#discrete-math
1 messages Β· Page 64 of 1
VY (Logic_VY)
I mean, you could say something like $$\max({n \in \mathbb{N} : x^n \mid P})$$
Cufflink
i.e., the largest natural number n such that x^n divides the polynomial
That's definitely a possibility but I was just curious if there were any specialized notation
Thanks
someone help me with this
when q then p
pretty sure its b
q - > p is the same as ~q -> ~p
contrapositive
i like that question, it didnt just have q-> p in it
testing a few skills at once
now who can help me with 52
i think its just if the inverse is still equiv?
B x A = D x C, if that is true, then we can conclude that a = c and b = d?
nvm that wouldnt be a good way
they have to be non-empty
since cartesian product is just multiplying the cardinality of both
even if u did B x A = D x C, it would still be the same as A x B = C x D
but if one on both side is empty
then you would get {} = {}
guys the answer to this is gonna be A right?
cuz every element in the first function is mapped to an element in the other function right?
correct
k thx
guys what is 1+1?
2
so 3^2 \equiv 3^{4-2} \equiv 3^{-2} \equiv 1 (mod 8). I wonder how 1/9 \equiv 1 (mod 8)
Negative exponents work differently in modular arithmetic. 3^-1 = 3 mod 8 since 3*3=1 mod 8. (Its similar to how 3*1/3 = 1 so we define 3^-1=1/3). So 3^-2 = 9 = 1 mod 8. Not all integers have inverses mod 8 (meaning that it doesnt make sense to take a negative power). The condition for an integer n having an inverse mod 8 is that n and 8 have no common factors other than 1. 3 and 8 have no common factors other than 1 so 3^-1 exists and it also happens to be 3.
Don't think of 1/9 as the decimal 0.111.... Think of 9^{-1} as a label for the number a such that 9 * a = 1.
So what 9^{-1} "means" depends on what * and = mean, which can vary.
You have
9*9 = 1 (mod 8)
```so
9^{-1} = 9 = 1 (mod 8)
If we're talking about rational numbers then the number a such that 9*a = 1 is indeed a = 0.111...
If we're talking about the integers modulo m then what a is depends on m.
ive just started computer science at uni level, and im struggling with discreet math is there any pointers to how i should approach learning it or any helpful resources?
ive just done 4 weeks on proofs with quantifier/ predicate formal proofs and now being introduced into set theory, relations and functions
Can someone help me out with b / c?
I think to find the number of red (or any colour) edges, you have to notice that each vertex has 1 red edge, but since each red edge is shared by two vertices so we're double counting. so we can get Red E = V/2
How many red edges are there in terms of the number of vertexes?
Yep. Then the faces put other restrictions on how many RBY edges there are.
You get a bunch of linear equations for edges of each color, faces of different sorts, etc.
Since those have to be natural numbers, there's a smallest V which satisfies them.
(There won't be a unique solution because any graph which satisfies it can be combined with a disjoint copy of itself and still satisfy it.)
To determing if the graph is planar im using eulers formula but the face part is kinda confusing me
Can someone dm me and get in a call to help please
Oh I thought the question is asking for a unique solution
I got this linear equation:
3F{6-length} + 2F{4-length#1} + 2F{4-length#2} = 4 + V
and
F{6-length} + F{4-length#1} + F{4-length#2} = 2 + V/2
I can see I can get F{6-length} by multiplying the bottom eqn by 2 which says it is = V/2 - 4
But I'm having trouble solving for F{4-length#1} and F{4-length#2}
What is F?
F is the total number of faces but the F{...} that I'm describing is counting the number of faces of each type
There is only 1 face type that's a 6 cycle, and 2 types that are a 4 cycle so i differentiate them with #1 and # 2
How do I prove part b
For card hand problems in discrete probability, I'm confused on whether or not I'm supposed to use combinations or permutations.
The amount of ways to get a full house is the amount of ways to choose 2 kinds * the amount of ways to choose 2 cards of different suits * the amount of ways to choose 3 cards of different suits. I'm getting this as C(4, 2) * C(4, 3) * C(13, 2). Kimberly Brehm on youtube is using permutations for that last term, making it C(4, 2) * C(4, 3) * P(13, 2). I sort of understand it, as the order of the kinds does differ the hand (the first two cards being of kind A and the last 3 being of kind B vs the first 2 of kind B and the last 2 being of kindA). My issue is that my textbook contradicts this, using combinations as the term for the amount of ways to choose the kind.
Which one is it?
why is, in one case, it permutations, and in the other, combinations?
nevermind, i got it. 2 pairs would be combinations because 2 aces and 2 kings = 2 kings and 2 aces
mb
Hint: From a * a = b we get that a * (a * b) = b * b. Try showing that a * (a * b) = b by considering two cases (one for each possible value of a * b).
Oh got it, thank you!!
Hi all,
I'm trying to solve a problem and I don't know which solution to use.
I want to find all cycles in a graph up to a limited depth (to avoid exponential complexity). I thought of simply doing depth first search, would this solution suffice if i don't mind it taking some time to run?
My idea is to store all cycles and then simply use them later on, I'd want to find all negative cycles therefore I'd loop over them and sum their weight edges to check if they're negative or not (directed graph so in both directions example A -> B -> C -> A and A -> C -> B -> A).
Because I want to chose only a few starting and ending points in the graph (such as A in the example above), I'm thinking there's no need for me to find all cycles, just all cycles starting/ending with the nodes I chose.
Is there a general/better solution for this problem?
Problem in basic Graph Theory and Matchings, can I get some help?
consider this graph
Yea yea this is 3 days later but I have an answer!
The notation I've seen is $f^{\mathrm{in}}$. So if $f(x) = 3x^8 + 5x^4 + 3x^2$ then $f^{\mathrm{in}}(x) = 3x^2$.
Spamakinπ·
I've also seen in(f) as similar notation
If you're curious, this comes ip in a field called algebraic geometry, which is the study of the geometry defined by the zero sets of polynomials (so as an example, x^2 + y^2 - 1 = 0 describes the unit circle in 2D space)
Under what condition does it hold that $$\bigcup _1^{\infty }U_j\cup \bigcup _1^{\infty }V_j=\bigcup _1^{\infty \ }\left(U_j\cup V_j\right)?$$
psie
what do you think?
well, I think the left hand side is really equal to $$\bigcup_j\bigcup_i (U_j\cup V_i).$$
psie
π€―
and you should try to work out the proof
it's quite straightfoward
just applying definitions, no trickery
Hey guys! I know you are not supposed to ask if you can ask questions, but I am about to embark on a fool's errand that is reading a book with little to no worked solutions. You might be wondering why I am doing this, and the reason is because this book seems way too cool/interesting that honestly makes me just want to dive into it. So my question is: Is it cool if I spam this discord server with questions whenever I get stuck, or whenever I need somebody to verify if my proof/program is correct? This is the book, for anybody that's curious/interested: https://cs.wheaton.edu/~tvandrun/dmfp/
yea that's fine lol
but whatever questions you do ask, make a good solid effort of trying it yourself before asking
you'll learn more that way
Cool, thanks man
are you going to do it in SML?
it does seem like a cool book by the way!
Yes sir! SML seems like a nice gateway into other functional languages like Haskell and Ocaml later on.
Yeah, I really think the lack of exposure/solutions hurt this book's reach, because it really seems like a hidden gem
Well... sure, SML is a great language, no doubt, but the tooling is honestly quite terrible, just be aware of that if you plan on spending any amount of time writing SML code, it is not terribly uncommon for people to work through SML books in OCaml (which I have done) but I fully admit that it is extra work and may be confusing if you don't know OCaml
But I'm not trying to dissuade you at all
let us know if it lives up to your expectations! π
Yeah, running SML seems like a pain in the ass, not gonna lie, but I should be okay. Once I am done with this book, I am planning to never touch it again lol
For sure, you will hear from me a lot, don't worry lol
Hmm, okay. I think if the book doesn't have any large scale projects you should be okay, that's one of the more annoying parts, managing projects with dependencies and multiple files
all that really sucks for SML
Man, that's the worst part on any language, can't even begin to imagine how terrible it is for SML. Sheesh lol
And not a whole lot of editor support but it still exists, so it's definitely not terrible
Yeah, I think SML was just chosen as a "vanilla" choice for a functional paradigm programming language. I guess it's easier to learn the SML syntax than learning Haskell and Ocaml syntax for a "small" book.
For sure, it's a very nice choice for this type of book, it is a small language, similar to R5RS Scheme, but statically typed
definitely a large minority of books and research projects that use it
I appreciate SML a lot because its semantics are fully formalized, which is very rare
Sounds like you have worked with lots of functional programming languages. Seems like you have worked on some seriously interesting projects.
Living up to your username, I see lol
yeah I love functional programming, but no I haven't really worked on interesting projects, well, nothing that is of interest to anybody other than myself anyway, just for fun
π it's a reference to the Thief video games, I'm not so egotistical haha
Would love to see your github one of these days, if you are comfortable with sharing it lol
I could swear I have that game in my steam account. I should play it one of these days
Kinda stuck with organizing this:
I'm going to call each type of face F1, F2, F3 respectively.
Since each edge is shared by exactly two faces, I get that
6F1 + 4F2 + 4F3 = 2E
And so E = 3F1 + 2F2 + 2F3
And i tried using eulers formula to solve for F, which gives me F = 2 + {V}/2
sure, not really much to see https://github.com/BridgeTheMasterBuilder
which one? the newest one from 2014?
hey someone can help me ton find the nature of this series
wdym nature? the sum, or whether it's convergent/divergent?
and maybe better to ask it in #real-complex-analysis ?
to find all simple cycles starting/ending at source node s for an undirected graph, doing a depth first search starting from node s, and checking if we end up back at s is sufficient?
yes, in principle, but of course you must watch out for other cycles or your algorithm might not terminate
how so?
why wouldn't it terminate?
with dfs we only go to a vertex once with the visited array no?
depends on how you implement it, if you want to enumerate all possible cycles you need a more sophisticated approach
actually I'm not 100% sure about this anymore, but intuitively it seems like it would make sense that you can find all the cycles this way
i only want all possible cycles starting and ending from source node s that I chose though
otherwise i could just use johnsons algo if i wanted all cycles no?
yes I understand, but after you find one cycle, how will you find other cycles that also visit the same nodes?
I was wondering about that
what if I increment an array with visited nodes when im going down the graph, if i find a cycle add it to a global list
then when I go back up the graph simply delete the child node from the array
and continue the process
something like that, is what I wrote is clear?
not to me, sorry, I don't quite understand what you mean
but I think I understand the rough idea
would probably work
ok thanks, will try it out it'll make it clearer for me too ^^
good luck!
I got F1 = V/2 - 4 and F2 + F3 = 6, however shouldn't I find a way to isolate F1 and F2 by themselves too?
That's the one, I think. Is the 2014 as good as the OG one?
I don't know, I haven't played it. I think it's good
Dope! I should have expected that you liked Rust lol
it seems to take from Dishonored, which is ironic since Dishonored owes its existence to Thief, so it's kind of weird for a Thief game to then take inspiration from Dishonored, not that that's a bad thing, the Dishonored series is very good
But the first two Thief games are incredible, highly recommend playing
3 is also not bad at all
Bet. Imma try to hunt down the OGs to get the genuine thief experience instead of a dishonored reboot lol
What is the inequalities in terms of intervals for -3 β€ 1/x < 1?
Nice, hope you like them. Be patient, those games can be pretty brutal, in a good way, it's honestly almost like if you wanted to be a thief in real life
the level design is not there to help you at all
That's actually dope. So you have to actually be stealthy instead of just killing everything in sight to be a "successful thief". Definitely gonna play those games.
yeah you are not gonna be killing many people, you will get destroyed
Hopefully the development team cuts you a check after this promo, cuz damn lol
haha
Quick question, does anyone know how to graph this exactly?
I'm trying to draw this out but it looked wrong.
this is what came out of graphviz
this can't be right, where are all the edges incident to 2 for example?
am I understanding the format correctly?
No, I think mine's likely wrong.
by the way, the computer just made a choice as to how to lay it out, you can also go for a more weblike layout
e.g.
sorry couldn't be bothered to fix the conflict there
It's fine, I don' think this is a big deal.
So Im doing
Consider the following second-order homogeneous linear recurrence relation with constant coefficients: π_n = 6π_n-1 β 9π_n-2, π β₯ 2 with π_0 = 2, π_1 = 5
Solve the recurrence relation to find an explicit formula for π_n
https://media.discordapp.net/attachments/1282168382879301664/1307549138963005470/PXL_20241117_033301517.jpg?ex=673ab587&is=67396407&hm=2d1a0f7db7a15cab0c583372c50609c5329accd13810b50584697bb4a4beaa31&=&format=webp&width=471&height=837
What am I doing wrong here, rather how do I find the a_n=r^n ?
Do I need to use this formula instead ?
Omori reference
π
I thought we can use euler formula for this, but now I think we cant because the question says the graph is not connected. In this case, what can we do?
For a general planar graph, the Euler characteristic is 1+k where k is number of connected components.
On second thought I reread it again, doesn't the hint make it sound like the graph IS connected?
The "outside" is counted as a face too
Every planar graph has an "outer face", which is why the Euler characteristic of a connected planar graph is 2 and not 1
Like, consider K_3. It has 3 vertices and 3 edges.
Yeah but what if you had a graph that had 2 disconnected K_3, by this setup, would the hint that every face contains a cycle just be talking about one of the K_3?
In that case, the outer face has two cycles.
If it helps, you can imagine embedding the two graphs so that one is a smaller triangle fully contained in the other. Then there's the region inside both, the region inside one but not the other, and the region outside both
The thing is I haven't heard about euler characteristic before, so I think there's another way to solve this problem. I saw a theorem that said for a planar graph with at least 3 vertices that m <= 3n - 6
Well, Euler's formula just is the statement that a connected planar graph has Euler characteristic 2
Look at the proof and induct on the number of connected components k
Euler's formula is the base case; the induction by comparison is much, much easier
Euler's formula holds for each connected component of a planar graph
There's only one face that's common to every connected component, namely the outer face.
If you sum up V_i - E_i + F_i = 2 for each connected component, you count the outer face k times
So you get V - E + F + (k-1) = 2k by summing up all k instances of Euler's formula
You don't even really need induction unless you're being extra formal tbh, the above is 99% of the proof
How did we get the (k-1) on the Left hand side?
F is the number of faces overall. We counted the outer face k times and all the other faces exactly once. One of those k times contributes to F, and the other k-1 are over-counting.
Got it
So then using this, we still need to show the bound of m <= g/(g-2) * (n - 2)
I didn't think deeply about the specific problem, but yes, it should be enough. Every face has a boundary containing at least g vertices.
If you add up all of he boundaries and bound how much you can over-count edges or vertices, you'll get some expression bounding F in terms of g and the number of edges or vertices or something
And I suspect n-2 becomes n-k-1 or something
right so I got a bound of $fg \leq 2m$
clementine
Then I think I think I can isolate F in this equation here
So F = 2k - k + 1 + E - V
So F = k + 1 + E - V
Then
$(k + 1 + E - V)g \leq 2m$
clementine
clementine
gk + g +gm -gn <= 2m
gm - 2m <= gn - g - gk
m(g-2) <= g(n - 1 - k)
m <= g(n - 1 - k)/(g-2)
Seems like it. So then the next step is to show g(n - 1 - k)/(g-2) <= g(n - 2)/(g-2)
I think we just cancel out soem terms and get
n - 1 - k <= n - 2
Which tells us that 1 <= k
Is that sufficient? Or am I supposed to word it differently
k is the number of connected components, so it's always >=1
Which means n-k-1 <= n-2
Ah I was trying to show it by going deeper: It explicitly says it holds when k >= 1 which is what our original constraint was
But k >= 1 for every graph no matter what.
Every graph has at least one connected component.
So, spelling it out like that makes it seem like you aren't sure what k represents.
g/(g-2) * (n - A) <= g/(g-2) * (n - B) if A >= B >= 0
Which is just a statement about inequalities.
And n - (k+1) <= n - 2 because k >= 1
k >= 1 is a fact you use, not something you conclude.
Ohhh
Wording it like this makes sense
Thank you π

I had another question, I'm trying to prove this direction: "If no connected component of G is a k-regular graph then G is (k - 1)-degenerate."
k-regular means that every vertex has degree k.. But since no connected component is k regular there has to be a vertex with degree < k. Are we supposed to use this idea to "list" a vertices in a conveninet way?
A player of a video game is confronted with a series of opponents and has an 80%
probability of defeating each one. Success with any opponent is independent of
previous encounters. The player continues to contest opponents until defeated.
(a) What is the probability mass function of the number of opponents contested in a
game?
i already know the answer but am confused
so the answer is (0.2)(0.8)^x-1
The probability of successes it is defected by opponent is 0.2
how tho shouldn't it be 0.8?
No, probability the player defeats an opponent is .8, so the probably the player loses to an opponent is 1 - .8 = .2
Yeah but the formula used here shows 0.8 as the opposite of defeating an opponent no?
Can anyone share some interesting resources for Discrete maths OR Probability OR Combinatorics related riddles or puzzles that require deep logical thinking?
One example can be the problem known as the "Sleeping Beauty Paradox", though it was quite easy in my opinion, but I liked the way it was structured that makes it look like a paradox.
ok now i'm curious what you think the "quite easy" answer actually is
I just want some good brain workout, so any problem that require deep logical thinking will do
Will have to go back to the problem to recall the answer, give me few minutes, be right back..
1/3 @fossil mural
Can explain logically if you want me to..
i also think 1/3 is hard to argue with
There's no valid argument to that imo, try if you have one, I'll try to address it
i don't like how you said "it makes it look like a paradox"
as if you can think of 3 examples that are "truely paradoxical" unlike this one
they all seem the same to me
wrt/ that problem I think the only "paradox" is how the problem is framed, it's one of those cases where the source of contradiction is just that your understanding of the question is incorrect, similar to the drinker's paradox
same question, when is that not true
there's a paradox where your understanding of the quesiton is not the problem?
and you're saying it's not just one, but there's multiple
hmm, I suppose it's a matter of degree, when the reason for the misunderstanding is trivial I wouldn't say it's a paradox, but I don't know
what do you mean?
i mean like if you name one paradox where i agree that it's something special
that only proves there's one paradox, but we would expect like 3
otherwise why have a name for these things at all
if we figure out that we can find only one paradox, at all, that just means we misunderstand what's a paradox
it seems that a paradox is a lesson, a counterexample that shows you that you're thinking wrong, and you need to resolve it one way or another
so if you can distinguish between "true paradoxes" and "misunderstandings" you can name a bunch of things that are "open problems" that can't be understood
that sounds like you're just dividing into "i know this one" and "i don't know this one", something personal
It's not a paradox imo, just that it's famously known by that name is why I said that.
it's one of those cases where the source of contradiction is just that your understanding of the question is incorrect
Can't agree more
i'm saying i don't understand
is it like you can't verbalise what's a paradox it's just things that make you feel a particular way?
we need to find an example where we both agree it's not a misunderstanding to discuss it further i guess
i can't think of any but i'm prepared to agree with your choice
So a paradox is like when you start from same point and give two sets of valid arguments and reach two different points, one from each set and these points are pretty obviously contradictory to each other.
Hence my statement that the "Sleeping Beauty Problem" is not a paradox..
ok, so what's an example where that happens
i think i see what you mean, like you need to dismiss the question to resolve
but that sounds more like "stupid question"
Well examples for this will be mostly theoretical I guess..
Say time travel becomes doable for us one day and you go back in the past and kill your past self. If you past self died, how can your future exist? If your future doesn't exist, how can it go back to kill your past self?
Very very hypothetical example, I know but to understand what paradoxes are like, it should do..
One better example from google:
THIS STATEMENT IS FALSE!
Now if the statement is false, that means it's true. If the statement is true that means it's false.
um ok
@fossil mural what do you think?
Regardless, if you have any resources that I asked for, please do share π₯Ί .
i mean i think both of those resolve in about the same way that the sleeping beauty problem does: "if you define what the words mean then the answer becomes obvious, it's only hard if your intuitive concept doesn't quite make sense"
"What the words mean" as in?
well like, what's "time travel"
any full description of a universe that contains time travel includes an answer to the grandfather paradox
No I mean in the problem it's pretty clear that the sleeping beauty is awaken and asked what is the probability that the coin came up heads and the context for "the coin" is - the coin using which they decided when to wake her up.
well then what's "probability"
i agree, there is a distinct type of paradoxes that are particularly dumb, they often don't have cool names, nobody talks about them much
it's consistent to call them true paradoxes and call "resolvable" ones not true paradoxes
thanks
i mean considering that in fact logic works, there aren't going to be any "real" paradoxes above a certain threshold of realness
i think the most reasonable thing to call a "paradox" is something that deduces a contradiction from an intuitive concept (or a mathematical theory, in the case of Russell's paradox), so that there's not really any "resolution" other than "yeah ok i guess that intuition just doesn't actually mean anything"
one possible definition of "true paradox" in this context would be type error, if something can't be assigned a type it's a paradox, that covers Russell's paradox and "This statement is false" and everything involving self-reference and negation
stuff which can't be reconciled
I think some types of legitimate math which makes perfect sense but not until you learn it could be called paradoxes too, like infinite series, which are very counterintuitive and people tend to reject them if they are not familiar
stuff involving infinity in general
when I have a set S and I say , let ${a,b,c,d} \subseteq S$ be a subset of S. Is it guaranteed that this subset has cardinality 4 ?
I have seen people say that this set could very well just contain a four times and therefore have cardinality 1. But to me, this doesnt make sense since a set by definition cannot contain duplicates of an element, implying that this set has to be of cardinality 4.
I am confused, does someone have an explanation?
barΔ±Ε
I would say you are correct
here for example they use a set that contains duplicates but then they just talk about the cardinality. This would tell me that a set can contain duplicates, but the cardinality is defined to count only one instance of each element
a set with four a's is another idea, called a bag or multiset
right, thats what I thought too
but if you say just set, that rules out {a,a,a,a}
alright thank you !
well a,b,c,d are presumably variables and you havent said anything about which values they are and whether those are equal
thats whats important
it could be that a=1, b=2, c=2, d=3, then {a,b,c,d} has 3 elements
if you want to say that the set has four elements then you need to say something like "a,b,c,d pairwise distinct"
...i wouldn't exactly say that sets "can't contain duplicates"?
it's more that it's just not meaningful, to say that a set contains duplicates
ok that makes sense
the only property that a set has is its membership relation, which you can kind of think of as basically just, a function that takes a thing and outputs either "yes" (it is in the set) or "no" (it isn't in the set)
so to repeat youre point : whenever, a,b,c,d are variables and not concrete elements, there is no guarantee that these variables are all pw. distinct, correct?
yes
appreciate it, thanks!
if we are talking about the set {a,b,c,d} of actually the letters a,b,c,d then that set has four elements
yes that is clear
${a,b,c,d}$ just means the set ${x : x = a \lor x = b \lor x = c \lor x = d}$, so if for instance $a = b = c = d$, \ then this set just ends up being ${x : x = a \lor x = a \lor x = a \lor x = a} = {x : x = a} = {a}$
bee [it/its]
ok that makes a lot of sense
this is what confused me
initially
some sources say a set cant contain an element multiple times
but I thought it can
its just not counted
in the cardinality
well it's not counted in anything, if you had a set that "contains x twice" (and doesn't contain anything else) then that would be equal to the set that "contains x once" (and doesn't contain anything else)
because both of these sets satisfy $y \in \text{the set}$ iff $y = x$, and there's no other way to distinguish them
bee [it/its]
(the axiom of extensionality is what formalises this idea that the membership relation determines what the set is like this)
I will look into it
unfortunately I havent been introduced to the basics of set theory, all these axioms and stuff
in computer science we just start right in the middle
its like "here, this is a set, now use it"
or maybe Im just slow lmao
frankly you dont need any of those axioms anyway
for most stuff
naive set theory is good enough
yes thats true
i got the answer which was
(0.2)(0.8)^x-1 but why, isnt the formula P(X=x) = (q^x-1)*p where q is the probability of an event failing, how is 0.8 failing?
hi all, i have a question about set cardinality of 2 unknown sets, so what we know is X,Y are sets, and |X| < |Y|, so the cardinality of:
|(X U Y)x(Y \ X)| >= (|X| + |Y|) x |Y|
am i correct?
Could anyone help with these 2 problems? I have put my attempt in the pdf and the feedback that I got, but I still don't know how to do it.
to be honest i'm not clear on what exactly they're asking you to show here
but anyway i'm guessing 1 + 1 = -1
How though
Also what type of addition or multiplication are you assuming
well what else would it be
if 1 + 1 = 0 then there's no point listing -1 separately because 1 = -1
if it's something with x in it then the whole thing collapses into just being numbers
So what's (x + 1 ) + x
Ohj
That makes sense
I know you're a math undergrad which is how you were quick to find out 1+1 is -1 but how could I find out stuff like that
It seems like just knowing that one fact let's you do the rest of the question
(i'm not actually lol, the roles are more about level of knowledge, but anyway)
well i think kind of just this?
i kind of had to guess about what the context is, but given the guess that they expect this to be a field
what you get if you just keep adding 1 to itself, in any finite field, is that eventually you get back to 0, and it acts like the integers mod n for some integer n
(in fact n has to be prime for it to be a field, but that isn't actually necessary knowledge for this particular thing)
so given that what we're given here is 0, 1, -1
...well thinking about it it is somewhat more complicated in the general case
but in this case it's just, if you go off the top of the integers it "wraps around"
(if it didn't do something like that then, as you observed, it doesn't really make any sense)
or actually what you can do in general is count how many numbers there are
if i tell you that there's a reasonable way to make {-7, 0, 1, 9, 17} into a field, then you can tell just by counting that these are 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, and so everything is going to be mod 5
and then if you want to know what 9 + 9 is, you look for the number in here that's equal to 18 mod 5, which is -7
because 4 + 1 has to be something, and if it's 1 or 2 or 3 or 4, then 4 is equal to (respectively) 0 or 1 or 2 or 3, which it shouldn't be, but if 4 + 1 = 0, that's fine
how do i find pmf
Hello everyone I have to find the value of 1 mod 7 + 2 mod 7 + 3 mod 7 ... + 100 mod 7
but I genuinely have no idea where to start
does anyone have a hint/idea where I could start (not the whole answer ofc)
what properties of mod do you know
sadly pretty much none
Well ik a congruent to b (mod m) can be written as a = b * km
The "nice" thing about modular arithmetic is that every algebra maneuvers you're familiar with still works, but you have some extra maneuvers at your disposal.
So 1 mod 7 + 2 mod 7 + 3 mod 7 ... + 100 mod 7 is the same as 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + 100 (mod 7).
Do you know how to calculate 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + 100?
oh I didnt know that
It was probably proven for you, but the proofs don't usually make it clear what it really means.
These would be proofs that addition and multiplication are "well-defined mod n", i.e., if a = b (mod n) and x = y (mod n) then a + x = b + y (mod n) and ax = by (mod n).
you sure about that?
(And, yeah, a = b (mod m) doesn't mean that a = b * km.)
I saw this in a video maybe I interpreted it wrong?
a - b = kn
(a and b differ by a multiple of n)
so the video is wrong?
read what you wrote and see how it compares to whats in the video
oops you're right
I did the same mistake in a previous exercise
So much to critique about this mess
i acc despise of this server i didnt ask your opinion i asked what that means
half the answers i get are just comments on irrelevant stuff
noone here wrote it dawg why do you expect us to know whether a 2 or 1 was intended
usually i'm like "what do you expect from discord" but this is "what do you expect from internet"
dawg read the question
definetly a 2 π
im certain
im asking about the c dot
did you write that by yourself? you should know what you intended by the . notation
no its from my practice questions
and ive just had a change if prof. and he does stuff differently
it would be easy to guess if the context wasnt this confused
why is mathbbR this set??? Like what?
one would normally guess it's simply the set {(2m, m) where m in N}
but the whole thing is confused, it's choked.
and it's not a discrete math problem
You seriously think he wrote it himself and then came here to ask what it means? And "so much to critique about this mess" and your only critique is that the R is written in boldface? I feel like you're being intentionally antagonistic
I think its pretty clear it means {(2m, m) where m in N}
im taking compsci last i remember and this module is called discreet math
what do you think
thank you π
i think its just my bad knowledge in math and notations because i havnt touched maths for over 3 years and came into uni with high school level maths experience
and a lot of ppl here are so fussy with how i write things or questions i ask
maybe you should work on that then?
how to filter βmy_dfβ (name) to show only the rows where βAgeβ is greater than 30 in Rstudio?
maybe just try some cases like 1 2 and 3 and see if a pattern emerges and then check if that pattern makes sense and see if you can derive it?
wait is PMF just the function for calculating the probability of something happening?
because i think the formula for calculating the probability of two consecutive heads or two consecutive tails ocurring in exactly n flips is just
for n $\ge 2, f(n) = 1/2^{n-1}$
Indian Jones
i think
because before the first flip that begins your sequence of two heads, you have to alternate flips so that you dont create a sequence of two in a row before the intended number of flips right
or you could just prove this by induction or smth
you can prove that f(n) = 2 by casework
and then assuming that $f(n) = 1/2^{n-1}, f(n+1) = (1-f(n+1)) * 1/2 = 1/2^n = 1/2^{(n+1)-1}$, so then $f(n) \implies f(n+1)$
Indian Jones
i think i did this correctly?
???
is this always correct?
Probably supposed to be |v| <= |w|
Unless there's some other ordering they mentioned, but it's probably just that
A > 0 could mean a lot of things though
idk wtf v > w means but A > 0 usually means A is positive definite
also why would they say "0 <= v <= w with v != w" instead of just "0 <= v < w"
or wait im dumb
they can have the same magnitude but be different
it could also mean <= in each coordinate
the notation should be explained somewhere previously in the book
In this question, ive shown that a left and right identity exists, now how do I show they are equal?
Consider their product
Let G be a 3-regular graph with 100 vertices each side... is there such e in G that G/{e} has a match with 99e?
How to use the formal definition of x^c to determine dx^c/dx?
G is bipartite?
Yes
Theorem: If a Cauchy sequence has a convergent subsequence, then both the sequence and its subsequence converge to the same limit.
I don't think this is advanced level. I found it in a book written for university beginners.
I don't think that channel is just for advanced real analysis, but it's definitely not discrete math in any case
maybe #calculus then
I don't know what the hell discrete math is XD. I just remember there were some sequences, but I don't know.
so you are probably more familiar than me. I will try other channles.
let's just say discrete math is pretty much the opposite of real analysis
to be fair, sequences are not totally out of place here but still, it's something that's studied in analysis
@covert anvil but to answer your question since it doesn't matter that much, what have you tried?
it's pretty easy to show using an epsilon delta approach
well, "easy", it's not that hard, it takes a little bit of work
yeah book was a real analysis book.
intruduction at least
do you know the epsilon delta definition of a limit?
I did something and I checked the given proof my proof was correct but later, later when I needed to go back since this theorem mentioned next chapters, I just confused with the proof. I was looking for another approach.
yes I know.
and you know the definition of Cauchy sequence?
yes
can someone explain how to do 2a please
ok, just mix that together, let's say the sequence b_n has a subsequence a_n which converges to some value L, i.e. the difference between a_n and L is smaller than some epsilon past a certain n which is larger than some value delta or N or whatever, then you must show that there exists some delta' (or N') such that the difference between b_n and a_n is smaller than some other epsilon for sufficiently large n, and after you prove that, you can easily show that the b_n converges to L by using this result
it was a bit lazily stated on my part but that's the rough idea
if a_n gets arbitrarly close to L and b_n gets arbitrarily close to a_n then b_n also gets arbitrarily close to L too
Actually, that was what I did, and I am questioning what made me confused. Right now, it seems pretty clear.
thank you!
yw π
oh right it was given that it was a Cauchy sequence so you don't even need to show the second part, can also assume that, so it's just combining them
yeah yeah
I got the point.
alright ^^
sorry also does G/{e} mean G with e removed?
Yes
have you proven that a regular bipartite graph has a perfect matching?
Yep
Halls problem
well isn't G-e 2-regular so you can just apply that? unless I'm thinking about it wrong
Nope g well be 3 regular with 2 vertices that have deg 2
yes but then it's also 2 regular, or it has a 2 regular subgraph if you prefer
And if we didnt prove that reuglar graphs have perfect march
This feels roo simple
yeah, I dunno
This isnt true.. iff only work one way
(-1)^n doesnt converge but subesequence converge
The other way is just instant ....
Same epsilon same n0...
Thanks anyways... ill try to ask in other place
please let me know if you solve it, good luck
actually, it is true, given that the sequence is Cauchy
otherwise you are correct
Oh right. Cauchy sequence <-> converges
mhm
Can anyone give me a hint as to how to create the exponential generating function that generates the sequence 0!, 1!, 2!, 3!, . . .
?
It feels straight forward but I dont wanna jump the gun
There is a trick with gamma function and e^x and intehral but that might be an ovsrkill
Definitely overkill for my class
Hey would it be correct to say R union R?
Did they define what it means to add relations?
composition?
oh that was 8 hours ago....
Can anyone give me some guidance on this question? I'm not sure how to extract information about closure as the only information given about $*$ is a relation but that gives no information about whether an element is in $R$
Cloudy
Maybe I've misinterpreted the question somewhere?
As a disclaimer, abstract algebra is not my strong suite. Nevertheless, here's what I thought of. Thanks to $\sim$ being an equivalence, you can use the first two equations on $R$ with $$ instead of $\circ$. As a result you get $$ab\sim ac\leftrightarrow b\sim c.$$ Since $R$ has exactly 1 representative of each class, $b$ must equal $c$ and in turn $ab$ must equal $ac.$ You can do the same for the first position. This then gives you that $x=ab$ is in relation only with itself and no other elements in $R$, and therefore it must be an element of $R.$
I hope I didn't make any leaps. It's been a while since I did algebra.
hi i have a question regarding this:
How many ways are there to seat four of a group of ten people around a circular table where two seatings are considered the same when everyone has the same immediate left and immediate right neighbor?
my original thought was to do (n-1)! so 3! would be my answer.
but i wanted to ask if i was correct in doing so, if not why?
(we havent been introduced to permuations or combinations yet just the counting rule principles )
valekral
First, let's get all the seatings without worrying about the ones that are the same. To fill the first chair, you have 10 options of who to pick. For the second chair, since you've already seated 1 person, you have only 9 people. For the third and fourth chair you have 8 and 7 people respectively. So the total amount of seatings is 10Γ9Γ8Γ7= 5040. Equals seatings are the same when everyone has the same immediate left and right neighbours. This basically means that you "rotate" everyone (counter)clockwise. Since we're seating 4 people, there are 4 different rotations. This reduces the amount of our seatings to 5040/4=1260. That should be the final answer.
This is a practice final from my class. I am sorta stuck on how to prove this? Any help is appreciated, Thanks!!!
tysm :DDD
is Kruskal's just Prim's but the edge you select in any given step doesnt need to be connected the the edges you have already select?
idk maybe draw a graph?
or just bash it
oh nvm its already been done
Is there any place on the internet where I can find solutions to the "Exercises in Graph Theory" by O. Melnikov
It doesn't seem to be efficient to look for the solutions and making people solve them for me multiple times, it would be more efficient if there was a single place with all of the solutions
Can I (let's say) just host a GitHub repo myself, store my solutions there and let people view/edit them
Look at a maximal matching and count the number of edges between matched vertices and the other vertices
* is already a binary operation on R, i.e. * : R x R -> R if that's what you're asking. So the only thing you need to prove in order to show that (R, *) is a semigroup is that * is associative.
How do you know itβs closed in R? I can see by the relation that itβs at least closed under S
Like I said above, the problem explicitly tells you that * is already a binary operation on R.
Can someone tell me if I approached this correctly ? Itβs part (d)
what is a "tower"
context?
I saw this somewhere and I was curious what a tower is
I don't know what book it's from though
Yea you're gonna need to find more context lol
- Don't use
|for "such that" outside of set builder notation. It's confusing and hard to read. If you really have to abbreviate, write "s.t." - Are you trying to do a proof by contradiction? If so, say something like "Assume for contradiction..." and clearly state what's being contradicted when the moment arrives.
- Your manipulations are incorrect as you've written them
- Your conclusions don't contradict anything. Assume your second calculation is correct, so you can correctly conclude
|a-c| <= 0. If that's the case then surely|a-c| < 1, which is stronger than what you want to show. - You shouldn't expect to find an issue for arbitrary
a,b,cbecause there are some values ofa,b,cwhich do have a transitive relationship. So the general case couldn't possibly lead to a contradiction. - Write down precisely what it means for the relation in (d) to not be transitive.
Thank you so much !!
I want to define a set S the following way:
For a given (simple) graph G = (V,E) let S be a set that contains a k-independent set X of G, if G contains such a set X, and is empty otherwise.
Now I was told that S is not well-defined, since its not clear which k-independent set should be chosen.
Also it is not generally known how the vertices of G are labelled.
Usually in the context of computers I could always assume that the graph is encoded in binary representation and therefore I can just say something like "S contains the lexicographically first k-independent set", which is unique.
However it is totally unclear to me whether something like this can be done here in the context of "pure" math.
Is there a way to have S well-defined?
...well it depends on what exactly you want that for, i think, because i'm not really sure why being able to define a specific one would be useful?
because like
let S be a set that contains a k-independent set X of G, if G contains such a set X, and is empty otherwise.
this is valid
it's not a definition, but if you're like, trying to prove some property of G that doesn't contain the variable S, and one of the steps in the proof is to assign a variable S like this, that's fine
the thing that would be somewhat more of a problem but which it's also unclear why you would want, is if you wanted to do something like define "the" function that takes a graph G and outputs the set S
https://media.discordapp.net/attachments/1282173083783921804/1309656939915120650/image0.jpg?ex=67426092&is=67410f12&hm=bc94d3c4b2dbb1ce402beba9ac9db7447737617cb098e92723d72e3fe9ba9ac4&=&format=webp&width=449&height=840
https://media.discordapp.net/attachments/1282168382879301664/1309662372062826537/rn_image_picker_lib_temp_f2dd5dd3-a0c1-4a3e-a973-4d9060d569ff.jpg?ex=674265a1&is=67411421&hm=035614d3de17bf76ed58c1e28b966281d6f07fbe29df89505026d349a5cc6f21&format=webp&width=472&height=839&
Am I doing this right?
yes thats exactly the problem here. I want to construct a logical formula based on S.
I want a propositonal logic formula that is defined like satisfiable if and only if G contains a k-independent set.
Or really just if any object O has any (finite) property P. I just took graph and k-independent set as an example
So the formula would be this:
$\varphi_G \coloneqq \bigvee_{Y \in S} \top$
barΔ±Ε
So idk how standardized propositional logic syntax and semantics is but here the big V is a logical or over each element in S and the T is a tautology
so yeah, this formula is not well defined if S is not
ok i have no idea how that relates to the question you originally asked and also honestly i'm confused about what you're saying but if the question is just "how do you write a formula that's true if G contains a k-independent set" then
$\exists S \subseteq V (S\text{ is }k\text{-independent})$
bee [it/its]
(where the stuff inside can be replaced with whatever the actual definition of k-independence is)
(i'm assuming here that a k-independent set in a graph is a set of vertices, but if that's not true you can replace V with something else)
so what you wrote is essentailly what I wrote, just in another syntax
in our course we have a definition with an alphabet and semantics
and a grammar
for a formal language
that is our boolean logic
it should be some standard thing but as I said I am not too sure how commonly used this is
or wait, hm I meant S contains one of G's k-independent sets (as in Maximum Independent Set of vertices) if G contains such a set, and is empty otherwise
Im not sure you meant the same thing
sorry ok overlooked this message
i mean i think "using some kind of propositional logic" is fairly common, but there are various minor variants in how you define it (that turn out to not matter much in the sense that they all define essentially the same system) so possibly the specific collection of choices that your course is using isn't very common
but yeah to the extent that it's not standard i'm mostly guessing it's nonstandard in a way that doesn't matter much
(well unless they made any decisions that are just weird)
well what this means is "G contains a k-independent set"
should be alright, we also teach stuff like np completeness of boolean sat in that context
well anyways
i guess the way i'd write this is $(\exists T \subseteq V (T\text{ is }k\text{-independent} \land T \subseteq S)) \lor (\neg\exists T \subseteq V (T\text{ is }k\text{-independent}) \land S = \varnothing)$
bee [it/its]
so my problem is this.
I want a formula based on S, but if S is not well defined, the formula isnt
"either there is a k-independent set in G that is a subset of S, or there is no k-independent set in G and S is empty"
well the formula i originally said is well-defined
(this one)
if you're trying to do it in a language that doesn't contain $\exists$ then i honestly have no idea how you'd talk about graphs at all in that language, or why you would want to
bee [it/its]
ohh
now I think I get it
what in the brackets is "such that S is k-independent"
ok give me a sec
well i don't know what a k-independent set is
but for instance if a set is k-independent if it's not empty then $S\text{ is }k\text{-independent}$'' should be replaced with $S \neq \varnothing$''
bee [it/its]
(i assume that's not the definition lol)
oh sorry
what I meant is just an independent set of vertices, which has cardinality k
so no two vertices are joint by an edge
and there are exaclty k vertices in that set
ok so the think is
what I am trying to do is find a sneaky way around actually solving the exercise
alright so, $\exists S \subseteq V (|S| = k \land \forall u,v \in S : {u,v} \not\in E)$, or something like that
because usually people would construct nicely formed fomulas
bee [it/its]
that acutally make sense
but since we can just make the formula dependent on any set we can define
this weirdly allows for a lot of tricks
and I am trying to test the boundaries
and I thought you could solve every single exercise by such an approach
the one you gave would again require some more details in our logic
which I wanted to avoid
yes exactly that
so I mean nice formulas like these
this formula would be satisfiable if and only if there exists a k-hitting set for given M, S, k
where M is a set, S a subset of M's powerset and k some natural number
and what you could always do if the question is only existence of a solution, is say
"Let S be the set of all solutions ( so here of all k-hitting sets, for given M,S, k) "
and then have
$\varphi_{M,S,k} \coloneqq \bigvee_{Y \in S} \top$
barΔ±Ε
then if S is empty, the disjunction evaluates to an unsatisfiable formula $\bot$
barΔ±Ε
otherwise we have a disjunction with a tautology $\top$ inside
barΔ±Ε
but then usually the follow up question is "explain how you can translate a satisfying truth assignement to the variables into a solution"
which would obviously be impossible here
anyways I feel like I am harrassing you with this
xD
I appreciate your help!
hey guys, i have a question that needs some clarification (in regards of graph theory), lets say we have G = (V, E) be an undirected graph where V is the set of vertices (node 1, node 2, node 3 for example) and E be the set of edges
lets say the visual representation of the graph is as followed:
1
/
2 3
what would the incident edge be exactly? (from my understanding its just the link between the nodes, node 1 has an incident edge from node 1 to node 2 and node 1 to node 3)
in other words, is an incident edge just a synonym to a link?
Incident means two things are touching.
An edge is incident to the vertexes it's connected to.
You might talk about two edges being incident to each other if they share a common vertex.
different outcome?
What outcome would it be if you apply the "AND" logic to the Base-3.
if there's an obvious correct way i can't think of it
ββββ¬ββββββ
β β0 1 2β
ββββΌββββββ€
β0 β0 0 0β
β1 β0 1 2β
β2 β0 2 2β
ββββ΄ββββββ
```maybe like this
(Revised by adding different outcome)
I don't see A, B, and A^B for your decisive outcome.
i like mine
I guess you land on arbitrary.
Do your flip trick froggy.
so it's the last one
I guess it's the hand in the air for the time being.
I'm having a problem proving with contradiction that if (a * b) != c * k (k some integer) then a != c * p (p some integer)
in other words : if c doesn't divide (a*b) then c doesn't divide a
,tex a \cdot b \ne c \cdot k \rightarrow a \ne c \cdot p
captindfru
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Does it have to be through contradiction?
If you have another way I would be happy to hear it, I just didn't think of any
Instead of proving $$a\cdot b\neq c\cdot k\implies a\neq c\cdot p$$ try proving the contrapositive: $$a=c\cdot p\implies a\cdot b=c\cdot k.$$
valekral
If I'm not missing sth, this should be a valid proof.
I tried it and I get to
(c * p) * b = c * k
p * b = k
which leads me to a dead end or am I missing sth?
You want to prove that if there exists such integer $p$ for which $$a=c\cdot p,$$ then there also exists such integer $k$ for which $$a\cdot b=c\cdot k.$$ What you got is what $k$ must equal for the equations to hold, and since we know what both $p$ and $b$ are, you've proved that such a $k$ indeed exists.
valekral
(sorry for the late response, i was cooking pasta)
$$a=c\cdot p\ |\ \cdot b,$$ $$a\cdot b=c\cdot p\cdot b\ |\ \text{let}\ k=p\cdot b,$$ $$a\cdot b=c\cdot k.$$
valekral
hello. I have no idea if im in the right channel or not but im looking for someone to explain strong induction for me on a specific problem. I have no clue what's going on and i have to submit an assignment on it soon..
Ask the question
this is the question. i get the general concept of strong induction but i have no idea how to apply it
First, you need to have a statement to prove. What's the answer?
im not really sure, how do i get the statement?
Well, call it a conjecture, if you'd like. What are some possible total amounts, what are some impossible total amounts? Is there a pattern?
i guess anything less than 25 would be impossible? and some possible amounts would be any combination of the two? so 25x+40y?
Yep. The set of possible total amounts is $$T = \left{25n + 25m ,:, (n,m) \in \mathbb{N}^2\right}$$ where $$\mathbb{N} = \left{0,1,2,3,4,\ldots\right}$$
Cufflink
Show the statement you've been given for strong induction. There are many equivalent ways to state it, at various levels of generality.
can you elaborate on that please?
Your book or whatever gave you a defition of strong induction. What is it, verbatim?
Discrete Mathematics and Its Applications (7th Edition)
Ok. Could you prove this with induction if the only denomination was $25 and the only possible values were of the form 25n for natural number n?
what am i trying to prove exactly?
That if the only gift card denomination is 25 then the possible values are of the form 25n, for any natural number n.
(Solve the simplified one first, to work out any confusions you have w/ induction.)
alright let me try it one second
Share what you have so far; it shouldn't take this long unless you're confused.
im not really sure if this is correct or not
I see. Think of it like this. Let T: β β β be the function where T(n) is the total value of your $25 gift cards if you have n of them.
Our proposition P(n) is that T(n) = 25n.
So...
P(0)is the proposition thatT(0) = 25*0 = 0P(1)is the proposition thatT(1) = 25*1 = 25P(87)is the proposition thatT(87) = 25*87 = 2175- etc.
It doesn't make sense to say "P(1) is true for n=0". P(1) is whatever the proposition is when n=1. What you've proven in you base case is P(0).
Your book excludes 0 from the natural numbers, so induction starts at n=1. But it doesn't matter. You can start induction at n=0 or n=1.
(that should be 2175, not 2,75)
woops
thats a mistake on my part, i meant to write p(0)
I sliced off the tip of my left index finger the other day and it's wrapped in a thick bandage + stitches. I'm very typo-prone right now. Haha.
Anyways, P(n) is the statement that T(n) = 25n.
If T(n) = 25n can you prove that T(n+1) = 25(n+1)?
Well, T(n+1) = T(n) + 25. It's whatever my total value is with n cards plus 25 for the extra card.
Therefore```
T(n+1) = T(n) + 25
= 25n + 25 (by inductive hypothesis)
= 25(n+1)
which is `P(n+1)`. So if we assume the inductive hypothesis `P(n)`, we can conclude `P(n+1)`.
yes i understand that.
the number of cards i assume?
Yes, that's correct.
You might say we're "inducting over the total number of gift cards"
In the case where you have two denominations, i.e., n gift cards worth $25 and m gift cards worth $40, what is the total number of gift cards?
n+m?
Is that a question?
no, the ? implies that im not sure lol
You're telling me that if I gave you 6472 $20 gift cards and 12 $14 gift cards, you wouldn't be sure how many gift cards you had overall, regardless of denomination?
if n is 6472 and m is 12 then the total would be n + m
Seems like you're sure! π
Anyhow, what would inducting over the total number of cards in the two-denomination case look like?
can you explain that a little more? not sure i follow
Ok. You had no issue setting up the induction when it was one denomination. What's the induction for the case where there are two denominations?
25n+40m
That's just an expression. Induction means you have a proposition parameterized by a single natural number and you're aiming to prove it's true for every natural number.
What's your proposition in the two-denomination case? What's P(n)?
is it P(n) = 5n ? since 25 and 40 are both multiples of 5 so the only numbers i can produce using them are also multiples of 5
P(n) is a proposition.
It's something that could be true or false.
5n is not something that could be true or false, it's just some number.
In the one-denomination case P(n) is the proposition "If I have n $25 gift cards then their total value is 25n."
p(n) is " 5n dollars can be made from 25 and 40 dollar cards"
We're trying to prove: "If I have k $25 gift cards and j $40 gift cards then my total value is 25k + 40j."
The issue is that there are two natural numbers involved now. That proposition, as written, isn't parameterized by one natural number, but two natural numbers.
You could say the proposition P(k,j) is "If I have k $25 gift cards and j $40 gift cards then my total value is 25k + 40j."
But we don't know how to prove something like P(k,j) by induction, if that's even possible.
We want a proposition P(n) parameterized by a single natural number. Part of the challenge is figuring out what that number should represent.
It can't represent only the number of $20 cards, or only the number of $40 cards.
Well, by analogy to the one-denomination case, maybe we can have n represent the total number of cards regardless of how many of each denomination we have.
so n would represent k + j?
That's one way to do it.
Another way to do it is thinking about the range of values of 25k + 40j. There's some smallest value the expression can have, then a second-smallest, then a third-smallest, etc.
Then P(n) would be the statement "The n-th smallest value of the expression 25k + 40j is _____", where ______ is some expression that depends on n.
Or...
Actually, reflecting on the question again, I think it might be aiming at something else, namely that you can get all multiples of 5 larger than a certain amount.
that amount would be 25, correct? since the smallest value would be if k = 1 and j = 0
well if you can get all multiples of 25 above 25, how do you get 30?
did not think of that. youre correct
This question isn't great because there are many ways you could express the total possible value.
Some folks might just say it's obvious that the total possible values look like 25k + 40j, even if formally, technically that's something which needs proving.
Then there are other, less obvious expressions, which also warrant proving.
The reason I suspect the latter is because you don't realllllly need strong induction to prove that if you have n cards then the total looks like 25k + 40j for some k,j with k + j = n.
I don't know your professor/graders. This is the kind of question where, if you prove they all look like 25k + 40j by induction, would you get points off because you didn't prove the "actual" thing you were meant to prove, despite the fact it wasn't explicitly given?
i have no clue. our professor did one problem on strong induction and went on to the next topic
On the other hand, I hesitate because proving you get all multiples of 5 larger than a certain amount requires you prove a bunch of individual cases below the threshold.
Like....I'm pretty sure you get every multiple of 5 starting at 140. Below 140, you're missing a bunch of multiples of 5.
Anyways, the "professional" thing to do would be to spell out this ambiguity and prove both versions.
thank you
Hi everyone, I'm unsure about how to start with showing the => direction. By the definition I know that P_G(R) means # of proper r-colorings of G using r-colours.
What's theorems or lemmas about trees and/or chromatic polynomials do you have at your disposal?
These are the ones I could find:
What about trees? What characterization of a tree are you using?
There are many equivalent ones.
But from the chromatic polynomial, you can determine how many connected components a graph has and how many edges it has.
And a connected graph is a tree if and only if |E| = |V| - 1
I think we have |E| = |V| - 1
Sorry yes
Don't think this was given as a theorem to us so we might need to prove it from scratch
A graph is connected if and only if x^2 doesn't divide its chromatic polynomial
It's not hard to see if you think about coloring the graph BFS-wise, and realize a graph's chromatic polynomial is the product of the chromatic polynomials of its connected components.
Hm ok Ill experiment a bit
Pick a starting vertex v. If you have k colors then you can pick any of those k colors, but every vertex after that in the same connected component has to be colored using fewer than k colors.
Yes this makes sense to me. If there was a cycle i'd expect a - 2 term somewhere
Actually nevermind i dont think that is true
Could someone help me with notation for game theory? I'm trying to same something like "player 2 can modify their strategy for another position such that it performs just as well" but I'm not sure how to make it precise
so far I have this but the notation just seems really bad
Oh yeah@lethal linden , I realize I omitted some information, I think we are supposed to use the theorem in a) to help out with b).
If we're doing the => directin for b by contradiction, supposing its not a tree then there are two cases:
- It's not connected. Then do using part a maybe we can do something with P_{G1}(x)P_{G2}(x) = x(x-1)^{n-1}
- There are not v - 1 edges (Maybe a counting argument where each factor of the formula implies how many edges there are in the graph?)
$$\binom{a-1}{b} + \binom{a-1}{b-1} = \binom{a}{b}$$
Cufflink
Ok, then stars and bars
the right side is choosing k+1 elements from set of n+1 elements, how to make the left side seem similiar?
How much of a hint do you want?
lets start from slight
i did some similiar proofs but the less complicated they are the harder for me is to make a good proof
Hint: every subset of the natural numbers is well-ordered
We have a group of n + 1 people. All of them are ordered (like natural numbers, from 0) We want to make a team which consist of randomly chosen, k+1 people.
On the right side we are choosing k +1 people to the team out of n + 1 people.
On the left side, we first assume what if only people up to some number k <= m <= n* want to be in the team (This way we consider what if people after number k dont want to play, what if people after k+1 dont want to play etc until everybody wants to play).
Firstly, we get the largest numbered person who wants to play and then choose the rest (then we end up with binomial(m, k) no matter how many people want to play, since we always take the person with biggest number to the team)
In general, on both sides we count how many possibilities we have to choose a team of k + 1 people within given set of people
* up to n, because there are n + 1 people and we start counting from 0. This way if people up to k want to play, we have people up to number k - 1 and assuming we order from 0 we have exactly k people which wanna be in the team.
idk if i used the hint but would it pass as an okay explanation? @lethal linden
It's pretty muddy. You're picking a set of k+1 numbers. How many ways are there to pick the smallest number in the set? Once the smallest is picked, how many ways are there to pick the rest of the set?
its the largest number in the set
but for natural numbers there is always one way to pick largest/smallest number in given set, then after we pick it we can pick the rest of set in binomial ( power of set which we started from - 1, k) ways
thats why i assumed we pick the "biggest" person. If we picked the "smallest" we would end up in always picking 0
if we pick the biggest person I believe we still can achieve all possibilities of teammates chosen
we can always pick only one of those "special" elements because natural numbers are well ordered i think
When we have a set of (0, 1] we cannot really pick the smallest one because reals are not well ordered
am i thinking right?
because then always picking a "Special" person we get rid of the +1 in k+1 on the bottom of binomial
do you guys have any idea about this?
this is kind of an elementary question, but this feels like I need to be triple-quadruple checked on this
Let's say we have two functions A, B: M --> M which are surjective on some (infinite) set M. We take B* to mean the inverse image.
Letting x be an element of M, is B* β A only a function iff B is also injective?
Try f: Z --> Z/6Z where f(x) = 3x
but fx=3x doesn't satisfy f(xy)=f(x)f(y)
In 6Z it should? f(xy) = 3xy = 9xy = 3x * 3y = f(x)f(y)
sorry could you explain what do yuo mean by Z
Z meaning integers, Z/6Z meaning integers mod 6
ooh
one moment
so is f Z/6Z and 3x as well?
or is it f(x)->(3x)mod6
i think i got it thanks a lott<333
I have a question about something puzzling I read in a graph theory textbook. In a proof of one implication of a characterization of trees (if a simple graph T on n vertices is connected and each edge is a bridge, then between every pair of distinct vertices in T there is exactly one path), there is this argument, paraphrased a bit: "assume there are two paths p1 and p2 with p1 of shortest possible length. since p1 is of shortest possible length, the sequence of edges constituting the path p2 cannot be a rearrangement of those in p1, since if that were the case, we could use these common edges of p1 and p2 to form a path strictly shorter than p1, [...]"
my question is, given vertices u and v and a path between them, how can there possibly be many paths between them consisting of the same edges? I mean, they are arguing that is impossible, but why do you need this argument to rule that out, it seems impossible just by definition of a path, you can't permute the edges at all
right?
Can I get a hint on this, I spent wayyy too long trying to figure it out on my own and looking back at notes
This is an assignment so no full answer
I know that (n-1)/k kind of gives you the number of splits
that's the only thing I could figure out that sounds useful
what's the sum of the degrees of the vertices in G?
The sum of the degrees would give you n for internal vertices but the issue is we dont know the internal vertices to be able to get the leaves
the sum of the degrees for all vertices is the number of edges though times two
hmm let me see
right so I get:
sum of deg = 2*(n-1) = k + (k+1) Γ (number of internal vertices) + 1 Γ (number of leaves)
= 2 * (n-1) - k = k * (number of internal vertices) + 1*n
= 2 * (n-1) - k - n = k * (number of internal vertices)
(number of internal vertices) = (2 * (n-1) - k - n) / k
n - (number of internal vertices) = leaves
thank you
i forgot to exclude the first vertex
the formula becomes
which is still incorrect
Here are my steps ^
Or wait i think the first vertex is meant to be 1 more branch than the other vertex so that it can have the same degree as per the question
nvm
ok I solved it differently
basically i assumed "n" to represent internal vertices then found a formula to have it express the number of leaves were there to be "one more level" and then once I had that next iteration's number of leaves, I just divide it by the degrees (excluding the one degree attaching to above vertices)
This for those curious
Also, for some reason I'm missing 1 other answer here. I couldn't figure out the mistake after many attempts...
and this is Multinomial distribution?
so it wouldbe
n!/(i! * j! * k!) * P^i * P^j * P^k ?
for C) is just using the pdf func
and get 0.0945
d) is Binomial distribution with n=8 and pAdele=0.5 right? 0.21875
e) Given XAdele=3 , the remaining nβ²=5 votes are distributed between Lizzo and Taylor. The conditional probs are
p lizza = 0.3/0.5 = 0.6
p taylor = 0.2/0.5 = 0.4
then P(XLizzoβ=3,XTaylorβ=2β£XAdeleβ=3)=5!/(3!2!)βΓ(0.6)^3Γ(0.4)^2 = 0.3456?
Anyo recommendated book/guide for Recurrent
Sequences?
Can someone please confirm if this (somewhat informal) proof is correct?
woah all of this looks so advances
This might be hard to read , but it was hard for me to translate aswell lol.
Let x(n) be the size of A where A f:[10] -> [N] functions s.t for every F,G f([10]) intersection with g([10])= 0
You need to prove x(n) value and its the upper bound
@ashen bane
?
Do I need any complicated theorems about chromatic polynomial, or is there a more intuitive way to solve this?
this should be doable as just combinatorics without needing to know anything in particular about chromatic polynomials, i think?
...the method i'm imagining is kind of tedious if there isn't a trick i'm missing, but it's not something stupid like "enumerate all the colourings"
If p is the chromatic polynomial, what does p(k) represent?
I think the thing with chromatic polynomial is that you're not necessarily using ALL of the colours (Some of the amount you're counting can be for using k - 1 colours for example), so we'd need something different
P(r) means the # of proper r-colorings of G w/ r = # of available colours
Hmm
HMM
(Subtract out the colorings you don't want.)
You don't need to find anything β you just need to understand what the chromatic polynomial represents!
And use inclusion exclusion
Don't I need to find the value of P_g(4)?
Also f_G(1) = 0
f_G(2) = 0 (Because cycle is not bipartite)
f_G(3) = ?
For each size-3 subset of S, your set of colors, there are p(3) colorings which use that subset or any subset.
There are C(4,3)=4 such subsets.
p(4) - 4*p(3) subtracts too many subsets.
Inclusion exclusion
I want to remove the amount of colorings that use a subset of Size 0, Size 1, Size 2, Size 3
When you write 4*p(3), the p(3) could be using a subset of size 3, size 2, size 1, size 0, is that what you mean by itt subtracts too many?
Nvm I got it
How are we supposed to break this problem down to justify the smallest value for the Ramsay number?
Like n - 1 makes no sense because then there wont be a chance for a blue K_n to exist so probably the Ramsay number has to be bigger. But is there a more formal way to talk about this?
For the upper bound, find a K_n which has appropriate monochromatic cliques regardless of coloring.
For lower bound, find a coloring of K_{n-1} that doesn't have a monochromatic clique of either size.
For this exercise, think about what a monochromatic clique size 2 is, and what it would mean to not have one.
https://theoremoftheweek.wordpress.com/2010/05/02/theorem-25-erdoss-lower-bound-for-the-ramsey-numbers/
Really simple proof but I found it pretty neat. My first time seeing the probabilistic method.
Here's an old combinatorics midterm of mine, some fun and related exercises:
Can I say I think it's just n, because n - 1 might not even work (Because for example when K_{n-1} is has all blue edges, there is no opportunity to find a red K_2 or blue K_n).
When we colour K_n, if the colouring has a red edge then its easy to see the Red K_2. if the entire graph has edge coloured blue then your Blue K_n is already given
Is that it? Or is there a certain way to phrase this idea
That's it. A blue 2-clique exists if there's even a single blue edge.
If there's no blue 2-click then the remaining vertexes must all be red
Oh when you see R(2, n) you were thinking K_2 is blue and K_n is red
Whatever the colors are
Same idea though if you switch them around I guess haha
Purple and mauve
Periwinkle and forest green
Anyhow, that's the idea. K_{n-1} colored with all red has neither clique
So that proves it's greater than n-1
And if K_n has no 2-clique then all edges are red, so the whole graph is the n-clique
That proves it's no larger than n
This is the base case for a useful inequality proven by induction btw
Thanks! I also had a question about this, my idea was like this but it got stuck:
Let R(10, 10) = x. I claim K_x is a subgraph of K_n. Therefore any orientation of K_n will result in an orientation of K_x. Now I'm wondering how to get the result we need. Maybe I set forward edges = red, backward edges = blue for the sake of our orientation?
But this would just tell me that Kx contains a red or blue K_10 which doesn't seem to help because it just says "all the edges here are forward or all the edges here are backward", but my goal is to say something like "these 10 vertices are acyclic", so I think I was supposed to do something else. Is there a different observation we can make?
Well, think about coloring that corresponds to the orientation
Like, orient one way color it red
Other way color it blue
Right, looks like I got that so far
Imagine putting the vertexes in a line
What does a 10-clique look like, colored that way?
Like label vertexes {1,2,...,n} and put them in a line
So red goes right to left, blue goes left to right
Or whatever
So for me I'd have 10 vertices in sequential order, red edges will go from left to right and blue edges will go from right to left
Oh wait
So if we think of it this way
You can never trace a sequence of red edges and repeat a vertex?
Or say smaller-to-larger and larger-to-smaller
Okay what if we had like, a monochromatic K_3 with all red edges (idk if i am even allowed to bring up this example)
You'd put 1, 2, 3 on a line and since red = forward edge, we'd draw some arrows like 1->2->3 (and also an arrow from 1 to 3)
But when you look at the drawing isn't that cyclic?
Ah wait! I see my problem
No...? Every red edge goes from smaller to larger. How could there be a cycle?
I was thinking about in terms of drawing the arrows first, then I assumed the orientation. I falsely thought a clockwise triangle meant all edges are "forward"
Ah
That's why I changed to saying smaller-to-larger and larger-to-smaller
If you have 10 edges all pointing smaller to larger, it'll be an acyclic subgraph.
by the way i was wondering about what the minimum values of r and s are here, our notes doesn't even say them. I think that having either of them as 0 or 1 is problematic
Because I don't think K_(-1) or K_0 are defined
?
How would you prove/disprove it?
Assuming A,B,C are sets
Well, if it's true for every set C then it'll be true for any *particular * set C of your choosing.
I chose the empty set an it came out true
But if A = {1}, B = {2}
And we choose C = {1,2}
The union is correct, but Aβ B
So it's false
@lethal linden
No. You're being asked to disprove whether
βC(AβͺC = BβͺC)
implies
A = B
For A={1}, B={2} the antecedent is false, which means the entire implication is true since PβQ is equivalent to ~P β¨ Q.
Choosing C to be the empty set shows it's true.
Because if it's true for any C then it's true for C = {} in particular.
For this question about hyper-graph ramsey theory, would I follow a derivation similar to the example on the top?
Lol this stuff looks crazy
I am also having trouble with understanding b and applying it to our situation, it sounds like we need k >= 4 points for this
That's always a safe bet. Try it and see what happens.
The thing is, we're working with R^4, but the example is working with R^3., so I'm unsure of how to say if a Quadruple is convex or not.
Couldn't we do this question using strictly the facts from A and B?
The question gives us a sequence (1, x1), (2, x2), ..., (n, xn) and no three of those lie on a line
And I think we would need n >= 10 otherwise we might have a "no clique"
Worry less about whether it follows the exact form and just try stuff. What have you tried?
I tried something that didn't involve the example,
Since n >= 10, if we repeatedly apply Fact A after choosing 5 points randomly, we will eventually run out of random selections so it means that every 4 points form a convex quadrilateral. Then I apply fact B to get that the n points are the vertices of a convex n-gon . From these n points we can get 10 points, and apply fact B again to get what we want?
This doesn't make sense. It would seem to imply that this is true in any set of at least 10 points, which is trivially untrue.
Say you want to look at 4-triples because we're using R^(4). What are some properties relevant to the exercise that would could use to decide what to color? Just list some.
So we would have i < j < k < l
There's a line segment i-k, and a line segment j-l. Maybe we can have j be below the line segment i-k and have k be below the line segment j-l to colour it convex?
Maybe. That's one property. Name some other properties 4 points on the plane may or may not have, mentioned in the text.
Just get a bunch of properties out in front of you first and then decide which are most promising.
Another thing I think is that 4 points on a plane are either convex or concave depending on how you place them
What does it mean for 4 point points to be convex?
Regions can be convex or not, but isolated points themselves aren't.
Oh I meant 4 points on a plane could either form a convex or concave polygon
Yeah regions
There's really just convex and non-convex, but yes.
Given 4 points, color the 4-hyperedge blue if they are the vertexes of a convex polygon. Color it red otherwise.
Or maybe color blue if they don't
Then you either have: a set of 5 vertexes, no 4 of which (something something), or a set of 10 vertexes, any 4 of which (something something).
The reason for this bringing this up is because you're using the definition of the Ramsay number right?
Since $n = R^{(4)}(5, 10)$, this means that if the edges of $K_{n}^{(4)}$ are colored red or blue, then it will contain a red $K^{(4)}{5}$ or a blue $K^{(4)}{10}$.
Uh huh. You have R^4(5,10) points in the plane.
clementine
Ok and my understanding is if we say that the blue edges indicate the 4 vertices form a convex quadrilaterial, then we can use fact B on K^(4)_10
is the real line good intuition for Β«linear orderingsΒ»?
or maybe it doesn't capture some cases
The real line has a lot of structure that a typical linear ordering does not, so I would say no.
What? No.
subsets of R?
There are infinitely many linear orderings that cannot be subsets of R, so no.
But I suppose for intuition...
Yeah, for intuition I think it works well enough
Ah sorry, It seems like I have a misunderstanding then. Putting the meaning of red and blue aside (because you can just switch their roles without loss of generality), why were we saying "Given 4 points, color the 4-hyperedge blue if they are the vertexes of a convex polygon. Color it red otherwise." ?
It's clear from the text of the problem that you would like to use (b) with k=10
Assign colors to guarantee that happens
"10. Since 0
is a possibility for oranges and for apples but not for both. we have
(9 + 1)(6 + 1)- 1 ways" Is the solution as described in the answer key, can anyone explain this to me please?
All the ways you can choose 0 or more of either, minus the one way where you choose 0 of both
But I kind of object to the framing of that as a "way of picking", because to me "way of picking" means a choice of order.
Like AAO and AOA are two different ways of picking three pieces of fruits
This question is more like "How many different baskets of fruit can you end up with, assuming the basket contains at least one piece of fruit?"
thank you! this made it clear to me
This is written in the answer key. As I have no previous experience in combinatorics, I don't know if this is relevant
I mean, it's just a matter of what they mean. That's why I never like word problems like this. They rely on conventionalized interpretations of ambiguous English words
Like folks who say "or" means inclusive or unless you say "either x or y"
Okay how about like this.
\
Let $n =R^{(4)}(5, 10).$ This means in any red / blue coloring of the 4-edges of $K^{(4)}n$, it must either contain a red $K^{(4)}{5}$ or a blue $K^{(4)}_{10}$.
\
Now we need to assign meanings to the colours.
\
Attempt #1: Coloring an edge red if the 4 points inside form a convex quadrilateral. Coloring an edge blue if the 4 points do not form a convex quadrilateral. This isn't valid because suppose we got a blue $K^{(4)}{10}$. This implies that there are no 4 points out of the 10 points form a convex quadrilateral. But Fact A says for any 5 points, no three of which lie on a line, 4 of them must form a convex quadrilateral. This is contradiction so we cannot have a blue $K^{(4)}{10}$.
\
Attempt #2: Coloring an edge red if the 4 points inside do not form a convex quadrilateral and red otherwise. We can't have a red $K^{(4)}{5}$ because we can find a contradiction in Part A. So we must have a blue $K^{(4)}{10}$ .From here we apply fact B
clementine
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@snow cedar what book are you using?
The book I check out is called "Intro to Graph Theory" by Douglas West
You've got the idea, but there's no contradiction involved. You have $n = R^{(4)}(5,10)$ points in the plane. Color a $4$-edge blue if its points don't form a convex quadrilateral, color red if they do.
\\
There's either a blue $5$-clique or a red $10$-clique. A blue $5$-clique is a set of $5$ vertexes no $4$ of which form a convex quadrilateral. That's impossible by (a).
\\
Therefore there must be a red $10$-clique. A red $10$-click is a set of $10$ vertexes where any $4$ form a convex quadrilateral. By (b) that means they form the vertexes of a convex $10$-gon.
Cufflink
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Hey, they've asked me to prove that
[a]+[b] = [a+b] and that [a]Β·[b]=[aΒ·b] are both well defined in modular arithmetic.
But I don't know where to start
I mean, my first idea was to chose a generic element for both equivalence classes, but I don't think that's the way to proceed
choose two elements for each equivalence class and show that the resulting equivalence class is the same in both cases
[a]+[b] and [a']+[b']
I mean, it seems obvious for me that it is the same, but the thing is that I don't know how to express it on paper, cause I'd say sth like: "it is obvious that..." but it isn't, and i don't know how to express it
you have to use that [a] and [a'] are the same equivalence class
which gives you an equation for a and a'
then plug that in
same for the b's
can I affirm, by definition, that if [a1] = [a2] then a2 = a1 + kn, for k belonging to Z?
That is precisely what it means for [a1] = [a2], yes.
I got this right, but I'm a bit confused on how we map our function in the second part of the question. Do we look for similar isomorphic invariants between vertices in V(G) and V(G')?
Each picture depicts a bijection between V(G) and V(G'), but they're not all isomorphisms. Pick the ones that depict an isomorphism, if any.
For g to be an isomorphism it has to be a bijection between vertex sets which preserves edges, i.e., a~b in G if and only if g(a)~g(b) in G'.
Preserving adjacency also preserves many higher-level properties, like degree, but at the lowest level either it preserves adjacency or it doesn't. The graphs are small enough you can manually check for each edge.
Like, if v1 is sent to w3 then the neighbors of v1 have to be sent to the neighbors of w3.
I noticed that v1 -> w1 because it preserves the edge with v4/w4, v2 -> w3 because it preserves the edge with v1/v4, etc. are we looking for that kind of pattern?
Just check that the property holds.
Say g is like the second picture, where g(v1) = w3 The neighbors of v1 are v4 and v2, so g(v4) and g(v2) have to be neighbors of w3. That means g(v4) must be one of w2 or w1, and g(v2) must be the other. But g(v4) = w4, so it can't be an isomorphism.
In computer science, the problem of determining whether two graphs are isomorphic is called the "Graph Isomorphism Problem" and we don't know any efficient algorithms for general graphs: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Graph_isomorphism_problem
You can imagine doing this kind of "chase the edges" work for graphs with even a few more vertexes would get very cumbersome, very fast.
So, it's often quicker in practice to just look for properties preserved by isomorphisms that are present in one graph but not the other. That proves they're not isomorphic.
You also didn't show the rest of the page, so I don't know if you're meant to pick exactly one image or whether more than picture could possibly depict an isomorphism.
If you can only pick one then the answer is the first picture.
One way to see this is by realizing that graphs don't have to live on the 2d plane. If you imagine the graph is just four rings tied together with pieces of string, then any rearrangement of those rings + strings that don't alter the connections will be a picture of the same graph.
So if you think of the two criss-crossy edges as two pieces of string, one laying on the other, you could hold w1 and w2 down on the table and flip the other two horizontally to un-cross the strings and get a graph that looks exactly like the one on the left.
That gives you one isomorphism: send v1 to w1, v4 to w4, and then swap the other two vertexes.
And that's the function depicted in the first picture.
But there can be many isomorphisms between two graphs and without more meta-information I can't rule out the possibility that the other pictures also depict isomorphisms. I'd have to check.
Just those, but I get it now thanks for the explanation
I'm trying to get the intuition for this hint about Ramsey Number,
Firstly in general I think that if n = R(x,y), then any coloring of K_{n + 1} will contain a red K_x and blue K_y (Because colouring K_{n+1} will colour the K_n anyway).
I think what's tripping me up is the nested values in the R on the right hand side, because I'm not seeing why creating a 2-edge-coloring is helping us
hello, guys! Nice to meet y'all. I am a first-year computer science student in the second semester. Starting from this semester, I have been taught some discrete math. I have been struggling with it quite a bit since teacher of our math class isn't good at explaining concepts of discrete math and she rushes too much. She focuses on completing the lecture slides rather than giving out lectures carefully to students. For those reasons, I have been self studying discrete math since the start of this semester. I have been watching discrete math videos and self learning some concepts. If there is anyone who can relate to me or can navigate me the right path, can you please tell me what should I do next to do well in exam and for the good sake of Computer Science major? I truly want to delve into it. Can you please advise me whether I should use textbooks? I have downloaded some books.
Do as many exercises as you can. Aim for 10+ per week. Get feedback. Incorporate feedback. Repeat.
thanks a lot for your suggestion ππ»ππ»
I need some help with this question. I was able to solve it with a finite state acceptor but how do you solve this with a regex (Concat, Union, Kleene Star operations only)?
I would show what I've tried but I didn't really get anywhere with anything. Any tips on how to start this kind of question or certain ways I should be thinking?
Here's my working for solving it with a regular grammar (left form) and DFSA but I still have no idea how to do it with a regex. Is there a way I can convert it from one of these forms to regex form somehow?
I swear, every other book comes up with its own random-ass notation for formal grammars.
Sorry guys if this is a stupid question but I cannot understand what the resources on the internet are trying to say:
I'm given the following task:
Let X and Y be any sets, we assume that there exists a bijection from X -> Y (and therefore we can write X βΌ Y?)
Proof that this relation is an equivalence relation.
So I do understand that an equivalence relation requires being:
- symmetric, reflexive and transitive.
Now imagine X = {1,2} and Y = {a,b} and f = {(1,a), (2,b)}
Then f is bijective, correct?
But how can it be symmetric, because if we added the elements (a, 1) and (b,2) that wouldn't make any sense as those are elements of Y x X and not X x Y.
Also how can a relation be reflexive if the domain and codomain are disjunct (or generally different like in the example)?
It doesn't ask you to show that the bijection is an equivalence relation
$ Let ( X ) and ( Y ) be any two sets. ( X ) is called equinumerous to ( Y ) if there exists a bijection between ( X ) and ( Y ). In this case, we write ( X \sim Y ).
Prove: This relation is an equivalence relation. $
Uzumi0
$ Let \( X \) and \( Y \) be any two sets. \( X \) is called equinumerous to \( Y \) if there exists a bijection between \( X \) and \( Y \). In this case, we write \( X \sim Y \).
Prove: This relation is an equivalence relation. $
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It doesn't?
the relation seems to be that: X ~ Y if there is any bijection from X to Y
so for symmetry, you want to show that if there is a bijection f from X and Y, there exists a different bijection g from Y to X
It asks you to show that the existence of a bijection between two sets is an equivalence relation, here symmetry would be equivalent to saying that there exists a bijection Y -> X if there exists a bijection X -> Y
so in this example, if X = {1, 2} and Y = {a, b} and f = {(1, a), (2, b)}, then f is a bijection which means the pair (X, Y) is in the equivalence relation defined in the question
I think I partially understand now, thanks. So it's a question about a set of bijections.
Does anyone have a list of exercises to apply Dilworth's theorem to Posets?
You can apply Dilworth's theorem to get a fast algorithm to solve this
O(E log E) lol
i think you can get an even faster algorithm for it using some sort of reduction to LIS
but yah i liked the dilworth solution to this
really stuck π« π«
You use Dilworth to get the fast LIS alg right?
yah
i think so
i don't remember the details
oh wait naive dilworth gives you something like O(m^2)
where m is |E|
but you can use dilworth with dp to get O(mlogm) via a reduction to LIS
Is the idea like this?
After we make a 2 edge-colouring for K_{n-1} based on the 3-edge colouring for K_n,
by definition the 2-edge colouring for K_{n-1} will either contain a red 2-edge colouring of K_(R^3(a,b-1)) or blue [...]
In both cases wlog, if theres a red 2-edge colouring of K_(R^3(a,b-1)), we can turn it into a 3-edge red colouring by adding back the vertex v.
Just analyze the cases carefully and remember what "red" and "blue" mean when you're 2-coloring the auxiliary graph.
If v is the vertex you remove, a blue edge {x,y} in G' means {v,x,y} is blue in the 3-hypergraph.
Yeah if {v, x, y} is blue in the 3-hypergraph doesn't that naturally suggest a blue-3-clique with this following idea: (I'm using red in this case)
Like $n - 1=R(R^{(3)}(a,b-1),R^{(3)}(a-1,b))$. Suppose the coloured $K^{(2)}{n-1}$ graph has a red $K^{(2)}{R^{(3)}(a,b-1)}$. Extending the edges in the red $K^{(2)}_{R^{(3)}(a,b-1)}$ so that they contain $v$ would form a $K^{(3)}a$ in $K^{(3)}{R^{(3)}(a,b-1) + 1}$
