#discrete-math
1 messages · Page 25 of 1
omg this is good for practice
yeah, I found it handy back when I first learnt this stuff
good for checking work definitely
ok i will try do do the second part by myself. one last question what does this mena again ↔
it means if and only if
in other words
A if and only if B, means that A implies B, and B implies A
it's different from just asserting that A implies B
for example
A is a square implies that it also is a rectangle
but A being a rectangle doesn't necessarily imply that it is a square
but when it comes to <->, it means that it must be true both ways round
so if c is true and (a and b) is true would the if and only if mean T. and if c is false and (a and b) is false then if and only if is true and if c is false and (a and b) is true then the if and only if is false?
Are you a teacher?
yep.
You seriously need to become some sort of dgd or tutorial TA. no one explained this to me as fast and as good as you. This is actually crazy
thanks for the complements, but I ain't rlly at that level yet
would consider being one as I gain more experience. Hope you have a nice day, and GL with those qns
Thank you !!!
Constructivists in shambles






((A->0)->0)->A moment
*This is LEM, but you can get A->((A->0)->0) without it
Namely, function application 
and that’s A-> - - A
Geez I'm cracking UP SO BADD RN 



🤡
insanely funny
I'm at structures, is a structure a specific type of set or are they separate
"Structure" is a word with a lot of barely related meanings.
Thus a lot more context is necessary to even understand what you're asking.
Can anyone help me in logistic proofs?
Can the thing in blue considered as “q”?
Because this makes it simpler
Um, can you find even one single truth assignment where the thing you have circled in true has the same truth value of q?
This is not my section’s work
My professor didn’t even send assignments
I’m justbpraxticing
To prepare before
<@&286206848099549185>
Hmm, perhaps you didn't see that I responded to your question. I'll repeat it in case Discord is acting up:
Can you find even one single truth assignment where the thing you have circled in true has the same truth value of q?
I already told you this is a previous exam
What does that information have to do with what I aksed you?
Can you find even one single truth assignment where the thing you have circled in true has the same truth value of q?
I don’t get it
You asked whether (¬p or ¬q) and ¬q can be replaced with q. That must be because you think they have the same truth value. I'm asking you whether you have tried pugging in even one single truth assignment for p and q to check whether your assumption holds in practice.
These are laws we follow I don’t think you have to plug in
Do me a favor and try a single choice of values to see whether what you ask is true is even in one single case actually true.
I don't care which choice of truth values you try. But try one.
Tell me which truth assignment you tried and which value you got for (¬p or ¬q) and ¬q and which truth value you got for q. Are they they same?
Apologies, @odd garden. It suddnely strikes me that you might be asking whether you can let (¬p or ¬q) and ¬q be the formula that is called q in some completely different, generally phrased rule?
yes she replaced (¬p or ¬q) and ¬q by q
by she i mean my proffesor
not p or q is equivalent to p -> q
Are you talking about the "or directly" sidebar?
That starts by replacing (¬p or ¬q) and ¬q by ¬q --- not by q.
Yes
The blue circled thing does not become q. It becomes ¬q.
Okay I’m with you
After that, ¬q or p becomes q -> p.
So all the “not” inside are removed?
No.
The truth value of (¬p or ¬q) and ¬q is always the same as the truth value of ¬q. Therefore you can replace one with the other.
But if you go backwards it doesn’t get the same answer
I don't know how that is equationally justified in whichever (unknown-to-me) system you're using, but it is easy to check with a truth table.
What do you mean by "go backwards"?
Like start from q->p
And go on backwards
You will not get back to the blue circled thing
If we accept that the truth value of (¬p or ¬q) and ¬qis always the same as the truth value of ¬q.
Then we must also accept that the truth value of ¬q is always the same as the truth value of (¬p or ¬q) and ¬q.
You can replace one with the other, or the other with one. Both replacements preserve meaning.
You know what this course is weird that’s not maths😐
@odd garden humor me for a second. If you think this isn't math, then what do you consider math to be?
I’m trying to prove the existence and uniqueness of the transitive reduction of a finite directed acyclic graph
(the transitive reduction of a graph is a graph with the same nodes but a minimal number of edges such that the reachability relation on nodes is the same)
I know in algebra the usual way to prove the existence of some minimal structure is to take the intersection of all objects that satisfy the condition
But I am not sure if graphs G and H (with the same nodes) have the same reachability condition then their intersection does too
I think the answer is most likely no too
I mean heck what am I saying of course the transitive closure exists (either it is the graph or something smaller, the graph is finite so you can just check exhaustively)
The question is how to show uniqueness for direct acyclic graphs
when numbers go brr, obviously.
theyre the kind of person to say "i was good at math until the alphabet came in" unironically

hey, i need help regarding de-bruijn graphs:
how many k length circuits are there in the de-bruijn graph B(t,n) where n>=1, k>=n,t>=2
the circuits are not necessarily simple
every calculation I can think of is counting twice (or more) some cycles
*Let S be a set equipped with one or several methods for producing elements of S from other elements of S. A subset X of S is said to be closed under these methods, if, when all input elements are in X, then all possible results are also in X. Sometimes, one say also that X has the closure property. *
^ That is from wikipedia
But when talking about relations and closures, S and X would be relations right?
S could be a relation "equipped" with symmetricity, e.g from (x,y) you can produce (y,x)
and X is closed under symmetry if for any (x,y) in X, then (y,x) in X
is that correct?
No
They are referring to functions specifically.
An example of what they mean is as follows: consider S to be the natural numbers, and its only 'method' will be addition of natural numbers. An example of a subset X closed under this operation is the set of even natural numbers.
We don't usually consider relations to be an example of this kind of thing.
ok
what does this mean?
"As every intersection of reflexive relations is reflexive, this defines a closure. "
i know what is a reflexive closure but i dont understand that sentence
This "closure" is not referring to the "closed" that wikipedia was.
This is, as is so often the case, an informal word not being used for a precise meaning.
Be nice. We can do without calling anyone "the kind of person [whatever]" to their face.
was not exactly a "to their face" moment but point taken
the set
$$\bigcap_{S\supset R\text{ reflexive}}S$$
can be used to define the reflexive closure of $R$, in the sense that its the smallest reflexive relation containing $R$, and proving it uses the fact that an intersection of reflexive relations is reflexive. then we can prove
$$R\cup\brc{(x,x):x\in A}=\bigcap_{S\supset R\text{ reflexive}}S$$
hence both sets define the reflexive closure of $R$
@cunning mason
eigenglome
i guess integrals ?
MyFavoriteAccount
because even for irrational numbers, x-x is rational
That's true for any equivalence relation
It's not clear to me what you mean to say there.
For what it's worth, the equivalence classes of S are not easy to describe in a satisfying way.
how would you describe them?
boytjie said its hard to describe them in a way thats meaningfully different from just saying the definition
is there an equivalence class for each irrational number? And one equivalence class for all rationals?
No, there is not a unique equivalence class for each irrational number
for example pi and pi+1 are in the same class. In fact, this holds for both relations.
There is indeed a single equivalence class that contains the rationals
then i have no idea what the answer to "what are the equivalence classes" should be like
I'm inclined to agree.
Here's a more precise substitute that you may find helpful in the first exercise:
For the relation $R$ (not $S$) find a set $X \subseteq \bR$ such that every equivalence class of $R$ is of the form $[x]_R$ for \emph{exactly one} element $x \in X$.
Boytjie (never-to-be-glomed)
This ought to lead you to a more satisfying description of what the equivalence classes of R are.
but R is not even a equivalence relation
4 - 2 is natural but 2 - 4 isnt so its not symmetric
ok
what does this mean? That every equivalence class of R has just one element?
I wish you'd asked this earlier if there was confusion!
Recall that $[x]_R$ is defined as $\build{y \in \bR}{x R y}$.
Boytjie (never-to-be-glomed)
This is NOT saying that every equivalence class of R has only one element, not at all.
I am asking you to find a set of so-called 'representatives' for the equivalence classes of R: a choice of element from each one.
for all equivalence classes of R, there is a unique x in X such that [x]_R can represent that equivalence class?
That is what I wrote, yes
{x \in R : 0 < x <= 1}
for the integer equivalency class, there is [1],
for the [1.25] equivalncy class, there is [0.25]
etc etc
is it correct?
That is correct, that is a nice example of a set of representatives
what about for (c)?
for any real number x, [x] is {x/100, x/10, x, 10x, 100x, 1000x...}
Try repeating my exercise for the relation T. You may find it trickier.
maybe {x \in R : \forall z in Z( |x-10| < |x*10^z - 10|)}
Maybe you can give a simpler characterisation of this set
It's not clear to me at a glance what elements are in it.
all real numbers x such that x is closer to 10 than any x*10^z
for example 50 wouldnt be in since 5 is closer to 10
do you have an example of a number that is in that set?
5
...oh right yeah 5 works
OK sure
Another set that I believe works is $(0.1, 1] = \build{x \in \bR}{0.1 < x \leq 1}$
it isn't
So that would've been a nice way to write that set down.
1 isn't in the set because 10 is closer to 10 than 1 is
1.1 isn't in the set because 11 is closer to 10 than 1.1 is
Well there is an issue, which is 20/11 and 200/11 are equal distances from 10, so the uniqueness property that I requested is not satisfied. so in fact neither are in the set of representatives, meaning that their class is not represented.
But anyway, if we exclude one of them then the set ought to be (20/11, 200/11].
@cunning mason you may want to look at the discussion here
how did you come up with this?
Well, you can get any element in R by scaling it right?
I think of the equivalence class as just moving the decimal point in a number around
we can set the decimal point to be before the first zero in order to get representatives. That would actually be [0.1, 1) but nevermind.
(0.1, 1] is equally good.
What I mean by this is that 0.123 T 1.23 T 0.000123 etc
Whoops, T not R.
There are some details here, such as the fact that 1 = 0.9999... but I believe it works out anyway.
Whoops, you also need to worry about negative numbers. Well I won't go into details.
A true set of representatives would be (-1, -0.1] u {0} u [0.1, 1)
Can someone explain what is the author doing here? (the highlighted section)
Bit late but I'd agree with this. The Wikipedia article is very vague with their definition. To make things a bit more precise:
Fix any set $S$. Let's call a pair $(X,y)$ with $X\subseteq S$ and $y\in S$ a \emph{rule}. We say a set $A\subseteq S$ is \emph{closed} w.r.t a rule $(X,y)$ iff $X\subseteq A$ implies $y\in A$.
Now the vague Wikipedia definition of "a set S equipped with methods for producing elements of S from other elements of S" can be seen as equipping our set $S$ with an entire system of rules $R$, i.e. $R$ is a set of rules or equivalently a subset of $ \mathscr{P}(S)\times S$.
Now given such system $(S,R)$ we of course say $A\subseteq S$ is closed if it is closed w.r.t. all rules in $R$. We're interested in the \emph{least} closed subset of $S$. That set is unique (since it's the least one) if it exists. To show that it does exist one can proceed in more than one way, but the simplest one is to take $\bigcap {A\subseteq S\mid A\text{ is closed}}$ (prove that this is the least closed set).
Neverbloom
Your example was the closure of relations. To illustrate, fix a set $S$ and a relation $R$ on $S$ and suppose we're interested in the least equivalence relation containing $R$.
Then this is exactly an instance of the phenomenon above. Our background set is $S\times S$ and our rule set is the union of $${(\varnothing,(x,y))\mid x,y\in S \text{ and } xRy},$$ $${(\varnothing,(x,x))\mid x\in S},$$ $${({(x,y)},(y,x))\mid x,y\in S}$$ and $${({(x,y),(y,z)},(x,z))\mid x,y,z\in S}.$$
Neverbloom
Sorry for the monologue but I thought it would be worth mentioning since inductive definitions like that are scattered throughout mathematics but outside of computer sciency literature it isn't really addressed on its own, and even there it's mostly folk knowledge you'd find in random papers or texts.
The only reference that is always included when this does get mentioned is a short paper by Aczel "An introduction to inductive definitions" if you're interested in more.
Anyone wanna chat
#chill or discussion if it's not related to maths/discrete maths in the case of this channel
does anyone know where to find like a huge set of counting problems with solutions
this https://www.hmmt.org/www/archive/problems or search for the archive of past problems in math contests
i dont remember if they have solutions tho
i want to ask a few questions:
question 1: if we place s balls into s-1 buckets V1, V2,...,Vs-1 that are arranged on a cycle, then there is an index j so that for every 1<=k<=s-1 the buckets Vj,Vj+1,...,Vj+k-1. have together at least k+1 balls.
question 2: by pigeonhole principle, we get that for every 3<=l<=n-2, there are two neighbors of x that together with it from a cycle of length l.
question3:prove mental's theorem using induction on n, but remove only a single vertex each time.
does anyone can deal with?
I don't understand this notation
why is [r] equal to [r - 1/2]?
oh
I understand now
It's just a definition they game for that funky notation
what is the point of the y in a rule (X,y)?
a subset A of S is closed w.r.t a rule (X,y) iff A being a subset of X implies y is an element of A?
for example the reflexivity rule (X,y), X would contain all reflexivity pairs, but what is the point of the y
The elements of X are the ones that "create" y. Think of X as premises and y as the conclusion. So a single rule is an instance of how to create a new element from old ones.
Hence A is closed under that rule iff when all the premises are in A, then so should be the conclusion.
No, for reflexivity we'd have empty premises (unlike symmetry and transitivity it doesn't have any premises)
So for a single element x, ( ∅, (x,x) ) would be one instance of reflexivity (and then we do that with all x of the set our relation is defined on)
i understand
what does "system (S,R)" mean?
A set S and a set of rules R on S
If I want to prove ZxZ is countably infinite, can I just enumerate Z to show it is countable? I think there’s a theorem where if A and B are countable infinite, AxB is countably infinite?
well you should try proving that theorem
otherwise there isnt really a lot to do
proving that ZxZ is countable is essentially the same proof as showing that AxB is countable
it's not hard to enumerate Z^2 either
Guys how should I map from R to R^2?
You can map from R to R^2 in whichever way you like haha
Tell us the actual question at hand
send every x ∈ R to (420, 69)
flebron
Ah, I think the same inclusion-exclusion logic works.
the correct solution says $T={(X,Y)\in A/S\times A/S:\exists x\in X\exists y\in Y(xRy)}$
MyFavoriteAccount
but isnt this also valid? $T={(X,Y)\in A/S\times A/S:\forall x\in X\forall y\in Y(xRy)}$
MyFavoriteAccount
they'd have to be equal then since its says "unique", or the exercise is invalid
OK, i checked and since R is compatible, those relations are the same thing
Is it possible to know the number of possible hypergraphs with a n of nodes and m edges? Thinking in the adjacency matrix representation I feel like it should be 2^(mn)/(m!n!) But I'm not sure if I'm not double-counting somehow. Maybe there are row permutations equivalent to column permutations. If there are how would I count this?
There are 2^n -1 possible edges, since they are just nonempty sets of vertices. A hypergraph with m edges is then simply a choice of m of these edges. So there are (2^n - 1) choose m such hypergraphs.
I hope the definition I had in mind is the one you did too.
@weary tiger see above
Without a clear statement that we're counnting vertex-labeled graphs, I'd say that overcounts isomorphic hypergraphs.
True, I didn't think about isomorphism
And it's hard to correct for the overcounting because the amount of overcounting of each isomorphism class depends on how symmetric it is.
Whatever the function h(n,m) counting the hypergraphs with n nodes and m edges; h(n,m)=h(m,n) because for any hypergraph we can construct it's dual by assuming each edge is a node in the dual and each node is an edge in the dual connecting the edges in the primary.
I wonder if we can at least derive more properties like this
That might get you a multi-hypergraph, e.g. if you start with two vertices joined by a (two-ended) edge.
What would a two-ended edge be?
An ordinary edge.
Indeed the definition I had in mind was a 'simple' hypergraph.
Implicitly I also assumed the vertices were labelled, as tropo pointed out earlier.
Or for a less trivial example, there is exactly one simple hypergraph (in Boytjie's sense) with 2 vertices and 3 edges, but several non-isomorphic ones with 3 vertices and 2 edges.
Hmm, that's true. So there are more constraints in the adjacency matrix.
Or maybe I described the dual wrong. Maybe I have to use the incidences as nodes in the dual
I know there is a way to decribe hyper-graphs as standard bipartite graphs where the first partition represents the hyper-nodes and the second one represents the hyper-edges. The connection between partitions would be the incidence
Yeah, but we need to accept multiple edges before the concept is symmetric under interchanging "nodes" for "edges". If we accept two different nodes that are incident to exactly the same edges, then after dualizing you'd have two edges with the same incident nodes.
Or, alternatively, declare that the ordinary K_2 is not a hypergraph.
Is that the only problematic case?
More like the simplest problematic case.
By definition a hyper-graph is V and E where E \subseteq 2^V. So each e \in E is s.t. e \subseteq V. My intuition is that each e could be represented as a bit-set of size |V| so the list of all those bit-sets would be a bit-map of adjacency. Since, at first there is no constraint I could think of the transpose as just another bit-map, but this time the rows would be the edges and the columns would be the vertices. You pointed out the K2 case. It would be the matrix [[1][1]] with transpose [[1 1]], this transpose would be interpreted as one vertex and two equal edges connecting it. So I guess the constraint is that we cannot have two vertices with exactly the same edges connecting them
Can you think about a problematic case that is not within this pattern?
So I guess the constraint is that we cannot have two vertices with exactly the same edges connecting them
Right, if you're willing to make that restriction, you do get a duality between vertices and edges.
How is 8g wrong? It’s the same concept as 8b and I got that one right
How is that wrong as well?
G should be right
How abt second picture
I’d assume it’s right because the relation is defined by (-1,-2) being an element of S
And it meets the conditions of x being greater than or equal to y
Yeah I just wanted to make sure I wasn’t being tricked
Like if (-1)S(-2) was a trick question or something
But yea I told them it’s rigt they haven’t emailed me back though
I got a 95 without those points
-1S -2 is just saying S contains the pair (-1,-2)
Right
I know
I knew I had either a 100, 97, or an 87
When I got 95 I was like nah something is not right lol
You should ask your professor then
Always worth getting the most points you can
Ahh yeah
Ty buddy
Np
They gave me 2 extra points lol I knew I got a 97 on that test
Hi folks 🙂 Let P(n) be the set of partitions of a positive integer n. Is there a nice relation between P(n) and P(n+1)?
flebron
There's this relation at least: If $P_k(n)$ is the set of partitions of $n$ into $k$ numbers, then to create $P_k(n)$ we can take $P_{k-1}(n-1)$ and append $\{1\}$ to each partition, and then take $P_k(n-k)$ and add $1$ to each number in each partition. The union of these two sets is $P_k(n)$.
Got what I needed 🙂 Specifically, the generalization of that statement is: Let $A_k(S) = {s + (k,) \mid s \in S}$ be a function that appends $k$ at the end of every partition in a set $S$. Let $P_i(n)$ be the set of partitions of $n$ that use parts of size at least $i$. Then we have $P(n)$, the partition number of $n$, is $P_1(n)$. Furthermore, we have $P_i(n) = {(n)} \sqcup \bigsqcup_{j = i}^{\lfloor \frac{n}{2} \rfloor} A_j(P_j(n - j))$.
flebron
can someone explain proof by contraposition in like fortnite terms
i don't understand the thing in black
i understood why we used n=2k but after i'm lost
If you don't survive til the last 5, then you don't win the fortnite game. So if you did win the game, you did survive til the last 5
If you play fortnite all day long, then you won't sleep. So if somebody sleeps well, then they aren't playing fortnite all day lol
yo fortnite is pretty good
I want to understand the summation and do you know any resource that will be helpful and here is an example problem i do not understand
also answer to your problem
can anyone help me with this one
it is combination with repetition but I forgot how to do this
Hi, is this permutation even ? if so why?
Is there a proper definition for it?
what definition(s) have you seen for the parity of a permutation, and what makes them all improper?
If the number of inversions in a permutation is even, the permutation is considered even in parity. If the number of inversions is odd, the permutation is considered odd in parity.
Then the permutaiton in the example is even.
... you didn't answer my question of "what makes this definition you saw improper", and also i am pretty sure you're wrong about this permutation being even. how many inversions does it have?
i count seven inversions:
(1,2)
(1,3)
(1,4)
(1,5)
(3,4)
(3,5)
(4,5)
which makes this an odd permutation
hmm, but I thought an Inversion is a pair elements a,b in the set so that :
a < b and σ(a) > σ(b).
With (1,2), 1 < 2 but not 2 > 5.
Also I don't know how to answer your second question, I am sorry
So if write down σ as a set :
σ =: {(1,2), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3), (5,1)}
I count :
(1,5),(2,3),(2,4),(2,5),(3,4),(3,5),(4,5) also odd inversions, so it is odd 
Looks like Ann was stating inversions by listing the σ(b) and σ(a) rather than the a and b. So her (1,2) inversion is the same as your (1,5).
(When you have the permutation written out as cycles, as here, it is easier to see the parity by looking at detect the length of the cycles, than to go all the way to the definition of inversion. We know in general that a 3-cycle is an even permutation and a 2-cycle is odd, so their product is an odd permutation).
I understand now, I probably got tunnel vision and was looking only into the definition , so thank you guys 
The "right" answer is wrong because if you plug in p false and q true you should get true
I agree with yours
yee
am I the only one who doesn't see why Backus-Naur form deserves it's own name
it's like, the most reasonable and obvious way to write a production rule
Oh I guess the usage of | is pretty handy
well how would you want to refer it when talking someone without being able to say a name
refer to what
a particular rule?
I would just say "you can turn any occurence of a substring X into the string Y"
or literally write down X -> Y
like imagine talking to someone who wants you to build something and you arent sure what exactly they mean. wouldnt it be handy to just be able to tell them "write down what you mean exactly using the BNF" and then for the other person to know what you are talking about and giving you exactly what you want
instead of using some other notation and then having to explain the notatin they are using and so on
I guess it is a standardization, but like for two symbols lol
are we talking about the same thing? that seems like an incredible oversimplification
I think perhaps "Backus-Naur form" is mainly a way to credit Backus and Naur for the idea (and courage) to use context-free grammars at all to communicate the syntax of an invented language between humans, rather than simply as a theoretical concept for theorizing about the nature of languages in general, and/or analyzing already existing languages.
The particular contributions of the symbols ::= and | and <blah> are not in themselves all that of an intellectual achievement, but you need some hook to hang the name on.
Ah that would make sense
there are lots of things in math that were born from not very amazing ideas. but its good that they have names. also you cant overstate how much of your thinking now was formed by the way stuff is taught that back then was not known and had to be invented. stuff that is obvious now was far from obvious back then
Yeah, my original motivation to the question was “why did two guys slap their name on this thing that doesn’t really add any additional value to the theory”
I can't speak for this particular example but most stuff in math is named by someone else
"those people did that thing first, lets call that thing after these people"
Neither of them named the notation themself.
Good on them
Which one is statement and which one is statement function?
I'd guess that a "statement function" in your context just means a formula that contains a variable that is not bound within the formula itself.
If my interpretation is right, then the exercise wants you to be familiar with the fact that "P(2,n)" isn't true or false until we have decided what "n" means -- but "forall n P(2,n)" does have a truth value that doesn't require us to know an n in advance.
(At the level where you're being asked this, you're most likely not supposed to notice that both of them are really meaningless until we have decided what "P" means.)
is the transition function literally a partial function in that it doesn’t specify what to do (i.e. specifies that you halt) for certain (state, symbol) pairs, even possibly pairs where the state is not a final state?
or is calling it a partial function just emphasizing that it is not defined for certain pairs (state, symbol) when state is a final state
But then it would be more appropriate to call it a partial function on the set Q x Gamma
Reading the definition literally would imply that a Turing machine can halt even when it hasn’t reached a final state, and that just seems weird
yes
honestly I prefer the term "accepting state" rather than "final state" for this reason
the goal of a turing machine is to accept or reject words
if your machine couldn't halt on non-final/non-accepting states, then (assuming your word triggers a finite execution on the machine) rejection wouldn't even make sense
it wouldn't even exist
@chilly dew
I see
On the other hand certain presentations (like Sipser’s Intro to ToC”) specify a single accept and a single reject state, and the transition function is total (not partial)
I’m sure it’s computationally equivalent, but that’s the easiest way to think about it imo
yeah there's a metric ton of equivalent-ish definitions for TMs
I recently finished my discrete math course, and the whole concept interested me greatly, seeing as it's summer and my university's logic classes are only available in the spring, are there any online resources which do a good job picking up where discrete left off? Many-valued greatly interest me, but the talk of lattices confuses me
What does the <S> means in this context?
It also appears here. Checked the preliminaries but there is no mention 
usually this notation is used for generating set
if S is a set of vertices that would be the graph containing S as vertices and edges being all the edges of the original graph that only connect vertices in S
but im just guessing here
whats the topic that you guys have studied that is the hardest? for me i'd say simplex method/big m but what do you all think
Why is this wrong? v1 and v2 are on a cycle
v(g) >= 3
G is connected
but isn't v3 a cut vertex?
I know nothing about Graph theory but I want to know wdym by overdetermined set of simultaneous eqs? 
OK i think i realize the issue here
he uses "any" to mean "all"
I think
if you have n eqs and m < n unknowns it is overdetermined. there is no guarantee a solution exists
What are cut vertices?
but I'm fairly certain he means "all" when he says "any"
uh yeah I see
@sour oak if I am understanding it correctly, the I don't think your example picture was a counter at all
p.s. all and any do not have a similar enough meaning to aasume that.
To make sure I understand it right, what is your disconnector in this set?
v2<->v3
or
if we're talking about the cut
then just v3
So what you claim to be the disconnector of G i s v2, v3 and the edge that connects the two?
well the theorem is about cut vertices, so the vertex-disconnector is just v3
My point is is that the things you cut, don't actually satisfy that c(G-X)>c(G), so it doesn't really apply here
they do
imagine cutting v3
now you have the connected component v1, v2, and all the unnamed
and the one on the far right
all alone
that's a component in and of itself
why not?
this has 1 connected component
after removing, there's 2
.....oh, I thought the count was referring to the number of edges and vertices
This makes more sense
Sorry about that, I got a little confused
it's ok, his language is confusing I think
So to clarify, what exactly do we mean by a connected component?
also annoyingly he uses \nu for something and v(g) for the number of vertices in a graph
I think I got it, but I wanna make sure
"In graph theory, a component of an undirected graph is a connected subgraph that is not part of any larger connected subgraph"(from wikipedia)
basically if u can get from a to b its part of the component
So they are basically parts of the graph that are disconnected from each other?
Okay I'm with you. So yeah the wording is a little funky, but for "any two vertices of G, there is a two cycle," that means pick any two random (distinct) vertices, and there is always a two cycle between then
I'm with it now
what he meant is that all distinct (u,v) lie on a cycle
yeah
that's what I figured
then it makes sense too
Don't worry, I got it now
That is an interesting claim. Have you tried to prove it yet?
A cut-vertex , would just be a removed vertex right?
so u see it has to look like this
and there can't be an edge between the two blobs(the other part of the graph)
i mean that's just the same thing
it's just that either the left or the right enter the blob
two edges+one vertex and one edge+two vertices seem a bit different, and possibly a noteworthy distinction
it is not different, your two edges have a connection somewhere in the blob
i just put it in the blob
why?
you just drew this
i put the one you put in "the middle"
in red
the ones on the left(or right) just go into the blob
it's the same thing basically
Okay sure
so anyways if this isn't the case(there is no cut), then there must be an edge like so:
so that's one direction
no cut => there must be such an edge => there is a cycle
I can't say I understand your argumetn
the claim is
A connected graph(>3) has no cut vertices <=> all (u,v) have a cycle
if there is no cut, then there has to be an edge between the two blobs
which means that there is a cycle for all (u,v)
I see the idea, how would you go about this if there were more than 2 components?
the graph is connected so there is 1 component
nvm
this is how a cut looks like
(in red)
so if there is no cut
there has to be something like this
I understand
Well, if every (u,v) has a cycle between then, we can view each graph as a collection of sub-cycles. So if we can show this is true for a cycle graph, then it's pretty easy to extend it into the collection
Consider u-v-w be three vertices that connect to each other. And let c_1,c_2,..., c_i be the cycles that (u,v) and (v,w) share. Remove v from the graph. Every c_i has 1 connected component after v is removed. Since v and w are in a cycle, v and w are still connected, so the collection of cycles c_i are all still connected.
We conclude that there are no cut vertices because the graph will always remain connected, no matter what v we remove
There's an even better way to go about this. Assume all (u,v) have a cycle between them in X, and remove a point u_1 from X. Since removing a vertex from a cycle still makes the graph connected every point still connects to every other -> the graph is connected.
You can iron the details, but that idea is definitely more efficient
interesting
I think the issue might be that (u, v) can have a cycle like u->v->u
or actually that is not a cycle
It has to be insufficient
Not sure what you mean?
I'm trying to show that if we take a connected graph such that all (u,v) are in a cycle (connected is a consequence of this), that even if you remove a vertex, the graph will still be connected, aka no cut vertices.
Absolutely.
The proof in the booklet uses induction and all that, so unless he wanted to complicate matters... idk.
Look at individual cycle graphs, call it C_n where n is the number of vertices. If you remove a point on C_n, then that is isomorphic to a path graph
Path graphs are connected.
Lovely. Now consider the graph X such that all (u,v) are on a cycle. We know if we remove any vertex, say u_0 for every cycle any points u,v share, there is a path between them (in that cycle), so X\{u_0} is connected
That direction is dond
They may have gone a different way about it, but you don't have to. This way is pretty efficient and it proves exactly what we need to
you would agree that any graph with a cut vertex also contains a bridge, and that they overlap?
that is
if (u1, u2) is a bridge, then either u1 is a cut, u2 is a cut, or both in some cases.
hence if there are no bridges... no cuts.
and uh
no cuts -> no bridges
actually that might be incorrect
this has a cut vertex, but no bridge.
Not sure what a bridge is to say
=>
G has no cut-vertices and at least 3 vertices => assume by contradiction that there are some (u,v) that are not on a common cycle => then there is no back-edge from v to u(even through some other u') =>
- if u has neighbors => u is a cut, since removing it means you cannot get from v to N(v)(neighbors of v)
- if u has no neighbors => v is a cut, since you cannot get from v's neighbors back to u.
=> contradiction to G having no cuts => all(u, v) are in a common cycle
I feel like this is still missing something
Why?
Just because there is a path on the cycle doesn't mean all paths are connected, right?
or at least you haven't convinced me of that in the proof
Every two vertices are on a cycle, so every two vertices have a path that connect to them.
what if that path was severed by u_0
Since this is true for every two vertices (u,v), the graph must be connected, because a connected graph is one where you can create a path from one vertex to any other
Draw a cycle graph and think about why cutting a point doesn't change the fact it is connected
I am convinced of this already but the proof seems lacking mathematically
if that makes sense
Short answer, there are two paths between any two distinct points, one with u_0 and one without.
You can formalize the path if you wish.
<=
G is has a cycle between all(u,v) => G is connected => if we remove any vertex v, then ?
Then any two points still lie on a cycle in the graph, so there is a path between them that did not contain u_0 (the one we cut) on the cycle
that's not necessarily true, what if the only cycle contained u_0?
Yes it is. Draw a dang cycle...
Remove a point.
You can always find a path for two points when (u,v) is excluded
Help me understand what you're not getting please
I feel like you're the one not getting me. I'm already convinced by your argument but I feel like if I wrote this proof in a test, for example, I'd get a big fat 0.
Maybe I should just email the prof and see what he says.
Why? It's mathematically sound
You got from point a to point b making no false assumptions, or too many assumptions, and showing all the facts you needed to along the way
This is the basis of a proof. If you do this, you've successfully constructed a proof.
Alright.
The argument they gave is over the top and admittedly most of it is completely unnecessary
Which is fine...it's still a proof, just not the most efficient one.
Hell, there may be a better one than what I did, but the one we have is efficient, and I hope it makes sense to you.
I'm pretty sure that this is a classic proof for whitney's theorem
Also you do realize that even if u, v aren't on a common cycle, there can still be multiple paths from u to v right?
Yeah but how is that relevant? Having a path is not enough for there not to be a cut(which is the claim)
How is u a cut vertex though
guys may i ask a question about bfs and dfs
if this channel is not appropriate i can send it from dm
It is. In the future I would recommend just asking.
just ask
Which one is a minimum spanning tree that start from Eskişehir with Breadth First Search algorithm?
i thought it is third one but im not sure i always mix bfs and dfs
there are also distance values between them should i also share it
well the third one isn't a tree right? I'm assuming the red edges are the traversed parts
yes red lines mean visited
breadth first search means you start from a vertex and visit the verticies closest to it
so the vertex itself, then its neighbors, then neighbors of neighbors, etc
so second one is okay
Yeah
DFS it's sort of like a path where you move to one vertex, and then from that vertex you try to move on to the next vertex
starting from eskisehir
I'd say it's the first one
Because it looks like you started from eskisehir and then walked to three other nodes
and then when your path ends
you return to eskisehir and travel the remaining node
yess now i got it
thanks a lot
this topic is related to discrete math right? im sorry if im asking them in a wrong channel
there is also one more term minimum spanning weighted tree, is that mean visiting all nodes with the shortest way
hey i have a question regarding the wording here
what are all k-tuples with coordinates in {0, 1}, wierd language
it's a binary string with k bits if you want
(x_1, x_2, ..., x_k) with all the x_i's being 0 or 1
@mossy arch
ah
that sounds plausible, so what does that have to do with 'coordinates'
like what is a coordinate
it's a cube graph
the idea that each vertex has a 'name', like for example (0,1) and (1,1)
and you connect each vertex together if their coordinate differs by 1
like (0,1) and (0,0) would be connected
for a k=3 case something like (1,1,1) and (1,0,1) would be connected
but (0,0) and (1,1) are not
some sources call it 'cube'
i see thanks
no they're not
drawing out the k=3 case you can see why it's called 'cube/hypercube'
it really should not be called a cube if k > 3
I was solving an recurrence relation, I crunched some numbers in python and arrived at a sequence but I can't find a closed form formula
wolfram gives a generating function:
Can I possibly arrive at a closed form solution with this generating function?
Out of curiosity, is there anything wrong with my argument for this?
Short version: For any two distinct points on a cycle, there are exactly two non-intersecting paths (excluding endpoints of course) between them. Therefore, if we remove a vertex, just choose the path without said vertex. For the graph X, every (u,v) has a common cycle, so we can apply the same idea to show there is a path for each one even after removing a vertex.
This was only a proof for the converse btw.
there's a match in OEIS for your sequence https://oeis.org/search?q=4%2C14%2C50%2C178%2C634, the closed form is there
a(n) = a*c^n - b*d^n, a := (5 + sqrt(17))/(2*sqrt(17)), b := (5 - sqrt(17))/(2*sqrt(17)), c := (3 + sqrt(17))/2, d := (3 - sqrt(17))/2.
at least if you want to work it out by hand you can check now
(the OEIS sequence is a little bit shifted compared to yours, starts at 1 instead of 4)
omg thanks a lot
I mean yeah this is the proof for the converse
the other direction -> if the graph is 2-connected then every (u,v) is in a common cycle is what's trickier
How would you calculate the number of legal tic-tac-toe states? I can't figure it out
btw a graph is 2-connected if the # of vertices you need to delete to disconnect it is at least 2 - hence the same as no cut vertices
Also I think the formal terminology for paths like these is "internally disjoint"
cause none of the internal vertices intersect
Ah, internally disjoint. That''s definitely better wording, thanks.
Not a theorem, just the way they defined the edges for V for this particular problem.
Uhm so it normally doesnt hold?
But i still dont understand why it holds in this case
It holds because we defined it that way.
This is like responding to ‘Let a = 2.’ by saying ‘but why does a = 2?’
But I mean this is like way harder
It may be easy to see for u because u are so knowledgable but I don’t see it
What is so special about this particilar set of vergices
No, it's exactly the same.
The vertices alone do not have any edge information.
They are, to repeat, defining what edges exist.
So what besides the vertices sets makes it to have this property
Nothing. Again, they are defining it!
Yes
Idk how I could make this any clearer. They are defining the graph to have this property.
My english isn’t that great mb
It's like relations. Usually we are given that xRy if and only if some property of x and y holds.
But that property for x and y is the definition for the relation.
But thank you guys
But whatever that property is is usually given to us. Not because it was true by some theorem or what not, but because that's what we define to be true.
Ah i see they give it either like this or in a picture i would assume
Can someone explain this question to me? I'm very confused
Starting from the recursive definition of set A described below, which element does not belong to this set?
Let A be a set of non-negative integers defined
per:
Base Pitch: 2ЄA, 5ЄA and 8ЄA.
Recursive Step: If xEA and (x+3)EA, then (x+1)ЄA and (x-1)ЄA
The answer must be one of the numbers below:
1
3
4
6
7
Look, at each of the base numbers
2 is in A, 2+3=5 is in A. By the recursive step, 1 and 3 must be in A.
So currently A has 1,2,3,5, and 8
We can continue with the base numbers: both 5 and 5+3=8 are in A, so 4 and 6 are in A.
Technicaly from here, we can do process of elimination since we now know 1,2,3,4,5,6,8
We now know 7 is the problem, but let's try to figure out why. In order to potentially be a new element in A, it must be one number smaller or larger than that element (from the x+1 and x-1).
So let's first check if we can do anything for 6.
Well, 6 is in A...but 9 is not, so we cannot apply the recursive step.
Similarly, 8 is in A, but...11 is not, so we cannot use the recursive step.
We cannot apply the recursive step for 6 or 8, so 7 cannot be in the set.
@supple geyser I hope this was useful to you
this animation 💀
bro what the hell bro
I don't understand this question his method is someone introduced himself to everyone I understood that part but why does that mean his partner will be automatically not introduced to anyone
they aren't introduced together right
oh I think I understand it
my reasoning is everyone got a different answer so u start with someone being 8 then u know someone has to be 0 and knowing that everyone had a relation with that 8 that dot with no lines becomes 0 if u continue like this someone has to be 7 and someone gets 1 etc.
why is the amount of edges in a complete graph n choose 2
I understand the other one with the summation of degrees = 2E
An edge in K_n corresponds to an unordered pair of vertices
i.e., a choice of two vertices.
I mean they are not ordered, so the pair (1,2) and (2,1) are indistinguishable.
This is precisely what n choose 2 counts.
you should also know it is n * (n-1) / 2, since the n vertices connect to each of the other (n - 1) vertices. divide by 2 if it is undirected and there are no loops
ye I understood this one
I know it's equal to nC2
but it's kinda hard to see it from the nC2 part
oh wait I can see it as how many pairs of vertices does there exist too right?
hey I understand this theorem but it's a bit confusing what A means here I thought it means arrows but that would be incorrect then is it just an arbitary letter?
Isn't |A| just the # of edges?
oh that might be the case
cuz then u say the degrees of all the in arcs is the number of edges = the number of out arcs which makes sense
and then 2* times the edges = the summation of all the degrees
A is the set of edges.
by the looks of it.
or i guess arcs since they're directed
that's why it's called A for Arcs
don't conflate a set with its cardinality
but whats the difference by saying it's the cardinality of arcs when u write |A|
oops typo
|A| are how many elements are in A
are u btw good at doing proofs?
you could say that i am, yes.
but why do you need to ask me specifically this specific question?
I am trying to figure this out
what do you really want? help with a proof problem?
but it's pretty hard
if u can help me that would be realy nice
ok so you're reading through somebody else's proof
well the question is to proof it
- Ignore the proof written in the lower half of the picture. How do I do this question?
- I am reading through the proof written here, but part or all of it doesn't make sense to me.
- I've read and understood the proof here in its entirety. It makes sense to me written out like this, but how could I have come up with it?
- I have something to ask that's not any of the above options, and will now clearly articulate it.
which of these best describes you?
oh uhm let me see
I think 2. and 3. would hlep me
I don't understand it fully but also how do I come up with it
I was never good at proofs btw
I think he uses this property right
oh wait I tihnk this one
ok
then lets first read through the proof carefully step by step
i'll now rearrange it into a neat bullet-pointed list for ease of comprehension
or give my best attempt at doing so
I do understand some parts tho
\begin{enumerate}
\item Assume that $G^{-u}$ and $G^{-v}$ are both trees, and denote their edge sets by $E(G^{-u})$ and $E(G^{-v})$.
\item We have that $|E(G^{-u})| = |E| - d(u)$ and $|E(G^{-v})| = |E| - d(v)$.
\item $G^{-u}$ contains $|V| - 1$ vertices, and is a tree.
\item By point 3, $G^{-u}$ contains $|V|-2$ edges.
\item Points 3 and 4 are also true for $G^{-v}$ verbatim.
\item By points 4 and 5, we have $|E(G^{-u})| = |E(G^{-v})| = |V| - 2$.
\item By points 2 and 6, we have $|E| - d(u) = |E| - d(v)$.
\item By point 7, we have $d(u) = d(v)$, as desired.
\end{enumerate}
Ann (glomed)
@quiet tendon please read through this proof and tell me the first line at which you get stuck
ok
why does that hold?
$G^{-u}$ is $G$ with $u$ excised
Ann (glomed)
ye
this means we throw out node $u$ and everything that was connected to it
but isn't that just G^v?
Ann (glomed)
$d(u)$ is the number of edges connected to $u$, and hence the number of edges that get thrown out
Ann (glomed)
G is a graph and it has two vertices named u and v yes
G^-u is the result of excising vertex u from graph G
oh
ahh
so it's saying all the orignial edges
- the edges which belonged to u
and the edges belonging to u are just d(u) because the degrees of it says how many edges were connected to them
oh I think I understand 2 now
wording kind of sucks, but yes.
how do I word it more nicely?
d(u) is the number of edges connected to u, so that's how many edges are thrown out.
oh ye I meant that I think
repeat this instruction
read through this proof and tell me the first line at which you get stuck
- shouldn't the vertices be |V| - all the vertices in u
it says at the beginning of the problem
I see
Let G = (V,E) be a graph and let u, v ∈ V be two distinct vertices in G.
this unambiguously tells you u and v are in fact individual vertices and not sets thereof.
ah and if they were sets it would've been said explicitly right?
oh I understand it now
but it's just hard for me to come up with these things
well, yes... such information is typically given in as clear a fashion as possible
yeah so as for coming up with this
like how do I get as good as u
this particular proof was a counting argument
like, the thing that was crucial to know was that a tree contains one less edge than the number of vertices
the ones I have seen so far are proof by construction and proof by contradiction
well I knew that but it's just sometimes hard to see oh I gotta use it here
so perhaps to help yourself come up w/ those better, you could familiarize yourself with some quantitative results
for graph theory specifically
handshake lemma comes to mind
handshake lemma?
sum of all degrees equals twice edge count
right
i mean i dont have any silver bullets for you
or theorem
its a matter of practice
the more theorems you know (and prove for yourself at least once), the more results you see, the more proofs you read, the better your brain will be at making those connections
k
but the thing is these theorems or info that u need are very logical but it's just hard to see like I gotta work to this theorem or smth
but if you want to ask me for help then please keep the question itself and your solution and your query separate
so that i dont get confused
well I tihnk it's just I gotta work to proof this so I think of all the theorems about d(u) and d(v) concercing trees
is that good thinking?
ah okay I will do that mb previous time
dunno.
giving pointers on how to think about a particular problem post-factum is hard
Is this correct? I have an informal counting based intuition of why it's true but I don't know how to prove it
question:
answer:
nodes are vertices btw
I understand the solution
but how do u come up to use contradiction
like how do u see that purely from only knowing the question
You don't. Math requires creativity.
okay but I somehow have to see it right
so say if I give u a set of question can u see what kind of proof u use?
If you thought about it for a long time, and tried a lot of different things, maybe you would have thought about this.
An experienced mathematician can.
But nobody can solve every possible question.
so say I give u this
do u go like
okay this question needs contradiction
this needs construction
can u instantly see that?
Pretty much, yes.
But I have seen all of this before.
oh for real?
are we at the same school?
and how do u do that
I think about it, and because I have experience, I realise what the proof is going to look like.
but can u explain your thought process
If you want to ask a question, then just ask.
I did
But no, I cannot explain how I come up with ideas in general. This is actually a topic of research.
what does it mean to be a topic of reserach
People are actively doing research on how it is that people come up with ideas on how to prove things.
isn't that just thinking
Can you explain how you create thoughts? I think no.
but isn't that using brain
OK, then I guess my answer to your question is "I used my brain." Good luck.
no I didn't meant to be like that
I guess that's not what u mean then
can I ask a specific question
Just ask
for part b
so it's very logical
because if u take 1 path as u are going to v
and returning to u from the other path
u always have an cycle
but is it relay necessary to write all that
If that is what your course expects you to do, then yes, it is necessary.
but I meant like would you write it the same way?
as long as the proof is right it's enough
Depends on the context. If I were to be explaining it to someone just beginning to learn how to prove things well, then yes I think I would prove it like that. If I were doing it for another reason perhaps I would be less verbose.
ah okay
well I guess I try to learn it this way then
but it's like so hard to come up with how he wrote by myself
for me at least, i wouldn't immediately see "methods" like contradiction, i would just see the "reason" for why the statement should be true
then once i intuitively understand why the statement is true, i have enough experience writing proofs that i could convert that into a fully written-out argument if i wanted to
well for me I most of the time would see this is true or not
but to proof it
is a different story
If you cannot prove it, then I daresay you don't actually understand why it's true.
So you should try working on that
oh
I guess that's true
do u know
if I am in this situation
I can choose E H or I right
all of them cost 3
so it shouldn't matter right which I choose
blue ones are permanente
the red ones are temporary
does this relation have a name
or does it represent some property of functions or something
Yep
ok, is it true that f factors through any injective function?
Remember what I said earlier about f(x)=f(y) <- g(x)=g(y)
If g is injective, there’s something you can do with that
*note that the injective g is also R->R, you can’t just take any injection into R of course
That is indeed true, you can try proving it if you like.
I think we talked some about this yesterday or so?
Though proving this shouldn’t be too hard directly
I think MFA has the skills to prove this now, it seems like a good exercise
Indeed, it’s definitely possible with what he could know
is it valid?
Yeah that works, gj
It should be noted that we don't use \mathfrak R for the real numbers, we use \mathbb R.
hey I tried to do this question
what first came up to me was using contradicition
but why is that not the right choice
oh is it because it's too general, there aren't numbers given for example d(u) >= 2 or smth
and what is meant by components
I tried to use this strategy but for every proof they are using a different method it looks like
I’ll now suggest going a step further.
Assume f(x)=f(y) -> g(x)=g(y), then prove there is a function h such that g = h o f
is f or g injective?
i didnt fully understand what you were saying yesterday
ok ill try
I definitely had a bit of a rambling train of thought til I cleaned it up
what strategy?
Figure it out?
not yet
is the image of f a subset of the image of g?
isnt h just the identity relation
nvm
No, consider g = constant on 1, f = identity
Buuuut, as a hint in that same vein, ||g^-1(g(x)) contains f^-1(f(x)) [as in, the preimages/fibers/inverse images]||
is it the partition generated by f a refinement of the partition generated by g?
Yeah basically
That’s the implication, after all
Or, to phrase it more suggestively in the direction we’re going, g’s is coarser than f’s
what are these partitions called? and from this is it possible to infer that there exists a function h such that g = h \circ f?
“Partition generated by f” or “equivalence relation generated by f”
And yes, I’m pretty sure it is possible
In fact, there’s a couple different ways you could I believe
problem from my exam:
there are 5 colors A B C D E and a square. We need to color square's corners using these colors. How many distinct ways of coloring there are, considering that a square is considered the same if it's flipped/rotated in some way or its colors differ like this A<->B C<->D
for example: squares $^{AB}{CA},^{CB}{BA},^{BA}{AD}$ are the same but $^{BA}{CA}$ differs
ta
i dont know the answer but i think some ppl might find it interesting
I came up with the following statement + proof. Does it look good?
Let f, g: S -> S be functions. Consider the following statements:
- There exists an injection
hsuch thatf = h ∘ g. f(x) != f(y)iffg(x) != g(y).- There exists an
hsuch thatf = h ∘ g.
Then it is true that (1) -> (2) and (2) -> (3).
(1) -> (2):
f(x) != f(y) implies that g(x) != g(y) or else f(x) = f(y). Similarly if g(x) != g(y) then f(x) = h(g(x)) != h(g(y)) = f(y) by injectivity.
(2) -> (3):
For each x in im(g) observe that f is constant on the set g^-1(x) by the hypothesis. Thus we can define h: im(g) -> S by sending x to the the single element in the singleton f(g^-1(x)) and clearly f = h ∘ g.
hints:
- ||do casework on the number of distinct colors in a coloring. the final answer will be
(4c0)*a + (4c1)*b + (4c3)*c + (4c4)*d, wherea, b, c, dare the counts you find for1, 2, 3,and4distinct colors, respectively.|| - ||your cases will have their own subcases, but exploiting symmetry can significantly reduce the overall counting||
(Assuming there is no hole in my proof.) I was initially surprised that this was true given that I have never seen it written down anywhere + it is pretty simply stated. But then I realized, no one really cares about if a map factors through another map; usually when we talk about a map factoring through another map the "lifting map" is canonical
I mean yeah, though whether it factors at all is sometimes useful even if not uniquely, since it can let some things be easier locally
Also, you can get something like
f(x)=f(y)-> g(x)=g(y) as a sufficient condition for some h to exist to factor through
(Not necessarily injective
)
I think you want the other way around but yeah
I realllly wanted a single iff statement but alas
Nah, since if this implication was false, you most certainly could not get g=hf
also g=hf implies the implication hypothesis, so it’s a bit iff-looking
QUESTION:
Where can I find/google the information about a positive integer solution x, y, z to 313(x^3 + y^3) = z^3 ?
https://courses.csail.mit.edu/6.042/spring18/mcs.pdf only mentioned that it has a positive integer solution, and in the solution x, y ,z each have more than 1000 digits.
,w 313(x^3 + y^3) = z^3
,w positive integer solutions for z = cbrt(313) cbrt(x^3 + y^3)
Oh thanks everyone. My online friend googled out here https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1613119/a-diophantine-equation-with-only-titanic-solutions
in my college we mostly used group theory and burnside lemma to solve this kind of problems. it does involve casework
hi guys, I need some help to understand a question, if a set X has 4 elements, how many relations of X are symmetric and unreflexive?
Is It 12?
I don't think so, no.
It's not clear, though, if you mean irreflexive, or just not reflexive, as these mean different things. In any case I think you've undercounted a lot!
irreflexive sorry
The whole “not x” meaning like “not necessarily x” type naming conventions get me sometimes honestly
Me too for sure
Ah certainly that would be more direct, I figured you were just constructive counting
in the construction at the very end for h, we needed f to be constant on g^-1(x) for it to work, i.e. g(a) = g(b) -> f(a) = f(b)
right? @ivory badge
Oh wait we have our f and g switched lol
sorry for the ping
real
Complex
i have a generating function question in help 15 which i am stuck on
Can someone help me understand what a path-system is?
This is the only explanation
wdym each of its components is a path?
i.e a graph that has multiple connected components? because it doesn't really make sense w/ the theorem
I can't even really think of a graph where d(G) >= n/2 and has 2 separate components?
that has to be impossible
Yes, it must mean connected components.
Note that the theorem doesn't speak about G itself being a path system, but about G[S] being one.
(Where G[S] is probably notation for something like an induced subgraph).
((Edge-induced subgraph, that is)).
hmm
so like without vertices not in its edges
for example
v1-v2-v3
and S = {(v1, v2)}
my graph is
v1-v2 and NOT v1-v2 v3
Yeah -- not that it makes much difference if you view an isolated vertex as a degenerate case of a path.
I wonder if they forgot an assumption about s, such as |S|=s, though.
oh?
yeah I guess it does make sense, in this case I assumed s=0 but |S| = 4
it still worked out... but maybe it's not sufficient
would it be proper to email my professor to ask about this?
its his notebook...
it still worked however
This theorem seems a bit silly... like you just need so many edges, it is fairly obvious your S will be part of the HC
d(g) >= n/2 is already enough to prove there is a HC
even if you pick |S|=1 , (n+1)/2 means that you need to add at least 1 edge to your graph that already has a HC(which means it visits S)
Consider this, though. The graph has 8 nodes and is 5-regular, but there's no Hamiltonian cycle that includes the red path system.
... despite apparently satisfiying the assumptions of the theorem with s=2.
Or for that matter, this, with n=12, delta(G)=10, s=8, |S|=11.
yo
can anyone help me with a divide and conquer algorithm
preferably in a dm setting
Just ask your question; people who can help will answer.
Good luck with that
overflow exists
can someone help me draw a DFA
.
Ask questions directly not some weird roundabout asking for help without giving the question
regarding question 5, all the previous exercises are the same for f:A->B and g \circ f :A->C right?
why would there be theorems that apply to the composition of two functions but not to a single function
It's asking for theorems that relates facts about gof to facts about g and/or f.
For example, if f(A)=B and f(B)=C then (gof)(A) = C.
"Draw a DFA for language of binary representations of natural numbers divisable by 2 by not 4. Use at most 5 states and the empty string, 0, 1, 00, 100, etc should be rejected"

