#point-set-topology
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Thanks my counterexample was RP1 as A and RP^n for n>1 but I wasn’t sure if RP1 is contained in RPn
I have a pretty dumb question
when proving uniqueness of the product topology, why is the identity map continuous?
or well,I am confused a bit by why we call it identity map
we have two spaces $(X \times Y,\tau_1), (X \times Y,\tau_2)$. Why is the map $X \times Y \to X \times Y$ continuous, given there are two different topologies?
ProphetX
if they were same topologies,I'd see,but they\re different
Identity map has to be between the same topologies
so how do we prove uniqueness of product topology via universal property?
I tried following this
yes,but this still does not justify as why the set theoretic identity is continuous
You can force it to be by checking that the projections induce a universal map between the two versions of XxY which is easily seen to be identity on elements
i.e. both have projections, meaning that I can form a universal map in both directions
and i can check what this map is explicitly
weird way of saying it but yes
I need take Z=X \times Y with a different topology?
Yeah
why weird? how would you say it?
I would say that the universal property of $X\times Y$ (with the correct topology) is that given any continuous map $Z\to X$ and $Z\to Y$ we get a unique continuous map $Z\to X\times Y$ commuting with the projections
maxwe
But I think this is actually slightly different maybe
it is the same I think
I just did not tell yo uwhat f_1,f_2 are
f_1=pr_1 circ f, f_2=pr_2 circ f
This is a universal defn of the topology on X\times Y and I've given a universal construction of the space X\times Y
yeah no this is different
you can show that the outcome of the definition you sent is homeomorphic to the one I sent
Wait
what
Oh
lol now i see thanks prophet
definition is nonsense without this lol
anyway yeah the idea should be that we can prove that the identity map is continuous in both directions by chooseing f to be identity and noting that the projections are continuous by assumption
the projections can be proven to be continuous
No, they are assumed to be so.
ah,yes,you are right
we assume that there are two topologies,which satisfies the universal prop
hence in particular,for both,the projections are continuous(by assumption of universal prop being true)
my bad
hm I don't see something still. Suppose T_1,T_2 satisfy the universal property
so, assume T_1 satisfies the universal property, and choose Z=T_2. yes? Then f_1 :X \times Y \to X, f_2: X \times Y \to Y are continuous iff f:X \times Y \to X \times Y is continuous
the problem is, we do not know that f_1:X \times Y \to X, f_2: X \times Y \to Y is continuous, why we know that?
what am I missing
ohh,are they continuous,because T_2 satisfies the universal property? 
They are continuous because we assumed them to be, yes
Any choice of universal topology for X\times Y needs to have continuous projections
It's (1) here.
I know that it's 1 there,but it's not in the assumption of T_1 satisfying it I think
or I'm confused
the thing is,let T_1 satisfy it, take Z=T_2
ahh,so I can assume that simulatenously
ok
yes
I thought I can only assume T_1 at a time,then assume T_2 in the next step
No
yes,otherwise it would not work out
A uniquness proof in mathematics is very common and always follows the same basic rules
We assume we have two examples A and B satisfying all of the axioms at the same time
and we use this to prove A=B
and why are both directions needed?
say,the identity map is continuous from t_1 to t_2,right?
then why we need that the identity map is continuous from t_2 to t_1 too?
oh I think I see the issue. this is strictly speaking false
$\mathcal{T}_1=\mathcal{T}_2$ should be replaced with $T_1$ is homeomorphic to $T_2$, right?
ProphetX
and we show that the identity map is this homeomorphism
i.e. in both directions continuous
No actually
normally you'd have the right intuition
But in this special case, and because the homeomorphism is guaranteed to be the identity, we can conclude that they are literally equal
Basically this is a special lemma, which you can prove as an exercise
Suppose that $(A,\tau)$ and $(A,\sigma)$ are two topologies on the same set. Then if the identity map $(A,\tau)\to (A,\sigma)$ is continuous and also the other direction is continuous, then $\sigma=\tau$ as subsets of $\mathcal{P}(A)$
maxwe
I can give you a hint if you would like, @cursive flume
yes please
A function being continuous means that if $U$ is open in the codomain, the preimage of $U$ is open in the domain. What is the preimage of $U$ under the identity? Can you use this to show that if $U\in \sigma$ then $U\in \tau$ and vice versa?
maxwe
the preimage of U under the identity is U itself. so if U is in Sigma, U is in Tau. Now using that the inverse of the identity is continuous, the preimage of U under the identity is U, so if U is in Tau, then u is in Sigma
is that right?
therefore, U in sigma=> U in Tau =>U in sigma, therefore, Tau=Sigma
np
Show every short exact sequence of chain complexes $0 \to \mathcal{A} \stackrel{f}{\to} \mathcal{B} \stackrel{g}{\to} \mathcal{C} \to 0, $
induces a natural long exact sequence
$$\cdots \to H_{q+1}(\mathcal{C}) \stackrel{\partial_{q+1}}{\to} H_q(\mathcal{A}) \stackrel{(f_q)*}{\to} H_q(\mathcal{B}) \stackrel{(g_q)*}{\to} H_q(C) \stackrel{\partial_{q}}{\to} H_{q-1}(\mathcal{A}) \to \cdots.$$
eM
what are you having problems with?
Imo it's a slightly hard exercise tbh, but there's a proof in Weibel in chapter 1
it's also in Rotman
and it should be in any book in homological algebra
true
The proof in Hatcher's algebraic topology book is also easily generalizable

Althoguh he doesn't consider an arbitrary chain complex but rather the complex of singular simplices
First off, what is $\partial_q$? I assumed it was a boundary map but it's a map between homology groups of different chain complexes
Are they arbitrary groups or fundamental groups or what
eM
arbitrairy groups
thats the map you have to construct
if 1-->G_1-->G_2...>G_n-->1 is exact
Yes and yes. Haha. It's constructed from the boundary map of one of the original chain complexes
depending on how comfortable you are with diagram chasing proofs it shouldnt be too hard to come up with it yourself
we had it as homework too
if you just want the solution you can look it up where clerk suggested
Maybe
To give you a hint, the proof is in two steps:
- GIven a homology class in $H_q(C)$, choose a representative cycle and associate to it an element of $H_{q-1}(A)$
diligentClerk
- Prove that this is well-defined, i.e. , independent of the choice of representative of the homology class
The proof in hatcher is much easier to visualize because the objects are so geometric
I probably wouldn't remember the proof at all if I didn't think of things in terms of geometric objects and their boundaries.
I honestly don’t remember the proof other than like, the idea
i just remember that its a diagram chase where there is pretty much always just one option that makes sense
and i did that proof like 2 months ago
my memory 
everything was pushed out by 20page hurewicz proof
i really have no idea why we did it this way, took us a whole month
everyone else seems to use cw approximations like in hatcher
we used some simplicial stuff and homotopy addition theorem etc
hmm i think i know the strategy here
after thinking about it a minute
Every long exact sequence can be broken apart into a family of short exact sequences of the form
0 -> G1 -> G2 -> im(G2) -> 0
0 -> im(G2) -> G3 -> im(G3) -> 0
...
0 -> im(Gn-2) -> Gn-1 -> Gn -> 0
So start by proving the theorem for SES's and then figure out how to reduce the case of an LES to an SES by means of this argument
did you figure this out
The first iso theorem is definitely relevant here. I would say you maybe need something a little bit more specific/combinatorial than that, given the nature of the problem
I was reading this New York Times article https://www.nytimes.com/2022/03/23/science/abel-prize-mathematics.html and was interested by this concept:
One day during an advanced calculus lecture, the professor drew two shapes on the blackboard — one a circle, the other more blobby, like a kidney. He then said you could stretch either one to fit on the other.
That was not particularly surprising. But then the professor said there was a way — and essentially just one way — to do the stretching such that the stretching was the same in all directions.
What's the formal name for the condition of "stretching such that the stretching the same in all direction" and mappings that satisfy this condition? Is it just homeomorphism or is it more specific than that?

My favorite proof thus far
You weren't kidding about the easily generalizable part lol
Yeah maybe I should have led with that. It's much more readable.
just a guess, but this might be referring to mean curvature flow
bingo
sanity check: Is unit ball of R^3 without its center simply connected?
Huh?
yup..
No it's not
yes it is. just like R^3 without a point is simply connected
all g
Can something that’s an Fσ-set also be a Gδ-set?
Because all open intervals (a,b) and all closed intervals [a,b] are both Fσ-sets and Gδ-sets in R
The subset would have to be a union and intersection of a countable number of closed and open sets right?
So if there exists a subset that is a union and intersection of a countable number of clopen sets would it be both Gδ and Fσ sets?
sure
by clopen do you mean (a,b] or [b, a)?
Clopen meaning closed and open
Huh, no
[0, 1] is F_sigma, G_delta, but it's not union nor intersection of countable number of clopen sets
Then it would be clopen
So there can’t be a subset that is an Fsigma set and a Gdelta set?
[0, 1] is such set
you provided a whole family of such sets
emptyset is such set
wait, do you mean respectively here or clopen
when you're phrasing a sentence like that it's useful to add the word "respectively" to avoid confusion
so Mf x I = (Y cup_f (X x I)) x I. take (y, t) in Mf x I. then y = (x, s) so this is (x, s, t) for x in X or y is in Y. we want hbar(x, 0, t) = h(x, t) and hbar(y, 1) = f(y). so we can define hbar(x, s t) = h(x, (1 - s)t) and hbar(y, t) = f(y). If y = (x, 1) then hbar(x, 1, t) = h(x, (1 - 1)t) = h(x, 0) = f(x). so hbar is continuous on X x I x I and Y x I and agrees on their intersection (X x 1) x I in Mf
There might be notation errors in here
but i hope the general idea makes sense
okay wait a sec
The idea is more or less like, we want to define a map on Mf x I by defining it on X x I x I and Y x I and making them agree on their intersection X x 1 x I in Mf
and like in general in situations like these where i want to extend a map from some space A x I to a map from A x I x I you want to do something like (1 - s)t
because when s = 0 or s = 1 (or t = 0 or t = 1 or whatever) you want to recover the original thing
okay I see. But we want hbar(x, 1, t) = h(x, t), right? But hbar(x, 1, t) is h(x, 0)
hbar(x, 1, t) = h(x, t) because we want to have hbar composed with j x id to be equal to h
Oh oops i messed up some notation
its so easy to reverse things like this
I think its probably we define hbar(x, s, t) = h(x, (1 - t)s) then
let me check to see if that makes everything work out
so hbar(i0(x, 1)) = hbar(x, 1, 0) = h(x, (1 - 1)0) = h(x, 0) = f(j(x)) = f(x, 1)
So yeah it agrees on intersection
and patches to a map
Yeah im pretty sure this works
I always mix up whether you glue Y to the X x 0 side or the X x 1 side
but we still want hbar(x, 1, t) = h(x, t), and here this is just h(x, 1-t)
Okay wait so let me just check this stuff to be totally sure
requirements:
hbar(x, 1, t) = h(x, t)
hbar(y, 0) = f(y)
on intersection this means that
hbar(x, 1, 0) = f(y) = h(x, 0)
okay its probably just hbar(x, s, t) = h(x, st) then? then hbar(i0(x, 1)) = hbar(x, 1, 0) = h(x, 0) = hi0(x) = fj(x) = f(x, 1). and hbar(j x id(x, t)) = hbar(x, 1, t) = h(x, t)
@pearl holly
ye I guess that works
Yeah sorry i did 1 - s at first because my brain thought j was including into 0 rather than 1st
ye it's fine lmao
Thats sort of the general strategy btw. you multiply st or (1 - s)t or s(1 - t) or whatever depending on which case you want to reduce to when s or t are at their endpoints
Like here everything has to basically look like h when s = 1 so we extend it by doing h(x, st)
If we wanted it to look like h when s = 0 we would do h(x, (1 - s)t)
You get the intuition for these things by basically just seeing really ugly homotopy constructions like this until you internalize it 
okay I have one more question. So now I know that f = rj. May says in the beginning of the first pic that "up to homotopy, any map can be replaced by a cofibration". I don't see this tho
The point is that r is a deformation retraction
so I assume f should be homotopic to j, but I don't see how this follows from the fact that ir is homotopic to the identity
so if we have a map f: X -> Y we can factor it as X -> Mf -> Y
the first map is a cofibration
the 2nd is a homotopy equivalence
This is what the replacing by a cofibration means
Maybe a remark, up to homotopy does not mean necessarily that you are choosing a map homotopic to the original
oh
It means that you can replace spaces by weakly equivalent ones and choose new maps
And that everything commutes
For an analogy think of like. if i have a map f: G -> G' of groups and its surjective i can think of it as a quotient map G -> G/H
Are you reading concise btw
I think concise has a bad treatment of model category stuff like this
I'm only planning to read about cofibs and fibs there
Ah yeah
Mays presentation here is like
Fundamentally at the wrong level@of abstraction
And it will make learning the more general story harder rather than easier imo
oh I see. Do you recommend anything else?
Riehl paper but it doesn't really do this stuff
Ugh
It avoids any like
May is using like
Annoying explicit hpty stuff
A weird choice of model structure through this stuff
I forget why I dislike his presentation so much
But it’s like not good
Maybe there’s something in between
Idek
Tom dieck but it's still annoying to read
This stuff is yucky
Fomenko and fucs
Does some
okay I guess I can check it out
I read from May but as I went on I bothered less with details 
Now I'm reading Hovey and I'm starting with some familiarity so it's good
Like what may calls cofibrations don’t agree with what normal people mean when they say cofibrations
Oh like serre vs hurewicz fibrations?
Something like this
May mentions that at some point I think?
Yeah I mean
I’d have to like
Dig in to recall why I dislike the presentation
But it left me with some lasting misconceptions
oh no
all I want to understand is how Top is a model cat 

Right
Hi, how can I show A_1 and A_2 are isomorphic?
@pearl holly
Okay
I think that part 4 of More Concise might be your best bet
@fading vale might be interested too
Specifically chapter 17, and you should pay the most attention to 17.3
Sorry 17.4
Did I get pinged something like "moth might care about this" 
I can't tell if my internet is being horrible
I don't see it!!
watch that pic not load on their internet kek
Every time I read “kek” I die a little on the inside
Cool
There’s a dolly I am using to move
Which is nice bc heavy
But
It’s so fucking small
I have to make like 10 trips
have you ever been on voice with john when he says "lmao" aloud
Latter
el mao
lmao :)
how would one go about computing the fundamental group of RP? it’s a bit harder to visualize what loops in that space look like
i guess easiest would be to recall that RP^1 is homeomorphic to S^1
well how did you define rp1
S^1/(x ~ -x)
yeah ok
then consider the map from that to S^1 that sends z to z^2
we view it as subspace of C and z^2 is z*z with complex multiplication
try showing thats a homeomorphism
o
is there any intuitive explanation behind this?
like um
what made it obvious to you that that was the homeomorphism
you can try visualizing what happens in the map S^1 -> S^1/(x =-x)
i dont think it was obvious when i first learned it
you just try drawing some pictures verify it and get the picture
i think of this as folding the circle twice on itself and getting a smaller circle
bad description but i dont really know how else to describe it xd
like with the map z -> z^2
yea, i was trying to see what happens if i just folded the circle
but
it’s hard to picture how to fold it in a way that respects the equivalence relation
if you just look at the upper hemisphere, i.e. the points of S^1 with imaginary part >= 0, then plugging this in the quotient map you still get everything, but the only thing you identify is the two ends of your arc: 1 and -1
so you get a circle again
you get everything since every point has a representative of its equivalence class in the upper hemisphere
don’t you have to identify everything on the real axis with it’s negative as well?
The only pts of S1 that lie on the real axis are 1 and -1, the endpts of the arc that is the upper hemisphere i talked about
oh my bad, was thinking of a disk
whoops
and those two are equivalent because of the homeomorphism
{x} |—> {x,-x} and {-1,1} |—> {-1,1} ?
I dont understand the question
When you define RP as quotient of R^2 you identify more than x and -x
so from the quotient space of the upper hemisphere to the original quotient space of S^1
You identify x with c*x for all nonzero scalars c
Oh
What i meant is that if q:S1 → S1/(z=-z) is the quotient map and H the upper hemisphere, then Im q = q(H). But q restricted to H identifies 1 and -1 so factors thriugh that quotient p : H → H/(1=-1) = S1
But q doesnt identify anything else when restricted to H, so the map f : H/(1=-1) = S1 -> RP completing the factorization q|H = fp can be shown to be an iso
i thought you meant H / E where
E = {{-1,1}} U {{x} : x in H{-1,1}} was the equivalence relation
okay, i think we’re saying the same thing. thanks phil!

You can use Van Kampen's theorem
will have to look up what that is. thanks
i thought this has to do with products tho
oh rip
its unions
i'm trying to find the labeling scheme for RP^2#T
i should think it would be
aabcb^-1c
but munkres says the last c is ^-1 too
i tried drawing this and it seems like munkres' gives me a klein bottle connected with RP^2
oh. i drew it more carefully and got the right thing. neat
I'd like to ask a question here!
I am having trouble finding a way to prove that, for X = UuV, where U and V are open in the t-space X, each path f in X has the equivalence class [f] = [f1] * ... * [fn] for every f1, f2, etc. being a path in either U or V.
I don't even really get what it's asking; it seems kind of obvious, I guess.
Would anyone be willing to point me in the right direction? ^.^
have you tried using the compactness of the unit interval
instead of looking at the path in the space, go the other way, pull back U and V across the continuous map f and look at the resulting cover of the unit interval.
Ohh, that is an interesting idea.
How does that relate to the e.c. of f being the sum of other e.c.'s of paths in U or V?
That's the part that confuses me, I guess; it just seems unrelated.
What is the e.c.
oh. equivalence class
The point is to try and chop the path f up into small segments, so that each segment is contained wholly within U or wholly within V.
That's what the exercise is really asking you to prove.
is it clear how like, breaking down the path into a finite number of segments , each one contained in one of the opens, would solve the problem?
Ohh, I get it. Because multiplication is concatenation, in a sense.
Of course! Because, as you said, [0. 1] is compact, and since a path is continuous, would not X be compact?
Yeah.
That means that any path would have a finite subcover, right?
Or rather, any open cover of a path.
I don't know if that's what you mean. It's a theorem that the continuous image of a compact set is compact, so the image of [0,1] in X is compact, but X itself need not be compact.
Yes.
Okay, but the image is all that matters anyway, right?
Right.
But one more thing.
How does this relate to equivalence classes up to homotopy instead of individual paths?
The reason we have to treat this as up to homotopy is that concatenation isn't associative on-the-nose, it only becomes associative when we consider paths up to homotopy.
Ohh, of course!
Hmm what am I trying to say. Suppose that you have a path p : I -> X
and p([0, 0.3]) is contained in U, and p([0.3, 1]) is contained in V.
You can split up I into these two chunks, [0,0.3] and [0.3,1]
both of those are homeomorphic to I, and so by using the homeomorphism we can get two new paths from I to X
which can be concatenated
I can visualize it! 🙂
but the standard definition of concatenation is something like
"run the first path from 0 to 0.5, and the second path from 0.5 to 1"
in the original decomposition though, we ran through the first path from 0 to 0.3 and the second path from 0.3 to 1.
So one of these paths goes through the first half faster than the other, and the second half slower.
Hence why they are not always associative by themselves.
They're not the same path. They have the same image, but they don't reach the same points in space at the same time. They travel at different speeds.
They are homotopy equivalent, because reparametrization (speeding up and slowing down ) is a kind of homotopy
but they're not equal
(Side note: you can construct these paths in a way that you get a strictly associative multiplication)
Oh that's pretty wild. Cool
But not always, right?
It requires a totally different construction @gritty widget
The defn you have doesn’t have associative multiplication
I almost want to say that the only connected space for which the usual thing is strictly associative is a point
Maybe you can do a little better
But any space with “wiggle room” shouldn’t
Oh, I've just realised that nicknames are banned on this sever. ;-;
Them too
I think I have an extra boost, hehe.
I don't really use them. 🤭
There we go!
I had only been using one of them.
Since I can't help myself and the construction is fairly simple
Let $X$ be the nonnegative reals (as a topological space). Then we say a map $X\to Y$ is a Moore Path if it is eventually constant. A Moore loop is a Moore path $f$ that is eventually constant at $f(0)$. Then composition of Moore Paths is the obvious thing, you start the second loop at the infimum of the constant part. This will be associative on the nose, as one can readily verify.
maxwe
Basically, because we stop using a fixed-length interval, we don't have to re-parameterize
Showing that up to homotopy you get the same fundamental group maybe is an interesting exercise, I can't say Ive ever worked out the details
@gritty widget hi
hi 👀
i'm trying to compute the fundamental group of the klein bottle using edge labeling
ofc K = aba^-1b
geogristle
how do i simplify this
Thats about as good as you'll get
Notationally I think most people let the N be implied
So they'd just write like
<a,b | aba'b>
ah. ok
that's interesting. i had not really studied group presentations too much when i took a first algebra course
this is extremely helpful and gave me a lot of clarity
Yeah, realistically speaking a nice presentation by generators and relations is about as good as you can hope for
Unless of course the group is like, finite abelian or something where you can write down p-components
i was thinking the presentation might end up being less simple than that (or could be reduced to something else)
the fact that i can just write that and leave it alone is so nice
of course in this case we have Z semidirect product with Z
but i was not so interested in this fact
Anyone here knows how the one on the right compares to the one on the left?
I like that the second ends with an introduction to Algebraic Topology which I'm interested in. I have not taken any Topology outside of what is seen in basic Analysis (like Baby Rudin)
Wait I feel this one is better than Croom going by the chapters but I'm not sure. I can have all of them digitally, but want a physical book (preferably I want to read Algebraic Topology too)
I haven't even browsed Willard, but it includes a wrong proof of Hahn-Mazurkiewicz theorem, and spares little to no details about the proof. So based just on that, yeah idk
Lmao. I had forgotten that, I think I read that somewhere. Which ones do you recommend?
None, I don't have interest in AT
People recommend Hatcher's notes for general topology
Around here
If you want a book from general topology then anything comprehensible enough should work, imo
i have this book. It starts with metric spaces which provide a little motivation for the abstract definition of a topological space. iirc at some point it gets very analytic, so at that point you can move on to chapter 2 for topological spaces.
I probably wouldn't recommend this for AT though. Just use a more standard text like Hatcher or something.
I have used Willard as a reference. Don't know about Croom.
I remember Willard had some net/filter stuff that I didn't find in other books.
i have a basic question, generally speaking if i have an open neighbourhood (ON) of a point in some topological space, is it always possible to find such an ON that it is simply a set containing the point itsel?
if by "simply a set containing the points itself" you mean the set {x}, where x is your point, then no
most natural topologies dont consider singleton sets as open
e.g. the euclidean topology on the reals
interesting, thanks
to follow up on this, for the interior of some set S which is a subset of a set X on which we have defined a topological space, it is defined as all points of X which have an ON in S. Is this equivalent of saying that Interior of S is just a union of all ON in S?
yes, indeed
you can even say that interior of S is just the union of all open subsets of S
this is the same because every ON is open, and every open set is ON of any of its points
yeah thats where i was trying to get, i wanted to prove that interior is an open set, i just wasnt sure if i can make that jump from union of interior points to union of ON
thanks!
Those are called isolated points
I am having a problem understanding the boundary of a set. So the interior of set S is a subset of set S, the intersection of S and its exterior is empty set, but what is with the boundary is it a subset of S or what?
no, the boundary of S is generally not a subset of S. It is always a subset of the closure of S though
also, what do you mean by exterior of S?
I think it might help to just look at examples on the real line with these things
X - (Int(S) U bound(S)), where X is the set on which topology is defined
for example the boundary of the open interval (0,1) is {0,1}. The boundary the closed interval [0,1] is also {0,1}
i see
the interior of [0,1] would still be (0,1) ?
yes
if you understand these finite intervals its a good exercise to figure out what the closure / interior / boundary of unbounded intervals of R or subsets like Q or finite subsets are
my first thought is that for Q, its interior is Q itself, the boundary are the irrational number and closure is R
only one of these 3 is right
hmm, they all sound equally correct to me, but i guess only the interior is correct?
wow, ok then i am clueless xD
what open subset of R contains 0 and is in turn contained in Q?
since every open subset of R is a union of open intervals, it would suffice to find an open interval J such that 0 in J in Q
i claim this is not possible, and generally wont work for any rational q, so that the interior of Q is empty
why would it need to contain 0?
well 0 is a rational number
so if the interior of Q is Q as you claim, then 0 should be in the interior
ah, ok
and you cant find an open interval becouse as small as you take there will be an irrational number in there?
exactly
that makes sense
the same holds for the irrationals
since in every nonempty interval there is also a rational
we say the rationals are dense in R for this
(the irrationals are dense in R too)
yeah, i knew about it, i just didnt connect the dots
yeah at the start you mostly have to get used to all the new definitions
examples help
w8 so the boundary of Q is irrational numbers?
yes
hmm
same for irrationals, they have closure and boundary R and empty interior
yeah thats where the intuitive meaning of boundary diverges from the formal one xd
its just the definition
or i guess you can kind of see it, since boundary = closure - interior also makes sense intuitively
yeah, but you would need to know the closure first
yeah thats the usual order i would say
ok let me understand this, i am going by this Morreti book which defines these things like this
i have never heard these names in pset topology before, but the definitions make sense yes
so if i want to figure out the boundary (frontier) of Q through this, i would say Int(S) is empty set, Ext(S) is a interior of the complement, and since complement of Q is irrational numbers, Ext(S) is empty set, so the boundary is the entire X which is R (i this case)
ok, that makes sense
its a book for mathematical physics
Exterior is a little uncommon, but it exists in the literature
yes, i noticed that when he posted the picture
Oh, I didn't see the picture. I wonder if this is mainly a French concept, since I read about exterior in a French book, and here's also "frontier" for the boundary
Fr(A) for boundary is common notation and it's French iirc
This is going to sound weird but it’s not entirely clear how to compute the fundamental group for a random space? It’s very heuristic, I think, in the sense that you have to find homotopy classes, lift loops, check seifert van kampen, etc. There’s no set procedure
By random space I mean path connected and if we’re lucky enough SLSC
yeah
note that any group appears as the fundamental group of some space
so it would be surprising if there is some good algorithm for it
i think checking whether groups are isomorphic is even undecidable or something along those lines
If we do have a group as the subgroup of the fundamental group of some some space, is it possible to construct a cover st the fundamental group of the cover is that subgroup and is the restriction of a cover of the actual space or is only the converse true?
if the space you start with is nice enough then yes, but not restriction of covers
you then always have a universal cover
and you get a nice galois correspondence between subgroups of the fundamental group and covers of your space
the covers are kind of transitive, in the sense that e.g. the universal cover of X is also a cover of any other cover of X, by the lifting criteria
hence the name universal cover
That makes sense but if the situation is that we have a unknown fundamental group of a PC space X, a known subgroup of the fundamental group of X st it’s the fundamental group of a subspace of X or cover of X, is it always possible to find the fundamental group of X?
Invariants in algebraic topology rarely have nice algorithms that work in general
Seems that way for sure
In some sense the field would be rather boring if it did
Here is an interesting heuristic
Suppose I start with a nice space (CW Complex)
Then, up to a small lie, the homotopy groups (including the fundamental group) of this space determine it completely
Now, if you agree that determining the homotopy type of a space should be hard
then it is clear why computing homotopy groups should be hard
because they are effectively the same problem
I definitely see the difficulty a lot clearer now
just to make sure i didnt confuse anyone reading this
you need all the homotopy groups
not just one of them
but still, computing the individual ones is hard
If hTop denotes the category with objects all topological spaces and hom-sets homotopy classes of continuous maps, is every product of spaces taken in Top a product hTop?
Apparently if $G_n$ are groups for $n \geq 1$, abelian if $n \geq 2$, you can take a CW approximation of $\prod_{n=1}^\infty K(G_n,n)$ to get a CW complex having the $G_n$ as homotopy groups.
Phil
This uses that the hom-Functor on hTop preserves limits by doing $[-, \prod_{n=1}^\infty K(G_n,n)] \cong \prod_{n=1}^\infty [-,K(G_n,n)]$
Phil
but i noticed that i wasnt sure whether $\prod_{n=1}^\infty K(G_n,n)$ even is a product in hTop
Phil
Or maybe it makes more sense to view [-,+] : Top^op x Top -> Set and show it preserves limits in the 2nd variable?
Taking the homotopy category will preserve products
This is sort of an artifact of the fact that homotopy groups preserve products
You normally should have to assume you are starting with CW complexes and cellular maps
by homotopy category do you mean the one with just CW complexes or all spaces?
I mean the homotopy category coming from the model structure on spaces. You can take objects to be modeled only by cw complexes if you wish
i havent looked into model categories properly yet 
How do you define hTop?
but ok the intricacies of that shouldnt matter rn
like this
composition representativewise etc
this is probably unnecessarily complicated too, the source i was reading just did it this way
as you said you can probably just do it on each pi_n separately
and use that these preserve products
so we see that the product of the Kn's has the desired weak htpy type
I think you can probably prove this via the universal property. It is clear that you have the needed projections, so what remains is universality. You should be able to just choose representatives
oh true because for products there is nothing that has to commute
so you cant pick the wrong representatives
thats why it doesnt work for equalisers
so we pick representatives f_i of classes [f_i] in [Z,X_i], get a unique map f : Z -> prod(X_i). Homotopies of the f_i glue to homotopies of f i guess?
with the commuting?
thanks max btw
oh yeah i see
for limits the restrictions give you something like subobjects, and for colimits they introduce relations by which you quotient

ah i tried reading about that once but got confused
i just got the gist that in logic the algebraic theories have no relations and only use equations as you said and these theories somehow generalise that
in the case of groups, wouldnt it suffice to consider n <= 3 since we can state all the axioms with at most 3 universal quantifiers
like how you would define internal group objects with products
ohhh
yeah ok so having the finite products gives you the finitary operations
cool
Yeah, thank you!
If im told to compute the fundamental group of the klein bottle as a subspace of R^3 i wont get the same fundamental group as just the klein bottle right?
since there's self-intersection
It shouldnt be the same yeah
cool it's because the exercise im doing says it's Z*Z in R^3 which confused me because that's clearly not what it is for the regular one
thanks im not going for that but ill try if my method doesnt work
can anyone explain why I and III are also correct?
the ball of radius 1/2 around every integer is open by definition of the metric topology, but coincides with the singleton set of said integer
so {n} is always open in that topology
for III, note first that from I you get that every subset of Z is open, since unions of open sets are always open again
now a map Z -> X is continuous iff the preimage of every open set is open, but thats always fulfilled by my previous point, so in fact all functions defined on Z (not just real valued ones) are continuous
this metric is called the discrete metric
you can define it on any set via the same rule, it induces the discrete topology, whose characteristic is precisely that all subsets are open, or equivalently that all maps out of it are continuous
thank you for your quick reply, but please give me some time to digest lol
sure
hello, its me again, i am trying to prove that given a topo. space (X, T), if A subset of X is closed than A = cl(A) (closure).
My thinking is this. Since A is closed, its complement X-A is open and as such is equal to its interior, meaning its boundary is empty set which in turn means that boundary is part of A. This means that one can write A as union of Int(A) and bound(A) which is definition of closure and as such A = cl(A).
Now i am not sure if i can make assumption that Int(A) and bound(A) is the entirety of A. Sound intuitively correct, but cant really say.
the boundary of an open set need not be empty
we discussed the example of the open interval (0,1) with boundary {0,1}
as soon as i sent the message i realised that xD
but this shouldnt change the thinking process, no? as if the boundary of A is not in its complement its in A, or can i be like half and half
yeah, since boundary = closure - interior, the boundary and interior are disjoint
so open sets are disjoint from their boundary
so the proof is valid?
so your proof boils down to $\overline{A} = A \cup \partial A \subseteq A \subseteq \overline{A}$ hence $\overline{A} = A$
Phil
the main point is that $\partial A \subseteq A$
Phil
technically you only showed that $\partial (X \setminus A) \subseteq A$ using openness of $X \setminus A$, and you would still have to argue that $\partial (X \setminus A) = \partial A$
Phil
that always holds though, i.e. boundary of a subset and its complement always agree
if you havent seen this, try showing it
its not hard
yeah, i kinda figure that intuitively but havent sene the proof, i will try
im still trying to figure out what part i have to prove and what is "obvious", i am used to physics proofs where most of it is assumed to be true xD
well at first nothing is obvious
sometimes intuition from the real world isnt really helpful
and sometimes the naming also sucks
sets in topological spaces arent doors, they can be open and closed at the same time xd
its more like, where should i draw the line, if i am proving something, what can i assume to be proven already and so on
well that usually depends on your book
if you are doing exercises in it, then you can geneally assume everyhting that came before
yeah, thats something i will have fun with next
just assume your exercise to be proven and you're good to go
Yeah. A boundary of a set is empty iff it's clopen
And in general an open set isn't closed
In a T1 space, every open subset is clopen iff it is discrete
Could anyone help me verify wether this proof makes sense? I have to prove that in a topological space (X,T), A\U is closed for a closed set A and open set U
My proof looks something like this: Suppose for contradiction that $A\setminus U$ is not closed then $\exists x \in X\setminus (A\setminus U)$ such that $x$ is a limit point of $A\setminus U$ which means that $\forall U_x$ such that $x \in U_x \implies (U_x \setminus {x}) \cap (A \setminus U) \neq \emptyset$ but $X\setminus (A\setminus U)$ is a neighbourhood of $x$ and we can see that $((X\setminus (A\setminus U))\setminus {x}) \cap (A\setminus U) = \emptyset$ since $X\setminus (A\setminus U)$ and $(A\setminus U)$ have no points in common but since $x$ is a limit point of $A\U$ this gives us a contradiction and hence $A\U$ must be closed
ForJoke
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Is this an arbitrary topological space
This proof should not be correct, I don't think. Sequences and limit points aren't a good way to characterize open and closed sets in an arbitrary topological space.
but unfortunately thats all I have done so far, all the proofs of this I see online include the interior or boundary, which we cover in the next section
I can give the name of the textbook if you want
A topology on a set X is a collection of subsets (T) such that
- $\emptyset, X \in T$
- if $U, V \in T$ then $U \cap V \in T$
- if ${U}{i \in I} \in T$ then $\bigcup{i \in I} U_i \in T$
ForJoke
Right. Ok, good.
Why not write $A\setminus U = A\cap (X\setminus U)$?
Lol nvm
Blitz
What can you say about arbitrary intersection of closed sets
If I go at the same progression as the text, nothing
it's literally the next theorem lol
A closed set is a complement of open set
So from de Morgan law and your axiom 3) of topology, it's closed
the definition we use is that A = cl(A)
And cl is defined as?
the closure of A is cl(A)
yeah
which de morgans law do you use here?
Okay, so we need to take an element of cl(A\U)
Complement of union is intersection of complement
This works for arbitrary unions
But you have a different definition
wait nvm I proved this, thank you so much for the help
Oh alright
So now you see that A\U is an intersection of two closed sets
So is closed
this is exactly what i am trying to prove right now
what's the definition of the boundary
if the composition of two maps is closed
and one of the maps is closed
must the other be closed
Consider fg, let f be constant
In a T1 space
f, fg are closed but g can be anything, really
Now let f be anything and g be constant
Again, fg is constant
@gritty widget
damn
thanks
wait
a constant map is closed no?
Yes
If the image is T1
So that singletons are closed
ah yes okay
sorry i thought you were giving this as a counter example
I am giving this as a counter-example
What do you mean
read this a
here is a counter example
In a T1 space consider...
not
it is true in a T1 space, else consider a counter example
The former
but
ah sorry
i read this completely wrong
It's kay
Hi! This is regarding homotopy theory and CW complexes and Compression Lemma (Hatcher 4.6): Why is it reasonable to assume, if (X,A) is CW pair/relative complex, that a map f: (X,A) -> (Y,B) takes the skeleton X^k-1 U A to B? In hatcher it is stated that we can assume this is "homotoped" to be so, but in this other proof it is just straight up assumed
Let $X$ be a $\Delta$-complex with finitely many $n$-simplices. Show
that the $n$-th homology group $H_n(X)$ is a finitely generated abelian group.
eM
Imma be honest, I'm not sure, if at all, how to show this.
C_n(X) in the simplicial chain complex is finitely generated
That seems to be the induction hypothesis
And you'd prove that X_k ∪ A also maps to B
oh damn. Thanks so much - that's of course it!

damn the one time im not online for a few hours there are actually questions on algtop and htpy theory
neighborhoods of zero pose a problem
I see but why
injectivity
I could take a branch of log at a neibourhood of zero
and make z^3 biyective I think
ok I´ll think about that
i was thinking more like inverse function theorem tells you it’s invertible at points away from zero
okeyy
but i think even if you pick a branch of the square root function, you will miss a lot of points near zero
you can define a branch of log at a simple connected set that dosent have zero
why are we talking about branches of the log function?
with a branch of log function you define a branch of square root
is the same
you define e^(1/2log(z)) and thats it
right… but the square root of 0 is 0
yes
my point here was that we are missing a whole line of points where the square root function is defined if we choose a branch
yes
so those are going to be your problem points for invertibility
Hey folks, maybe kind of a dumb question but does anyone have a suggestion for a good place to look for practice problems for preparing for an undergraduate topology exam? The exercises in Munkres aren't really doing it for me since it's gonna be a 50 minute/5 question exam and most of the book's problems are pretty long
Ideally I would like to do some problems that are around the length of one of those exam questions but I'm stumped as far as where to look goes
i dont know anything abt this but posting an example question would probably help people help you
Ah yeah that's the tricky part, maybe one from the previous exam would be helpful
For a topological space $X$ and its subset $A\subset X$ prove that if $\bar{A}-A$ is closed, then there are closed subsets $B$ and $C$ of $X$ such that $A=B-C$.
mogan
Show that the dictionary order topology on the Cartesian product $\mathbb{R}\times\mathbb{R}$ equals the product topology of $\mathbb{R}_d\times\mathbb{R}$, where $\mathbb{R}_d$ is a real line with the discrete topology.
mogan
Somewhere at that level or thereabouts. Those are two questions from the last exam
is there more?
Im writing a proof for the property in compact top spaces that collections of closeds satisfying FIP intersect nontrivially and vice versa
can someone verify that my contraposition is actually valid\
\begin{problem}
Let $X$ be a topological space. Prove that $X$ is compact if and only if for every collection ${C_\lambda}{\lambda \in \Lambda}$ of closed sets such that every finite subcollection has a non-empty intersection, $\bigcap{\lambda \in \Lambda} C_\lambda \neq \varnothing$.
\end{problem}
\begin{solution}
($\Rightarrow$) Let $X$ be a compact topological space, and ${C_\lambda}{\lambda \in \Lambda}$ an arbitrary collection of closed sets in $X$. Suppose that $\bigcap{\lambda \in \Lambda} C_\lambda = \varnothing$. Therefore $X\setminus \bigcap_{\lambda \in \Lambda} C_\lambda=X$, and we have that ${X\setminus C_\lambda \mid \lambda \in \Lambda}$ is an open cover of $X$. $X$ compact means every open cover has a finite subcover, hence there exists a finite $G\subseteq \Lambda$ such that ${X\setminus C_\lambda \mid \lambda \in G}$ is a cover of $X$. Thus, ${C_\lambda}{\lambda \in G}$ is a finite collection of closed sets such that $\bigcap{\lambda\in G}C_\lambda=\emptyset$.\
($\Leftarrow$) Assume that $X$ is not compact, and take an open cover ${B_k}{k \in K}$ of $X$ with no finite subcover. ${X\setminus B_k\mid k \in K}$ is a collection of closed sets such that $\bigcap{k \in K} X\setminus B_k=\emptyset$. However, since ${B_k}{k \in K}$ has no finite subcover, for any finite $F\subseteq K$ we have that $\bigcap{k\in F} X\setminus B_k\neq\emptyset$.
\par Contraposition demonstrates that every collection of closed subsets of $X$ satisfying the finite intersection property intersect non-trivially if and only if $X$ is compact.
\end{solution}
Dpao
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Basically compact and a collection of closeds with empty intersection, contrapositive being that it cant satisfy FIP. For reverse direction, not compact implies the existence of a collection of closeds with empty intersection satisfying FIP
As in more questions or more parts of that question?
the question wasn’t finished
Nah that's the whole question, actually
And to be clear I'm not looking for help with those questions, just suggestions for where I could find questions of around that same level/length to practice for an upcoming exam
I have shown that the given collection is a topology
I'm trying to show that M is locally Euclidean w.r.t. this topology
So take any x in M. By C1, we can find some U_\alpha containing x. U_\alpha is also open in M
Hausdorff
I'm thinking about using "a map is continuous iff preimages of open sets are open sets". So take an open set V in R^n. I'm not sure what to do beyond this point
Yes
That's wise.
You have the definition of the topology \mathscr{T}
So take an open set V in R^n.
You're trying to prove that phi^-1(V) lives in the topology \mathscr{T}
So let's work backward from the definition of the topology.
@vast estuary
So you're attempting to apply the definition of the topology \mathscr{T} to show that \phi^-1(V) is open.
Can you simplify this at all into something workable?
I'll try this in a few minutes, I think I get the idea
👍
Any hints for what W to take? @plain raven
Why not.... \phi_a^{-1}(V)
Hahahaha.
Hausdorff
I think this works. Thanks!
Yep!
I need a quick argument to show that U = |R² \ {(x,0), x in |R+} is an open set of |R²
Can I say that it is the complementary of a closed set (|R²) and therefore open ?
yes
$U^c = {(x, 0): x\in\mathbb{R}+} = \mathbb{R}+\times{0}$ is closed (if we interpret $\mathbb{R}_+ = [0, \infty)$)
Blitz
What is the family of (say $T_1$) topological spaces $X$ such that $X$ doesn't contain a closed infinite subspace with cofinite topology?
Blitz
you can use covring space theory
Yeah, something something different lifts to R
lift of constant loop to R is constant, but lift of loop with winding number 1 ends at 1
and homotopies also lift
Suppose we have two morphism $f,g:A\rightarrow B$, in many categories and in particular in Top, we can construct the equalizer as $E(f,g)={x\in A ,\mid, f(x)=g(x)}$.
We also could construct the equalizer via a pullback diagram
lime_soup
I'm trying to see that these two constructions are the same
and I don't want to do this abstractly, I'm okay with this abstract way of showing that these both satisfy the universal property of the equalizer
what i don
Giving the construction via the pullback we get
$$E={(x,y)\in A\times B ,\mid, f(x)=g(x)=y}$$
The usual construction gives
$$E={x\in A ,\mid, f(x)=g(x)}$$
lime_soup
its easy to construct a bijection on the level of sets x goes to (x,f(x))
and this has an inverse
(x,f(x)) goes to x
but this seems to imply that a space X is always homeomorphic to any graph of X
which does not seem to be right
why do you think so?
you just gave continuous mutual inverses
i guess its just a nice artifact of the product topology
This is true
Why would it not be?
lots of things that should be true are not true when spaces are not haussdorff
this felt like it should be one of those
well i guess you dont get that the equalizer is closed in the case that the codomain of f and g isnt hausdorff
Yeah I mean its not going to necessarily be separated lol
But it is just like, a true fact that the graph of f: X -> Y is homeomorphic to X
for f continuous
are you saying that we need haussdorff spaces for these constructions agree?
which constructions?
if you mean pullback and equalizer, then no, you showed above they are the same
im just saying that the equalizer as a subset of A isnt necessarily closed
it reminded me of something i learned recently
that every (hurewicz) cofibration is an equalizer and hence an embedding
and so if the codomain is hausdorff its a closed embedding
no
what even is the zero map
we are in Top
if j : A -> X is your (hurewicz) cofibration and we denote by M_j its mapping cylinder, then the canonical map t : M_j -> X x I has a left inverse r : X x I -> M_j (this is actually equivalent to j being a cofibration)
Then you can show that A -> X => X x I is an equalizer diagram, where the first map is j, the upper map is x -> (x,1), and the lower map is x -> tr(x,1)
its an exercise in here
i thought we were in pointed spaces
ok, but no, you dont need pointed spaces to consider cofibrations
[0,1) is the countable union of sets of the form [0,1-1/n] for natural n
It's not gonna be easy finding an explicit example
eM
I do that but it seems I get the Klein bottle instead.
My advice would be to try and somehow combine a set that's Gdelta but not F sigma and a set that's F sigma but not G delta
if you just need existence, you can take a non lebesgue-measurable set
since then its certainly not part of the borel sigma algebra
the borel sigma algebra being the smallest sigma algebra containing all open sets, would in particular contain all countable intersections of open sets and countable unions of closed sets
That's true. I assumed "find" meant construct one
yeah, probably
That was my original idea too tho
well for the möbius strip you only identify one pair of opposite sides
for torus and klein bottle you identify both pairs
you can draw the square like before
divide it into two triangles
but just identify 1 pair of opposite edges, with reversed orientation
Right, I forgot
looks good otherwise
👀
you still identify top and bottom edge again
this will give you the klein bottle
bruh lmao
For a second, I was like, "wait, that looks familiar" lol
just label the bottom one d or something
and dont draw the > on the top and bottom edges
So wait, if I am writing down the free abelian groups generated by the vertices, edges, and faces
Since I've been accustomed writing those by their orientation, how I would write the free abelian groups generated by the edges?
do you mean how to compute the boundary maps?
Yes
you give the triangles a coherent ordering of vertices
coherent in the sense that they share the edge c, and the induced orientation of c from either of the triangles should be the same
thats one of the axioms of a delta complex
If M is the mobius strip, then C_0(M) = <[v], [w]>
you could also just write Z[v,w], but sure
it doesnt really matter what you name it
its the free abelian group on 4 generators
because you have 4 edges
going from our notation, Z[a,b,c,d] would be a good name
I'm used to write a,b,c,d using the bracket notation from hatcher
*writin
*writing
But I see it doesn't matter
Then C_2(M) = U, L
Z[U,L]
Alright
oh i think his notation would write a = [v,w]
Yes
in this way you already choose an orientation for each edge
well you gotta choose orientations first
How would I choose orientations for b and d?
there are multiple ways to do so
for me the > on edges indicate that you identify certain edges
this is one way to do it
the blue numbers give the orientations
formally you get an orientation preserving map of the ordered 1-simplex, i.e. triangle, into your space
you have two of these triangles to cover
and they share the edge c
orientation is given by going into the direction of the higher number
the > and < on the a-edges just mean that you glue them together
with indicated orientation
Ahhh okay, yeah, the delta complex structures of some of the other spaces I've seen agree with how they look on the quotient spaces of the unit square
edge-wise, I mean
so with this chosen orientation, going by definition of the boundary map should give you ∂U = b -c + a and ∂L = -a -c + d
its always opposite edge of 0 - opposite edge of 1 + opposite edge of 2, but for L we do -a since its identified in an orientation reversing manner
ah okay
if your vertices are identified as 0,1, and 2, then the boundary of a is 1 - 0 formally written?
That doesn't agree with the right side
Hmm
no these arent the vertices of the delta complex
but like indications of where the vertices of the triangle go when you map it into your space
ahhh alright
to determine orientation
Hmmm
I wish I wasn't so tied to deadlines to figure this all out lol
I'll need to come back to this later
0 is closed so it's in particular F sigma, but it's also G delta
consider the intersection of (-1/n,1/n) over all n
Also, the complement of a G delta set will be F sigma, and conversely the complement of a set that's NOT G delta is NOT F sigma
this won't work since each such union will necessarily be all of R
Hmmm trying to computing the boundary map of those edges, so first I identify my maps sigma, of which there are four of them—sigma_1: Delta^1 = a to X, sigma_2: Delta^1 = bto X, sigma_3: Delta^1 = c to X, and sigma_4: Delta^1 = d to X
Using the identification of those vertices from last time, is it partial(sigma_1) = w-v, partial(sigma_2) = v-w, partial(sigma_3) = 0
partial(sigma_4) = v-w
since Q is dense in R
@lunar yoke
if you take all the rationals, and you take small intervals around them you simply can't not cover all of R
since every real number is arbitrarily close to some rational number
im not sure what you mean by a to X and the like
its more like a = sigma_1 : Delta^1 -> X
a is a name for the edge itself
sigma_1 is that edge, together with the way the orientation of Delta^1 gets transferred to the edge in X
i think your computation looks good too, maybe i swapped your v and w
If there is no orientation on b and d identified, how are the boundary maps computed? I would've thought the boundary maps on b and d are the same
but we chose orientations at the start
the blue numbers in my case
these give orientations for everything
formally its the orientation carried over by the sigma_i
My b, I forgot we designated them as numbers and not how I had originally thought (arrows, which I confused with the gluing)
i mean maybe other sources do it differently
i just like to do it this way
to not get confused between the two
YES I GET IT NOW
I used double arrows for orientation instead and now everything just made sense lol
it also took me a while when i first learned this
especially relating the formal stuff with these maps from simplices into my space to actually computing this stuff
I was like, "how do I distinguish the orientations from the gluing so that next time I look at this, I won't get confused again?"
Yeah, I'm still making the jump from simplicial homology to singular homology and jumping from simplicial complexes to delta complexes
I still feel gaps in my understanding, so anytime I understand something, it's a win lol
i mean its always that way in maths
good thiing is that later you can compute homology of many spaces by using homology from simple known spaces like spheres and then using some properties that homology satisfies
like argueing with long exact sequences


