#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 242 of 1
just like b4
So we just need to take two dense sets and show that their intersection is nonempty
in normal space
we need to show that the countable intersection of a bunch of dense open sets is nonempty
yea but that involves just showing two in the collection are nonempty
wait a second
low iq
gonna go eat
maybe we can just map to a metric space and just use the proof in the book lol
this is a truly dope theorem and it is the foundation of like, so much of logic lmao
locally compact hausdorff spaces are also pretty good for the same reasons
reading Folland's real analysis book was pretty awesome, learned a lot of point set topology there
oops just needed to create a nested sequence of closed sets
Wait baire category is relevant in logic 
obviously when we speak about "category" without qualifiers we are talking about Lusternk-Schnirelmann category smh
hold up
Where did you come to that conclusion
well notice that if you have a sequence of nested closed sets U_i then their intersection can't be empty
i think you're misunderstanding something celina
I am.
the most basic kinds of forcing arguments in set theory and computability can be seen as baire category arguments, i'm not exactly sure how far i can push the analogy but like, a basic fact about Turing machines and other basic models of computation is that they perform a finite number of tasks in a finite amount of time. so if you write down the characteristic function of some set A\subset N on a Turing machine's oracle and ask it to carry out some computation, possibly querying the oracle to determine membership in A when it's needed, then at most it'll only ask finitely many questions of the oracle before terminating (if it does indeed terminate.) The fact that the computation only depends on finite information about this infinite set can be seen as saying that it depends in a continuous way on the infinite set, in the same way that giving finitely many decimals of an irrational real is like giving an open neighborhood that contains that real, and so continuous functions f : R -> R have the property that to compute the output out to finitely many decimal places you only need the input to finitely many decimal places.
Is the exercise to show that a countable intersection of open dense sets in a compact hausdorff space is nonempty?
you can formalize this by topologizing P(N) by identifying sets with their characteristic functions in {0,1}^N, and then giving this set the product topology (where { 0,1} has the discrete topology)
thanks for this, i'll try to read through it
then this space is compact hausdorff (by Tychonoff, since {0,1} is obviously compact) and so baire category applies
How does this translate to showing intesection of nested closed sets is nonempty.
Is there a dense set A in X such that its set of limit points is not equal to X?
I am confident that the answer is no because A dense in X means Every open set intersects A.
Yeah there is none
Beated it!
Often instead of that A is said to be dense in X if the closure of A is X
since these are equivalent
Yea I was tryna show they were equivalent
Okay so this is the exercise that I'm working with: let X be the quotient space of S² obtained by identifying the north and south poles to a single point. Put a cell complex structure on X and use this to compute the pi_1(X). So I am basically picking two antipodal points and pinching them together. I think that the fundamental group here is Z since if I pick a loop at the pinching point then this loop isn't homotopic to the constant loop etc etc. The presentation is <a, b | a=b^-1> = <a>. So I have a wedge of two circles and I need to attach a 2-cell according to ab because then by a theorem in my book the fundamental group will be <a, b | ab>. But I'm having trouble visualizing this cell complex and I can't see how that is X
Imagine there being a program that lets you play around and build your own cell complexes 
That would be a very complex program 
make one 
One cell structure I can think of is
one 0-cell
one 1-cell
one 2-cell, glued along ||a a'||
Where a is the 1-cell
But explaining why this works would be the genus g surface thing all over again 
But yeah that structure obviously has fundamental group Z
Okay so the 0 cell and 1 cell combined form a circle?
that's always true if you have 1 1 cell and 1 0 cell
The 1 cell
and why did you censor it? 
But in the opposite direction
rubiks cube notation be like
I thought maybe you could try that part on your own 🤡
oh crap, I already saw it 
😵💫
I hereby pronounce you dad of the week lmao
shit now I want to continue with my topology book into fundamental groups instead of functional analysis
can't do both in one day but maybe I could alternate between the two
is there some overlap? i.e will knowing fundamental groups help with func
pretty much no overlap whatsoever
awaiting a sully from ultraproduct

I’m with ryc here
ok, i obviously mean in an introductory course
operator K-theory or whatever the fuck doesn't count 
Second sully has been scored

nothing could be more false
cope
arguing personal tastes goes in #chill or #「ivory-tower-emeritus」 thx
just a bunch of boring universal constructions, slapped on, over and over
They are pushouts
normed spaces. that's all functional analysis is. just a bunch of boring vector and metric space constructions, slapped on, over and over.
I think topology basics are helpful tho.
I felt I could put stuff a little better in context by knowing about separation axioms (keyword kolmogorov quotient) or how to rigorously show stuff with nets and what first countability means
*exciting
Not strictly necessary but makes some things easier to navigate
*exciting
universal constructions are never exciting 
normed spaces are never exciting 
Idk why I’m pretending to be a fundamental group simp everything ryc is saying is correct
you know im going to copypaste what you send and change a few words right
you study functional analysis and see all this stuff, then someone shows you how if you change your language just a little bit suddenly you've already learned a big portion of the theory of quantum mechanics!
isn't that cool?
it's not super exciting in a vacuum
Or realizing that closed subspaces are precisely the ones you can quotient out in the category of normed spaces
Not an amazing fact but that still sorta calms my inner „why is this notion important??“ voice
(except that you get to use choice a lot, which is very exciting)
Rice is an applied mathematician
you study fundamental groups and see all this stuff, then someone shows you how if you change your language just a little bit suddenly you've already learned a big portion of the theory of algebraic topology!
sorry ryc
also, this channel is noisy as hell atm I clearly picked the wrong time to try to contribute lmao
Terra is just better
that literally makes NO SENSE
exactly.
it's ALREADY algebraic topology
ok and
functional analysis isn't already quantum mechanics!!!!!

But I guess pointless verbosity is the only thing geometers are good at.
ducks and runs
we should stop arguing and let lux talk about actual mathematics (read: peace out lmao)
GET IM JADE!
Is anyone but tterra a geometer
tterra btfo
sorry, my motivation is gone and I should do different stuff anyway I guess x)
I dabble in polytopes lmao
no need to apologize
although i was referring to a sully on ryc's message, this works too
Ultra agrees with my message.
HA!
for very advanced topics *in one crank-tier subfield of functional analysis
He's gonna gloat for weeks now 
modern banach space theory is a crank-tier subfield of functional analysis
I remember there being an interesting paper about this
Just the one
wait, is this like
path spaces and calculus of variations or something
do they care about fundamental groups
if so, then that's not crank tier
i'm assuming this is the sort of thing you mean though: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kuiper's_theorem
Hmm now when I think of it, why is the fundamental group of the torus ZxZ and not the free product of Z with itself? The 1-skeleton (wedge sum of two circles) has a Z*Z as fundamental group. If we look at the torus, those two circles should determine the free group of the torus. You can make one loop around one circle and one loop around the other circle etc. so it feels like it should be Z*Z and not ZxZ. So something happens when we attach the "shell" (2-cell, rectangle) to the wedge sum of those circles but I can't see what.
Yeah what happens when you attach the 2-cell is exactly what van kampen tells you
Imagine you have a 0-cell, a 1-cell, and a 2-cell glued along the 1-cell in the simplest way
just going around once
can you picture this space?
Like a blob?
So you first have a circle. Then your 2-cell is a disk so you take your boundary of this disk around that circle
For attaching the 2-cell, I am taking the identity map S^1 → S^1 as the gluing map
where I identify the 1-skeleton with S^1 in the obvious way
Yes so it is like taking a disk and a circle
and identifying the circle with the boundary of the disk
so you just get the disk again
okay so like a double layer of disks?
no just a disk lol
Like just taking a disk and gluing a string along its boundary in a circle
it doesn't introduce anything new into the space
oh okay yeah I'm with you now
So the 1-skeleton here is the circle with group Z
but when you paste the disk going around once, you get the trivial group
because you are able to homotope all the loops on the 1-skeleton using this disk
yeah okay so you just cover up the hole right?
Yep exactly
Now paste this disk on the same skeleton, but the gluing map is the constant map onto the basepoint
Do you see what happens?
So I get like an inflated balloon on 1 point on the circle?
yep, do you see what this does to the fundamental group?
Hint: ||S^2 is simply connected||
Toki this is secretly that same exercise
About maps that extend over disks being nullhomotopic
Yep
Okay good 
Lol try to prove that
But the point is, that when you glue along a loop, p, the disk allows you to homotope that loop to a point
which should be easy to see from Max's favourite theorem
Then van Kampen tells you that this is essentially the only loop that becomes nullhomotopic when you attach the 2-cel
(plus the stuff it generates ofc)
And in the torus, p is exactly aba'b'
So you get commutativity
Oh okay so aba'b' becomes nullhomotopic in the torus but not in the wedge sum of two circles?
Yes
and therefore we have to quotient it out
Yes
Hmm but I don't quite see how aba'b' becomes nullhomotpic in the torus but not in the wedge sum of two circles
Well I kind of see it
Did you see the extremely well drawn images I sent yesterday 
If you understand how to glue the disk for the torus it should be something you can picture
If you want non van kampen intuition
Like a gave a homotopy from ab to ba
yeah I've seen an animation on this on youtube lmao
Okay
Take a torus
Pick a point
Draw a small circle around that point
We agree this is nullhomotopic right
yeah
Puncture the torus
tinky see this I spent 10 mins drawing this for you 
And in your minds eyes
It is a homotopy from ab to ba
Picture where that little loop ends up
As you slowly retract onto the wedge of two circles
The answer is aba’b’
And thats why that loop is nullhomotopic in the torus
I.e. aba’b’ is nullhomotopic because small loops on the surface of the torus are
(wait moldi I will see them in a sec after max has wrote the stuff that he want to write)
There is no analogue of this
In the wedge of two circles
Okay I’m done
this makes it obvious that the purple loop will retract onto aba'b'
is retract the right word here?
I mean to say that as we retract the punctured torus onto the wedge of two circles the purple loop will be brought to the boundary
puncture somewhere in the middle of that purple loop
and then convince yourself that all of my sketchy ignoring basepoints is irrelevant
okay wait wait so a circle is homotopy equivalent to a point?
Okay wait so what's the argument here? I see that the purple circle deformation retracts to the loop aba'b' but then what?
The composition is giving a homotopy from aba'b' to a point
Just homotope the outline of the square to a single point (another way to think of what max is saying)
did you mean "the purple circle is homotopy equivalent to a point"?
because that is true within the torus
aba'b' is exactly the boundary of the square
Wait by homotopy equivalent do you mean homotopic?
yeah lmao

in fact i would just say "that circle is a point up to homotopy"
wait what does contractible mean here?
exactly what it always means
nullhomotopic
homotopic to a point
Okay then I don't agree lmao, I can't see that
huh
just
do you believe any loop in R^2 is nullhomotopic?
because this is the exact same idea
Take the boundary loop on this square. Do you agree that that is nullhomotopic?
that square is filled in
but doesn't this mean that any circle is contractible?
no
Like just the square, don't identifty the stuff yet
When you make it into a torus you get non trivial loops
do you agree that every circle you can draw in R^2 is nullhomotopic in R^2?
you can do this specific loop in either order
yeah homotpic to the constant loop right?
yes
Yeah but easier to imagine on the square than on the torus 
okay now I get it 
and then compose that homotopy with the quotient map
the purple loop is homotopic to aba'b'
and the purple loop is homotopic to a point
by transivitivty...
(you can use the picture I drew with van kampen to compute the fundamental group of the torus exactly)
i.e., the first space is inside the purple loop
the second space is outside the purple loop
yeah I have actually done that lmao
oops
im so confused
okay sorry guys I'm really tired
how could you do that van kampen computation and also still not get what that image was lol
stop doing math when you are really tired lol
yeah idk what I'm doing
Also toki here's what max was saying earlier: you pasted the disk along aba'b'. Then take the map S^1 → torus, mapping the circle to aba'b'. This extends to a map D^2 → torus, map D^2 to the 2-cell you just pasted. Then by that theorem, aba'b' is nullhomotopic 
ezpz
ohh
So when van kampen tells you that the loop you paste along becomes nullhomotopic it's not telling you anything new
fun fact
using cells like this to kill specific elements of homotopy groups
is super important in AT
The new stuff is that it tells you that not much other stuff becomes nullhomotopic
and a fundamental part of many constructions
actually
toki
do you know about group presentations
great
Exercise
Let G be any group
build a CW complex (using the torus as a hint)
such that $\pi_1(X)=G$
MaxJ (Glass Animals Arc)
You may assume G has a presentation with generators g_\alpha and relations R_\alpha
maybe i should use different indicies
(do this exercise when you are less tired
yeah crap, hatcher already proved this
You take the wedge sum of S^2 g times and attach a 2-cell along the relations or something
well
the first part is wrong
and the second part is uselessly vague
so go actually prove it
lol
if you understood that proof
the torus question wouldve been immediate
Hmm okay. I will take a break first tho lmao
sure
And btw thank you guys for the help!
He didn't prove it lol
He just said it as fact 
You take the wedge sum of 2g circles and attach the 2-cell on the path [a1, b1]...[ag,bg]
I though that was what he was referring to lol
Okay I can assume that G has a representation?
oh sorry
representation of G is very different haha
Okay so let $G = \langle g_\alpha ; | ; R_\beta \rangle$. Now begin by having $\vee_\alpha S^1$. This has a fundamental group $F(a_\alpha)$ (free group with $a_\alpha$ as generators). But now we have a problem since the $R_\beta$'s must be nullhomotopic and now they aren't. So we do the exact same thing as we did with the torus, we attach $\beta$ 2-cells to our cell complex along the words $R_\beta$ because that makes them nullhomotopic
Tokidoki ✓
We can prove that the words Rbeta become nullhomotopic using van kampen?
yes
No, but that nothing else becomes nullhomotopic I'd have guessed
Yeah I mean van kampen includes both things
you don't need van kampen to prove R_beta becomes nullhomotopic
The proof that those do become nullhomotopic is easier
you use it to prove that each surgery only kills the normalizer of R_beta
Also don't mind me I'm gonna start asking questions here about this stuff as well soon lol
Good thing I even found a place where I can ask questions about this
Nullhomotopy, more like nullhomodope-y
Glad to see some traffic about this stuff since it's kinda my weak spot
My friends would disagree 
Skorokhod embedding from graphs to manifolds, anyone got a reference?
Is there a pseudo-generalization of https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nash_embedding_theorem that applies to all geometries? I'm curious about the limitations of embedding manifolds in Euclidean space. What is the status of this field? I'm interested in universal representation learning/embeddings for machine learning.
In particular, I want universal angle-preserving embeddings.
Check out Greene's Isometric Embeddings of Riemannian and Pseudo-Riemannian Manifolds. It is too much to hope to get something totally general. For instance, you can't in general get Euclidean embeddings of symplectic surfaces preserving that 2-form data. I think for e.g. Lorentzian manifolds there are some embedding theorems but this is Google Scholar work right here.
thank you for your response. it is worth noting that the only operation i might really be interested in is cosine similarity, so it might be the case that all that needs to be preserved are the angles in a non-strict sense -- i.e. we want to be able to recover the angle information and essentially compute anything desirable via cosine similarity operations on this embedding space, but that does not necessarily mean that the mapping itself has to be strictly angle-perserving a priori
what i had in mind was basically the introductions of many extra dimensions, dummy variables, and data in order to possibly make this feasible
soo have you looked into lifts of polytopes in optimization? sounds roughly like what you're looking for
hmm but not quite, manifold learning and lifting is new territory tbh
Sozin
Okay so I'm on this exercise: the mapping torus T_f of a map f: X -> X is the quotient of X x I obtained by identifying each point (x, 0) with (f(x), 0). In the case X = S¹ v S¹ with f basepoint preserving, compute a presentation for pi_1(T_f) in terms of the induced map f_*: pi_1(X) -> pi_1(X). Do the same when X = S¹xS¹. [One way to do this is to regard T_f as built from X v S¹ by attaching cells.]
So basically I'm taking something that looks like a cylinder and then I fold it like a torus specified by the map f. I guess that the last part in [] is a hint and I assume that I should add 2 cells because then I can just use a theorem in my book. In the case where X = S¹ v S¹ and f(x) = x, I get a "double stacked" donut with a 1-skeleton consisting of the wedge sum of 3 circles. Then I just need to attach a 2-cell by abc a^(-1) b^(-1) c^(-1) I think depending on how you label the generators. That expression will be my relation. But when f is something else other than f(x) = x is where I'm stuck. I don't see what the relations will be then (btw I got it now. There's two relations involved and you use f_*(a^-1) instead of a^-1)
Just for part(c) I thought using the geodesics from part (a), (b) and letting the functions of $\phi=0$\and then rearranging to find $\theta$
Sozin
Think about the fact that he wants you to observe the basepoint preserving map f, and think about how that relates to the fundamental group of S¹ v S¹
(Btw these are just some first thoughts I had I'll try to work something out and get back to you)
But like you're quick with these problems gotta give you that
Already on no. 11 lol
lmao but I skip some of them tho
nooooo nooooo you have to do all of them every single one nooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooo
I wouldn't consider myself to be quick... I was stuck on the same page for like 3 days...
about the gluing stuff on donut thing
I'm currently thinking about no. 3 in the section before this one (since I didn't do most of those)
Maybe a walk will spark an idea
At first I thought that no. 2 would help
But I was mistaken
no. 2 is an easy and fun one tho
1,1
no lmao 
For a path-connected space X, show that π1(X) is abelian iff all basepoint-change
homomorphisms βh depend only on the endpoints of the path h.
ah yeah that one. I did it with another person before
- was easy
Now this is the real challenge
I can't really give a hint I think. It's more like manipulating things until you get what you want I guess, just like 2
I did that at least
Hm well I did 2. by ||Showing that if I take any two h's that are homotopic to one another I'll get the same βh from them thus showing that it only depends on the homotopy equivalence||
At least I hope that that's a valid proof
yeah that sounds right but I could be wrong lmao
research 
The mathematician's life
like research research? 
Im reading a paper that I am trying to generalize and prove an interesting result about
so yes
research research
anyway

Something
topology related?
that's really cool
what problem are you working on
For a path-connected space X, show that π1(X) is abelian iff all basepoint-change
homomorphisms βh depend only on the endpoints of the path h.
oh i figured this out the other day for toki didnt i
That thing above in spoilers is for another earlier problem
Show that the change-of-basepoint homomorphism βh depends only on the homo-
topy class of h.
nice!
i think this exercise mostly requires like a few clever ideas
so i dont want to give hints
I have come up with an idea
I will introduce new paths at the end points and show that if I move the endpoints along these new paths βh will change
Like we have the path h
im not even sure what you are proving
I don't think you need to use any sort of theorem or lemma or whatever for this one
But maybe you could idk
Yeah probably not
I'm just showing what h is
oops sorry lmao
That’s how I solved it
Unironically I was on a walk
This is one of those problems where like
There are only so many things you can try
Bc the result is so general
I will update if I come up with something on my walk
I AM ||yet to get|| a breakthrough

Although I have come up with some ideas
such as the fact that the "iff" says that I have to first prove that if it's abelian it only depends on the endpoints (although I feel like this is already by definition) and that if it only depends on the endpoints it has to be abelian
now about both I'm unsure about how to do right now
Since no one tries to help you, I’ll try
Yes, I can
Yes you would like to?
I’d like to see your works, has any problem
That’s alright
Can somebody explain to me the significance of the Riemann mapping theorem?
Solving qual problems
😎
OK I will try to do this problem again tomorrow
||Not that I've given it much though since my walk lol||
given geometric objects you can classify them with different levels of roughness, from very fine grained equivalence relations to more coarse ones. so biholomorphism is a very strong equivalence relation. arguably the "classification problem" is one of the central problems of any branch of geometry - classification of surfaces, classification of varieties up to birational equivalence. two biholomorphic domains or riemann surfaces or whatever are essentially the same from the perspective of complex analysis, because functions or differential forms or whatever can be transported along the biholomorphism. then, below that you'd have the weaker notion of diffeomorphism, and weaker still of homeomorphism, and lastly of homotopy equivalence, which is a very coarse relation.
so from the perspective of complex analysis if you want to classify things up to biholomorphism you should start by classifying them up to homotopy. of course if you have two domains with distinct fundamental group, they cannot be homotopy equivalent, and thus not homeomorphic. this is like, one of the weakest algebraic invariants in the book, second only to just counting the number of connected components.
so ok, let's restrict our attention to domains in C which are connected and have trivial fundamental group and try and classify those. intuitively you'd try and figure out which are homeomorphic, which then which are diffeomorphic, and then last which ones are biholomorphic, and you'd have finer and finer partitions each time you asked the equivalence relation to respect more structure
what's absolutely shocking is that this approach turns out to be unnecessary. it turns out there are two, and only two, simply connected domains which are open subsets of the complex plane, up to biholomorphism: C and the unit disk. Moreover, the equivalence class of C only contains C itself, and the equivalence class of the unit disk contains all other simply connected open subsets of C.
Thank you for the really helpful response. I see that the Riemann mapping theorem is about classification of open and connected subsets. This is very neat thank you so much.
There is a side of me which is a tad confused about why this is relevant to a complex analysis course. I understand biholomorphism is a within the realm of complex analysis theory yet this feels like a purely topological/geometric result.
there are aspect of complex analysis that are more 'analytic', like Montel's theorem, and there are aspects of it which are fundamentally geometric. lots of stuff under the general theory of conformal mappings falls into that latter category
@marsh forge I have a question
How do you check if your proof is rigorous enough
I've been doing some other problems from Hatcher but I'm never really sure if my proof is rigorous enough
So how might you deal with this lingering feeling that it isn't complete
Uh
You eventually get a feel for when you are right
One thing you can do
Is like
Read your solution
And ask
“If pressed could I justify this”
And if you don’t know how to answer it
Maybe expand a little
Hm interesting idea
I'll try that
Thanks for the advice
very impressive
Are they all in Inter-Universal Teichmuller theory
So that only you and Mochizuki know they're correct

I've noticed a bit of that. I appreciate your help explaining this.
this depends entirely on the audience
some proofs fly with some audiences and are considered mere sketches by others
the vast majority of mathematical proofs are not fully rigorous but are still fine for most purposes
thm: $A \vDash A$
prf: $A \qed$
Namington
Think of how you'd explain your solution to a class of students (who ask questions)
Shouldn't the proof also be A ⊨ A 
me, a physics student, realising how bad that would be as a criterion for whether smth is rigorous
It's not supposed to be a criterion lol
yeah sorry lol
But it allows you to find mistakes often
i keep watching lectures on handle decompositions and i'm still not sure what's going on
Indeed
is there anyone who'd be willing to go over stuff with me?
Like even if you can't imagine what the counter questions would be like, just putting an explanation into words does a lot
smh i got confused with handlebodies
anybody up for reading spivak part-I in vc
okay so I'm on this exercise and I just can't understand how the fundamental group involves no quotients at all. Isn't this space homotopy equivalent to an orientable surface of infinite genus? Because then the fundamental group will be <a_1, b_1... | [a_1, b_1] ... > but this group involves quotients. But idk, infinity is weird lmao
Does that stuff only work for compact surfaces?
Idk, just asking
The orientable surface of genus g stuff
Hmm idk tbh. All I know is that it works for orientable surfaces of genus g lmao
the quotient of the free group on A by an equivalence relation that is generated by identifying elements in A will still be free
like
if you take the free group on { g1, g2,g3} and quotient out by g1g2 = e
this is still free
wait so <a_1, b_1... | [a_1, b_1] ... > becomes free?
where [a_1, b_1] ... denotes the product of the commutators
I didn't claim that. i was just saying that under certain cases a quotient of a free group will still be free.
but let me think about this case
But here you're quotienting over the commutators so you're just doing the abelianization of X right?
So you just have to show that the abelianization is free
I imagine this won’t work because you do the genus g surface by looking at it as a quitiont of some polygon
You cannot do that here as the surface you have isn’t compact
Hmm yeah that might be the case
But the 1-skeleton is still made out of the wedge sum of infinitely many circles and then I just apply 2-cells to get my surface right? Because then the theorem still applies
Let me think about the difference
Yes and applying the 2-cell makes the path by which you applied it nullhomotopic i.e. you quotient it out. So you're left with the abelianization of the group of the wedge sum\
It's the same thing that happens to the torus. The group of $S^1\vee S^1$ is $\bZ*\bZ$, but when you apply the 2-cell onto it it abelianizes and you end up with $\bZ \times \bZ$
Irony Incarnate
But that ain’t free
Yeah exactly but when you quotient it out it doesn’t mean that it is free
Something something infinity
But I dunno
I'll have to think about it more
This sentence doesn't make sense 
Groups don't have infinitary multiplication
oh okay so I can't use this then?
Nope
ah okay I see. So it's like finite intersection thing with open sets?
Or rather, the gluing of the 2-cell(s) is not done like that here
Try to figure out the cell structure first
wait why the cell structure tho? I won't be able to use the theorem anyway right?
Van Kampen theorem is still true tho
You can't use the one for finite genus orientable surfaces
lmao if pi_1(X) = pi_1(X) * pi_1(X) then what is pi_1(X)? Does it need to be trivial or can it be a free group with infinetly many generators?
can be the latter
lmao but this is probably so wrong
Like you pick your A and B so that the intersection is just a cone and doesn't contain any holes, so it is contractible. The A and B have the same fundamental group as the big space X. So then pi_1(X) = pi_1(X) * pi_1(X) and pi_1(X) can't be trivial
yes slime
this is what I mean, just for clarification

I don't know 
hmm idk. Isn't it a filled-in cylinder?
no
frick
ah yeah frick I forgot
how the heck am I supposed to use van Kampen then?
am I even supposed to use it?
Van kampen can be applied when the intersection is nontrivial
It just takes more work
yeah but my approach here was to find a intersection that is trivial because then I will not have to quotient out by anything and so I will get a free group
but maybe this just doesn't work
Perhaps the first thing is to prove what the generators are
And you might want to do it for something that’s only one sided infinite first
And use what you learn to do the two sided infinite
hm i did some digging and outside of my sketchy solution everything seems pretty involved
It’s a very strange problem. I guess it emphasizes why a lot of our tools work best for compact spaces…
It's a bit annoying because Hatcher does not specify how to construct this space. It's obvious what it should be, but if Hatcher gave the CW structure explicitly it would not be as bad
Actually, I guess this doesn't have a CW structure
The best proof I can find requires some nontrivial lemma || https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1082073/fundamental-group-of-surface-with-infinite-genus-is-free-on-infinite-generators ||
@pearl holly my suggestions would be that you should explain a few facts that amount to my sketchy proof, and then read the above. This is a cute exercise but not essential.\
- Explain why the generators for the fundamental group come from the "1-skeleton" of this space
- Explain why no finite word on these generators is contractible
That basically proves the fact, but the explanations might be a bit sketchy
Okay great thank you! 
I guess an alternative would be to prove that A and B are both free on infinitely many generators and apply van kampen
this might be doable
Actually yeah I think my idea combined with this second idea is a real proof
That was around what I was thinking
This lemma is a cool thing to keep in my back pocket though
that lemma is cool
You can really read it as like
pi_1 preserves very very nice directed colimits
the lemma that starts with "if a space X is the union of a directed set of ..."?
yes
I don’t even understand that 
Fast topology question, if we have Topological space X, and lets say it isnt connected. Are connected components unique? I mean if we try to write X as union of connected components is this representation unique?
thats enough 😄 Thanks 😄
If H is open subgroup of topological group does H neccesseraly contains identity component of G?
What do you mean by component? Connected component?
It contains the identity element
It doesn't necessarily contain the connected component containing identity
oof true
Okay open subgroups are closed I get that. Now if $H$ is that open subgroup and $G_0$ identity component. Than $H\cap G_0$ is open. How ?
MotionMath
hmm okay but what about my problem from up there. How is $G_0\subset H$? Is it true that $G_0\cap H$ has to be either empty either whole $G_0$? and why?
MotionMath
My problem is to prove that $G_0$ is contained in open subgroup $H$ of $G$.
MotionMath
I dont know how to do it except it has something to do with the fact that $H$ is also closed. Obviously both $G_0$ and $H$ containts identity so intersection is not empty. But I dont know how to prove that $G_0\subset H$
MotionMath
Identity component, so it is biggest connected set containing identity
anyone ?
Why is it open
hahaha
ohhhh
Thanks
that solves my problem xD
Thanks a lot I forgot to look at it like that completly xDDDD
ok time to assblast some setup for this question:
kyhoji, ho!
I hate you

$\begin{tikzcd}
X \times_S S' \ar[rr, "\text{etale}"] \ar[dd, bend right] & & S' \ar[dd, "\varphi"] \
X_i \ar[u, "i"] \ar[rru, \text{etale}" \
X \ar[rr, "\text{etale}"] & & S
\end{tikzcd}$
HereX_i is a connected component of X x_S S'
Texit pls

So much pain
kyhoji, ho!
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Fuck offfff
Anyway basically what im trying to ask is that if i have a finite etale cover X -> S i can base change to another finite etale cover X x_S S' -> S'
and these correspond to subgroups U and U_S' of pi_1(S) and pi_1(S') (imagine i picked ab asepoint lol)
but i also have a finite etale cover X_i -> S' given by restricting to a connected component of the base change
corresponding to some subgroup U_i of pi_1(S')
whats the relationship between U_S' and all the U_i?
Like can we express it with internal direct sum or something?
is it more complicated? is there an easy way to describe this at all?
Maybe this belongs in #math-discussion 
@cedar pebble anyway when you see this itd be neat if you had a reference/answer 
Lmfao did you just give up on the diagram
Yea so internal direct sum isn’t the right word for it but it’s like
In the category of finite etale covers you’re doing a coproduct decomposition (and a finite etale cover is connected iff it’s coproduct irreducible)
nGroupoid: "no i wont explain"
also nGroupoid:

When you take your finite index subgroup U of etale pi_1 the way you’re getting the action is taking the regular representation and then projecting to the quotient

Regular meaning, if you have a group G there is a natural action of G on itself right?
Yea i follow
So if you have some decomposition of this projection of the regular representation, can we conclude anything about the subgroups that defined this?
No need
I mean okay you can use the fact that these quotients are finite
But you can try to think about this for like
A finite group G
You have U in G yielding G->Aut(G/U) and U_1,…,U_n yielding the same kinds of representations
Say the first one is the coproduct of all these smaller ones
Right
Try to translate this into something a little more explicit about these subgroups. I think this just amounts to writing out what it means for a finite permutation rep to be a coproduct and so on

(It’s also kinda fine to just say oh U and these subgroups are related in this way iff the corresponding regular reps decompose like this, that’s a very rep theoretic way to think about it)
Yeah i dunno any rep theory at all
Im trying to think about this because of like
the characterization of when a subgroup contains the kernel of the induced morphism on etale pi_1
Is there like a source on this i could read 
Or something idk i just know literally zero rep theory
You don’t need rep theory. I just mean like, write out what the coproduct of finite permutation representations is
(Hint: disjoint union of sets, with the induced action)
I think stacks 57.3 has some of this spelled out
does coproduct of reps mean like of the underlying sets
such that the actions are compatible or whatever
so i have that pi_1(S')/U = pi_1(S')/U_1 cup .... cup pi_1(S')/U_n
Yup as disjoint unions
I see
Then you take the induced action
So I think we said we want each of the U_i’s to correspond to connected covers
yeah
What can we say about the action on each of these quotients?
Uh it stabilizes the basepoint? or something
U corresponds to a connected cover iff the action on pi_1/U is transitive
So what you’re doing in general is decomposing the representation into transitive representations

Right that makes sense
Makes sense? This feels like a satisfactory characterization to me since this is a group theoretic statement

Uh well i was hoping there was a relationship between U and the U_i
like a more direct one
cause see the condition for X' -> S' corresponding to U' subset pi_1(S') containing the kernel is that theres an X -> S and connected component X_i (corresponding to U_i subset pi_1(S')) of X x_S S' -> S'
with a map X_i -> X' corresponding to an inclusion U_i in U'
Sure you can start by saying that all the U_i’s are in U
But I am trying to find a way to think about why its an inclusion specifically of a connected component
and like get some intuition
Right
Yea so I think to actually write down the condition that relates these as subgroups you kinda have to write down this thing involving the regular rep anyways
Right like you really do have to do these things directly, you can’t work directly with U as a subgroup
Since it is typically some crazy subgroup of some crazy profinite group, you can’t really write down elements to see things directly
So you have to work with the finite quotients, and then the condition amounts to this orbit decomposition of the regular rep


so we have a map pi_1(S')/U_i -> pi_1(S')/U'
Oh
is a choice of component sort of like a choice of base point
in S'
Is the direction wrong? Taking quotients should reverse the direction
And yes the choice of a connected component amounts to decomposing the finite set into a bunch of group orbits
And picking (a point in) one of the orbits
If the action is transitive you only have one orbit
Yea I think Szamuely has this inclusion wrong lol
Isnt this entire proof irrecoverable then lmfao
or maybe the map X_i -> X' is supposed to be a quotient not an inclusion
Maybe ur supposed to assume surjectivity
of X_i -> X'
That doesn’t sound right

God this is so dumb I’m pretty sure that proof is ruined
Just read the section in stacks lmfao
Hate this book
Yea this section is like
what section is it
Honestly trash
in stacks i mean
57.3 on Galois categories in stacks
I see
:malevolence:
I think like 57.3 through 57.15 is a good replacement
is the claim of the proposition itself wrong
than X_i -> X' implies it contains the kernel
does it work if u specify surjectivity
Idk read the stacks sections and compare, they prove basically all the same things and those proofs are fine


Honestly just like don’t read this section in Szamuely it’s so bad
Return for the survey of advanced results though
i already read this i was just reviewing
OH
Ooh okay yea I see what’s going on
Okay yea the proof is fine now I think it’s just really poorly communicated what is being assumed about this map
Hmm
@cedar pebble as a followup question: if i identify X with pi_1(S)/U does U correspond to automorphisms of the fiber functor that are trivial on X or something like that?
when constructing a CW complex inductively, at each step the topology on the space is the quotient topology of the disjoint union topology of the space with the unit disks right?
Yes
hey fam
i'm a couple beers deep
just read about the steenrod squares today.
think i'm starting to understand what's going on there
they stated the axioms first and then gave a construction but this book dodges uniqueness
it just proves existence
but they will revisit them later to give invariants associated to manifold embeddings so i'm looking forward to seeing tat
i understand they also have something to do with Stiefel-Whitney classes?
Any recommendations on introductory readings about etale spaces and sheaves?
the book Sheaves in Geometry and Logic starts with a chapter on category theory and a chapter on sheaf theory. Lectures on Riemann surfaces by Otto Forster has a good introduction to sheaves with an immediate application to dealing with multi-valued functions in complex analysis, such as the integral of the natural logarithm. The book "Topologie Algebrique et Theorie des Faisceaux" by Godement introduces sheaves, etale spaces and sheaf cohomology. (Also a good introduction to spectral sequences, I might add.)
Ah thanks that Mac Lane book looks quite good!
are you looking for something with a more general categorical perspective or something more rooted in the algebraic geometry
i haven't read the bredon book. it looks interesting tho i'm curious about cech homology and iirc bredon addresses it there. i think he also talks about borel-moore homology?
btw mac lane's book doesn't address cohomology at all, which is the reason sheaves were invented, and also later the reason topos theory was invented. kind of a glaring omission imo but yeah it's a good place to just learn the technical basis of sheaves and etale spaces
at least better than hartshorne
is etale space here supposed to mean like finite etale cover over a scheme or the general definition of local homeomorphism in the slice category or whatever
probably the latter, as sheaves correspond to those
Yeah thats what it sounds like
just wanted to make sure though
Um I just want to check here
Borsuk-Ulam still holds for the torus
👀
At least my proof says it does
I'm unsure however about the correctness of my proof so I thought I'd check if I got the correct result
It does not
Then I think I know why
It was the step I was unsure about
So good to know that my assumption was wrong
To be fair im not 100% clear on what you mean by borsuk ulam for the torus
are you asking if maps from T^2 -> R^2 has to map 2 antipodal points to the same point in R^2?
That any mapping $S^1\times S^1 \to \bR^2$ has to have some two points such that $f(x,y)=f(-x,-y)$
Irony Incarnate
Ohhhhhh
damn
I was constantly thinking about the wrong thing
damn it
I was visualizing that $f(x,y)=f(x,-y)$ for some reason
Irony Incarnate
I got about 60% of those words but still very intriguing
Categorical perspective. I don't know much algebraic geometry. I came across them in the idea of geometric morphisms and wanted to understand the basics.
„Every map f: S¹→S² is homotopic to a map g that misses the north pole N“. How would we prove such a thing, given that terrible things like space filling curves exist?
I mean if the preimage were only finite then I would've guessed try to restrict to a nbhd of said preimages and move them away from N one by one
but we only know f⁻¹(N) is closed
Or can we guarantee that a point other than the north pole exists that has only finite preimage?
that's kind of what I want to prove 😉
or at least I want to know how Borcherds' remark along this way rigorously works
Hm, not sure, never looked at the van kampen proof that closely
I guess we could use celllular approximation, but I never looked at that proof either
sec, gotta find that video. Watched it a few months ago and suddenly the question popped back into my head
Ah, nevermind, he seems to adress it in the video
https://youtu.be/WL9BFRyWMUI?list=PL8yHsr3EFj52yxQGxQoxwOtjIEtxE2BWx&t=887 for anyone interested
This lecture is part of an online course on algebraic topology.
We define the fundamental group, calculate it for some easy examples (vector spaces and spheres), and give a couple of applications (R^2 is not homeomorphic to R^3, the Brouwer fixedpoint theorem).
For the other lectures in the course see https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PL8y...
Okay, his argument is a bit weird and I am irritated
He says to cover S² with four disks, and consider f to be [0,1]→S¹.
Now, „because [0,1] is contractible“, he claims there is a finite decomposition 0<a₁<…<a_n<1 such that theh image [a_i, a_i+1] is contained in a disk respectively
I am not sure what contractibility has to do with that at all
This sounds a bit like taking the preimage of each disk and using compactness
more precisely, we can construct an open cover by considering the preimage f⁻¹(D_i) of each disk which is a union of all open intervals (a,b) contained in said preimage
Then these intervals form a cover of [0,1] and each have the property that their image is bounded in a disk.
Then there must exist a finite subcover of such intervals, which we can refine to a closed cover of the form [0,a₁], [a₁,a₂], …, [a_n,1] (note that refinement does not change the property of being confined to one of the disks in the image)
So that should work, I can go to sleep now.
(the rest of the argument he gives is that f restricted to [a_i, a_i+1] is homotopic to the geodesic path from f(a_i) to f(a_i+1), which of course works fine)
craft
hmm, equivalently I'm really asking why definitions 1 and 3 are equivalent on this wikipedia page: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fundamental_vector_field#Definition
In the study of mathematics and especially differential geometry, fundamental vector fields are an instrument that describes the infinitesimal behaviour of a smooth Lie group action on a smooth manifold. Such vector fields find important applications in the study of Lie theory, symplectic geometry, and the study of Hamiltonian group actions.
Hehe.
Absolutely, he meant compactness. This was pointed out in the comments on the video also. Also, I think fewer than 4 disks (like 2) may also be used and the argument can still go through.
Why did he last upload two months ago

Why is it not ”weird” that pi^et_1 of a point is not necessarily trivial? Except when we look at algebraically closed fields? Why doesn’t this ”contradict” the relation to pi_1 in topology?
I've been told that I only need to study point-set for like 30 minutes to an hour before studying algebraic topology; is that advisable, given that most schools will offer point-set courses as prerequisites for algebraic topology?
I’d say more than 30 minutes to an hour, but the general sentiment is correct
Also for algebraic you do need abstract algebra
and I dunno if that generally comes before or after point-set
Yeah, I have that.
Strong claim

You don't know the pain of reading Hatcher before learning AA 
homological algebra isn't algebra apparently
(I’m memeing but also not entirely joking)
Then just like read the first part of Munkres
That'll get you up to (very detailed) speed
You can just like
and you can learn how to do it without learning a bunch of algebra
Learn the algebra you need as you’re doing AT
In my experience as long as you have basics “I know what a group and group homomorphisms are”
Well I mean you still need to understand how groups work and stuff like that
I assume that most AT textbooks assume you understand what a homomorphism is
How much algebra do you need? I know up to galois theory, but I don't know much commutative algebra and I don't know any homological algebra.
Yeah that's more than enough
I should actually read up on Galois theory tbh
Never got around to that
Monarch I know up to galois too and I’m getting through AT so you should be fine, but I’m still a noob so I shouldn’t be answering lmao
Knowing galois correspondence before galois covering space correspondence is bad and not good for the soul 😌
I only know galois correspondence.
of course
you need to learn like
2 hours of group theory
and you need to know some linear algebra
i suppose so
i think if you know like
axler linear algebra
you can learn the group theory / module theory you need for an intro alg top course super quickly
but if it's your first time doing algebra then it's a totally different ball game i agree
Well I mean I had no real contact with abstract algebra so I spent a bit more time learning everything about groups, rings, fields bla bla
when I was first learning groups, the only way I knew how to "understand" a group was by drawing its cayley graph and staring at it, which didnt really help that much
for ages people would parrot "understand a group by its actions" and that meant nothing to me
just a random memory
Learning about them through cayley graphs is pretty specific ngl
fun fact
the first time i truly understood cayley graphs
was the first time i took mushrooms in 2nd year
Math on shrooms
That feels like a life changing experience
You finally get how to do that one Hatcher problem
the infinite one? I do think i know how to do it
ight time to get some mushoorms and grind all the exercises 
Just any one that has been bugging you for a while
i am long past thinking about hatcher problems hahaha
why do authors before the existence of spectra insist on using machinery not available to spectra
also
someone needs to write a second course in alg top book
(me)
and introduce spectra and model categories properly
or maybe by that time Lurie and his acolytes will have fully cleansed this earth of the concept of a 1-category
What module theory would you need besides knowing what the free Z module is?
I've never actually needed any real module theory for the alg top I've studied.
But I'm guessing it's useful for homological algebra stuff?
maybe not
ok ye makes sense
ok the bespoke answer is that they should be learned simultaneously in the setting of riemann surfaces
Or x1
BZ is a connected space with the property that its fundamental group is isomorphic to Z and all higher homotopy groups are trivial. But S^1 is such a space too, so they are equivalent
It might help for you to clarify the question as to what part of the claim confuses your
in figure 13.1, isn't (1) not satisfied?
all of the points outside of the two circles are not in any basis elemetns
same with 13.2
the basis consists of all such sets, not just the ones in each figure
wym by that
yeah lol
thanks
it's just showing you what (2) in the definition of a basis means
using this particular basis
yea
in 13.2 for the rectangles
can't the intersection of two rectangles be a line segment
and the line segment can't contain a basis element
wait it says interior nvm

also whenever munkres is checking the union case for a topological space he says "let us take an indexed family"
but "indexed family" sounds like it has to be a countable union
when it can be uncountable too?
indeed it can
An indexed family just means a family of the form ${U_a: a \in A}$ where each set is indexed by some element of A. But A can be finite, countable or uncountable so that will determine the size of your family
Lunasong the Supergay
It doesn't specifically mean indexed by the natural numbers if that's what you are thinking
Man I remember reading that part from Munkres 
yeah that's how i interpreted
the analogy at the bottom
"the collection of open sets has been enlarged"
sure, you have a greater number of open sets
but the set corresponding to a collection of pebbles which was smashed no longer exists
like {1, 2, 3} turned into {1} and {2, 3}
Unions of pebbles are open as well
oh true
that's what a topology is
nice
wow the discrete metric induces the discrete topology
who would've guessed
that's a crazy coincidence
Munkres is comfy ngl
my mind is blown
Euclidean topology
Guess what metric induces the trivial topology 
Finally, trivial metric 
you mean, imaginary numbers?
Those actually aren't real hehe
Geometric algebra corrupted me
How can I start to study topology? And what previous knowledge I need
No previous knowledge needed but knowing about metric spaces can help with some intuition/motivation. Munkres is the standard text
Thanks
If you don't know about metric spaces, knowing how to draw blobs can help
Is there any difference between an endomorphism T on V and saying that that V is T-invariant. The paper I am reading keeps saying T-invarient and I don't want to misunderstand the author.
well endomorphism usually means T is a map from V to V (V is the whole vector space). you usually say "W is T-invariant" for a subspace W if T(W) is a subset of W.
^
so "V is T-invariant" means the same thing as "The restriction of T to V may be seen as an endomorphism of V after restricting the codomain"




