#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 287 of 1
I see
Umm
Hmm
Maybe?
Im thinking of it being unbounded variation on any neighborhood
Long line is also connected right 
Where is the long line used
Long line has many nontrivial path connected components though
The fact that topologists sine curve is connected means it has any of its neighbourhood contains a connected neighbourhood, so if a retraction existed it would be path-connected
So it's not ANR
Yeah I feel like any continuous function will have a path connected graph
Right
My intuition for "connected but not path connected" being "things are infinitely far from each other" has been shattered
Well topologist’s done curve is easy to généraliser
so take everything i say with a few pounds of salt

Just take a function with a nasty wiggly singularity
Yeah i thought my functions had wiggly enough singularities everywhere
And artificially add a point at that singularity
Whatever just sum topo sine curves shifted to every rational 
And scaled like 1/2^n
Ig the use for connectedness is that it’s a weaker property that’s easier to conclude and so can easily give us spaces not continually mapped to or smth
Oh I mean
But idk still sounds a little pathological to me
connectedness is super useful
in and of itself
for example like, if you know P holds locally on a connected space and you show P holds anywhere, then P holds everywhere
Er maybe you need not P to be local too
Hmm fair enough
Also you know that continuous functions send connected components to connected components even without paths
which shows up fairly regularly
Yeah I can see that
like i said though, most topologists don't study things where the two notions differ
and some even define connectedness via homotopy groups
(which only see the path version)
What’s the general idea behind why CW complexes are Hausdorff? The proof in Hatcher is not intuitive to me.
Never mind I’m stupid
Connectedness is also useful in that a set between connected set and its closure is connected
Which can fail for path-connectedness
Not sure what you mean here since every path connected space is connected
?
If X retracts on a subspace A, is the morphism induced by the inclusion of A in X on the abelianizations of pi_1(A) to pi_1(B) injective?
I need this to be true but I don’t see any reason why it should be haha
Nvm I see what you mean
Retract means that there is an equation
Apply functor to equation and it remains true
ri = 1
the defn of a retract can be used with functoriality of pi_1 to get what you want
technically the functoriality of pi_1 and abelianization
unconfuse yourself 🙂
If you can do this with functors
Then can’t you say the same to show that abelianization preserves injections?
Which it doesn’t
Ohhh wait
The left inverse of an injective homomorphism isn’t necessarily a homomorphism
Alright I see
So this means if the left inverse of an injective homomorphism is a homomorphism then abelianization preserves that injection? (And surjection for that matter)
Functoriality too strong ngl
Yes. It's the left invertibility that is strong, not functoriality here lol
😌
Hatcher exercises are so much fun
There's also a weaker notion of left cancellability
These fundamental group computations are really cute
and that isn't preserved by functors
What is it
Left cancellability lol
fg = fh → g = h
Retraction says that i is left invertible with left inverse r
So it is like domain vs field
Are the maps here continuous 🤔
So f here doesn’t have a left inverse but left cancels?
Ye
You might have heard monomorphism
And i suppose it left cancels because it has an inverse map that’s not in the category you’re considering
Like in Set or smth
Yeah
It left cancels because we can show it lol
You could go the Set route and use the faithful forgetful functor
But that would require you to do strictly more
I see
So I just finished an exercise where we show that the orientable surface of genus g retracts onto a circle that doesn’t separate it but not on a circle that does
Does this generalize to non-orientable surfaces?
And to manifolds of higher dimension?
Suppose there was a continuous map from S^n-> T^2. I want to show that this map is null homotopic if n>=2.
I feel like this has something to do with lifting properties but I'm not sure. Does anybody have a lead on how I might try to think about this problem?
I know that the fundamental group of S^n is trivial and the fundamental group of T^2 is ZxZ
How much covering theory do you know
I know of a Galois correspondence
That is enough
pick x_0 in the image of S^n and a loop at x_0 in that image. There is a loop in S^n that maps to that loop injectively. Take a nullhomotopy of that loop in S^n and compose it with your map. That will be a nullhomotopy in T^2 so that the image is simply connected and hence the map is null-homotopic? Im not sure if what im saying makes sense
You are right that this follows from lifting properties
this is incorrect
yeah imagined that much
in particular inducing the 0 map on pi_1 does not imply the map is nullhomotopic
ah okay
@fair idol You should look through the lemmas you have about lifting, depending on your text
Okay I'll review the lemmas from hatcher and see if I come up with anything then thank you
may i ask why this is the case ? It's always been my intuition for homotopies of maps
Is there a common covering space for the torus?
You can get it from how the torus is glued from a polygon
I see the issue here: confusing simply connected and contractible
The identity map S2->S2 is not nullhomotopic but induces 0 on pi1
Pi1 barely sees any homotopical data
For the same reason that pi1X=0 does not imply X is contractible
Is there a way to calculate the fundamental group of R^2 minus two points?
Yeah exactly it was just me making a dumb confusion
It deformation retracts onto a wedge of two circles
TYSM!
does this generalize to R^2 minus k points deformation retracting onto a wedge of k circles?
Yeah
neat. what about R^n minus k points? just change circles to n-1 spheres?
R^n - k points is simply connected
In fact R^n - a discrete subspace is simply connected
But I think yeah you change it to n-1 spheres
Sounds reasonable to me
for n >2 right?
Yeah
Here’s a neat exercise for you that I did the other day if you find this neat
Compute the fundamental group of R^3 - X where X is the union of n lines through the origin
It’s harder
hmm. i don’t have any technical tools at my disposal rn, i just don’t know any theorems or a lot of terminology so i’m kind of intuiting/visualizing everything rn
i can’t really say what happens for more than two lines
i’ll remember this exercise for later tho
how can a topological space be considered a space if it has no notion of distance?
Because it still possesses a notion of which points are “near” other points
Even if there isn’t defined by some numerical value of distance
when i was googling this question i did stumble upon "nearness" a lot
but... doesn't "nearness" still require distance?
not necessarily
how can you describe something as near to something else through just set theory? zero geometry
right so you lose a bit of geometry as you say
but the picture to keep in mind is like
It's just conventional to use the word "space" about this particular kind of structure. Don't think that word choice encodes any deep truth.
if you have any set X there are kinda to extremes of a topological space you can define from this
one is the discrete topology, where every subset of X is open
you think of this as just like, a discrete cloud of points, no two points are "near" each other
the other is the codiscrete topology or the trivial topology, where only the empty subset and X are open
so in the other extreme you think of this as like
all the points in the set X totally cohered together, every point is "near" every other point
in general any topology on X is between these two extremes
ah, i see how they are extremes, all topologies on X would be somewhere in between the two
it's sort of like a general topology is more "spread out" than the trivial topology
if you "spread out" the points as much as possible you just get a discrete cloud
it is true that some spaces in between these extremes are in fact metrizable and you can attach an actual metric function to refine this notion of nearness
and there are definitely things that are more "geometric" that require this extra structure
ok so... take three points a,b,c. are you telling me they are near each other if {a,b,c} is an open set, but not near each other if {a},{b},{c} are open sets instead?
yes! they are clopen
i convinced myself of this earlier today
(in a discrete topology)
I mean more generally like
there are interesting topological spaces where some points {x} are not closed subsets
a good example is the Zariski topology
here there's definitely no metric but you can still kinda like
draw things
and they are fairly geometric still
oh jeez, i only just started my topology course, this has stuff in it that is still beyond me
there are some examples that aren't so bad
if you have a commutative ring R then you define a topological space Spec(R) whose points are the prime ideals of R with the Zariski topology
the idea of the definition being like
intersection and union of opens has something to do with addition and multiplication of ideals
👀
for example if you just take the ring of integers Z the prime ideals are (p) for p prime, and (0)
the ideals (p) are maximal, so they correspond to closed points
whereas (0) is not maximal, and it corresponds to a point that is not closed
it's kinda like
smeared out across the whole space
in particular the closure of that point is the whole space
nothing like this exists for like metric spaces
but you can still kinda visualize it as some kinda like
"ghostly" point that is smeared out across the whole picture
can u do an interpretation in R with nearness defined in terms of open sets? just for concreteness?
what is the closure of a point tho?
so the closure of any subset is like
the smallest closed subset of your space containing that subset
yeah, that makes sense to me, but if we are just talking about a point, wouldn't its closure be the empty set?
well for closed points the closure is just the point itself
oh ok
so like in metric spaces this is what you always see, points are always closed and you don't have these more general points
if you take a point x then you have open balls B_x(r) = {points y with d(x, y) < r} about x. so we replace our usual heuristic for "closeness" (d(x, y) is small) with "x and y share many open balls"
the point is you can have weird stuff like this happen and it makes it impossible to have any kind of notion of distance in your space
but things can still be pretty geometric
like in the case of the Zariski topology you can still draw things
so long as you add in these weird non-closed points into your idea of what geometry is
but that’s true for any two points haha
only on the usual topology on R
"share many" not "share a"
This is not precise from a cardinality POV but its the heuristic
thanks by the way, im slowly chewing through the wiki page for the zarinski topology and its helping me a lot, and i kinda understand why they call them discrete and indiscrete topologies now 🙂
give me two points x and y that don’t share uncountably many open balls
"this is not precise from a cardinality POV"
then what is many lol
wait actually how is it not precise? isn't the cardinality of (0,1) the same as the cardinality of all of R?
“many” is ambiguous. and that’s what i’m trying to understand by annoying moth (sorry moth)
Its ambiguous because this is an intuitive motivation for why open sets distinguish a notion of distance and why topologies generalize metric spaces
I have a difficult question.
Can someone tell me if my reasoning about this is correct
Say there is a continuous map f:S^n-> T^2 with n>=2. \pi(S^n)=0. Further the universal cover of T^2 is R^2 and as a universal cover \pi(R^2)=0. Therefore the induced maps f_(pi(S^n))\subset p_(pi(R^2)) is trivial true. Therefore the lifting criterion is satisfied so that there is a lift of f to f':S^n->R^2
Define ~ on R by x ~ x iff x - y is rational. Then ~ is an equivalence relation and ****(R/~, u~) is not Hausdorff.****
I need help with that second part.
The eq. rel. part is easy.
yep
Surely this has something to do with the density of the equivalence classes of rationals
you might want to point out that pi_1 S^n is 0
Okay somehow I think I can use this to show that f is nullhomotopic. But f=pf' so maybe showing the rhs is nullhomotopic is easier
Oh... But aren't there only two equivalence classes?
x ~ y iff x - y is rational.
For some reason this reminds me of the proof of a non measurable set
Hmm...
But wouldn't this relation produce only two classes?
I don't think there will be only two, but I could be wrong idk. Why do you think there are only two classes?
No, you're right.
The classes are one for each rational?
I mean, is that how the relation works?
I'm just confused as to how equivalence classes work, lol.
sorry
But I'll look that up now as well.
Q as in Q?
So QU{r}?
$\mathbb Q+r$ is a shorthand notation for ${x+r\mid x\in\mathbb Q}$.
Troposphere
Ah.
This is a certain set of real numbers. Sometimes different choices can give the same set -- for example r=sqrt(2) and r=sqrt(2)+1 give us the same set out at the end.
Ah, okay.
r=pi gives us a different set of reals, though.
R/~ is then the set of all these equivalence classes.
You equip it with the quotient topology. Can you figure out now what the quotient topology is here?
Uh.
Well, it's all of the classes...
Is it just equivalent to all real numbers?
No, each equivalence class is one point of the quotient space.
Oh, so all irrationals?
irrational + rational
Recall that sqrt(2) and sqrt(2)+1 are in the same equivalence class.
Since it's of that form.
So is it a particular real + any ration number?
Yes sort of -- but for each equivalence class there are many different reals that each create that class, so you can't point to any very "particular" real it comes from.
One of the equivalence classes is Q itself.
This might be too broad of a statement
Consider the identity map from S^2 to itself.
Right.
Since the sphere isn't contractible.
No there are uncountably many since $\mathbb{R} = \bigcup_{[x] \in \mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Q}} [x]$. If there was only countably many then the reals would be a countable union of countable sets.
M8732
You helped a lot and I think I found my solution.
Thanks!
I used the denseness of Q.
I think it works.
You meaning someone else? I just wanted to clarify this bit.
A map with a contractible codomain is always homotopic to a constant.
You should be able to reason this out yourself from definitions
Well my point is more, there is only so much of your work I can do for you without hurting you
sometimes you just gotta work it out
I am trained in both math education and mathematics. My job is to teach math.
fajitas got fucked
Perhaps I should at least explain: this is not a difficult exercise, and if you do not see how to prove it, you really need to review the more basic notions from hatcher ch0. If I explain how to prove it, I rob from you the chance to actually internalize these definitions on your own, and I risk allowing you to continue through the book without fixing this gap. Inevitably that will lead to more questions in this channel later on that could have been prevented now.
The overall purpose is to help you learn topology, not to answer any and every question.
did you figure it out yet
it comes straight from definitom when you apply it
you can draw out diagrams to help
Trying proving this theorem if you’re still a little shaky on definitions: A map is nullhomotopic iff it factors through a contractible space
It's cool that just from connectedness and local connectedness we can get arc-wise connectedness and local arc-wise connectedness
It seems kind of amazing
Arcwise?
What’s the difference between arcwise and path connected in Hausdorff spaces?
probably injective paths
I was under the impression that it is exactly path connectedness
okey
ngl I'm still under same impression
why google when I can bother some honorables
google is more reliable
Arcwise means that the witnessing paths connecting any 2 points be embeddings
oh well~ guess it doesn't exist
when in the world is that not just path connectedness

Closest guess 🍪
ah i see
why call it arcwise then, it's a misnomer
it's silly
exactly
There's a copy of the arc connecting the 2 points 
Arc being defined as an embedding of the closed interval
Is it F_2n+1
Yes
ig I was picking examples from locally compact, connected, locally connected, metrizable space that's why couldn't find any difference 
I looked at the n=1,2 cases, drew loops in different homotopy classes, and then approximated graph as a CW complex, drew the relations and elements, and that’s how I got F_2n+1. Is there a more rigorous way to do it?
x ↦ x/|x|
That’s directEd towards me right?
Yes
Thanks
2n-1 *
Damn
It deformation retracts on a sphere with 2n holes
Oh I counted wrong that’s my bad
Give it a CW complex structure by putting these holes in a bouquet
And adding a loop around
Since n=1 is F_1, n=2 is F_3 I just got the recurrence relation wrong
Is that the x-> x/|x| thing?
That's the deformation retraction onto the sphere with 2n holes
My prof calls it path-connectedness, but usually path-connectedness doesn't require the path to be an embedding
I think
Ye it don't
So sources like wikipedia calls this arcwise connectedness
The remarkable part imo is that you can get intervals just using connectedness and local connectedness
There is a characterization of an interval as a continuum with only two noncut points
You can use it to obtain arcs in your space
That stereo graphic projection thing is genius

Yep
You can thank Riemann for that
Moldilocks is my Riemann

Speaking of cool constructions
I've recently read about a thorem in my book which is basically Bernstein set
And I read about those not a long ago
So it was nice
Fellas, I was hoping someone could look over this proof for me, since the one I found online is different, and I have doubts about the last part. Could someone let me know if this proof works? $\$
$\emph{Theorem.}$ Every connected metric space with at least two points is uncountable. $\$
$\emph{Proof.}$ Let X be a connected metric space with at least 2 points. Pick $p_0, p_1 \in X$ such that $p_0 \neq p_1$. Let r = $d(p_0, p_1)$. Pick $\delta \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $0 < \delta < r$. $\$
Consider the two sets $A_{\delta} = {p \in X \mid d(p_0, p) < \delta}$ and $B_{\delta} = {p \in X \mid d(p_0, p) > \delta}$. Clearly, $A_{\delta} \subset X$ and $B_{\delta} \subset X$.
By (c), we know that $A_{\delta}$ and $B_{\delta}$ are separated. Therefore, since X is connected, $X \neq A_{\delta} \cup B_{\delta}$. Since both sets are subsets of X, this implies that there exists a q $\in$ X such that q $\notin A_{\delta}$ and q $\notin B_{\delta}.$ i.e. $d(p_0, q)$ is not $< \delta$ nor is it $> \delta$. By trichotomy of $\mathbb{R}$, we have that $d(p_0, q) = \delta$. $\$
This means that for each $\delta \in$ (0, r), there exists a q $\in$ X such that $d(p_0, q) = \delta$. Since there are uncountably many $\delta \in$ (0, r), it follows that there are uncountably many such corresponding q $\in X$. Hence, X is uncountable. $\qed$
strad
Nicely written 😌
Yeah, if you feel that there is more to say then you could say that a point can't have distance delta and delta' at the same time lol
Yeah that's exactly what I felt like I skipped, maybe I should add that for completeness' sake
Hey now this sounds familiar
Compute $\pi_1(\mathbb{R} \mathrm{\textbf{P}}^2 \vee \mathbb{R} \mathrm{\textbf{P}}^2)$
Unless something tricky is happening here, isn't this just the free product on Z/2Z with itself?
eM
Yup fundamental group of wedge sum is free product of fundamental groups
Got it. I thought some sorcery was going to pop it like the fundamental group of RP^n is Z/2Z for all n > 1.
Still freaks me out lol because I still can't see why
it may be helpful to think about what nGroupoid said as a categorical statement
wedge product is the coproduct in the category of pointed topological spaces, and the fundamental group(oid) is a left adjoint (to what?), so it preserves colimits
or, if that sounds more confusing instead of less, just apply SvK
Pi1 is not a left adjoint and does not preserve colimits
Why what exactly?
any suggestion for the topology lectures?
It is a left adjoint when viewed as a functor from the homotopy category of pointed CW complexes
Only a small concession but I did leave it open ended by suggesting the question "to what?"
What I'm describing follows essentially from thinking about how to categorify (in a non-technical sense) SVK
Which in particular is not what you said lol
(You said pointed topological spaces)
Uhh
Oh I did
Woops
But anyway, I wanted to add that it's not necessarily straightforward how to encode the conditions of svk into the choice of category, but that is how it be
And if you studied category theory before topology it might be a nice way to see the theorem
I'm not able to find
yes for this one
I need first 8 chapter's of Munkres
There's a topology playlist by ICTP that uses Munkres
Thank you
Hausdorff
Does this help?
Hausdorff
@vast estuary if you remove the copy of Cantor set from \mathbb{C}, it's still (in fact path) connected
That makes sense, thank you
(phew, nearly deleted my post xd)
Is there a nice way to show the complement is path connected or is that obvious
@unreal stratus if you're in [0, 1] x {0} you can just move upwards or downwards
But $\mathbb{C}\setminus [0, 1]\times {0}$ is path-connected
Blitz
So in fact, if you remove any subset of [0, 1] x {0} then it's path-connected
Oh sure, is it just cause we're in R^2 lol fair
This set is union of four open sets C_1, ..., C_4 each homeomorphic to C, and C_i intersects with C_(i+1), so it's connected (for example)
So path-connected
Alternatively, cases
Wait there’s a different channel for diff geo and topology now
Where does knot theory/3-/4-manifolds go?
Either really
So Im having trouble understanding chain maps. Let $X, Y$ be a top space and $f: X \to Y$ a continuous map. We have $(C(X) = \oplus C_n(X), \partial_C)$, $(C(Y) = \oplus C_n(Y), \partial_D)$ be chain complexes where $C_n(X)$ is the free abelian group generated by continuous maps from $\Delta^n \to X$, where $\Delta^n$ is the $n$-dim simplex, and similarily defined for $C_n(Y)$. Consider the map $g: C(X) \to C(Y)$ which sends a generator $\sigma: \Delta^n \to X$ of $C(X)$ to $g(\sigma) = f\circ \sigma$. I certainly see it maps $\sigma$ to an generator of $C(Y)$, but I don't see why it is obvious this map $g$ is a homomorphism
MasakaBakana
To specify a map on a free abelian group, it is enough to specify that map on a basis
ie every set map from a basis to another abelian group extends uniquely to a map from the free abelian group to that other abelian group
If X is a graph with (x_i) a sequence of points in X with distinct edges, why can’t (x_i)_n converge? My reasoning was along the lines of supposing that it did converge -> every edge leads to a single vertex -> use the def of weak topology -> ???
By graph I mean one dimensional CW complex
-> the set U around the limit of x_n is closed since it contains its limit points but U intersect X^0 is open
Is my guess
Since tHe 0 skeleton has discrete topology U intersect X^0 is open
Anybody want to help me with proving homotopic equivalence?
Go ahead and post
if a set A (subset of C^n) is not discrete
Hausdorff
Yes
If an a has a neighborhood with finitely many points, it has one with no other points
"prove that a discrete space conditions of 'm' points is homotopy equivalent to a discrete space consisting of 'n' points if and only if 'm'='n'"
Kinda new to topology, not sure how to formulate a proof tbh
You could try to show that the number of connected components is preserved by homotopy
Does anyone know if the group presented by:
<a,b|aba(b^-1)>
Is a known group?
I was calculating the fundamental group of the Klein bottle and I got this bad boy, but I don't know if there is a more explicit way to write it
Infinite non abelian group
I don't think it's any of the basic ones like D_∞ etc

Hmm... well, could as well post it in #groups-rings-fields since the problem is group theory at this point
I googled it up as well and it seems people agree with Moldi
I don't wanna bother another channel😅
Well I think it's well-known... as the fundamental group of the Klein bottle
Another presentation for it is <x, y | x^2y^2>
Also another way to describe it would as an HNN extension for the inversion automorphism on Z
No one will be bothered by a question lol
I will be
No one worth not bothering will be bothered by it lol*
Was that the right number of negatives

Moldi ur always so mean to me 
😼
I wouldn't be so sure about it
Anyway, now I want to ask
I like your funny words magic man
Damn I should have know that self - proclaiming as "worthy of accessing the advanced math channels" was a risky move
Or I could just look up on Google what HNN is
Maybe I know it
My dog is worthy of accessing the advanced math channels 
Big oof
In mathematics, the HNN extension is an important construction of combinatorial group theory.
Introduced in a 1949 paper Embedding Theorems for Groups by Graham Higman, Bernhard Neumann, and Hanna Neumann, it embeds a given group G into another group G' , in such a way that two given isomorphic subgroups of G are conjugate (through a given isomo...
Or you could just ignore the things you don't know
They should make math 2 with less things that I don't know
Jk, never heard of that
But that page mentions the SVK theorem, which I'm currently studying, so maybe you are right
Well looks like someone discovered the foundation of my academic career
it's okay to black box things
Indeed, though you do need to at least understand the words in the statement of a theorem in order to black-box it 
Hey dudes it's algTopologyLover89 here with another sweet question for y'all
I'm currently studying coverings (are they even called like that in English? basically the classic image of S^1 with the big infinite spiral above it)
And they sucks
But that's not all
What are the generators of the fundamental group oooo (where o is S^1)
I don't understand why the preimage of a point (you call it the fiber in English?) always has the discrete topology
You mean 4 circumferences with one point in common?
There are 4 generators and the foundamental group is ZZZ*Z (free product)
both are fine, and cover is also fine
That's because there is a neighborhood around each point whose preimage is a disjoint union is sets that each map homeomorphically to the original neighborhood
Thus, the fibre, when endowed with subspace topology can be written as the union (one sheet intersect the fibre)
Where the union is taken over all sheets
One sheet intersected with the fibre is always a single point
Thus, each singleton is open
So you get the discrete topology on the fibre
No that's not what I meant
Take 4 circles
Join first 2 at a point
That's why
Thanks so much, I got it
Join the second and third at a different point
intuitively each circle. specifically it depends on your choice of basepoint
basically the generators are each circle combined with a path to your choice of basepoint
It's kinda hard to write, I'll make a quick drawing
- Go around the first circle
- Go around the second circle
- Go around the second and third circle
- Go around the second, third, and fourth circle
this ends up working too i think
Well you should probably prove this
I think my basis is easier to prove
and yours follows from mine
by inverting the second circle's generator and recovering the third, and then the fourth
Oh, yes, it was easier written than I thought
We're the same person
it seems far less obvious to me
What's your basis?
each element is one circle
Well technically
then just draw a path to your basepoint
This works too
It makes clearer that there are 4 circumferences and it's because of this "4 holes" the group is what it is
I like it
Whoops
I was asking this question because we had to compute the image of this thing as a cover of the wedge product of circles
On my exam
And I didn't have the time to think too hard about what the generators were so I just went with my intuition
contradiction
Heyys guys
Do i need to learn abstract algebra first before starting topology or i could doing it right away ?
( or these two don't connect at all ? )
I'm reading Hatcher and he gives an example of SVK on torus knots. For the most part, the explanation is intelligible. But he does this thing where he writes as follows:
grist bundle
Ok I will skip it
i would honestly skip this example
It seems bad
The idea for that paragraph I think
is you take a mapping cylinder connecting the times-m map to the times-n map
like
take the mapping cylinder for both
glue along the unmodified side
thats the basic premise
Do you guys usually use Munkres ?
Yes, for point-set
For point set its the book I usually recommend
I see, I'll go for that one then
I would not use munkres as a cookbook, however
This is what i was assuming
I'm self-taught, I'd prefer sth easy to understand, do you have one in mind ?
munkres is the easiest
there are faster books
(actually, i have a better recommendation.)
try to read munkres but when you inevitably get impatient, use this
hatcher wrote this
it's meant to get you ready to read his book on algtop
it is
the bad part isnt that
its the like
next part iirc
where you have to visualize real hard
well, i'm okay with that
i spent like 30min on it trying to figure out what was going on
the trouble is i do not understand what the parametrization of the cylinder is
i guess the second param is the length
but the first param... i assume it's S^1
but like
what's the period
how far does z have to go to make a single loop?
is z a real parameter? or is it in the complex circle |z|=1
so then why does he slap an exp() on it
this is the parameterization of S^1 as the unit circle of C
e^itheta parameterizes the circle
as theta goes from 0 to 2pi
this is the like, super canonical parameterization of the circle
you can think of e^2pi/nz as rotating z by 2pi/n
uh
oh, ok
z is actually on the unit complex circle
in retrospect this is obvious
Thank you !
Is it possible that arbitrary intersection of open set is neither open nor closed?
Got it thank you
Then how to prove that $\mathbb{Q}$ is can’t be written in countable intersection of open set in $\mathbb{R}$
Giyu
Ok
I need reference for continuous image of relatively compact set is relatively compact
Okay I see
I've used the same equality for subsets of compact spaces before 
must be losing the plot - I realised that I have been thinking of limit points and accumulation points as the same thing since i started learning topology
then again i can't remember the last time I used a topological space that isn't a metric space, or at least closures in them
Do you know how to compute fundamental groups of products and sums?
Yeah I’m having trouble finding the relations
What relations?
Yes
Okay, do you know how to write a presentation for RP^2 x RP^3
Just to make sure we’re both on the same page: the fundamental group of the Klein Bottle is <a,b| ab=ab^-1>
yes
No
I have an idea but it’s clearly not right
Give me a sec to look through Hatcher
Lets start there
Yeah having issue with that
Do you know what it is as a group?
Is it not Z/2Z?
the fundamental group of this?
I’m thinking of S^2/x~-x product with S^3/x~ -x, which results in Z/2Z x Z/2Z I believe
When you build cell complexes, do the n-cells have to be attached in a continuous fashion to the rest of the space?
yes
No clue
gotcha. hatcher does not really make this clear
every function you see in hatcher is continuous
yes, but his definition leaves this detail out
maybe it's in the appendix but not ch0
oh
wait
Oh is the relation just 1=a^2
this is the only relation in Z/2
but Z/2xZ/2 has 2 generators
lets call them a and b
we know we have a^2 and b^2
Is this enough?
ab
ab=?
Identity
Ok that makes sense
ab does have a relation, though
abab = e
hm
that does work
but its not the conceptual answer I was looking for
namely ab=ba
this is ofc equivalent to aba^-1b^-1=e
and bc we know a^2=b^2=e
its equivalent to what you wrote
In terms of concepts, why is ab=ba more profound than abab = e?
abab=e only works due to the accident that a=a^-1
the condition you want to impose is that the two generators a and b commute
to make the group abelian
Ok I didn’t even realize that
Oh I see where your relation came from now
hahah
thats funny
anyway
that is all the relations for the first two spaces
Can you finish it off?
(call the third generator c or something)
if you are not sure why this is true let me know
yep
What’s a good heuristic for why that’s all the relations in the first 2 spaces?
Like in more complicated spaces it’s going to be a lot harder to find the relations, no?
Well, the a^2 relations come from however you computed the pi_1 of RP^n
The commutativity relation is just an artifact that if I take GxH the elements purely from G commute with those purely from H
this post seems to discuss the idea
Thank you!
what exactly does a function from topological spaces do
like does it map sets to sets, elements of the topologies, or does it map points to points
depends on the wielder.
so you are right to be confused
because those functions are usually given by their point-wise mappings
they map points to points
but sometimes you'll see that when speaking abstractly about functions or spaces, the authors will write as if they just map sets to sets
the only really interesting functions are continuous
those, given an open set in the target space, have a pre-image of an open set in the source space
when you're working with particular functions you often need to use the point mapping notion
but when dealing with functions in general you usually can just work without point mappings nicely enough
and not even recall that they do such things
right, i'm trying to show the statement "every map from an indiscrete space is continous" is false and i know it has something to do with taking the inverse image of a set in in the topology of Y and show that it's not in the topology of X i. e. the indiscrete topology
you don't need the point definition
for that
to show that's false, you just provide 1 counter-example
does your name say oktofabus
oktafapus
i don't know what they map, like do i map subsets to subsets?
it's octofungus. close tho
yes
yeah so
okay great! so i can just choose a mapping that sends some closed set (i. e. not in the indiscrete) to a topology containing that subset
yeah
not quite
construct a mapping for which the inverse maps open sets to not open sets
(it's easier to just build an injective function and not have to worry about weirdness with the inverse)
(if injective, then you're right)
(but "closed" is not right, you need to be sure it's not open. sets can be open and closed at the same time)
(in fact all closed sets in the indiscrete topology are open)
(and vice versa)
(so that does not work at all)
so mapping the indiscrete to the discrete
indeed
you want a not-open set to map to an open set
and you might like it to be a one-to-one mapping
gotcha, well thank you for all your help
For this 1st part of the proof
Is there an explanation as to why we can find a polygonal path from $q_i$ to D
bla bla
Okay maybe this works: start by drawing an arc from q to the curve C, and then follow C until you hit D. Because C is closed you are guaranteed this will happen eventually
@next spade gonna go to sleep soon if you have any questions
Ohh and we can do this because C is simple closed right got it..
Anyone know how to do the if direction of part (b)
if X is finite, can you say anything about the singleton set {x}?
does this proof work, ladies and gents?
wait
Scratch that, I'll look it over again first
$\emph{Theorem.}$ Every separable metric space has a countable basis. $\ \
\emph{Proof.}$ Let X be a separable metric space and let E be a countable dense subset of X. For each p $\in$ E, define $V_p \coloneqq {B_r(p) \mid r \in Q)} \$
Since there are countably many r $\in \mathbb{Q}$, we have that $V_p$ is countable, and since there are also countably many p $\in$ E, we have that T = $\cup_{p \in E} V_p$ is countable. $\ \$
We claim that T is a basis for X. To show this, let x $\in$ X and let G $\subset$ X be open such that x $\in$ G. $\$
Since G is open, there exists an open ball $B_s(x)$ centered at x, for some $s > 0$, such that $B_s(x) \subset G$. Now consider the open set $B_{\frac{s}{4}}(x)$. By density of E in X, there exists a p $\in B_{\frac{s}{4}}(x)$. By density of $\mathbb{Q}$ in $\mathbb{R}$, there exists a rational number q such that $\frac{s}{4} < q < \frac{s}{2}$. We have $B_q(p) \in T$, $B_q(p) \subset B_s(x) \subset G$ and $x \in B_q(p)$. Therefore, T is a countable basis for X.
strad
Does this look fine now?
yea. the s/4 lower bound on q is unnecessary, but everything checks out. If you're writing this up for homework, you might want to justify the inclusion B_q(p) \subset B_s(x)
Oh, it is? But how can I be sure that B_q(p) contains x then?
Also yeah that inclusion's been bugging me, I'll work on justifying that, thank you
oh wait is it just triangle ineq.
Ah sweet, got it
Thanks a bunch for your help 😄
npnp
here, we've only defined interior points to be any point which contains an open ball contained in the set; i'm not entirely sure how the fact that A is comprised of interior points implies that any sequence in A complement cannot converge to something in A
nvm i got it
What does "conjugate" mean here
im stuck on even starting this problem, "prove that the boundary of the inverse image of B is a subset of the inverse image of the boundary of B for all subsets B of Y if the map f between topological spaces X and Y is continuous"
should of said that i already have that part
i guess
its what to do after that, as in showing it's actually in the second, that's confusing. i know image of the closure of A is a subset of the closure of the image of A since f is continuous but i'm not sure how to use that
just checking open intervals is fine because they form a basis for the standard topology on R (to check that the map is open). but if you just check closed intervals, how does that tell you that, for example, f(C) is closed, where C is the cantor set?
wikipedia it. it is closed but has no intervals
thats not the only special thing tho
Let $p: \tilde{X} \to X$ and $q: \tilde{Y} \to Y$ be covering spaces. Show that $\tilde{X} \times \tilde{Y} \to X \times Y$ is also a covering space. Further, use this result to construct 2022 covering spaces for the 2-torus $T^2$.
eM
The first part was fairly straightforward. However, I'm a little confused on the wording on the second part.
My guess is write down a covering map such that the preimage of an open neighborhood of a point produces 2022 open sets
Hmm. Is it constructing a 2022-fold covering map?
What does the problem say, exactly
Exactly that
then it wants 2022 covering spaces that are different
Okay
so
Regarding $S^1$ as in the complex plane, $p: S^1 \to S^1$ given by $z \mapsto z^{2022}$ and $q: S^1 \to S^1$ given by $w \mapsto w^{2 \times 2022}$ are both covering spaces for $S^1$, respectively, we have $(p \times q): S^1 \times S^1 \to S^1 \times S^1$ given by $(p \times q)(z,w) = (z^{2022}, w^{2 \times 2022}$ is a covering space for $S^1 \times S^1$, and therefore $T^2$.
eM
that is 1/2022
Im watxhing this lecture series by Ravi Vakhil and he is saying something weird
If you take the set of all genus n riemann surfaces
they make a manifold
Then taking powers would just do it then
And make sure I count to 2022 correctly
Hopefully
"-10 for overshooting"
any grader who does that deserves a firing squad
nvm he said it doesnt exist
thats like
fully not a joke lol
if you remove a single point for overcounting you should lose your job
Oh he was talking about moduli spaces
Suppose I have a paracompact topological space X
U is open in X×[0,infty) and U contains X×{0}
how do I show that there exists a map f : X to (0,infty) such that y ≤ f(x) implies (x,y) in U
One idea would be to define $F:X\Rightarrow [0, \infty)$ by $F(x) = {r\geq 0 : {x}\times [0, r]\subseteq U}$ and try to use Michael selection theorem, the problem is though that this doesn't give us a function into $(0, \infty)$ (indeed, clearly if we just wanted a function to $[0, \infty)$ we'd just take $f \equiv 0$).
Blitz
I have another idea though. What if you take $$g(x) = \sup {1\geq r > 0 : {x}\times [0, r]\subseteq U}$$ and try to prove that it's lower-semicontinuous. Then I think you can prove there is a continuous $f$ with $0< f< g$.
I think this still holds in the general setting of paracompactness
Blitz
@gritty widget I could try to attempt the proof if you're interested
Yeah i have tried this
hmmm
Yeah sure
Oh wait
I think you can just partition of unity this mf
actually I'm not sure, is your space assumed Hausdorff?
Yup
that's important
my definition needs paracompact to be hausdorff
Yeah
gg
so clearly
pi_X(U) gives a open covering
What you want to do is take partition of unity subordinated to $U_q = {x\in X : 0 < q < g(x)}$
Blitz
for rational number q
yeah
and then damp that
with 1/2^k(n) factor
so that y ≤ f(x) implies (x,y) in U
With appropriate k(n) for each n
you then sum them all (multiplying by the q-th function by q)
and this is your function, more or less
yeah that works too
you still would have to prove g is lower semi-continuous
hm the construction i have in mind does not require to do any of that
wew
Let $X$ be paracompact Hausdorff and $f, g:X\to\mathbb{R}$ be such that $g < f$, $f$ is lower-semicontinuous, $g$ is upper-semicontinuous.
For $q\in\mathbb{Q}$ set $$U_q = {x\in X : g(x)<q }\cap {x\in X: f(x)>q}$$ which is open. Let $\mathcal{U} = {U_q : q\in\mathbb{Q}}$. There is $E\subseteq \mathbb{Q}$ such that $q\mapsto U_q$ is a bijection from $E$ to $\mathcal{U}$. Let $\varphi_q$, $q\in E$ be partition of unity correspodning to the open cover $\mathcal{U}$ and set $\varphi = \sum_{q\in E} q\varphi_q$. Then $\varphi$ is continuous with $g<\varphi<f$.
Blitz
👍
Can't we omit semi continuity
lemme see
semi-continuity is so that $U_q$ is open
Blitz
I'm sorry, but you'll have to put additional work in this somehow if you want to prove it
there's no running away from it
i think the following might work as well:
since $[0,\infty)$ is paracompact and locally compact, $X \times [0,\infty)$ is paracompact and in particular normal.
We can use Urysohn to get a function $g : X \times [0,\infty) \to [0,1]$ so that $g^{-1}(0) = X \times 0$ and $g^{-1}(1) = (X \times [0,\infty)) \setminus U$ since these are disjoint closed subsets. Note that if $g(x,y) < 1$, then $(x,y) \in U$.
Phil
i thought of then defining $f : X \to (0,\infty)$ as something like $f(x) = min(1, \inf {y \in [0,\infty) | g(x,y) > 1/2})$,
Phil
since U is open and contains X x 0 i feel like this infimum should always be positive, and that f is continuous, but my brain isnt really working rn so could be wrong 
anyway then y <= f(x) would mean in particular that g(x,y) <= 1/2 < 1 hence (x,y) in U
it would certainly involve continuity of g
but im not so sure either xd
imagine manually checking that things are continuous 
its been too long

Also I'm pretty sure U_q not being disjoint will mess this up

9k
Ok
Gg boys @lunar yoke @gritty widget
Heres my proof
This was my idea
Which I'll continue
Gimme a sec
So given $r\in X$ , there exists $h(r)>0$ and a neighborhood $U(r)$ of r such that
$$U(r)\times [0,h(r)]\subset U$$
Consider partition of unity subordinate to ${U(r)}$ , $f_r$
\
Define $f(x)=\sum_{r\in X}h(r)f_r(x)~(\forall x\in X)$ this is continuous because for any neighborhood of $x$ in $X$ only finitely many $f_r$ are positive in this neighborhood now take a convergent net in this neighborhood.
CityHunter
and for the last part
if y ≤ f(x)
only finitely many f_r(x) are non zero
take that r for which h(r) is maximum
say r'
y ≤ h(r')
but f_r'(x) > 0
Hence (x,y) lies in U(r')×[0,h(r')] subset U
no
Ok
I see how
now
Bcuz thats what i literally used here
But yeah
We can run from semicontinuity

when taking your partition of unity, you're using paracompactness of which space?
My space is hausdorff and paracompact , X
U(r) is open cover of X..
okay, I see
omw to homotopy theory

My algtop course is going through H. Miller's notes on the subject (http://math.mit.edu/~hrm/papers/lectures-905-906.pdf), which defines the n^th cohomology boundary map like this, with a sign change if n is even:
Yet hatcher just defines it like this
Without that sign change
Are those actually different maps? Or am I not seeing it correctly?
is the dsigma defn identical
the sign change in millers notes is indeed mysterious to me
Miller defines the homology differential as:
where d_i is the defined like so
And d^i is
So I think it's the same?
Miller has a habit of defining things in stages where the pieces are scattered all over the notes, and I'm really not a fan lol
its possible these are the same up to chain homotopy but I am not able to think about it right now
Later Miller does the following calculation
I'm pretty sure that's not what d sigma is, no? It should be sigma(e1) - sigma(e0)
Maybe yeah
That is rather inconsequential for that remark I think
Its possible miller was not super careful about this
If I have a space X and all it's isolated points are given by I, shouldn't X\I not have any isolated points?
Oh I see, so each of the 1/n is isolated but 0 is not, once you remove each 1/n you get just 0, which is isolated.
Is there a simple example of a space with height of at least \omega_0?
Ohhh ok that makes sense.
Thanks 
I will watch after class 
instead of typing up computability homework 
Can someone give a concrete example of filter convergence? I get the concept, but I'd like to see it in action.
Take $\mathcal{F}(x) = {F\subseteq X : x\in F}$, then $\mathcal{F}(x)\to x$
Blitz
@jolly garden here you go, trivial but an example
you can think of filters, well, more precisely about ultrafilters, as limits of sorts
and this will give you Stone-Cech compactification
Yep, I see. Easy example, thank you. @gritty widget
The name "filter" suits the concept well. It's like a continually tightening set system and thus predestined to describe convergence.
why is this?
Honestly not totally sure but Id guess they mean something like CW approximation and then thinking about attaching maps as maps S^n -> S^m
But that seems like a bit of a stretch

Homotopy groups preserve homotopy colimits and the spheres generate the homotopy category
So once you have a recipe for X in terms of sphere colimits you can in principle just compute from pi_*S^n
@fading vale should see this 2
Oh that makes sense
Well not the generating part but the homotopy colimits bit
Does spheres generate the homotopy colimit mean every CW complex can be written as the homotopy colimit of spheres
Every homotopy type is a homotopy colimit of spheres
Up to homotopy
I mean also just on the nose
They are iterated pushouts
Bc everything is cofibrant in cw land this is the same as homotopy pushout

I see
I should learn about these constructions
Ive only really seen the homotopy pushout
Like the attaching map construction
Is just an obvious pushout diagram
“Obvious”
the n skeleton is the pushout parameter used by gluing disks along spheres
From the n-1 sell
Skel

I have no idea what's going on here
Max where should i learn like
but i'm curious
This kind of homotopy theory
Lurie
Almost yeah lol
If you wanna do model cats you can do like blue book stuff
Htt and ha
I am drives one sec
Yeah the literature around here is hard
i just wanna learn what a homotopy colimit is exactly
A colimit in an infinity category





