#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 294 of 1
I think I managed to do it
a little proofcheck though
does this seem to be fine?
proof that induced topology is a topology
all good 
hey there, i'm the same tum topology course as you are, but i'm lost, i can't for the life of me conceptualise continuity for topologies... does it simply mean one can approach a point?
so as I see it: you know continuity in R^n, right?
i didn't have university level analysis.
a topology is the minimal structure, that is needed to be able to talk about a notion of continuity
and one can show that the definition of continuity via open sets is equivalent to the definition of continuity on R^n with open balls/epsilon delta
did you see the definition of continuity via epsilon delta?
Lemma 1.3?
from 1.1 metric spaces?
definition 1.4
oh, sure
definition 1.4 is the notion of continuity, which is intuitive
but metric spaces are more structure, than a topological space. We want to be as minimal as possible.
and we ask:what is the minimal structure on a set, so that we can talk about continuity, and in the case of metric space, we regain def 1.4.?
the idea is that for a continuous function f: X -> Y, "nearby" images have "nearby" preimages. This is encoded in the fact that for any open set U in Y, however small, you can guarantee that the preimage f^{-1}(U) is open in X
this is the motivation for introducing topology
it's a bit abstract
so that's why knowing the epsilon-delta definition (as an example) helps
i grasp TT and category theory, if anything this is more concrete than i'm used to
in metric spaces (which are in a sense a particular example of topological space) you can characterize continuous functions through this
well, obviously continuous functions are the morphisms in the category of topo spaces
and an interesting characterization of homeomorphisms (continuous fns. with a continuous inverse) is that f: (X, T_X) -> (Y, T_Y) is a homeomorphism iff f(T_X)=T_Y
are there non-continuous functions? or rather are they ever applied?
of course there are, but in topology you generally care about continous functions and properties that are preserved through continuous functions (such as connectedness and compactness)
@static maple this might help you, I filled in 80% of proofs/remarks not done in lecture
alright, but how can the intersection of an open ball in X and its complement give a boundary? @river granite
reading, thanks a ton
it might help to show that a simple function such as $f: \bR\to \bR$ given by
[f(x)=\begin{cases}
0, &\text{if $x\leq 0$,} \
1, &\text{if $x>0$,}
\end{cases}]
is NOT continuous, using both the definition by preimages of open sets (Definition 1.12 in ProphetX's notes) and using the epsilon-delta one (Remark 1.7)
derivada.schwarziana
particularly that function is not continuous at 0
not sure if I get your question
are you trying to find the boundary of that open ball?
in that case you need to take the closure of that open ball and then substract the interior
$\delta B = B \cap X / B$ doesn't this apply as well?
it's basically this proof more or less, right?
nope, you need to take closures in B and X\B.
right, sorry
the boundary of a set $B\subset X$ is
[\partial B = \overline B \cap \overline{X\setminus B} = \mathrm{Cl}_X(B)\cap \mathrm{Cl}_X(X\setminus B)=\mathrm{Cl}_X(B)\setminus \mathrm{Int}_X(B)]
derivada.schwarziana
there are many equivalent definitions
now we take union over interior and we get closure= boundary union interior
and that's th eproof I did
this shows that Cl(A)=Int(A) U Bdry(A)
from that it follows that Cl(A) \ Int(A) is contained in Bdry(A); one needs to show the other inclusion as well
to prove that these defns. are equivalent
fair
oh, and the empty set needs be in O because a topology needs be closed under pairwise intersections?
I mean, the empty set is open by definition
any topology must contain it
but I guess it makes sense to contain it since you could take unions with the empty set
and because in all of the motivating examples (e.g. metric spaces) you can show that the empty set is open by a vacuous truth
like, if you define "a set X is open iff for every point x in X there's an open ball, centered in x, contained in X", then the empty set is open precisely because there's no point x in the empty set
sure, for every point in Ø there's an open ball
Any ideas on how to compute singular homology groups of S^1 V S^1 V S^2?
the reduced homology of the wedge sum is the direct sum of the reduced homologies, the isomorphism being induced by the inclusions into the wedge
If I let $a,b $ be the points where the circles are attached to the sphere then $(X,{a,b})$ is a good pair so I have $H_n(X)=H_n(S^1)\oplus H_n(S^1)\oplus H_n(S^2)$. So for $n\ge 3$ we get $H_n(X)=0$, for $H_2(X)=\mathbb{Z}$, $H_1(X)=\mathbb{Z}\oplus \mathbb{Z}$ and $H_0(X)=\mathbb{Z}$. Is this correct?
K零ꓘ

Let $X$ be (1) the cantor space or (2) the set of rational numbers. What is the group of locally constant functions $X \to \Z$, and in particular in the case $X = \Q$ is it isomorphic to the direct product of countably many copies of $\Z$? (Note that I'm not asking if the evaluation map $\mathrm{Hom}{Top}(\Q, \Z) \to \prod{p\in \Q} \Z$ is an isomorphism. This is false. I'm asking about abstract isos)
Mormon Shamrock
@sleek thicket so your functions aren't continuous?
I think in case of 2) your space is isomorphic to something like $\bigoplus_{r\in \mathbb{R}\setminus\mathbb{Q}}^* \mathbb{Z}$ where the star means that we take points from which all but countably many are equal to $0$
the functions are continuous
Blitz
Locally constant = continuous function into space with the discrete topology
Can you explain what the iso you have in mind for that is?
Like what are the irrational number indices representing?
Now that I think about it, maybe it's wrong, but the idea was, what kind of sets separate rational numbers? I think it's about have intervals with irrational ends. So maybe for every irrational r we can assign it the value it has on the right of it etc
Right, but there's weird overlap
so like, if you have (a, b+1) and (b-1, c), you can't just take a constant function on both of these and glue to a constant function on (a, c)
So it's not going to be the whole sum and it's also probably not going to be direct no matter how you set it up
But maybe you can write it as a limit/colimit this way? Like Q is the union of (a, b) over all irrational a, b and so maybe you take a limit of the constant functions there, or something?
Ah yeah this is just the sheaf condition for that cover
Still might be useful
Hmm no I think it's like a different limit?
Yeah I forgot that it needs to be compatible with the operation
I might think about it later (when I have something to write on) but I probably won't come up with anything
Hi does anyone know why exactly H*(i) of this inclusion map would be addition?
I think it has to do with that this map needs to be a group homomorphism and additionally defines an operation on Z
And this automatically should imply it's the same as standard addition
ah yep I think I see what you mean, but dont maps like $(a,b)\to 2a+2b$ and $(a,b)\to a-b$ also work?
Are those group operations on Z?
I think the second one is
They're not associative
oh yeah
and how did you get the requirement that it needs to define an operation on Z
If it needs to be addition then it's a group operation on Z
All I'm saying it's enough to prove that
Try showing a group homomorphism which is a group operation is actually the same as the operation on that group
that's still assuming that it's not the 0 homomorphism
No
oh right yeah I misunderstood
Why is there a star at the bottom there? Don't you want first homology?
H_n(S^1) = 0 for n>1 I thought
yeah * = 0 or 1
Ah ok
Give an example of a continuous map $f: X \to Y, x \in X, y \in Y$, and $Z \subset Y$ such that $f(x) = y$ and $y \in \overline{Z}$ but $x$ not an element of $\overline{f^{-1}(Z)}$. Is there a particular way to come up with examples?
Évariste Galois
I was thinking maybe $p: \mathbb{R} \to S^1$ defined by $p(x) = (\cos 2 \pi x , \sin 2 \pi x)$. But i'm not certain
Évariste Galois
take f : {0,1} -> {0,1} the identity with {0,1} having discrete and indiscrete topology. then take Z = {1} . cl(Z)={0,1} but cl(f^{-1}(Z)) = {1}
is { = ( or [?
ahh
if you wanted to take intervals that would also work
closures in the indiscrete space give you the whole space, but closures in the discrete topology give you back the same set\
so if you want to keep the set small in the domain when taking the closure but have the set be big when taking the closure in the codomain, these are the toplogies to look at
np
Doesnt this literally contradict what I wrote you yesterday?
Thats a covering, right?
Yeah, I didn't catch that to be honest, it was more of a guess as we used this map quite often.
It is a covering
:D
Hello. Can you please provide a simple and intuitive proof of the fact that the uncountable product of $\mathbb{R}$ is not normal?
MathPhysics
oh my GOD
What does that mean? Such space is pretty abstract
i think it's pretty intuitive that taking an uncountable product is just not a normal thing to do
Uncountable =/= continuum size
well sure but it works as an example
Seems like the best way here is just taking a closed subspace homeomorphic to N^omega_1 and proving it's not normal by definition
this is SO simple and intuitive! thank you!
You're welcome 
I was trying to prove this thing and I thought it looked kind of similar to a thing I've seen before
I know there's gotta be some connection there using the homotopy equivalence axiom for homology, but I'm not sure what it is
Can someone verify my solution for this?
Let $v_0 = (0,0), v_1 = (1,0),$ and $v_2 = (0,1)$ and consider the oriented simplex $[v_0 v_1 v_2]$ . Then the boundary of the simplex is $[v_1 v_2]-[v_0 v_2]+[v_0 v_1]$. We now compute $\int_{\partial c} x dy = \int_{[v_1 v_2]} x dy - \int_{[v_0 v_2]} x dy+\int_{[v_0 v_1]} x dy$
Finitely Many Bananas
Did you mean #diff-geo-diff-top
Well, its a small tool that we're using for algebraic topology and chains and stuff come up in algebraic topology, so I thought I'd post it here
The first integral becomes (I think) $\int_1^0 (1-y) dy$
Finitely Many Bananas
the other two disappear
Because y is constant in one of them and x is zero in the other
So it equals -1/2
Next, we compute $\int_{[v_0v_1v_2]} dx dy$
Finitely Many Bananas
This becomes $\int_{0}^1 (\int_0^{1-y}dx)dy$
Finitely Many Bananas
Nobody
@coral pawn you messed up the orientation on the first integral. $[v_1v_2]$ is parametrized by $(x, y) = (1 - t, t)$, $t \in [0, 1]$ (note the orientation!) which gives $$\int_{[v_1v_2]}x,dy = \int_0^1(1 - t) , dt = \frac{1}{2}$$
TTerra
@vocal anchor did you read the solution or did it fly past you?
Yeah didn't really check discord. I see, that's just a 90° rotation of the camera. Thanks man :)
Or, well, more like moving along an arc, not Really rotation
If anyone was curious, I figured out how to show these aren't isomorphic as rings. locally constant functions $f : \Q \to \Z$ such that $f^2 = f$ are exactly the (indicator functions of) clopen subsets of $\Q$, and you can encode the subset order by $f \leq g$ iff $gf = f$. Similarly arbitrary functions $f : \Q \to \Z$ such that $f^2 = f$ are (indicator functions of) arbitrary subsets of $\Q$ and the order is the same. Unions of clopen sets might not stay closed, like $\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty (-\infty, -\sqrt{2}/n) \cap \Q = (-\infty, 0) \cap \Q$, and you can turn this into a ring theoretic statement that distinguishes the two rings
Mormon Shamrock
This actually makes me feel even more uncertain about the groupy question though, since this makes heavy use of the order theoretic structure/multiplication
this order reminds me of the usual order on idempotents of a semigroup
you define it the same way
for sure
I came it by noticing that the ring of locally constant functions Q -> F2 is a boolean ring, so we're really asking about whether two boolean algebras are isomorphic (and then I noticed that the powerset ring F2^Q has all suprema while the ring of locally constant functions doesn't)
But this is basically what you said, it's just that everything in a boolean is an idempotent
It's also how you recover the partial order of a lattice from the join/and operation.
Lol I looked at this proof today
V is contained in Y-W. The latter set is closed, so taking closures, cl(V) is contained in Y-W, which is contained in Y-C
I'm trying to show there's no orientation reversing homeomorphisms $f:\bC P^{2k}\to\bC P^{2k}$. Here's my work so far.
Suppose there did exist such a homeomorphism. The cohomology ring of $\bC P^{2k}$ is given by
[H^(\bC P^{2k})=\bZ[\alpha]/\alpha^{2k+1}, \quad|\alpha|=2.]
Because $f$ is a homeomorphism, it must send the generator of $H^2(\bC P^{2k})\cong\bZ$ to a generator, namely, it must send $\alpha$ to $\pm\alpha$. Then $H^{4k}(\bC P^{2k})\cong\bZ$ is generated by $\alpha^{2k}$. In particular,
[f^(\alpha^{2k})=(f^*(\alpha))^{2k}=(\pm\alpha)^{2k}=\alpha^{2k}.]
Let $[\bC P^{2k}]\in H_{4k}(\bC P^{2k})$ denote the fundamental class, so that $f_([\bC P^{2k}])=-[\bC P^{2k}]$ as $f$ is orientation-reversing. Then we have:
[\langle \alpha^{2k},[\bC P^{2k}]\rangle=\langle f^\alpha^{2k},[\bC P^{2k}]\rangle=\langle \alpha^{2k},f_*[\bC P^{2k}]\rangle][=\langle \alpha^{2k},-[\bC P^{2k}]\rangle=-\langle \alpha^{2k},[\bC P^{2k}]\rangle,]
so that necessarily $\langle \alpha^{2k},[\bC P^{2k}]\rangle=0$.
I feel like I should be able to reach some sort of contradiction from here. Any ideas?
@cosmic beacon
are these two things not the same?
the first set has one element, the second set has zero elements
like
it seems to me the first set is a set with no elements, aka the empty set
and the second set is the set containing the empty set
yes you're right
so the first set has zero elements and the second set has one element
so 2 is definitely a topology on the empty set
Yeah.
i'm going to go with no.
yea, i think its supposed to be no
but imo, its bs cause the emtpy set is a subset of every set
therefore that set contains the empty set
therefore its equivalent to the other set right
no no no
you're conflating two different meanings of "contain"
that' the problem
Sets can contain other sets as elements or they can contain them as subsets and those are very different.
like
It's the difference between $\in$ and $\subseteq$
diligentClerk
Given two sets $A, B$ we say that $A \subseteq B$ if, for all $x$, if $x\in A$, then $x\in B$
diligentClerk
it's in this sense that we say the empty set is a subset of every other set, because
for any set $A$
diligentClerk
i guess the issue is that extensionality doesnt apply since the set containing the empty set has an element
what do you mean it doesn't apply
whereas the empty set does not
It does apply
cant be used to say they are the same
diligentClerk
ok, it applies, it doesnt give that they are the same
but $\emptyset\notin {}$
diligentClerk
${} = \emptyset$, so $\emptyset\notin \emptyset$
diligentClerk
The first set is not a topology on any set
A topology always contains an element, such as the empty set
yep clerk and I agree 1 is false 2 is a topology on empty set so true
this one is a bit confusing to me because I thought this was the definition of the closure
do you think it means for me to use the "intersection of all closed sets containing A" defn. and show equivalence?
sure that's reasonable
if i can use boundary defn. x in A immediately true, so assume $x\in \partial A$; then every neighborhood $N$ of $x$ contains some point in $A$--namely we can choose $N_U$ to be a neighborhood containing $U$
Dpao
but I dont think thats what a teacher would want
I am working on a project that involves algebraic topology and more specifically TDA, I am applying the math to a real world solution and want to write a "proof" proving that TDA can do what i need it to do. Can anyone point me in the direction of learning how to write appllied mathamatics papers? Thanks so much!
Im pretty sure this statement is false
but I cant come up with an example
can anyone help?
nvm got it
its true
Yep. It's true because every connected component contains some path-component
So we can construct an injection
not what you asked for but still an interesting example to keep in mind: the topologist's sine curve is connected but not path-connected, in fact it has 2 path-components
is this true?
Uh?
it seems very wrong to me
- definitely some assumptions on Y needed
- I don't think separation is a common term
its not cause its used in a million contexts but afaik from munk it means
a separation is a pair of disjoint nonemtpy open (or both closed) sets that union to the entire space
I don't think I ever saw it used
Assume Y is connected
in that case, i would agree
In general it's obviously wrong, take Y = X
yea
cause I think u could say this a different way: has a nontrivial clopen set
I'd rather say nonempty proper clopen subset
yep same idea tho
When you say nontrivial it's not really understood what exactly do you mean
But nonempty proper is clear
ya
Im sitting with another topology problem, which Im having difficulties with. The description is pretty long so bare with me: Suppose $f$ is continuous and that $\mathcal{U}$ is an open covering for $Y$. Show that $f$ is a homeomorphism if and only if for each $U\in\mathcal{U}$ the function $f_{|f^{-1}(U)}:f^{-1}(U)\rightarrow U, x\mapsto f(x)$, is a homeomorphism (where $f^{-1}(U)\subseteq X$ and $U\subseteq Y$ are equipped with the respective subspace topologies). Im having a difficult time starting this proof. If someone could give me a hint it would be highly appreciated.
Ursus1234
there we go I think
It's a continuous bijection by assumption. Show it's open
For this you can write any open V in X as union of intersections of V with f^-1(U), U in fancy U
f(V intersection f^-1(U)) is open in U by assumption, which is open
can anyone please help me with these? i been trying for a few hours over different days but no result 😦
im new to pure maths and not very good at it
For Q2 consider any y in Cl(B(x)). For any delta, the delta ball around y intersects B(x), say z is in the intersection. Then d(x,y)<=d(y,z)+d(z,x)<=delta+epsilon. Since this is true for all delta, d(x,y)<=epsilon
Saketh 
thanks, I figured it out
thanks, I figured it out
thank you very much 🙂 i willl try
Is $S^1$ common notation for the space of closed curves on a surface $S$?
Migillope
No, that makes no sense, it's obviously the circle
\Omega X is the notation you want, i think
hmmm
though you may want to distinguish between based loops and free loops depending on your purposes
hey
do you have any examples of extremally disconnected topological spaces
which are subsets of R^n for some n?
Z^n?
A metric space is extremally disconnected iff it's discrete
Which gives us a family of unmotivating examples, all of them are boring
does make it sense to write this? feedback?
yeah good
thank you 🙂
can it be by triangle inequality that:
d(x_n,y_n)=<d(x_n,x)+d(x,y)+d(y,y_n)?
i am trying same question with try to use this thing above^
yes
it is the same question before
Makes sense, yes!
Let (X, d) be a metric space with the trivial metric
Show that a subset K ⊆ X is compact if and only if it is finite
how does this sequence subsequence thing works?
to show compactness
what definition of compact are you using
Only sequence convergent in this space is one that's constant after big enough time
If you have infinite amount of elements, just pick them all distinct
hmm
can I do it with the open cover finite subcover
Pick cover of singletons
like what
I cant, I dont understand
is it 0 and 1?
I really dont understand
What is
what you asked
the singletons are open because they're the open balls of radius 1/2
I didn't ask
By projection, do they mean projection in a linear algebra sense?
Lol, no
what should i review before reading this then lol
They mean a function that to each element assigns its equivalence class
oh ok thanks
If I have a bounded domain $D\subseteq \mathbb{R}^n$, $n>1$, and $U\subset D$ is a non-empty proper open subset, does it follow that $\partial U\cap D$ is infinite?
there is the trivial example of U=empty set.
Blitz
if you want a non trivial example, I have a question first, by domain do you mean that the set is closed or open or something? If not then there are some other trivial counterexamples
domain is an open connected set
consider D=open unit ball, U=open unit ball\{(0,0)} in R^2. The only element of D \cap \partial U should be the origin
yeah... I need to think about this question further
interesting use of int there
Damn
Hey, I'm trying to learn about model categories. Does anyone have any recommendations? For reference, I know the basic definitions of category theory and have completed my school's graduate algebraic topology sequence (fundamental group, homology, cohomology, basic homotopy theory)
Does algebraic intersection mumber assume minimal position?
Or, rather, is algebraic intersection number "position" invariant
I would suppose so, that homotoping intersections away will be "accounted for" by cancelation of sign for the bigon that is removed
Emily riehl has a 60 page short intro to it which is pretty neat
If someone is familiar with homotopy theory can you please have a look at this? I think I am quite close but can’t get the last piece together. https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4452541/homotopy-fiber-of-of-map-s2-to-mathbbcp-infty-is-homotopy-equivalent-t
So the map here is given by taking a generator of pi_3(F_f) = Z under the isomorphism of that group with pi_3(S^2), right? then it corresponds under the isomorphism to the hopf fibration, meaning if the map S^3 -> F_f is named, say, g, then g composed with the inclusion has the same homotopy type as the hopf fibration S^3 -> S^2. so then we can apply pi_n to get a commutative diagram. for n > 2 the diagonal and horizontal maps are both isomorphisms so the vertical map is too. for n = 1 or 2 the homotopy groups of the fiber and S^3 are both 0
so this induces isomorphisms on all homotopy groups and by whiteheads theorem you get a homotopy equivalence
Hello, I have a question or two about deformation retracts
Firstly, is the singleton a deformation retract of any space? What if the singleton is not in the space? (e.g. the singleton {0} with the open interval (1, 2) that has the subspace topology on R)
Any non-empty space*
well it has to be in our space
if a singleton is a deformation retract of your space then that space is necessarily contractible
Thanks, have seen almost everywhere assuming it is but nowhere stating this assumption beyond the definition, and was worried about my interpretation of the definition
and so every singleton is a deformation retract of such space as well
Right, then similar to that logic, a connected space with 1 component is only contractible to 1 singleton right, not 2 or more singletons, for example
All singleton spaces are homeomorphic, so any non empty space contains the singleton
a connected space cannot have more than 1 components, that's kind of what it means to be connected
a connected space doesn't have to be contractible
what it means to be contractible is that there is a contraction, so a homotopy which sends the identity map to a point
so the space "gets contracted"
Right, I follow that logic
First is, S^1 (and the family of S^n, in general) is not contractible to the singleton, right?
ye
S^n isn't contractible for any n
Other than n = infinity 
I'm not sure what that would be
Okay, so for finite n I suppose
I don't have an intuition of that either but it's chill
sphere in l^2 ?
Direct limit of the S^n
Then my other question is a bit more specific
Can projective spaces contract to each other?
I say contract but I meant retract, sorry
For example, I know R3 can retract to R2 or R1, right?
What about RP3 to RP2?
what does that mean
Which part?
I don't think so, it should follow from D^n not retracting to S^(n-1) for any natural n
Okay, that makes sense to me, I was confused because my intuition of RPn etc. is not very good so far
I mean, I don't think it makes sense to say "X retracts onto Y" unless Y is a subspace of X, since it depends on how Y is located in X
unless you mean some canonical way of treating RP^2 as subspace of RP^3
There is one
For S^2 to S^3 you have equatorial inclusion
That induces an inclusion of RP2 to RP3
Similarly in any dimension
But that inclusion is not sufficient to admit a retraction, right?
Or am I missing something in my intuition
Hahah, my course does not cover homology so that's a bit unfortunate
And from my brief reading on category theory, cohomology belongs there too right?
Ye homology and cohomology are taught together
it's homological algebra and it involves some category theory but I wouldn't call it a subfield of category theory
unless I'm wrong of course
oh ye it's not usually cat theory
homology and cohomology is important in topology, theory of modules, algebra in general, algebraic geometry etc I think
Moldi
👋
it's called resolutions of a module
Hi toki ✓
oof
so $I$ is an infinite index set and for each $i\in I$ I am given a non-empty topological space $X_i$. I need to determine whether the following statements are true when $\prod_{i\in I} X_i$ is equipped with a) the product topology and b) the box topology.
i) If $A_i\subseteq X_i$ are closed subsets for each $i\in I$, then $\prod_{i\in I} A_i$ is closed in $\prod_{i\in I} X_i$
that sthe first one and Im not sure how to do this. I believe that the statements is true for the product topology, maybe as well for the box topology, but Im not sure if that is correct or how can show it
Ursus1234
can I not use this tag?
sorry 😬
yes, it's true for the product topology, so it has to be true for box topology as well
is that an implication that always holds
since all closed sets in the product topology are also closed in the box topology
ahh ok
I didnt really know how to show it. I just assumed that the product of closed sets is closed...
if you take complements then you should obtain something like a union of open sets pretty easily
$x\notin \prod A_i \iff \exists_i x_i\notin A_i$
Blitz
So if you got the projection maps p_i, this is a union of sets which are inverse images of open sets by p_i
I think this is the easiest approach
hmm ok. Still quite difficult to understand but Ill give it a go
x_i = p_i(x) so last formula is really just
Blitz
I think there should be no problem in writing this in terms of inverse sets
ahh ok, yea that makes sense. Thank you
np
I'm having a brain rot with this. I'm embedding a "ring", so {x : 1 <= || x || <= 2} into R^n using function h. And I have a ball K in the bounded component of h({x : ||x|| = 2})^c which doesn't cross this ring. And I'm taking a ray from center of ball K. How do I prove it must cross h({x : ||x|| = 1}) ?
Prove that K lies in the unit ball, and then on the ray you have the norm function which starts less than 1 and goes to infinity, apply intermediate value
What do you mean by unit ball
{x : ||x|| < 1}
It doesn't have to lie in a unit ball
Is h an arbitrary embedding?
Let H_r = h{x: ||x|| = r}. Suppose we have a point z in the bounded component of H_2 complement, and suppose this doesn't lie in the image of the annulus. Then it is also in the bounded component of H_1 complement. Any ray from this point thus starts in the bounded component and goes to the unbounded component, so must cross H_1
How can you prove it's in the bounded component of H_1?
Yeah. Going one direction from circle to the annulus is easy but the other direction doesn't work without using some further properties
Either H_1 lies in the bounded component of H_2 or the other way around. In the second case, the bounded component of H_2 is contained in that of H_1 so we are done. In the first case, the bounded component of H_2 is the union of the bounded component of H_1 and the annulus, and the point doesn't lie on the annulus
This is the reasoning I had in mind, just trying to see if the second case works
Wherever I say component of H_r I mean of H_r complement ofc
I need to think about this. It's really annoying me

This is the que
∫|f| = 1 - e for some e > 0,
Then for g ∈ B ͚(f, e), ∫|g| < 1
Because ∫|g| < ∫(|f| + e) = 1
Since |g-f| < e ⟹ |g| - |f| < e
Basically if you add a constant e to your function everywhere, the integral increases by at most ∫e
And anything in B ͚(f, e) differs from f by at most e
,tex |
\begin{equation*}
H^{k}{dR}=\begin{cases}
\bR & k=0,1 \
0 & \text{otherwise} \
\end{cases}
\end{equation*} \ or
\begin{equation*}
H^{k}{dR}\cong\begin{cases}
\bR & k=0,1 \
0 & \text{otherwise} \
\end{cases}
\end{equation*}
aiohgoaiwhgioawh
simp
wait
im dumb
i mean of R
like
I guess technically isomorphic, but what does it matter
$H^{k}{dR} = H^{k}{dR}(\bR)$
simp
i forgot to add the (R) my bad
The deRham cohomology of R should be 0 in degree 1
because R is contractible
Anyway, you can use = or \cong
doesn't matter
I define the real numbers to be the 0th de Rham cohomology of R 
am i being trolled
but if you choose to use \bR to denote 0
oh wait no its wrong either way
lol
sorry im having a MOMENT

R
oh
alr
(not in general moldi was just trolling)
(also I misread moldi at first)
(I thought moldi was defining R to be the first cohomology of R)
Same 
im having a stroke
A rice popped out of nowhere and started crying 
Angry birds
I'm no angry bird.
I am 4 years in and I am not laughing 
im so worried that at some point in my talk im going to say something that is not true 1-categorically
You're the butt of the joke.
i am just pretending to use 1-categories for this whole talk
the beginning of the talk has a all limits and colimits are homotopy limits and colimits disclaimer
@marsh forge do you mind pointing out whats wrong with my reasoning (for learning purposes)
$Z^1(\bR) = ker(d_1 : \Omega^1 \rightarrow \Omega^2) = \Omega^1 \$ $B^1(\bR) = im(d_0 : C^{\infty}(\bR) \to \Omega^1(\bR) = \Omega^1(\bR) \$
$\frac{\Omega^1}{\Omega^1} \cong 0$ wow i'm actually so stupid I just realised I got the quotient wrong... my bad lol
simp
both on topics that are much better discussed with infinity categories
im glad u figured it out bc tbh i cannot compute deRham cohomology
it just happens to be isomorphic to singular cohomology
hot 🥵
@empty grove i barely understand what a differential form is
same but I can compute with it 
It is thing to be computed on manifolds 😌 all I understand
that is pedagogically unhinged
ong I just think of them as matrix's or smooth functions lol
brainiac
my brain is pure of analytic thoughts
🙏 pure
I mean I think of it as just like
smooth functions tensor an exterior algebra
and then everything is just kinda formal
but i have no intuition for what the fuck a dx is
i read somewhere that a 1-form is an element of the cotangent bundle so I jsut go like hmmk so a 2-form is just a wedge b for a,b in cotangent bundle hmm yes I understand
hmm yes
alternatively you can compute it using Grothendieck theorem for smooth affine varieties, I think?
genius
but it should be a section of the cotangent bundle right
so the cotangent bundle is like an amazon deal right
not an element
wikipedia scammed me
oh ye are you talking about the algebraic de Rham cohomology
Lurie has a talk on that
It is great
differentiability imposes extra structure that you can exploit. e.g. people study harmonic forms on riemannian manifolds (hodge theory) and this gives you extra topological control. idk if you can get that from singular
yes, I've watched Lurie's video, it was so cool, I love it
It was screened in one of our weekly college seminars when the speaker had to cancel his talk at the last moment
Full watch party 😌
but I think the coefficient ring needs to be C for this to work, so we can't use Grothendieck theorem
Ye
Oh that’s kind of interesting
That breaks homotopy invariance though
Presumably anyway
yeah it depends on the metric, it's not strictly topological
what i should have said was "differentiability lets you exploit extra structure"
sippy
i've been trying to think about this myself.
not recently
i kinda put it on the back burner with all the coq shit
What i mean is that i'm trying to come up with an exposition for how the complex of sheaves of differentials is constructed and why it works that way
i've essentially given up on understanding analysis notation
lmfao
i am truly not smart enough
Shamrock tried to explain what the fuck |dz| means in complex analysis
i feel like if i came up with an exposition you'd understand it tho, like it would be in your kind of language
Hahaha
I stg everyone always tries to dunk on topologists for being unrigorous
but that shit is unhinged
i have a nice understanding of d as something that like
you can construct in a monoidal category
with duals
i wrote this down somewhere
i like this
but i haven't figured out an elegant way to get the whole complex of forms from this by some kind of bar construction
hm
please don't take bar construction quite literally here
yeah maybe
i guess so is the deRham complex
actually the deRham complex is like, uncountable right?
or wait not
uh sure yeah it's made of real vector spaces which are infinite dimensional
they're function spaces
C^infinity functions are determined by a dense countable subset right
hmm
so theres countably many?
i think what that argument shows is it's not bigger than R, yeah.
It's not like |R|^|R|.
i remember discussing this qual problem with a friend and forgot the conclusion lol
i will talk to you about d in a monoidal category another time but it's on my tablet in handwritten notes and i don't feel like looking it up rn
sure np
what kind of derivations arise in the stuff you look at
or are those like, in a different corner of hom alg then you usually think about
hmm
I haven't spent any real time with it
but its important
I don't spend much time with it in the concrete hom alg sense
can someone help me with understanding komi-san?
what specific disorder does she have
@ivory dragon
this is not topology
sorry guys
exactly,.
anyway if anyone knows help would be enjoyed 😃
i think you misunderstood me
i didn't ping nami to get you banned
i pinged nami because i think he'd be most suitable for answering your question
fwiw I think Komi just has severe social anxiety, I don't think the diagnosis is anything more specific than that
I see
wait this is a stupid question
is {1,1} just {1}
nvm they are the same
unless multisets
This channel is for topology questions
and anime

can you not post nonsense in this channel
and/or stuff that obviously doesnt belong here
I have a big potatoe that I haven’t cut
have you tried cutting it
If you look at the channel description, it lists anime.
Namington has already pointed this out in the screenshot above.
We've now had this pointed out thrice
The explanation of the joke is starting to grow wearying

Anyone know how i can show that $A = {(x,y,z) \in X | z = 0 }\subset X = {(x,y,z) \in \mathbb{R}^3|x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 1}$ is not a retract of $X$? Hints are preferres over full answers 🙂
Évariste Galois
Is the no-retraction theorem applicable here? I feel like $X \cong S^2$ and $A \cong S^1$.
Évariste Galois
A retraction induces a surjection of homotopy/homology groups
But is $A \cong B^2$?
Évariste Galois
What is B^2
the unit disk
Ok, and so how can the no-retraction theorem be applied?
On my book it is specifically from B^2 to S^1
X is S^2, look at one hemisphere of it
Ok ill give it a try
thanks
Ok, so let me just make sure my argument is correct. I just showed that there is a continuous bijection from the upper hemisphere of X=S^2 to B^2. So A is not a retract of the upper hemisphere of X, by the no-retraction theorem; and so A is not a retract of X either.
Homeomorphism in fact
yup
Yes, that's the idea
But do I have to argue why A not being a retract of B^2 implies that A is not a retract of S^2?
if so, how?
You restrict the retraction to upper hemisphere
Intuitively, I would say that since B^2 is essentially a symmetrical half of X, which cant be retracted onto A, then neither can two copies of it.
If it exists
Ah ok, so it isnt trivial
does the bockstein homomorphism commute with the suspension isomorphism?
the Z/2 one does at least
Is the predix "co" in cohomology used to indicate that the functor is contravariant instead of covariant?
maybe
I have always wondered about the naming convention and the common denominator that I have found is the one above
Nice, I really like that naming convention
convention
This is humoring me way more than it should, haha
Is my argument okay? Suppose we can write $\mathbb R$ as above.
Then $\mathbb R$ is connected, so X and Y are.
$\mathbb R$ minus a point is disconnected, whilst X x Y minus a point (say $Z = X \times Y - {(a,b)} $) isn't: fix a basepoint $(x_0,y_0) \in Z$ and and suppose $f: Z \to Disc({0,1}) $is continuous. Then for all $(x,y) \in Z$ we have $f(x,y) = f(x,y_0) = f(x_0, y_0)$ because the restrictions of $f$ to ${x} \times Y \cong Y$ and $X \times {y_0} \cong X$ are constant (by connectedness), and so $f$ is constant; as $f$ was arbitrary $Z$ is connected
potato
(which leads to a contradiction lol)
I'm not sure but I think in your chain of equalities f(x,y) = f(x,y_0) = f(x_0,y_0), you have to be careful that you don't pass over the point (a,b)
Wait till you hear about coconuts
Well (x,y) and (x,y0) are both in X x {y0} which is contained in X - {(a,b)}
since y0 isn't b
similarly for the other
ah yeah
pretty sure that works then
noice
I suppose you can probably use path connectedness too but that'd wind up being almost the same proof
Just take a path from (x,y) to (x0,y0) avoiding (a,b)
(in fact the same path in mind with my argument)
Ok cheers
I wonder if there's any other way to argue this but connectedness was the intended one contextually lol
You could say that X and Y in your notation are connected subspaces of ℝ, so are intervals, so ℝ is homeomorphic to the product of 2 intervals. And then argue that this isn't possible using connectedness 
Literally the same argument as yours except I just added that X and Y are intervals lmao

is there a proof by the universal property of a product
I had smth else in mind
there should be
but i cant think of one
there should be some issue with the projection maps not being able to exist
@empty grove an exercise for u bc i need to do work hahaha
fix $(a,b) \in X \times Y= \bR$. we must have $(X \times {b}) \cap ({a} \times Y) = (a,b)$. but $X \times {b}$ and ${a} \times Y$ are both closed intervals in $\bR$, so as $\bR$ is noncompact the only way they can intersect at a point is if one of them is a point, and one of them is $\bR$.
does this work?
xdres
forgive the bad notation where I identify X x Y with R, so that (a,b) is a point and not an interval
(they are intervals because they are connected subsets of R, and they are closed because X and Y must also be hausdorff)
I didn't get why they must be closed
If they are compact then you're already in trouble because the product would be compact
I feel like some invariance of domain argument should prove that they are open
if X x Y is hausdorff, does this imply X and Y are both hausdorff?
Oh are they closed because they are the preimage of a singleton under projection
ok then yeah
the only way they can intersect at a point is if one of them is a point
turns out this is not true, e.g. for (-\infty,0] intersect [0,1]
It doesn't seem to make sense to say that "X×{b} and {a}×Y are both closed intervals in R" -- they're not even subsets of R.
Oh, I missed the context.
If X and Y are non-empty then yes, because they can identified as subsets of X x Y.
If not, then you can put X = empty space and Y = any non-Hausdorff space
Is there anything where you can attach algebraic structure to a topology and talk about seperation axioms through it?
Similar to how you can talk about connected components with homology as an example
There might be, but I would wager that it would have to be really complicated
Suppose I have functors G:C--->C' and F:C--->D
they have all colimits and whatever
Does knowing that G is essentially surjective make computing the left Kan extension of F (along G) easier?
I honestly am not sure how to compute this regardless
given an embedding of compact manifold f:X->Y there is a wrong way map f! in K-theory taking K(TX) to K(TY). I'm trying to see how to get f!g!=(fg)!, in Atiyah's first paper on the index theorem it says it follows from transitivity of the Thom class, but when i write out the definitions it doesnt seem that simple... anyone know a good approach?
Hatcher ch1 should be helpful here, I think
the section on van kampen's theorem and the subsection on applications to cell complexes
Try writing down a presentation of the group S3 and recall how attaching 1 and 2-cells changes the fundamental group using van kampen
many people don't like it
it's more about geometry and intuition, I think
just not a standard way of teaching math
should be good for beginners
A lot of people here say that a good way to learn at is to do some Hatcher first and then some May or something
Mm fair enough
I did an algtop class about 5 years ago but I only really recall the vague intuitions for certain definitions
Guess I'll check them out
The standard takes on hatcher are not great imo
It is not "geometry and intuition" with maybe like 3 exceptions
It is entirely rigorous and a pretty good intro
I think May's concise is kind of outdated at this point
It tried to be too modern before the modern setting was actually finalized
Equally introductory
What other sources are there apart from may, Forman and hatcher?
Maybe I should take a second round at AT in rotman then 
there are like 100 books on intro AT
Massey has two of them for some reason
Spanier
Tammo
Oh right
But then proceeds to not use it to prove eilenberg zilber 
I think they are all kind of "eh"
Is this Dieck
So what are acyclic models?
tom Dieck*
I would not call that introductory 
iirc it technically is self contained
Hatcher lemma 3.1 but for functors from any category to the category of chain complexes instead of just chain complexes
Wait lemme look it up
You can use it to prove construct isomorphisms of homology theories very quickly
oh okay I see
Example is that on the category Top x Top, there are 2 functors, one that maps (X, Y) to S(X x Y) and one that maps it to S(X) tensor S(Y) (tensor at each index). Both of these functors are "free" and "acyclic" and they agree on the 0th homology so they are like free resolutions of the 0th homology in a way, so their homologies are isomorphic
S(X) is singular chain complex of X
right I see
So Im having a difficult time showing the following: Let $X=\mathbb{Z}$ be equipped with the topology $\mathcal{T}={U\subseteq\mathbb{Z}, |, \mathbb{Z}\backslash U$ finite or $U=\emptyset}$. Show that $(\mathbb{Z},\mathcal{T})$ is connected. Do I show its connected by showing that it is not disconnected, or how should I go about it?
Ursus1234
Suppose there is a disconnection, and show a contradiction
https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1914400
then what do you think about this question
"I don't agree that Hatcher is non-rigorous, but I will not argue with the rest (taste is taste). Δ
Δ
-complexes are indeed rarely used but are actually quite good pedagogical tools, since it allows one to think simplicially without having to actually find some (necessarily larger than you'd like) triangulation of your space."
i will quote user940583094
except i think "delta complexes are rarely used" is false dep. on what you mean
i think a lot of classes teach them
but they don't show up much in the literature
this isn't because they are not useful, but rather because all of the computations people do with them were already known by the time hatcher introduced them
The language on this MSE post is very annoying
But doesn't Hatcher have proofs that leave lots of details untouched?
People are conflating rigor (good) with spelling out all of the details for the reader, which is not the same thing
Hatcher does not give any proofs that are incorrect
he occaisonally expects the reader to fill in some details
this can always be accomplished
hence the proofs are by any reasonable standard rigorous
(In fact, there are essentially very few math books with unrigorous proofs at all. Some books have incorrect proofs, they usually have errata)
That'd annoy me a lot, there can be errors hidden under lack of details
You will not enjoy reading research papers then hahaha
I don't actually, at all
Ye Hatcher is perfectly rigorous 
Yeah I mean I think one has to like
get used to "sniff testing" proofs that omit certain details
I was presenting an article at Friday, it's only 3 pages but 2/6 proofs took me 2 hours already to explain in detail
I don't like the details he decides to leave out tho
or be able to fill them in
I was sweating a lot
Well, I obviously don't know much about the presentation
but I would argue in general that talks should give even fewer details
unless the purpose of the talk is the details themselves, which does happen
There were some huge leaps in logic in the proofs, so I'd feel like I'm leaving everyone confused without those.
After all, they're not written in the article itself
it does seem like people have varying opinions on how annoying the specific details are. I only recall like one or two instances where I really felt pressed trying to finish the results
I think you might be conflating your experience with the material and your audiences
for sufficiently advanced material, following the details of a proof live is essentially impossible
Or at the very least requires a sort of unpleasant approach to the presentation
It's usually a lot more productive to cover broad strokes ideas, maybe do some examples, discuss broader applications, and overall motivate the material and convince the reader to look into it themselves
My entire batch hated the book (it was the recommended one in our course) though I cannot say how much I influenced them with my opinions 
Everyone used Rotman instead
and failed to solve the exam problems that were almost straight out of Hatcher 
Ye that I agree on
Yeah, I guess I might have been too detail oriented for my own good
hatcher chapters n, n>0 have good exercises
and hence they are all good
👀
Never too late to read Rotman
that is true i guess
I'm gonna write an intro AT book
that does not mention spaces at all
only kan complexes
no
So unreadable
Goerss Jardine works with model categories
my book will be purely based on higher category theory
chapter 1
theres no way you can do all the relevant computations without models
coends
chapter 1: homotopy colimits
We define a colimit to be a colimit in the infintiy categorical sense. For the classical definition, we will use the term "bad colimit".
Hahahaha
I have decided that it is finally time to google what a homotopy colimit is
I understand how to construct them but idk what they are
Nice homotopy of diagrams
I shall one day read Hovey past page 15
That day shall not come before August

Hi, if $x_0, x_1 \in X$ (a path connected space), $ \pi_{1}(X, x_0) $ is abelian, and $ \alpha $ a path from $ x_0 $ to $ x_1 $ does that mean that $ \hat{\alpha}([f]) = [\overline{\alpha}] * [f] * [\alpha] = [\overline{\alpha}] * [\alpha] * [f] = [f]$ (sounds too good to be true)
(f is a loop of x_0)
kaz
[\alpha], [\bar{\alpha}] aren't elements of any fundamental group, so i don't know about that. also, the left-hand side is in \pi_1(X, x_1) and the right-hand side is in \pi_1(X, x_0), so this can't work
the proper thing to show is: if $X$ is path connected, $x_0,x_1\in X$, and $\pi_1(X, x_0)$ is abelian, then $\hat{\alpha} = \hat{\beta}$ for any two paths $\alpha,\beta$ from $x_0$ to $x_1$
TTerra
Yeah, that's what I was trying to prove and this came on my mind, but you're right about [\alpha], [\bar{\alpha}] thanks!
Ok i'm having a dumb here, what exactly is an induced homomorphism
As in the statement of Van Kampen's theorem
Wait hang on
the maps on fundamental groups induced by the inclusions?
van kampen has a lot of maps going on lol
the inclusion maps are continuous maps that induce homomorphisms
Oooooh I see where I'm getting confused
The inclusion maps between spaces induce homomorphisms between the fundamental groups of said spaces?
right
this is a more general case of: if $f\colon X \to Y$ is a continuous map of topological spaces and $f(x) = y$, then you get a homomorphism $f_\colon \pi_1(X, x) \to \pi_1(Y, y)$ given by $f_([\gamma]) = [f \circ \gamma]$
TTerra
something something \pi_1 is a functor on the category of based spaces
Aaaaaaaah
Perfect
Yeah I guess I was just confused what the induced homomorphism looked like
[γ] is some equivalence class of loops, correct?
as opposed to just paths
been too long since I've done algebra. I think I just forgot paths are functions and therefore composable with other functions
lmao
well defined in the sense that [a] = [b] implies f_([a]) = f_([b]) i assuume?
exactly
alright cool
(just if you haven't seen it before)
If I have it will have been years ago, so a good exercise
Hmm I mean this seems trivial but perhaps i'm being naive
a = b implies f∘a = f∘b right?
or have I truly forgotten my whole undergraduate lmao
that's certainly true
but it's not entirely trivial
remember what the equivalence relation is
[\gamma] = [\gamma'] if \gamma and \gamma' satisfy...
yikes
I must've skipped over that paragraph or something
However I'd assume the composition of gamma with the reversal of gamma' should be the trivial loop
Seems like that should be necessary
Sufficient though? I'm not sure
the equivalence relation is path homotopy (with the endpoints fixed)
Ah okay
$[\gamma] = [\gamma']$ if and only if there is a continuous map $H\colon [0, 1]^2 \to X$ with $H(s, 0) = \gamma(s)$, $H(s, 1) = \gamma'(s)$, $H(0, t) = x = H(1, t)$
TTerra
the statements meaning "for all s" or "for all t" respectively
Yep that makes sense
So well definedness requires proving the existence of such a map H between f comp a and f comp b
Where a = b
not where a = b, where such a map exists for a and b
OHHH okay
Right of course
I was trying to prove the much weaker a = b implies f*([a]) = f*([b]) lmao
as I said, it's been a long while
Does it not suffice to compose $H$ with $f \circ \gamma$?
josh the 🐀
josh the 🐀
👀
Well, denoting H' = f ∘ H
H'(s,0) = f(gamma(s)) = f ∘ gamma(s)
Similarly for H'(s,1)
H'(1,t) = f(x) = y
H'(0,t) = f(x) = y also
ratjam
And we get continuity from the continuity of f and H
perfect
based


me moldilocks 


