#point-set-topology
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fellow physicist taking an intro to geometry course here.
I have an assignment question dealing with a regular surface
the solution i have found to the problem includes a euclidean motion of said surface and fixing a point of interest to the origin such that the normal vector to the surface points in the z axis.
I have then taken it as a fact that i can describe the surface in some neighborhood around the origin as a graph (x,y,g(x,y))
given that this is a course from the math department i assume they wouldnt let this slide without a proof. How would i go about showing this?
I have no idea of how to solve this, can someone please help?
<@&286206848099549185>
Sounds like some inverse function theorem kind of thing
I think it's related to this one, if I can show one homeomorphism from S(omega) \ {some point} to S'(Omega) then it extends to a homeomorphism of their one point compactifications
What's S_Omega?
minimal uncountable well ordered set
Am I able to apply Theorem 22.2 of Munkres to this problem?
I am not entirely sure.
I was gonna say you can write that you don't believe in choice so such a space doesn't necessarily exist, but sadly I guess they exist even without choice
Sorry, I am of no help
All good
I'm just not sure if the setup of the commutative diagram implies the condition on "g" in Theorem 22.2
I have no experience in category theory so I am a bit unprepared for this
I don't need answers for the problem, just need to know if the theorem is able to be applied if anyone knows :)
This is hwk, so don't want answer --- just a point in the right direction as I'm completely stuck https://i.imgur.com/M4AVRYb.png
In our course [V, W] := (V . del) W - (W . del) V
This is what I have but doubt it helps (not 100% sure I did it right as well)
I think maybe I'm supposed to use this, but don't see how I'd find the flows https://i.imgur.com/oRiTTl8.png
I also notice the expressions for the ith components for V and W are similar to the pushforward defn
Pointer appreciated ๐
lie brackets 
maybe you can just use the standard coordinate expression for the lie bracket here? $$ [V, W] = c^k\frac{\partial}{\partial x^k} $$ where $$ c^k = V^i \frac{\partial W^k}{\partial x^i} - W^i \frac{\partial V^i}{\partial x^i} $$ (einstein notation)
TTerra:
and then push some derivatives around and hope it works lol
@high hill
like it'll suck but it should work out
what is this from?
uni yr 3 hwk
not book - lecturer sets Qs
ah i see
ty -- ill look again
there's probably a better way of doing it that isn't just pushing through derivatives like i suggested
but like
it absolutely should work out
My working --- is it not wrong?
(although maybe not helpful)
Rusty on this stuff
I think what I wrote is pushing thru derivatives as u suggest (or meant to be)
Is it possible for f and g to be not quotient maps, but f o g be a quotient map?
when i said pushing through derivatives i guess it basically amounts to what you were doing lol
So I recently saw a problem that said
Prove fundamental theorem of algebra, assuming Stokes Theorem is Valid
Hrm
Any thoughts?
use stokes' theorem to go through all the complex analysis stuff needed to prove liouville and then do it from that 
"it suffices to prove liouville's theorem, for which it suffices to prove cauchy's integral formula, which is trivial"

Lol
At this point I'm more surprised at results which you can't use to prove the fundamental theorem of algebra
now that i think about it ive never actually seen an algebraic proof of the fundamental theorem of algebra
can one always locally represent a regular curve implicitly?
<@&286206848099549185>
example that i found online from a differential geometry midterm:
is it always fine to say that we can implicitly express the surface in some neighborhood of a point within it?
Problem:
Let $\mathbf{x_1}, \mathbf{x_2}, ,...$ be a sequence of the points of the product space $\Pi X_{\alpha}$. Show that this sequence converges to the point $\mathbf{x}$ if the sequence $\pi_{\alpha} (\mathbf{x_1}), , \pi_{\alpha}ย (\mathbf{x_2}), ,...$ converges to $\pi_{\alpha} (\mathbf{x})$ for each $\alpha$.
gelearndeutsch:
What's the mistake in the following counterexample:
$\pi_{\alpha} (\mathbf{x_n})=\begin{cases}ย 1 & \alpha \geq n \ 0 & \alpha < n \end{cases}$
for each $\alpha$, the sequence $\pi_{\alpha} (\mathbf{x_1}), , \pi_{\alpha}ย (\mathbf{x_2}), ,...$ converges to $0$. But $\nexists , N\in \mathbb{N}$ s.t. $\forall n>N$, $\mathbf{x_n} \in (\frac{-1}{2}, \frac{1}{2})\times (\frac{-1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}) \times ....$
gelearndeutsch:
$\pi_{\alpha}$ is the projection on the $\alpha$-th coordinate, is it not? You are redefining it with a seemingly unrelated function, completely missing the point
welperooni:
@wicked mirage Yes $\pi_{\alpha}$ is there projection. I defined only $\mathbf{x_n}$. The definition of $\pi_{\alpha}$ is the same. I didn't redefine it
gelearndeutsch:
ok I'll think along the openness
yes the product is not open because all but finitely many coordinates should be $\mathbb{R}$. Thanks
gelearndeutsch:
@gritty widget the way we have defined for a surface to be regular is if for each point in the surface there exists a regular local surface. Where a regular local surface is a surface given by a smooth injective map some D to E^3 with a continuous inverse, where the tangent vectors (which we call x_u and x_v) are always linearly independent
so for the point of the regular surface im interested in i know there must be some regular local surface
then the surface is described locally by some parametrization (u,v) where the functions are smooth
but i am not aware of any theorem that states that we can go from parametrization to implicit
How do I show that the topological dimension of the Cantor set is zero?
clopen in the Cantor set?
I was thinking of building an open cover then get a refinement with order less than or equal to 1.
doesnt the implicit function theorem require that you go down in dimensions?
from R^n+m to R^m
and here our surface is defined as a map R^2 to R^3
so idk how i would apply the implicit function theorem
Why can we assume e_i are those points? The explanation should probalby not be under advanced but something more elementary.
suppose you know it for this triple
then for any $p_1,p_2,p_3$ and $q_1,q_2,q_3$ you can find a group element $g$ such that $g \cdot e_i = p_i$ for $i=1,2,3$ and a group element $h$ such that $h \cdot e_i = q_i$ for $i=1,2,3$. Then $hg^{-1} \cdot p_i = h \cdot (g^{-1} \cdot p_i) = h \cdot e_i = q_i$
shamrock:
it's like how if you want to show that a group action is transitive it suffices to show that you can go from one fixed single element to any other
actually it's exactly the same, if $G$ acts on $X$ then this action is triply transitive iff the action $g \cdot (x,y,z) = (g\cdot x, g \cdot y, g \cdot z)$ of $G$ on $X \times X \times X$ is transitive
shamrock:
Hi. How can I create an open cover of the Cantor set and a refinement of it such that the refinement has an order less than or equal to 1
a the order of a subset of the power set is the maximum number of sets in the collection that contains an element of the set
So order 1 means pairwise disjoint?
So by compactness your cover is finite
and actually a finite cover by intervals
right?
I mean yeah, but the argument has to work for finite covers anyways
And it's easier to work with finite covers
Right?
Oh, I thought it was for all covers
They were talking about topological dimension earlier
Which I think would need all covers
Only one cover is very easy lol
why?
I thought order 1 = pairwise disjoint?
So for an arbitrary cover
We can refine it to a finite cover by intervals
Why is the symmetric difference of open sets open?
Anyways
Finitely many open intervals
we can truncate the cantor set construction to finitely many steps maybe?
Like
hmm
The complement of Cantor set in $\mathbb{R}$ is dense in $\mathbb{R}$, so if you have an open covering of the Cantor set $C$ then you can find a refinement of it covering $C$ with open intervals whose endpoints are non-Cantor points. Taking a finite subcover of this latter, since $C$ is compact, we have $C \subset I_1 \cup I_2 \cup \cdots I_n$ for some refinement ${ I_j }_j$ with open intervals with endpoints not in C. Then $C \subset I_1 \cup (I_2 \setminus \overline{I_1}) \cup (I_3 \setminus (\overline{I_1 \cup I_2})) \cup \cdots$ as the desired refinement (the closing of the finite unions of these intervals only adds non-cantor points, so still covers C).
@nimble cipher
โ-adic:
You can do this with any nonwhere dense closed set C by using sigma-compactness of R to reduce to countable covering with open intervals whose endpoints are not in C then taking out closures of finite unions of intervals successively.
nice!
Thank you @gritty widget and everyone else who answered!!
idk if it fits here,but could someone help?
so suppose there is no convergent subsequence right
at every point, you can find a open set that only contains finitely many other points
why can I find at every point?
convergence= every nbhd of x contains all x_n except finitely many
wait nvm ignore that uh
but similar reasoning: so like for every point in the topological space, you can find a open set with finitely many points in the sequence in it
cuz we are assuming there is no convergent subsequence
this gives a open cover of the whole space by taking a union, meaning there exists a finite subcover, but the sequence is infinite (notice the contradiction?)
i might be knowing convergence wrong
my prof gave me the def $\lim_{n \to \infty} x_n=x$ iff every nbhd ofx contains all x_n except finitely many
ProphetX:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
yup
how does assuming there is no convergent susbseq lead to this
which is equivalent to you cannot find a nbhd that has finitely many points of the sequence
x is limit point = no nbhd with finitely many points in seq
so
x is not a limit point = exists a nbhd ...
negation of that would be there exists a nbhd of x which contains all x_n except infinitely many?
sry in advance for dumb q,i'm not used to rigorous maths,physicist lad here
x is limit point -> for all nbhd, there are infinitely ...
x not limit point -> exists one nbhd, there is only finitely many
Maybe more abstractly it is like
$$\forall U:\phi(U)$$
and in this case $U$ takes on all nbhd and $\phi(U)$ is true if $U$ contains infinitely many points in the sequence
The negation is
$$\exists U:\neg\phi(U)$$
ariana:
wait. x is a limit pint=every neighbourhood of x contains infinitely many x_n except finitely many?
ok so I have this. negation of this is: there exists a neiighbourhood of x containing finitely many x_n except infinitely many. neighbourhood=open set => i can find an open set with finitely many points in the sequence. i don't understand your last argument tho.
this gives a open cover of the whole space by taking a union, meaning there exists a finite subcover, but the sequence is infinite (notice the contradiction?
this
compact=every open cover has a finite subcover
right?
also where have we used first countability, why was it needed at all?
contains finitely many already implies it misses infinitely many so you can drop that part out
compact=every open cover has a finite subcover
yup
i have one open set. cause one neighbourhood exists. how can I take union of one set?
hm good qn about first countability ๐ค
i can't follow your last argument
oh so you define such a open set for every point and take a union of all of them
cuz every point is included it covers X
suppose the sequence is convergent. it converges to a point. suppose it is not<=> it converges everywherE?
๐ฎ
uh if it isnโt convergent then it doesnt converge anywhere
then how can you do that with every point i'm confused
we assume it doesnt converge first right
yes
so at every point $x$ we can have a open set $x\in U_x$ such that $U_x$ only has finitely many points in the sequence
ariana:
yes that's my question
if it converges to a point(convergent)
if it converges to every point(Divergent?)
i can't see how you get to every point
so: a sequence converges to a point iff every nbhd of x contains infinitely many x_n except finitely many
a sequence does not converge=(??) to every point there exists a nbhd of x contains finitely many x_n except infinitely many?
ariana:
at the point $2.5$, we can choose the open set $(2.3,2.7)$
ariana:
at the point $3$ we can choose like $(2.5,9.5)$, it only has finitely many terms in the sequence contained in it
ariana:
ok. so we found an open cover, which has a finite subcover. this does not imply compactness
every open cover has to have a finite subcover,or?
we are assuming X is compact
then where is the contradiction?
so you have your finite subcover
it covers the whole space
but your sequence is infinite
and every open set has finitely many terms
(note: seems like cuz some more technical details we do need first countability in the U_x exists part:
suppose no convergent subsequence but you cannot find U_x, then we can construct a convergent subsequence by considering a bunch of open sets V_n, V_n\in V_{n+1} and choose a point of the sequence in each V_n, counterexample to where you cant do this is like stone cech of integers which honestly fake topological space)
Let $\varphi : \R^n \setminus {0} \to \R^n \setminus {0}$ be a diffeomorphism. Is $\varphi$ the restriction of a diffeomorphism $\R^n \to \R^n$ fixing the origin?
shamrock:
No lol take n = 2 and look at z |-> 1/z
or generally diffeomorphisms of S^n which interchange the north and south pole
hello mx moth
hi
do you have a topology inquiry
im trying to figure out how many times the topology role has actually been pung
Hmm you should try pinging it and asking

I only remember one time, maybe 2?
yea i dont think the advanced roles get pinged very often
wait
I'm smart and never make mistakes
So new question, can any diffeomorphism of S^n \{N,-N} be extended to a diffeomorphism of S^n?
Where N is the north pole
fixing the north pole and its antipode?
Not necessarily
oh is there supposed to be a set minus there
discord ate my backslash
yea it does that
But yeah possibly swapping the two points
this osunds like
the kind of problem that could be answered in the book im supposed to be reading

ooh
its like
applying the borsuk ulam theorem to combinatorial stuffs
but i assume results in it would be helpful
I was trying to show that Iso(S^n) = O(n+1)
And like, you can extend an isometry of S^n to a diffeomorphism of R^(n+1)\{0} pretty easily (just apply it on the sphere of radius r centered at the origin for each r)
And it's gotta fix the origin
thats pretty cool
But I was having trouble showing smoothness of the origin
anyways if I could show this extension is an isometry of R^n I think I have it
Since Iso(R^n) is the group generated by O(n) and translations
and things fixing the origin are just O(n)
i guess that sounds believable
i dont know anything about this stuff so i couldnt really say
yr fine
oh wait I think I'm overcomplicating things a little
I don't actually need to show smoothness or anything, any map V -> V fixing the origin and preserving distances is an isometry (where V is a fd inner product space)
did someone say pinging my role

maybe i can post my riemann geo homework here and have someone do it 
I mean id look at it just out of curiosity
@sleek thicket do u know anything about like
problems re: partitioning regions of the circle
w/ a cap
Not really, sorry
that's the only problem that isn't right from do carmo shamrock
the rest are just random qs from various sections of do carmo's rg
this was one of them, pretty nice question
What's a jacobi field?
I wonder if anyone can answer this confusion I have:
- The hairy ball theorem says that the tangent bundle TS^2 of S^2 has no everywhere nonvanishing section.
- Therefore, TS^2 has no trivial line subbundle.
- Every real line bundle on S^2 is trivial (because H^1(S^2, Z/2Z)=0).
- Conclusion: TS^2 has no line subbundles.
Is everything I said right? I never thought about whether it makes sense for a vector bundle to have no line subbundles...
I don't see a reason why we'd expect all bundles to have a line subbundle tbh
Like, that's saying something big and global about the bundle imo
@sleek thicket a jacobi field is a type of vector field along a geodesic that solves a certain second order ODE called the jacobi equation. they arise naturally when you study stuff like the exponential map and when you want to study "how radial geodesics spread"
Oh okay
i think do carmo's chapter 5 does a good job on motivating them and deriving the jacobi eqn
I think my course is a little behind yours right now
mine's kinda speedrunning do carmo lol
and do carmo is a lot less comprehensive than lee i think
i think my prof really wants to get to the comparison geometry stuff
i guess
itd be called riemannian geometry since "differential geometry" is usually reserved for either a curves and surfaces class, or for an intro to manifolds class (like out of lee ism)
it's correct to call it differential geometry
oh i was given it

yes
i dunno that much but i learn every time i come here so i figured it would be nice to have
in case any cool discussions happen
hmmm
is there a name for the theorem that any two regions on the 2-sphere can be bisected by a cap
i see a not that hard way to prove it but im interested if there r any generalizations
(may have found something for the latter will add it to my list of things to read)
its like
the intersection of a plane and the sphere i mean
lol
so like if u were to embed S^2 into R^3 then ud have some hyperplane of R^3 which bisects any two regions on the sphere
and this is proven (apparently)
Ahh I see what you're saying
I think it's called the ham sandwich theorem
Got another topology question:
Consider ${(x,y,z)\in\bC^3\mid x^2+y^2+z^2=1}$. Now looking at it algebraically, there is a rational parametrization of this complex surface, making its projective closure in $\bP_\bC^3$ isomorphic (and therefore homeomorphic) to $\bP_\bC^2$.
On the other hand, it's ``well known" that the surface is diffeomorphic to the total space of tangent bundle of $S^2$. So in conclusion, the total space of $TS^2$ embeds as a dense open subset of $\bP_\bC^2$?
Icy001:
S is a tetrahedron thought of as a oriented 3-simplex. I don't understand why C_3(S), the group of oriented 3-chains of S is 0, and not the free abelian group on one generator?
My understanding is that the tetrahedron is a single oriented 3-simplex, so C_3(S) should have a single generator?
I think they're only looking at the boundary of the tetrahedron, no interior
"surface"
okay yea, i think i get it
So I'm trying to learn category theory and I'm finding I need learn a companion math to apply category theory too. I've studied an Intro to Topology book that focuses on Point Set Topology, basically getting one familiar with open and closed sets with metric spaces and such, should I now be ready to learn algebraic topology, or do I need more point set or general topology, just wondering topology kind of scares me as a subject, but I love the ideas of continuity and deforming shapes and learning their properties.
?
Peter May's book is also great
is that A Concise Course in Algebraic Topology?
yup
a lot of people like Hatcher too
you don't need too much point-set top to start off with algebraic topology
as long as you're comfortable with the notion of a topological space, compactness, connectedness, products, coproducts and quotients you should be ready
ok
A concise course is so fucking hard
I do not recommend it
Brofibration seems to be a mega genius
no, it's because mathacka said they want to apply category theory
which is sorta the point of view that may takes
I mean it's very categorical sure... but it's so ludicrously hard
I agree May is hard, but there's so much great stuff in there
especially chapter 9 onwards
sorry chapter 6
oh, Tom Dieck is also pretty categorical
maybe read the fundamental groups and van kampen part from hatcher and then move onto may?
ok
it depends on what you're interested in, Hatcher is very geometric
the topology book from @frigid patrol then?
I do like geometric presentations of material
It's used as a first semester graduate course
There are no prereq for the book that I'm aware of
great, I love self contained math books!
are homtopies talked about in any of those books?
Yes
If you learn about fundamental group, you'll learn about homotopies and covering spaces
So if I understand correctly homotopies have something to do with paths between spaces much like functors in CT
ok
AT?
oh, duh
I don't mean to ask a dumb question, but I'm not seeing yet significant connection between Topology and Geometry in anything I've read yet, is that on purpose on introductory material?
I guess I've thought of Geometry as kind of an extension of Analytic Geometry.
Something, again, I didn't see in point set stuff
Excuse my nievity
Yes
and I've peeked at differential geometry, definately something I want to study later
I do lean towards applied math and differential can be applied to many real world problems, but I don't want to downplay the significance of pure math in the process, I need more of those.
yeah, like abstract algebra for groups and such
I don't want to get to many opinions going, but is N J Wildberger someone I should be learning topology from?
I've sensed that he's a bit out of the norm
ok, suspected so, he seems to deny the reals, but other then that ok
also I have Principles of Topology by Croom is that considered a good book?
ok, yes I watched part of that lecture, looks like something worth watching more of.
honestly i feel like it's better to just spend a month or two on point set fundamentals then moving on with algebraic topology
If X and Y are surfaces, and if $p_2: X \times Y \rightarrow Y$ is the projection map is there a way to identify $H^0(Y, \mathscr{O_Y})^*$ and the image of the pullback map $p_2 *: Pic(Y) \rightarrow Pic(X \times Y)$?
Brofibration:
X is a reduced projective scheme
Brofibration:
or just a projective variety
Oh lol nvm I was being stupid
invertible global sections are precisely global sections of O*
which is the same data as a line bundle
I'm supposed to prove that Hn(X,A) is isomorphic to Hn(X,{a}) when I know A in X, {a} in A, Hn(A,{a})=0 for all n so I suspect I at least inspect long exact sequences ...-> Hn(X,A)-> Hn(A) -> Hn(X) -> Hn(X,A) ->... and the same for Hn(X,{a}) and injections between them but the assumption Hn(A,{a}) does not arise here. And if I expand Hn(A,{a}) I dont see how that helps eiter.
I know I'm supposed to use a ladder with two long sequences but I'm kinda lost
Write down the LES for the pairs (X, {a}) and (X,A) and apply the H_* to (X,{a}) -> (X,A) and diagram chase (or 5-lemma if you feel lazy).
The point is that the square H_n(X, {a}) -> H_n(X,A) (on the row) and H_{n-1}({a}) -> H_{n-1}(A) (on the bottom) and the vertical maps as the boundary maps H_n(X, {a}) -> H_{n-1}({a}) and H_n(X,A) -> H_{n-1}(A) commute, and that the map H_{n-1}({a}) -> H_{n-1}(A) is an isomorphism because if fits into another long exact sequence with a snip 0 = H_n(A, {a}) -> H_{n-1}({a}) -> H_{n-1}(A) -> H_{n-1}(A, {a}) = 0
so that's where you use H_n(A,{a}) = 0
So I'm using 3 different long exact sequences here
ahh alright I'll think about this. I got a hint that you could do it with two LES but is this by using the 5-lemma?
Yea you can certainly use 5-lemma
alrught, thanks! I'll try to figure it out
np
I'm having some trouble showing that V(J) is a subset of V(I(p(V(I))))
Given an f that is 0 on p(V(I)) I want to show it is also 0 on V(J)
I'm thinking I might need to use the nullstellensatz somewhere, but I'm not really getting anything
This is actually a consequence of the standard proposition that if $A \hookrightarrow B$ is an injection of rings then $\textnormal{Spec }B \to \textnormal{Spec }A$ has image that is dense in $\textnormal{Spec }A$.
โ-adic:
In your case, apply with $B = k[X_1, \ldots, X_n, Y_1, \ldots, Y_m]/I$ and $A = k[X_1, \ldots, X_n]/J$.
โ-adic:
To check this, just take a nonempty basic open set of the form $D(f)$ (so $f$ is not nilpotent) in $\textnormal{Spec }A$ and note that the image of $f$ in $B$ under the injection $A \hookrightarrow B$ is still a non-nilpotent, so the inverse image of $D(f)$ under the natural map $\textnormal{Spec B} \hookrightarrow \textnormal{Spec }A$ is nonempty (since the inverse image is, explicitly, $D(\overline{f})$ where $\overline{f}$ is the image of $f$ under $A \to B$).
โ-adic:
Also in your case, the condition $f$ is not "nilpotent" is the same as the condition that $f \neq 0$ at all (classical) points (since nilradical = jacobson radical for f.g. k-algebras and k is algebraically closed so we know the "points" are the maximal ideals) so you can just check on points.
โ-adic:
So that's connecting to a general standard fact. It'd look like this in your particular situation: We know that $p(V(I)) \subset V(J)$, so to show that the closure of the former gives you the latter, you need only show that the former is dense in $V(J)$. To that end, take an open basic set $D(f)$ so that $D(f) \cap V(J) \neq \emptyset$, i.e. that $f$ doesn't become nilpotent in the ring $k[X_1, \ldots, X_n, Y_1, \ldots, Y_m]/J$ (by Hilbert-Nullstellensatz, if you will). Since $k[X_1, \ldots, X_n, Y_1, \ldots, Y_m]/J$ injects naturally into $k[X_1, \ldots, X_n]/I$, $f$ remains non-nilpotent in that latter ring, i.e. there's a maximal ideal $m$ of the latter that does not contain $f$, i.e. corresponding to a point $x \in V(I) \cap p^{-1}(D(f))$. So $p(x) \in D(f) \cap p(V(I))$, so $D(f) \cap p(V(I))$ is nonempty, so $p(V(I))$ is dense in $V(J)$ so the closures have to equal.
โ-adic:
Anyway the point is that p(V(I)) is dense in V(J). So check this in however manner you want.
Btw replace the hookrightarrows for Spec B, Spec A with just arrrows (Spec B -> Spec A), since Spec B -> Spec A is often not an injection (if A -> B is an injection).
Thanks for the answer!
I was trying to prove the contrapositive of what you did. But doing it this way makes the usage of the nullstellensatz seem very natural
If w(x, v2, v1) (where v1= v2) is a 2 form on R^2, then it has to be 0 no?
i've never seen the notation w(x, v_2, v_1) for a differential form, can you elaborate?
is it like x is a point of R^2, and then w(x,) takes in two tangent vectors v_2, v_1 at x to get a real number w(x, v_2, v_1)? if so then yes, it will be zero, because dx \wedge dy is alternating
(something something every 2-form on R^2 is a function times dx \wedge dy)
There is a recent result that all smooth jordan cubes have an inscribed rectangle. Can someone ELI5 (and in particular ELI-didnt read the paper, and ELI-dont know symplectic manifolds) why the proof won't work for general jordan curves?
@gritty widget Sorry, the prof defined it as function w:DรR^2รR^2 -> R , where D (the x argument) is a subset of R^2 . I was thrown off by the x part too, but it might indeed be interpeted as a point on the manifold, where the manifold just a subset of R^2
that's quite the weird way to define a differential form lol. either way, it still holds on a manifold
can write the form in coordinates and then use the same reasoning basically
Yeah, problem is that he lets it equal 1, so it must be a typo

Kinda questioning my sanity for the last couple of hours ๐
can you post what they wrote?
,rotate
Friends pic sorry
you didn't get the whole definition of a 2-form in the picture
It just says anti symmetric bilinear homomorphism like the rest
pls show
I dunno
this is an immediate consequence of antisymmetry
omega(x, v, v) = -omega(x, v, v), pretending that you swapped the two arguments
this is R, so omega(x,v,v) = 0, done
Thanks for your help anyways
@cold vine this is a late reply but i figure its worth mentioning that there is a relative homology LES for triples as well
let Z subset Y subset X then the sequence you get is H_n(Y, Z) -> H_n(X, Z) -> H_n(X, Y) -> H_n-1(Y, Z) and so on
letting X = X, Y = A, Z = {a} solves your problem immediately lol
^_^
Yea I was thinking of mentioning that but a proof of that is basically the same thing as I suggsted: "braiding" of 3 different LES if you have three spaces braided X < Y < Z
mhm
There's a nice diagram in Bredon's book as I recall (used that book in my alg top class)
lemme check the proof in hatcher its been a while so im not sure i remember it
nice
my AT progression has been really wack with basically like
going thru a shitton of different sources and getting a little further each time
but at the moment i am on the hatcher bend and probably will just finish it
lol hatcher literally just handwaves it hes like
"just take the SES of relative chain complexes :^)"
k I found the proof of this triple sequence in pg 188 of Bredon's Top & Geometry.
ty!
Pretty pictures. NP! ๐
i have bredon on my shelf i think if (when tbh) i pass back through AT i will go for it
for a different perspective
this is hatcher lmfao
My alg top professor was all about having to learn AT together with interactions with smoothie manifolds so he made us read notes of his own and Bredon's. He seemed to dislike Hatcher with some sort of passion.
yeah thats fair
i think both perspectives are valid
pedagogically bredon is probably better i feel? but hatchers exposition is >>>>>>
Ah thats interesting :D Something with triples did cross my mind when thinking through the problem but we havent at least yet seen thwm
Interesting to know
AT actually has a lot of good textbooks i feel weirdly
hatcher spanier concise tam-dieck bredon
lurie
Switzer's AT is also highly recommended after a first course in AT
delicious
Ha ha ๐ Yum
smoothie manifold, creammanian manifold
man i have no idea where im gonna go topology wise once i finish hatcher
there are like a billion options
creamy manifold 
diff top
and they are all exciting
We are working with Rotman. Do you guys know spesifically what book is good to complement with that. I have a couple I took from the library but they cover the material in such a different way
Enmanifold yourself
valid shamrock
Oh I used one of Rotman's book (his homological algebra book, not the AT one).
hatchers exposition is like top tier
feels like im the only person who posts in this channel that knows no AT 
bredon covers more material i think (at least not including appendices)
and does more manifold stuff
well it is a topology channel lol

He started doing injective modules and "essential" modules early on in the book when I was quite new to algebra in sophomore and I was confused for a bit.
Im gonna be a beta tester for the hot 5th book by Lee
wait thats so cool!!
what's the 4th

By that time I had not seen injective modules in the "wild" so-to-speak. My first encounter with injective things in the wild were..... in Ch 3 of Hartshorne when one builds injective sheaves...
@fading vale yeah we're the unreleased textbook for our bundles course with him next quarter :DDD
@gritty widget https://sites.math.washington.edu/~lee/Books/AG/
you guys get to talk to so many cool people
yeah lol I namedrop him constantly
He is a cool dude
He's retiring this year though
Well he might actually be retired this year
I'm not sure
He's still teaching infrequently I think
But it's either at the start or end of this year
but yeah manifold stuff seems really neat so i definitely wanna do that at some point
but also i need to finish AM
I will probably still be able to get a rec letter from him which is good
...and rudin...
AM is good
: |
Rudin is also good
AM is very fun
i do not have a lot of self discipline so i have been avoiding learning basic analysis by jumping around algebra and topology land
but realistically that is a Bad Idea
self discipline is hard
analysis is prolly cool and i just have to power thru the very early bits of rudin
Analysis is very cool
AM has some excellent exercises
and i will like it
And it would be sad if you never saw the really cool stuff
i will force myself to do rudin after hatcher and AM lol
yeah the AM exercises are great
TTerra : (
dont chmonkey me!!!

im chmonkey reacting because he did Hartshorne before munkres
i never did munkres
he took a scheme course before an intro topology course lol
Okay well whatever
okay ty for the conversation moth I need to do my French homework now
Got a midterm on Thursday
your next assignment is to read all of lee's trilogy. exercises due to my dms tomorrow
monkaS
ultra's gone so im taking his place
b-but i am too busy for mathematics until december
i hate the mit primes app its so mean
I did do Hartshorne before munkres hurb
i just want to learn cohomology instead i am being cyberbullied by probability memes
thanks to... who again?
shamrock go study > : (
you and chmonkey can bully each other tmrw
Just browsing through Hatcher here. This book seems amazing. So much explanation and clarity.
yeah its really good for intuition
the downside is that its kinda idk fluffy and it doesnt necessarily cover as much as bredon but i think as a supplement to a course its very solid

floaty is such a cute emote
Yapp seems great on the side of a main book. Ill def read up on stuff from here when something isnt clear.

The "CW" in CW-complex stands for Constantine Whitehead, because the person who defined them was named John Henry Constantine Whitehead
ty sham
Whitehead died from an asymptomatic heart attack at 55 :C
This one is true but sad
i get pinged every time any msg is sent in this channel
hi shamrock
hi sloth
hi TTerra
i do
okay well that's nice thank u for ur input
maybe

curvature makes no goddamn sense
Fun fact :)
also shamrock i want u to see this video https://twitter.com/i/status/1324149180139524100 i cannot stop thinking about it
Gays walking into their conservative relativesโ house for Thanksgiving after Biden wins https://t.co/go2W1SWNim
1022
7058
Shamrock story time was secretly shamrock whining time
u do not have to keep it a secret
degrassi but the music is edited in
I figured lol
"She has a crush on him and he's pretending to be gay so she'll stop liking him."
King shit imo
please
i do not need to pretend
this strat works automatically for me 
passive buff
like half of us presidents were twinks
lol
keep counting!!
I will!!!
if you tell me you play league i will leave this server
I have met gay gamers
No lol
I'm just saying
They're fucking insufferable too
my friend group is very gay and big into tabletop and good lord
yes but its more funny if we make fairly universal personality flaws revolve around heterosexuality to cope with homophobia


@gritty widget did you like my riemannian geometry fact?
yes
shaaaaamrock
curvature is difficult
I didn't do all of it
I didn't do the last two chapters
But I liked all the material that was in there
And I intend to learn about symplectic manifolds at some point
Like half a year
woke
2 quarters
h m mmmm
maybe once i do rudin i will do this
ok now i am going to sleep cuz its 3 am

night
Oh lol I avoided understanding these this summer
It was right at the edge of the stuff I was doing and I needed to understand it if I wanted to fix my project, so instead I didn't and ran out the clock
haha
I'm updating a previous project to incorporate more advanced techniques
and stuffing it into my PhD apps, so I'm trying to get through this paper
and summarize the techniques
nice nice nice
I'm going through all of them right now
I think I understand most of them, but it's like
why do you write it this way
if it makes you feel any better, for the short period of time where I understood anything about tangles it was all super duper categorical
So I wouldn't have been able to help you very much anyways :P
It's fine. I've heard the referee comments on my profs papers
where the ref is like
"This is all very rigorous, and to the point - but this is hard to read"
Divya Ranjan:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
could you be a little more specific lol
well you can categorize me as a Bourbakian 
Divya Ranjan:
Compile Error! Click the :errors: reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
@gentle osprey admins delete this one, isn't required
I need to fix the LaTeX and would send again this is the theorem to prove though https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/762590388858126358/775748802299691068/2020-11-10_21h18_27.png
Okay sorry for messing up this place but this was just a damn thing, i'mma stop learning Differential Geometry if this proof turns out to be flawed 
yeah just use the chain rule to show that the differential of the chart is an isomorphism. this works i guess, but it's really long
ill more carefully read it later
also i found the physicist using a and b for indices 
can someone help me out? i dont seem to understand how this equivalence relation ~ is defined
@exotic badger You're then left with a set of equivalence classes X/A = {[a], [x1_], [x_2], ....}, where [a] represents all the points in A (they all go to one point in X/A since they're equivalent) and the [x_n] are just regular points in X, they're equivalence classes with 1 element.
For instance i can take the interval X = [0, 2xpi] with the equivalence relation 0 ~ 2xpi, then X/~ is the unit circle, with all points except 0 and 2pi being themselves and 0 and 2pi being the same point
im workign thorugh your answer. thanks for the help!
These are called quotient spaces, im sure you can find a better explanation online @exotic badger
is this here the same idea?
i read that u basically "glue" them together?
found the pic on wikipedia
thanks! yes i had that last year in an algebra course
so think about how in Z/2Z
{0, 2, 4, ...} all get identified to a point
imagine plotting this on a number line
and then basically collapsing them all to a point
now tell me what R / Z is 
it is the same idea when working with a topological space
and this point is Z/2Z?
does this image help?
im trying to give the intuition behind why quotienting corresponds to collapsing things in a space
quotienting by Z2 glues all the even integers together into one point, and then glues all the odd integers together into one point
yes it helps a bit
the S^1 case is in fact the same idea yea
just like how for Z/2Z we can identify all the even points together and identify all the odd points together
so Z/2Z = { 0 + 2Z , 1 + 2Z}?
w/ the interval we can identify {0, 1} together to basically glue the ends to each other
yeah cone
fair warning topological quotients and group quotients do NOT always agree
so for example we can consider Z as a group and quotient by 2Z to get cosets
but in the topological case there is no additive structure right
so we dont get cosets
in the case of X/A we just collapse A because there are no group operations to preserve
this idenitfy process is basically the equivlance relation ~?
yes!
: )
the analogy to groups works pretty well mostly you just have to keep in mind that in the topological case our quotients are really much simpler
Z/2Z as just spaces is just a 2 two element space. Its doesn't have to be {0 + 2Z ...
ok im slowly making progress, thanks for all of your help
its a little confusing at first but you'll get used to it lol
its defintely the hardest math course since i started 2 years ago lol
quotient spaces 
i didn't really "get" them until like a full semester after taking topology
much fun
you just glue things together
And then everything's terrible
And the topology makes no sense
ez
idk why it started making sense to me
i think the problem is that
the way point set is taught does not really convey much geometric intuition tbh
I am still not convinced that topological spaces are actually geometric
Like I think of them as a general foundation for building up things which are somehow geometric
kinda agree
Like manifolds or cw complexes or schemes
ya
just slap a riemannian metric on your manifold and you have geometry 
ew metrics
I am unconvinced algebraic geometry is geometry
lame!
smh

I mean they are always isomorphic
Just pick a riemannian metric :^)
you know what i meant to say
Yeah lol

catThhhhh

I'm being bullied (presumably)
Yes
im not bullying you shamrock
Everyone always bullies the shamrock
How's your multivariate calculus?
Like
Inverse/implicit fonction theorems
Are the workhorse of diff top
nonexistence pepelaugh
Then yes you need Rudin
doing partitions of unity without learning series stuff 
STOP
dont mention partitions of unity in my presence
im still traumatized from bredons treatment of them
Um
You're gonna have a bad time
With Lee
Partitions of unity are like
Breathing
Or differentiating
excuse me
partitions of unity are extremely useful
imagine not being able to integrate on manifolds
But you must release your fear
Also moth like, the basic stuff about tangent vectors involves some Taylor series stuff
In multiple variables
if you say this shit isnt hideous you're lying
Yeah that's how it's done in ITM lol
But you never think about the proof
You just use them

I don't even remember what paracompact means most of the time, I just think of it as "the thing you need for partitions of unity"
bredons organization sucks ass because he does this shit and then doesnt use it at all for ther est of the chapter
Oof
anyways moth, you agree that riemannian metrics are good right? The way you prove that every manifold admits a riemannian metric is by doing it in coordinates and using a partition of unity
To integrate you pick a cover by charts/partition of unity and integrate over the cover elements
Wdym every manifolds has a riemann Ian metric
They're based okay
Donโt u have to be smooth
all manifolds are smooth
By manifold I mean smooth manifold
i have never agreed to such a thing
Yeah you did
Sloth has dementia 
Yeah chmonkey? What do you mean when you say ring again?
Yeah but noncommutative rings actually donโt exist
*me interrupting chmonkey doing AG* doesn't that ring have to be commutative?
Also when I say ideal I mean prime 
Yeah same for non smooth manifolds
It's a little different because a smooth manifold is a structure and not a property
lol one of the problems on our pset was "find a finite noncommutative ring" a while ago
i think
yea
Done
i think it wasnt just finite
Group ring over a finite field
nvm there were no extra conditions
it was literally just
"find a finite noncommutative ring"
lol
tfw
anyways sloth, I would not do ISM without seeing multivariate calc/analysis at a lower level
Like I did implicit/inverse function theorem and not super rigorous stokes/greens theorem and I was fine
The little bit about measure zero sets can be picked up on the fly
chad yes
I have ananalysis exam on Friday
I was worried until I saw this message
ty for the advice
a nanalysis
I think that's what happened to orange
Like
It used to be norange
And then people said a norange
And it morphed into an orange

sick
elementary probability is not
and thats what im being forced to do
it sucks
hurb
My exam is for measure theory
start each possible solution with "assume CH" or "assume not CH" 
I'm hoping one problem will be "apply DCT"
Does anyone know how to prove this, or a reference to look up? Here X is a manifold, A,B closed and H_q is the singular homology
is the bar reduced cohomology
yes
that one I know . My question was why the singular homology preserved by taking the limit
@stable lance Does this post help?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/121122/why-do-direct-limits-preserve-exactness here is another post in the case of modules
hopefully it helps
unfortunately not
because the way homology is defined on those links don't take the topology on account, they're more algebraic exercises. It's quite different here
but thank you for searching those
uh
hm
im not totally sure what you mean by that
oh i see
yeah sorry
ยฏ_(ใ)_/ยฏ
it's ok ๐
I think we have to use those cobounded neighborhoods somewhow, and maybe the fact that X is a manifold
gl 
ty
@stable lance : $A$ is locally compact Hausdorff, so you're going to have $B = \cap_N N$ as $N$ ranges over all closed and cobounded neighborhoods in $A$ (this is just another way of saying that in a LCH space an open set is a union of precompact open neighborhoods). So you have $X - B = \cup_N (X - N)$ (same index range for $N$). Now the point is that a cycle in $\Delta_q(X - B, X - A)$ is represented by sums of continuous functions (with coefficients in $G$) from a compact simplex $\Delta_q$, say $\sigma: \Delta_q \to X - B = \cup_N (X - N)$. $\Delta_q \subset \cup_N \sigma^{-1}(X - N)$ then, so by compactness of the simplex the image of $\sigma$ must land in some single $X - N$. That is to say, the singlar complex $\Delta_q(X - B, X-A)$ is actually equal to the directed limit of $\Delta_q(X - N, X - A)$ over such $N$.
โ-adic:
The rest follows by the "algebraic" exercise.
(say by a G-linear combination of a bunch of those sigmas, but finite in number, so you can still take a single N closed and cobounded in A with the images of these sigmas representing a cycle in Delta_q(X-B,X-A) all landing in X - N)
btw A is LCH and A - B is open in A, so A - B = \cup_{V \in K} V where each V in K is open and precompact in A. So then B = \cap_{V in K} (A - V), so taking N = A - V (for V in K) does the job : A - V is closed in A hence closed in X and is cobounded. It's also a neighborhood of B becaause A - N <= closure of (A - N) <= A - B, so N >= A - closure of (A - N) >= B, and A - closure of (A - N) is open in A.
F is a qcoh over a scheme X. Is H^i(X, F) all the same depending on how you look at the global sections functor as over Ab, QCoh or O_X-mod?
Would anyone happen to have a hint on how to show that the following is a metric on $\bR^2$?
$$\rho(x,y) = \frac{|x-y|_2}{(1 + |x|_2^2)^{1/2}(1 + |y|_2^2)^{1/2}} $$
I have a hint that says that the bijection from $\bR^2$ to the open unit disk given by $x \mapsto x/(1 + |x|_2^2)^{1/2}$ might help, but i've staring at this forever, and im not seeing how to proceed
kxrider:
jesus
Is your hint: Ask Jesus? Lol
believe me, ive already tried
no this is just gross
This is much like the Lorentz metric on $\bR^2$: given two metrics on the two 1-dimensional subspaces, you can form a metric from either by Pythagorean theorem (this would be putting the two metrics together in a "straight" way) and you would end up with the square root of the sum of squares of the metrics.
However, in this problem, you're investigating more of a "hyperbolic" direct sum of metric spaces.
Apopheniac:
Also, the only tricky part is proving the triangle inequality.
I think it helps to think of it as some combination of metrics, because then you can keep track of what's what.
Aha, I see now where it's coming from. But it might be more helpful as a hint to namedrop "stereographic projection".
Hint: Consider the map $F: \mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}^3, x \mapsto \left( \frac{x}{1 + |x|_2^2}, \frac{1}
{1 + |x|2^2} \right)$ and show that $|F(x) - F(y)|{\mathbb{R}^3} = d(x,y)$.
Lartomato:
uuh, on closer inspection, i think the last argument of F needs to be 1/(1 + |x|2^2)
@gritty widget thank you very much.
So we have $\bigcup_N X-N = X-B$ and for each $N$ there's the inclusion $i_N:C(X-N)\to C(X-B)$ (here $C(U)$ is the set of the singular simplexes in $U$). A simplex $\sigma\in X-B$ is a simplex in $\bigcup_N (X-N)$ so it's a simplex in some $C(X-N')$ because compactness. Therefore the map $i:lim_N C(X-N)\to C(X-B)$ is surjective. And $i$ is injective because each $i_N$ is injective. $i$ also commutes with the boundary $\partial$ operator, so $i_*:lim_N H_q(X-N)\to H_q(X-B)$ is an isomorphism.
It looks about right to me
gb214:

nvm i'm fine and this is the wrong channel anyway

Actually I already asked the question here, but I still did not understand
what dont you understand about the answer?
I'm a little confused at what some simple examples of sets would look like, a discrete space with a metric? What would that look like?
mathacka:
example of a discrete space with a metric in set notation
what does a simple one look like as a set?
the topology as a set
do you mean
the discrete metric
"a discrete space" is just a set with the discrete topology on it
ok idk why you keep saying "as a set" here lol theres nothing else the topology can be
ok
but you are probably looking for the discrete metric
given by d(x, y) = 1 if x neq y and 0 if x = y
the resulting topology is always just the topology where all subsets are open
the discrete topology
so if have elements {0} and {1} then you have d({0},{1}) = 1
the the set looks like {{0}, {1}, (0, 1, 1)}?



