0,1,-1)=-1
But they are linearly independent
dot product being -1 tells you absolutely nothing
for any unit vector u, the dot product of u with -u is -1
Dot product tells you if two vectors are orthonormal or if two vectors are in the same sense
To test colinearity there's cross product instead
I have to use cramers rule for this, but I can't use an inverse matrix so I don't know how to approach this question.
I think you'd find the adjacency matrix then use that to find the determinant and then use that to find the inverse, but you can't use an inverse matrix wtf
Do you know the statement for cramer's rule? You only need to calculate determinants @wintry steppe
Yeah I figured it out after looking back at the rule. Thanks tho @half ice
if the subspace is one-dimensional, why not
Okay 😉
(in fact, a subspace being one-dimensional is defined as having a basis formed by one vector)
Cramers rule smh
my favorite subspace are 1D
quick question
let H, K be subspaces of V
show H intersect K is a subspace too
is it enough to simply say that since both H and K satisfy the properties needed for being subspaces of V, then any vector both in H and K also satisfy those properties, or do I very explicitly need to show all three properties?
those properties are not of the form "for all v in H, v satisfies <property not involving H>", so no, you cannot do that
ugh
lol
Wait, why? H and K are subspaces, so all vectors in H and K satisfy the properties. Why is that not enough to imply that all vectors in both H and K satisfy the properties too? I don't understand.
Note that the properties of a subspace don't belong to each vector of that subspace, but instead belongs to the space as a whole @rocky hill
If you chop a vector out of a vector space, it will usually (pretty much always) cease to be a space. So it's pretty surprising that the intersection of two spaces is also a space, as that's usually not the case with other structures
mmm

Note that the properties of a subspace don't belong to each vector of that subspace, isn't this contradicting the definition of a subspace though? The definition is for all vectors in the subspace, we are closed under addition, scalar multiplication, and we have the zero vector
...right?
basically you just have to spell it out more explicitly
so then all vectors in the subspace have those properties...?
It's a property that these vectors have because the space is the way it is
like, you just have to argue rigorously why $v,w \in H \cap K$ implies $v+w \in H \cap K$, and you’re absolutely right that it is not hard
Sascha Baer:
a few properties you can indeed take as induced
e.g. addition being associative and commutative
yeah it's just tedious and inelegant lol
but the closedness you have to show
(in my opinion)
anything on the operations is induced. closedness you have to show
which is like, one line each, but you must actually do that
It is tedious and ugly lol. That's common in "prove this has this structure" questions. Thing is, the result is beautiful and widely applicable
so something like, Let $u, v \in H \cap K$ then $u, v \in H$ and $u, v \in K$, then show closedness?
blorgon:
first of all
do you hvae the statement on which things you need to prove that a subset is a subspace?
there are three things you have to check
there’s a general theorem about this
0 vector, closed under addition, closed under scalar multiplication
yep
each should take you no more than one or two lines
if you want I can spoil it and show one of the arguments
the other runs exactly the same way
so if $u+v \in K$ and $u+v \in H$, that implies $u+v \in H \cap K$?
blorgon:
yes
that seems tenuous
I mean that’s the whole proof, really
it’s one line each
and then it’s done and you never ahve to do it again
ye, it just feels.... I dunno. I'm still not used to proving stuff. It all feels hand wavey to me to a degree
lol
this is exactly why you hvae to do it
fair enough
these are easy statements that you can do rigorously on your own
so it prepares you for much harder ones
what was handwavey is what you did before
the full, rigorous argument would run like this
fair enough
Let $v, w \in H \cap K$ be arbitrary. Since $v, w \in H$, $v + w \in H$ because $H$ is closed under addition. analogously, $v, w \in K$ and thus $v + w \in K$.
Thus $v+w$ is both in $H$ and $K$ and thus in $H \cap K$. Therefore $H \cap K$ is closed under addition.
Sascha Baer:
👍
note that I’m implicitly using the definition $H \cap K = {v \in V: v \in H \text{ and } v \in K}$
Sascha Baer:
I did not feel the need to spell that out
but of course it’s important that that’s the definition
since you're here, can I get a little hint on how to get started on detAB = detA detB
wow how did we suddenly get from elementary subspace stuff to determinants
which are way more complicated
lol
well the subspace one is for HW, but the determinant one was left as an extra thing my prof told us to try
the area of a region after a transformation 😄
idk why having the 0 vector is listed as part of the definition of a subspace tbh it follows from the other two properties
okay, that makes it a lot easier than any of the formal definitions then
they’re a lot nastier
I mean you can define the determinant via one of the algorithms for computing it
can detAB = detAdetB be done directly? or does it need induction or something?
or, what we did, as the unique function $det: M_{n \times n}(\mathbb{F}) \to \mathbb{F}$ which is multilinear, alternating and fulfills $det(I_n) = 1$
Sascha Baer:
this is extremely technical, of course
uh, so, I think you can probably just make a geometric argument based on your definition
but I can’t think of a good one off the top of my head
basically you wanna argue that:
if you first transform the unit cube with B, and then the resulting parallelopiped with A, then the area change is the same as teh product of the area changes of A on the unit cube times B on the unit cube
ye
for that I would probably employ the fact that shearing leaves area invariant, so you can move the parallelopiped after A back to some cuboid first
I don’t remember at all how we proved this ourselves tbh
I think we showed two things
- degenerate matrices have determinant 0
- the statement holds for elementary matrices
if one of the two matrices is degenerate, then their product is too, so the 0 case follows from 1
if neither are, then they’re a product of elementary matrices
for elementary matrices our formal definition worked particularly well, of course
gotcha. But yeah the geometric argument doesn't feel too rigorous lol
because it isn’t, really
I mean you can make it rigorous, I‘m sure of it
but I don’t think I could
not without a bunch of thinking at least
it’s the worst, innit
Best way to show it is probably to write both A =(A1,A2,...,An) and B similarly with Ai, Bi column vector then use the fact det is multilinear and alternate
Or wait, this doesnkt seem a good option my bad
So let phi be an endomorphism of V and let W be a subspace of V Such that for any alpha in W phi(alpha) is in W. How do I show, that if psi is transformation from W to W, then charachteristic polynomial of psi divides char. polynomial phi?
I tried to think that if it didnt then there would be an eigenvalue that is in W but not in V and somehow Get to cobtradicition but not sure if thats the way
Yes
yay
So like it looks pretty obvious but not sure how formally do I justify it
Probly has to do with Michael Jordan matrix
Are you sure you've written all the info?
if V=R³, W=span((1,0,0),(0,1,0)), phi=id and psi=some rotation of W with no real eigenvalue, it doesn't work though all the requirements are filled
Wait, psi=phi|W (cut to W? Not sure how to call it) = W- >W
ah, the restriction of phi on W
okay then you can choose a good basis such that the matrix of phi will have a big block for what happens in W, and you can show that big block is the matrix of psi
something like that
this took way too long to make
$\text{Mat}(\varphi)=\left[\begin{array}{ccc|ccc}
&&&&\
&\text{Mat}(\psi)&&&A\
&&&&&\
\hline
&&&&&
\
&0&&&B&\
&&&&&
\end{array}\right] $
Tuong:
Ok this makes sense to me but I have no idea how to actually write the proof. Because V is a subspace of X, dimV <= dimX. And if we have some transformation B: V -> Y, "there is no way it can map to a space of dimension higher than dimV." The part in quotations is the part I don't really know how to prove. Any ideas?
Let Vsp be a spanning set for V. Then AVsp is a spanning set for V after transformation.
|Vsp| ≥ dim(V) ≥ dim(AVsp)
As a spanning set always transforms to a spanning set, but a basis may not be a basis
Which makes algebraic what you were trying to say, you can't transform into a higher dimension
@slow scroll
Wtf tuong thats some PhD Latex level
you said "...then AVsp is a spanning set for V after transformation." AVsp doesn't necessarily span V tho, right? It could span some space of lower dimension?
@slow scroll
Sorry I mixed up what I was trying to say, AVsp is a spanning set for AV
Note that this can still span a space of lower dimension
A set of 4 vectors can span a 2D space
hmm i need to think for a bit
help
@broken girder what have you tried so far and where are you stuck?
Haven’t really tried anything but I think it’s about quadratic forms right?
do you know what it means for a quadratic form to be positive-definite?
do you know the definition?
what's giving you trouble here?
Can anyone here think of interesting projects or potential research papers involving adjacency matrices? Perhaps their usefulness in computing?
@dusky epoch positive-definite quadratic form means it always outputs a number ≥ 0
oh my bad. its > 0 for any non-zero vector
yes... so what's the problem exactly
you've now correctly stated the definition
and surely you've proved "if and only if" statements before?
yup
so in this question, we assume A to be a complex matrix right?
is <x,x> = x^H.B.x a quadratic form?
my textbook only talks about quadratic forms in the form of x^T.A.x, with real matrices A only
<x, y> = y^H B x is a sesquilinear form on C^n
and you can prove that even though A is a complex matrix that may very well not be real, x^H B x is a real number for all x
i see
so when we say a complex matrix is non-singular, it means that the determinant is any complex number but 0 right?
the definition of "non-singular" is field-independent
a matrix over a field is non-singular iff its determinant does not equal the field's zero
however, that doesn’t make layovah’s statement false
true, it is not false. just... poorly worded
why? the determinant of a complex matrix is a complex number
B = A^H A .. the matrix B is hermitian correct?
@broken hawk the wording makes it sound like the statement is true only in the case when the base field is C
maybe i'm reading too much into it
that’s also true though :P
if the matrix is over 𝔽₂, then the determinant of a nonsingular matrix cannot be a complex number :P
"that" = what?
how do i do matrix (or matrix-vector) multiplication if the matrix is complex, and the vector is complex? same strategy for the real case right?
matrix multiplication is field-independent!
it’s all defined exactly the same way
the only thing that changes is the inner product
which is now sesquilinear instead of bilinear
no wait so in real case, the 'standard inner product' we use is the dot product. so for complex case, do we use the standard inner product for C^n ?
but any matrix operations work the same way no matter what field (real numbers, complex numbers, finite fields…) the entries come from
that's what i said
the standard inner product for ℂⁿ is the same as that for ℝⁿ, except that one of the two vectors (conventions differ) has to be conjugated
ok yeah so it is pretty different
not really
why do you even need the standard inner product tho
im trying to expand out x^H B x
lmao what
component-wise
don’t do that
ok what do i do
write B as AᴴA
use the definition of B
and group things in a clever way
B = A^H A
guys my teacher literally didnt teach us any of this
$x^H A^H A x$
Ann:
so i have to self-learn
(you’re trying to show positive definiteness, right?)
they are yes
i dunno any properties of A^H
if you need to, unfold ^H into its definition
here’s two hints (together they essentailly solve the exercise):
just a side note how the fuck is there a Unicode version of ^H?
- ||you want to try and bring this into a form that’s the inner product of a vector with itself||
- ||xᴴAᴴ = (Ax)ᴴ||
dunno but it’s on my keyboard so I’ll use it :P
what is your kb layout 
Neo2
lol
in QWERTZ mode on my laptop
but in normal mode on my desktop
this somehow is not confusing
I have one issue with it
and that is?
which is that the combination compose+d+l should be retroflex d, but they accidentally mapped it to not only that but also to ㎗, and the latter takes precedence
the question is to show that it satisfies the positive-definite postulate iff A is non-singular
so far i've got: x^H.B.x = x^H.A^H.A.x = (Ax)^H.Ax
yup. show it in both ways
okay so well
can you show that if A is non-singular and x is not zero then (Ax)^H (Ax) is positive?
once you're done with that, can you prove that if (Ax)^H (Ax) is positive for all x nonzero, then A is non-singular?
is that . you have there intended to be matrix multiplication?
yup
okay, then it makes more sense
I thought it would be dot product, in which case the notation wouldn’t have made sense
so, (Ax)ᴴ.(Ax) is the inner product of Ax with itself, right?
oh yeah
and why is A required to be nonsingular?
so if A is non-singular, then Ax would be non-zero for non-zero vectors x right?
yes!
how do u know that this is true in the complex case?
the sensible definition of non-singular is “has trivial kernel”
that is, only 0 is in the kernel
i guess the invertible matrix theorem is field-independent?
yes, it is
eh i got an appt. for smthn else, ill be back! thx for the help guys
if the proof of a theorem in linear algebra does not use any properties specific to a particular field, then the theorem is field-independent
most of linear algebra is, tbh
I remember there were a few things that required the field to have characteristic other than 2
and the whole topic of inner products is a bit special
similarly, diagonalization stuff is different in algebraically closed fields (e.g. ℂ) than ones which aren’t (e.g. ℝ)
like, in ℂ every matrix has a jordan normal form, but this requires the fact that every matrix in ℂ has eigenvalues, which requires that ℂ is algebraically closed
Where did this proof go wrong?
rankAB
(By the rank nullity theorem)
=n-nul(AB)
(If q_C is an orthogonal projection onto kerC, then nulC=rank(q_C))
=n-rank(q_(AB))
(Projection onto V and then U is just projection onto the intersection)
=n-rank(q_A q_B)
( rankAB≤rankA )
≥n-rank(q_A)
Which is false.
q_(AB) isn't q_A q_B
Hey there
hey
Why is my brain telling me they're equal. Basically the issue is that kerAB≠)kerA intersection kerB)
i think right?
well
Ker A and Ker B may not even intersect
so that's one indication
like
A could be W→U
B could be V→W
then AB: V→U
ker(AB) is a subset of V
but ker(A) is a subset of W
so it doesn't make sense to take their intersection
(assuming no relationship between V,W,U)
(other than being over the same field)
I'm considering they're all V-> V
Basically proj_KerAB is in KerB.
But they're not equal. Some of left are not in right. And the exceptions are not necessarily in kerA. So if B sends some v that is in cokerB and kerA, to cokerA then: The composition of the right projections won't be equal to the left projection. Which is enough to mess with dimensions and mess up the proof.
By cokerC i just mean some complement of kerC. Cant remember how is actually defined.
Ok, thank you!
Go ahead
https://i.mlgimg.xyz/9272537c.png That's probably very basic for you guys, I'm trying to understand the situation: We do have a ship that has a velocity of (1,2) and we do have a current flowing, I guess it's water, who add a velocity of (1,1). So the final velocity for me would be the result of the addition of those two vector ? Where I am wrong, I can't understand.
the possible answer are https://i.mlgimg.xyz/1e3b7e30.png
they don't make any sense for me
ahhhhhh vector projection
jup
but why, jesus maybe my english is just bad
you can sorta check your answer via the diagram 😛
In fact I can't understand the meaning of this value in this case, what does that represent ? I was imagining a ship moving, so it's would be the addition of the vector. Now that I understood it was vector projection that I had to use, I know how to do it, but I don't understand how you knew the question was looking for that, what does that vector represent ?
OR maybe
this value is the actual velocity of the ship before the current velocity was applied ?
so like if the current was (0, 0)
could totally be wrong
from what I've read, it's asking you how much of the ships velocity is going in the direction of the water current
nothing about the effect of the water current
you only need to care about the direction
how much of the ships velocity is going in the direction of the water current ok that actually make a lot of sense
big thx @random wasp
np
Another question
If v is an eigen vector of e^A is it an eigen vector of A?
Quasi proof:
If v is an eigen vector of e^A then by (magic) v must be an eigen vector of e^(tA). In that case by (magic2) the eigen value of v for e^(tA) must be e^(ct)v, where e^c is the eigen value of e^(A).
Now if you take the derivative of e^(tA)v=e^(ct), and evaluate at t=0. You obtain the desired result.
But what are the two magic steps? I guess JNF or even Cauchy's functional equation help but this proof feels so complicated.
):
@random hollow hey that’s the mathematics for ml coursera thing 😄
@sharp lodge This problem reduces to showing that e^A and A have at least one equal Eigenspace, doesn't it?
@timid ivy Yes, then induction all the way. If I could write A=ln(e^A) as a power series i guess that could work too.
@wintry steppe yes you're right, the course from london imperial college
Hm, I know that if $T$ is an invertible linear transform then $T$ and $T^{-1}$ have the same eigenvalues and the same eigenspaces
markus:
I just mean e^x and ln(x) are inverses of each other but problem is none of them are linear
So that wouldn’t help
Nice question tho @sharp lodge
T and T^-1 do not have the same eigenvalues lmao
No, if T has $\lambda$ as an eigenvalue then $T^{-1}$ has $\frac1\lambda$
markus:
If I remember correctly. Thank you for correcting that anyway
Oh, I don't mind if they are linear or not. Say p(C) is polynomial (series) of the matrix C. Then if (c,v) is an eigen pair of C then p(C)v=p(c)v.
So if (c,v) is eig pair of e^A, then: ln(e^A)v=ln(c)v. Now if god exists we'd be able to say that ln(e^A)=A, but he doesn't so it gets a bit dicey I gues
@timid ivy
$v^TA = v^T(A^T)^T = (A^Tv)^T$
markus:
let $v_{1},...,v_{n-1},u,w$ be vectors on $\mathbb{R}^{n}$.
assume $x_{1}v_{1}+ ...+x_{n-1}v_{n-1} = u$ has one solution, and
$x_{1}v_{1}+...+x_{n-1}v_{n-1} = w$ has none.
prove that ${v_{1},...,v_{n-1},w}$ is a base on $\mathbb{R}^{n}$
i thought i solved it right and now i think im walking in circles and not sure
i can show all vectors are different thru the first tidbit of info and then i tried to go through showing canonical representation of both equations but it all bungled up and im not sure anymore
was the second equation meant to have w and not u on the RHS
kakamaika:
yes sorry
btw minor language note: vectors in R^n, and {...} is a basis for R^n
alright thanks not my first language
hebrew
...ok nevermind i don't speak hebrew 😛
we say "on" and not in
alright so
actually we dont i mistranslated nvm
consider the span of ${v_1, ..., v_{n-1}}$
Ann:
and in particular consider what its dimension is
