#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 182 of 1
my coffee is done, let me chug it and then write my thoughts
latter
ah if $i : \bR^m \to \bR^n$ is the inclusion i described and $f : \bR^n \to \bR^m$ is a homeomorphism, then $i \circ f : \bR^n \to \bR^n$ is an injective continuous map (being a composition of those), but it's certainly not open
TTerra:
i know spivak wrote calc on manifolds when he was young
unsure about diffgeo series
I assumed he learned how to write by the time he wrote calculus
the calculus book is genuinely well written
iirc
no "stokes' theorem is trivial" going on in that one

alright here we go
never done anything with spivak and this already feels typical of him 
not open = closed 
slimvesus:
oh shit, I think I meant to take the inverse of the homeomorphism
because then the inverse is injective and continuous and R^m is open, so then i[R^n] should be open
isn't $(\Psi \circ i^{-1})^{-1} : \mathbb{R}^m \to i[\mathbb{R}^n]$ valid? It's a continuous injection from $\mathbb{R}^m \subseteq \mathbb{R}^m$ into $i[\mathbb{R}^n]$ such that the image isn't open, which is a contradiction
bacono:
it probably is, I just took the inverse of what I had before because I realized my mistake
sorry if I've been confusing you, I appreciate the help
~~bacono i wrote a proof some ways up if you wanna check 😉 ~~
yeah that works too, I think we had the same thing but yours is simpler in that you applied invariance in R^n instead of R^m
Is this proof correct?
Open in A does not imply open in X
So I start from the open cover of X?
Then from then I just take the open cover of A by intersecting the open cover with A
No you go backward
Starting with an open cover of A, for each set U in A, there exists open set U’ in X such that U=A intersect U’
By definition
Then I can build the open cover for X as these open sets U' right?
then I take a countable subcover. So when I intersect them with A, they are a countable subcover of A
Yes
Thank you
Does anyone have an intuitive explanation of what a flattening stratification does?
an equivalent thing in topology land might also help
how does one prove that closure(interior(-)) is idempotent?
prob can use int(X) subset X subset closure(X) a few times to prove c(i(c(i(x)))) subset c(i(x)) and c(i(x)) subset c(i(c(i(x)))
oh that's clever
$$iciX \subset ciX$$
$$ciciX \subset cciX = ciX$$
$$ciX \supset iX$$
$$iciX \supset iiX = iX$$
$$ciciX \supset ciX$$
mniip:
hence conclude there are like 14 sets you can make from using closure and complement
yeah that's what I was trying to do
except in coq
this probably has terrific generalizations
Okay, so finally, 😰 Does this proof make any sense ?
looks good
i like the excited "contradiction!" at the end
I like to keep my math assignments not so dry too
just looking at which spheres can be quipped with a structure of a lie group, so far i have the trivial case of dim=0.. the unit circle case on the complex numbers with length 1, so dimension 1 but having a hard time showing for dim=3
anybody got any ideas?
and concluding why only these dimensions can be equipped with a Lie Group structure?
@gritty widget could you help here? I know you're good at topology 🙂
it isnt a very easy problem to solve
you can conclude S2 isnt a Lie group if you know the hairy ball theorem
my main problem is finding the algebraic structure for the lie group of dim=3
for this
do you have a guess?
nope, so any hint would be good :x
number system of quaternions?
yeah the quaternion algebra
Ah kk
you can think of the quaternions as R4 with a special multiplication
and proving that these dimensions are the only dimensions is
any theorems off the top of ur head
that I can just look up without looking up the proof
do you know about lie algebras?
and their connection with simply connected lie groups?
oh then you might be able to do it yourself
the argument did involve a wee trick tho
mhm
if you've never seen that sort of thing before
does this involve Hopf's Theorem?
do you mean hopf invariant one?
yes i think so
homotopy invariant
trying to find a way to prove that the even dimensions of a sphere cannot be a lie group
but i iz stuck
the idea to do it in general is show that you have a nonzero 3 form on the lie group
O
for even dim spheres you can do it using hairy ball
i can do if the lie group is abelian or not
whats hairy ball
Oh
hedgehog theorem
kk
no nonvanishing vector field on 2n sphere
yeah we have a different name of it here
yeah that implies that tangent bundle is not parallelizable
right right
but a lie group is parallelizable
so that gets rid of the 2n case
finding the 3-form is where the trick is
because once you get it then you know the 3rd cohomology is non-trivial
which implies that it has to be a 3-sphere
well we can just consider some map a(x,y,z)=<[x,y],z>
and changes sign swapping any of these values
so a is a 3-form
and assuming this is nonabelian then we find some stuff that dont commute
mhm maybe i can do this, but i think im ganna be stuck on the rham cohomolgy
oh kek
do you know the de rham cohomology of spheres?
not very well
no i mean the cohomology groups
anyway, if you don't know the groups then they are not very hard to compute
sorry nope
i was just looking at the left-invariant apart
and trying to equate it to the right
of the diff-3-form
yeah im way too tired for this rn, hehe 6am ... so will look at it in the morning :x
but thank you!
aight, it's a reasonably fun exercise to compute the cohomology of spheres
if youve never seen it before
mhm ok, ill look into it
im trying to complete all these problem sheets
and running out of time, but hopefully tomorrow if i finish some QFT stuff
cry
i will stick to reading about hairy balls
Haha
we can always swap
you do my qft assignments
ill dive into the hairy balls
i know absolutely nothing about qft
yeah more than me bro
they keep mentioning physics stuff in my diff geo class
but i have no idea on what theyre talking about
mhm like what?
yang mills stuff
i mean QFT ⊂ Lie Groups ⊂ Topology ⊂ Diff Geom etc
how is topology included within diff geom
do you know any yang mills stuff
is that shiz on feynman diagrams
because i think thats in the next 2 weeks
Lecture 08: Feynman Diagrams for the Yang-Mills field
yeah i have that in 2 weeks
i dont think so
theyre probably related
but that's not what they were talking about in my class
semisimple lie algebra and an abelian lie algebra with compactess
mhm apparently is YM theory
which its based on SU(N)
mhm it seems quite interesting actually
I have heard the word SU(N) guage theory thrown around, yes
but in the lecture they were looking at this functional
describing the behaviour of elementary patricles using non-abelian Lie groups and is the core unification of the EM force and Weak forces
given by taking the inner product of the curvature with itself
mhm
and integrate
(with the volume form)
and then they started looking at critical points of that
idk why
and finally concluded that self adjoint connections are solutions to whatever
yeah idk
the whole thing was similar to Chern-Simons theory stuff
where the critical points of the functional turn out to be flat connections
mhm ok
interesting
i havent read about chern-simons theory
or mbe i have an just cant remember
yeah
then d (exterior derivative) is a connection
if i remember does this have some intergral with wedge product?
look at the one paramter family d + tA
where A is a End(E) valued 1 -form
yeah and then the transgression is the chern simons form
A wedge dA + 2/3 A wedge A wedge A
I assume that's what youre talking about
yesyes
yeah and you integrate that
oooo
and then look at e^-k of the thing you get
so you take some path intergral over all SU(2) connections on the manifold
yup yup
kewl
and the critical points of the functional are flat connections
but yeah in general it's a path integral over End(E) valued 1 forms
the space of connections is an affine space over that
the curvature vanishing right
yup
Moduli space of flat connections on a riemann surface is naturally a complex manifold
so maybe it does exhibit some properties of ricci flatness
?
who knows
do a phd paper about it
yoour welcome
OOHH
maybe this comes into play with calabi-yau manifolds
holy crap it's the jacobian
never thought of that before
flat U(1) connections
on a riemann surface
yeye
if the mathoverflow post im reading is correct
link me broskarian
mhmm
you have supplied me with the hype I need to get through next week
I need to write a history essay lmao fml
something cool to look at: The complex tangent bundle of the Riemann sphere
then corellate this with chern class
then calabi-yau manifolds
some cool stuff all coming in to play
wait wut history?
im doing a history class
we need to do a bunch of 'general education' classes
ye
"This is America"
quite a lot of general ed classes actually
ah im from the UK we just study what we want
sounds fun lol
cya
ciao bella
i like the excited "contradiction!" at the end
@gritty widget Well if you're someone like a logician that's the only thing in a proof to excite you
Which scheme should be called 'The Ponzi Scheme'?
The scheme without closed points
To show a space is connected, does it suffice to find a contradiction from supposing there is a pair of disjoint, non-empty, open subsets that cover the space, or must I suppose more generally there exist a collection of disjoint, non-empty, open subsets that cover the space?
I would think it does, since if I had A, B, C disjoint open subsets of a space X that covered X, B union C is itself open, so A and B U C do the trick.
yup a pair works
a space is disconnected iff it is the union of two disjoint open sets
nonempty
How does my first drawing of Klein Bottle look like ?
haha I can be pretty decent at pencil drawing sometimes
now help me draw H^3/<z->z+1,z->1/z>
@sweet wing now help me understand what that creature is, first
does anyone have any good resources for learning more about discrete differential geometry? i have a pdf from keenan crane's course that looks pretty good, but wondering if there are other books out there
What's the main use of topology in algebraic geometry? I know we introduce the Zariski topology, but do we use any theorems from topology that helps us study it?
It is t very heavy
If you know basic point-set, that’s most of what you end up using most of the time. Other stuff about codimension and stuff are sort of topological I guess but you wouldn’t talk about it in a general topology course
From what I gather AG doesn’t really need all that much of topology other than the notion of open covers since eventually you’ll abstract away from even topological spaces into Grothendieck topologies and stuff which mainly only retains the notion of open covers and the property of continuous maps we care about is that they pullback an open cover to an open cover
This isn’t to say topology plays no role, my professor published a paper recently which shows for some class of varieties the topological space actually determines the variety up to isomorphism which is pretty interesting
Ah I see, I know some basic point-set and algebraic topology
The course I'm taking is called "Intro to algebraic geometry" and seems to only cover classical algebraic geometry so I don't think we'll cover schemes
Oh okay, yeah you should be fine
You’ll have to learn new stuff since there’s topological properties you won’t cover in a normal point set class since they’re super weird
Things like an irreducible topological space, Noetherian topological space, etc
But that’s really easy to pick up
Ah I heard about the first one in my commutative algebra course at least
Thanks for the answer, and thanks for the help with commutative algebra btw. Wrote the exam yesterday
Uhhh, I don’t actually remember exactly what it was I helped you with but I’m glad I could help 😂😂
Classification of prime ideals in Z[X], and a few other things 🙂
Ahh, no worries haha
I worked through a classification of maximal ideals in Z[x] with someone once but I realize I made a slight error with it 😂
So if that was with you my bad OOF
Yeah that was probably with me. The explanation made me look up a lot of things about ideals and quotients though and we covered it more extensively than the book did on a later lecture anyway
Ah, okay. The part where I failed was showing that the maximal ideal has to have a prime number p. I think I said to intersect with Z, but you have to rule out the case that’s empty and in order to do that you have to extend the ideal to Q[x] I believe.
Yeah, we did that and then used Gauss' lemma to show the ideal was principal and generated by the primitive polynomial of the polynomial with least degree in that case.
A nice proof now that I understand it haha
Ah nice. I don’t remember if I actually did do that lmao
What is definition of a separation? I can't find rigorous definition online and making my own doesnt seem to work well.
So far I have, two sets A,B in M are separated iff
1.A U B = M
2. A intersect B = {}
3. A,B Nonempty.
But I can think of examples that counter this.
I think this is commonly referred to as a disconnection, and we require A and B open
This doesn’t always exist, and if one doesn’t exist then we call that space connected
oh A and B have to be open and I think the fixes the problem
before I was having a problem where I was giving two sets that were touching
yep, if you require A, B open this is precisely the usual definition of a disconnection
🙂
we say M is disconnected if there exist such A, B open [with AUB = M, A and B nonempty and disjoint]
and otherwise M is connected
proving connected seems hard
generally speaking, yes
Generally you show it can’t be disconnected
fortunately there is a useful theorem:
the image of a continuous function on a connected set is connected.
yes
I think like all my connectedness arguments are by contradiction.
I was going to ask that question
It’s just much easier to attack that way IMO
yeah, certainly if you want to do it "directly" from the definition the usual way is
"suppose we have a disconnection {U, V} for this set S. then consider this other set T that we know is connected. then we can construct new sets out of {U, V} by... and this is a disconnection of T because... but that is a contradiction."
in some cases this can be done very "directly"
for example, proving the closure of a connected set is connected
- Say you want to prove there is no homeomorphism between two sets A,B then is it enough to show that A-S is connected and B-S is disconnected, for some subset S in A and B .
- Is homeomorphic an equivalence relation?
Two questions ive been thinking about
homeomorphisms preserve connected components, yes
and yes, homeomorphisms are an equivalence relation; see https://proofwiki.org/wiki/Homeomorphism_Relation_is_Equivalence
oh yeah good point @tough imp
homeomorphisms preserve number of connected components
so you'd have to show it for all such S
You can like, assume the S’s in each set have the sane cardinality
(i.e. that A has one connected component, while B has >1)
But besides that it’s pretty general
You can extract the number of connected components from betti numbers of the space
I’m trying to understand the characterization of morphisms into P^n from a scheme X as being equivalent to an invertible sheaf L on X and a set of n + 1 sections which generate L
I’m following Hartshorne, and on page 150 he says given a map phi: X -> P^n we get these sections s_i = phi^*(x_i) which generate phi^*(O(1))
I don’t understand what phi^*(x_i) is
For a second I thought it could be anything in the fiber of x_i... but that doesn’t even make sense!
Why doesnt that make sense?
Umm, I think the ring map is going the other way actually
So these are the images of the x_i under the ring map on global sections?
I realized that given an invertible sheaf and sections which generate it you have to make a map into P^n and given the construction in Hartshorne this at least seems to be what’s going on?
Well if you have X into P^n then you have a map of sheaves
And x_i are elements of that sheaf
Right, but this actually goes the other way
I thought it would be thinfs in the fiber
Aka stuff mapping to x_i
But the map goes the other direction so actually it should be the image of the x_i I think
I think this actually makes sense. Geometrically if we think of these as homogenous coordinates we want to define stuff by just saying “this is where this coordinate goes” which is what this does. But if you look at the actually construction of the map, since a homogenous coordinate isn’t well-defined, only ratios of them we define stuff by sending x_i/x_j to s_i/s_j
Which is really just the proper way to say we send x_i to s_i
Or something
Is ${(p,q):p,q\in\mathbb{Q}}\cup{(p,q)\setminus K:p,q\in\mathbb{Q}}$ where $K={\frac{1}{n}:n\in\mathbb{N}}$, a countable basis for $\mathbb{R}_K$?
emphatic_wax:
So consider $[0,1]^{[0,1]}$ in product topology, what's a subset that's sequentially compact but not compact?
mniip:
I could probably construct something isomorphic to the long ray, but is there possibly a lower tech example?
actually now I doubt the ability to construct a long ray here...
Let $\phi : [0, 1] \to \omega_1$ be a bijection, then
$$A := \left{ f \in [0, 1]^{[0,1]} \middle|\exists \alpha \in \omega_1 : \begin{array}{l}\forall \beta > \alpha, f(\phi^{-1}(\beta)) = 1 \ \forall \beta < \alpha, f(\phi^{-1}(\beta)) = 0\end{array} \right}$$
is homeomorphic to the long ray
mniip:
would appreciate a simpler example still
"Find a subspace of R^2 that is path connected but not locally path-connected at any of its points."
Is this even possible? I've been racking my brain for hours trying to think of how to modify the topologist's sine curve or something. Any hints?
Please ping me.
Do you mean the opposite? Locally path connected but not path connected? (I think path connected implies locally path connecredl
In that case, maybe like 3 topologists sine curves connected end to end
So that from each point there exists another point that you have to pass the fucky part of the topologists sine curve to get to
@espio
@hard wind
no, path connected does not imply locally path connected
Nope, that was the exact wording.
Path connected but not locally path-connected at any of its points.
and also the problem wouldn't have made sense if you switch it since path connected at a point doesn't make sense
Path connected means between any two points there is a path, and locally path connected at a point p means there is a neighborhood around p that is path connected, right?
Then doesn't path connected imply locally path connected?
Errr, no
no no no
that's not the definition
locally path connected means for every point p and open set U containing p, there is a smaller open set V that is path connected
Sorry, yeah thats the real definition
But your definition implies mine, and my definition implies yours
Take the topologist's sine curve and connect the two ends (0,0) and (1,0) with a curve
your definition doesn't imply mine
Actually not quite
I meant not quite at mathbath
Thats an example of path connected but not locally path connected yeah
yeah at every point
But i need every point
Which honestly, makes no sense to me
I dont see how thats possible
At least not as a subspace of R^2
i was thinking of maybe take $\br{\bigcup_{x\in\bQ}\brc{x}\times\bR}\cup(\bR\times\brc{0})$
Whoever:
But the Rx{0} part doesn't work
Interesting idea, I had thought about comb spaces earlier
Yeah... it's hard
I couldnt seem to find a comb space that works
Oh I found the answer on stackexchange
Hm, I guess I fail at topology
Damn, impressive whoever
welp
I could not find it on stackexchange
do you want it?
Can i have a hint first
the answer kind of used my idea
except it's
connecting (0,0) to (1,p) for every rational p in [0,1]
and you try to do something else to make the space not locally path connected at (0,0)
hmm
subspace of [0,1]^[0,1] in product topology whose sequential closure is not sequential closed

Pasting here so not lost in the clutter of chill:
Consider the indicator functions of an algebra of sets (e.g. the opens). If a sequence of these indicators converges pointwise, then both the liminf and limsup converge to this same limit, which is the indicator of the set A that is either the union of cofinite intersections or intersection of cofinite unions we discussed earlier (these must coincide in fact). This already shows that if you start with the opens, a convergent sequence can only give you something at most two steps up the Borel hierarchy.
On the other hand, as each step of the Borel hierarchy forms an algebra, you can always write an arbitrary union or intersection of sets in one step as a monotonic union or intersection. This shows that a convergent sequence can get you anything in the next step up the Borel hierarchy.
Paragraph 2 shows you get get arbitary finite step Borel sets by repeatedly taking sequential closures, Paragraph 1 shows you can't get all of these with only one sequential closure operation. Hence the sequential closure is not sequentially closed.
Why is there no channel for algebraic geometry alone? 
Algebraic geometry \subset algebra \cup topology and geometry
if you are however looking for algebraic geometry discussion, Ravi Vakil runs a math discord (I kid you not) called the algebraic geometry syndicate
that's the only reason I have the (CA) in my name; they wanted us to indicate our locations
@ancient zenith one thing that's worth noting is that discord has a way to have a nickname on a server separate from your global username
So if you'd rather not use your real name and location here you can change your overall user to something more anonymous and then set a nickname on AGS that complies with what they want
oh my god
you're telling me I've been unnecessarily doxxing myself this whole time
rest in rip me
but u need to solve a challenge problem to get nickname changing privilege, better get solving quick!
ripppp
Algebraic geometry \subset algebra \cup topology and geometry
@honest narwhal algebra is a subset of topology and geometry?
Huh
Algebraic geometry = Algebra tensor Geometry
Dynamical systems why? When theres analysis
Category theory? You mean foundations? Etc
I claimed that the set $A$ defined by
$$A={ (x,y,z)\in\mathbb{R}^3 \ \lvert \ x+y+z\in\mathbb{Q}}$$
has interior point as $\varnothing$ and closure as $\mathbb{R}^3$? But how to show that? I have shown that set $A$ is a neither open nor closed set in $\mathbb{R}^3$.
weilam06:
Proving the closure is R3 should be easy, as A contains Q^3 (and Q is dense in R)
To show that the interior is empty, fix (x,y,z) in A, for any epsilon ball in A, pick an irrrational delta such that (x + delta, y, z) is contained in the epsilon ball.
So we pick $\delta=\dfrac{\varepsilon}{2}$ for irrational $\varepsilon$ and $\delta=\dfrac{\varepsilon}{\sqrt{2}}$ for rational $\varepsilon$ to show its interior?
weilam06:
yeah those work
Nice
Proving the closure is R3 should be easy, as A contains Q^3 (and Q is dense in R)
@tight agate But I still don't get the idea since set $A\subseteq \mathbb{Q}$.
no, A contains (sqrt(2), -sqrt(2), 0), which is not in Q^3
Q^3 is contained in A
So Q^3 closure is contained in A closure
And what is Q^3 closure?
R^3
so?
I understand now, so formally written, Q^3 ⊆ A ⊆ R^3 => R^3=cl Q^3 ⊆ cl A ⊆ cl R^3=R^3 yields the result
yup
Hey I'm looking for an academic journal that contains a proof of the Hyperplane Separation Theorem. Does anyone know where a good place to look would be?
Dumb reasons. XD
Basically I gotta get 12 citable items for a survey research paper
Web proofs =/= citable items
gross
ikr
Good luck lol, don't think many people consider this theorem "journal-worthy"
maybe try some computational geometry shit or something idk, some applied geometry journal
Yeah, but I can't get ahold of books in time because I kinda blew this off. XD
Yeah, it's my own fault and I'll suffer for it. Thanks anyway
Thank you so much
I'll look into it.
Hi, I am trying to prove that the real projective plane is NOT homeomorphic to a circle. However, I am a bit lost. I'd like to argue in terms of connected components but not sure.
aren't they both connected?
how overkill do you want your solution to be

the universal cover of RP^2 is S^2 and the universal cover of S^1 is R 
another maybe overkill solution is that RP^2 has fundamental group Z / 2Z and S^1 has fundamental group Z
but connectedness is not the topological invariant that fails here
idk i wouldn't say that's an overkill solution
im blanking on a non-AT topological invariant that breaks here
maybe manifolds are too nice
true
@summer jolt what level is this?
line goes that way or line goes this way 
@summer jolt what level is this?
@gritty widget undergrad
The circle is oriented
@gritty widget we haven't covered orientation yet
but connectedness is not the topological invariant that fails here
@gritty widget I was thinking that if I remove two points on the circle then I form two connected components and RP2 you don't? But I don't see the picture
everything i mentioned is undergrad level to me, i meant if this is a gen topology class or an AT class lol sounds right
i like that argument
maybe it'll help to look at RP^2 as something like this, or maybe as the sphere with antipodal points identified
(if you want a picture)
i like that argument
@gritty widget the only thing I am unsure is what would be the number of connected components in RP2 if I remove two points.
Thanks for the pic, but I really don't get why it represents RP2. I am used to thinking that RP2 like a half sphere with antipodal points but even that is hard to grasp.
i strongly believe it will again be one connected component
im writing something down to convince myself lol
think of it like this maybe: if you remove two points from RP^2, how many points do you remove from the hemisphere with antipodal points identified? could you possibly disconnect it?

that argument might be a little sketchy
Yeah you're right it would still be connected.
and then RP^2 minus those points is the image under the quotient map of your hemisphere minus some points, which is still a connected domain
i like what slimvesus is saying more than what im saying lol
listen to them
RP2 - point = mobius band
@gritty widget oh wow! I didn't know this.
like i said, just nuke it with universal coverings
or throw a grenade at it with the fundamental group
i don't actually know a lot about the projective plane
you're the expert here
Isn't that the circle again?
so many ways to do this 😌
Hmm so you saying that if I remove a point from RP2 you get a circle?
Ah!
Ok I am getting to understand the reasoning now!
Yes, I can imagine. That makes sense.
Here I have a question. I am asking to write down a single subset of $\mathbb{R}^2$ that satisfies all conditions: \
(i) $A$ is connected and not pathwise-connected.\
(ii) $A$ contains the set $K={(x,y)\in\mathbb{R}^2 \ \lvert \ x\in[0,1], y=0 }$ as a subset.\
As the example that I know, the set $P=Q\cup R$, with $Q={(x,y)\in\mathbb{R}^2 \ \lvert \ y\in[-1,1], x=0 }$ and $R=\left{(x,y)\in\mathbb{R}^2 \ \lvert \ x\in[0,1], y=\sin\dfrac{1}{x} \right}$ is the most famous example to show that connected does not imply pathwise-connected in higher dimension. Thus I modified a bit for my answer, that is, take set $A=K\cup G$, where set $K$ is given on the question, and\
$G=\left{(x,y)\in\mathbb{R}^2 \ \lvert \ y\in[0,1], x=\dfrac{1}{2}\sin\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{2} \right}$\
Am I in the right track?
weilam06:
i) you mean not path connected?
oh do people use pairwise connected for path connected or is it smt else
i) you mean not path connected?
@sweet wing Oops I meant pathwise-connected. It seems I have a typo.
icic
but yh the idea is that
just put the sine curve in the correct location
such that Q aligns with K
Yeap I wonder if I get the set $G$ wrong because I have to adjust the graph
weilam06:
If there are other example that satisfies the condition, it would be better
Hi. Why is the subspace topology here discrete? Note X is a metrizable space.
'A has no limit points' implies that every subset of A is closed in A
Ohh that makes sense, which means that every subset is also open
Question: what do you get gluing the opposite sides of 2n-polygon? Square gives the torus, I think the hexagon also gives the torus, the octagon gives the double torus (I looked this up). However, I'm failing to identify the pattern (is there any?)
there is a pattern
maybe you can visualize the octagon case like this:
use a line to split the octagon into two halves. if we collapse this middle line to a point while doing the gluing, we'll get two squares joined at a point. each square can then have its sides glued together like you would to get a torus (as pictured). then you have the double torus
(i really hope i didn't identify the sides wrong lmao)
it's been a while since i did this so please correct me if my square-to-torus gluing is wrong
having trouble proving the map is injective
its easy to visualize but im having trouble writing it out formally
I think the important thing here is that the interior of A is nonempty
Otherwise eg a line segment in R2 through the origin does not give rise to an injective p
iirc there is some tricky linear algebra argument about compact convex sets with nonempty interior satisfying some nice properties that are relevant here, but there's a good chance I'm misremembering/talking nonsense
@sharp yoke
If x is a point of the boundary of A with maximal distance from 0 along a given ray L from 0, I claim it is the unique boundary point of A on this ray. To see this, consider apply the convexity condition to an epsilon ball about 0 and x. This gives you a narrow cone of points contained in A, and all points of the ray L other than x are interior to this cone and hence not boundary points of A.
but why is there an epsilon ball around x?
i think proving this is tricky
ah, i am a dumbass
i guess i am probably mixing this up with something else
epsilon ball around 0, not x @gritty widget
picture x as the point (0,1) in the plane for instance, and you are putting a tiny ball about (0,0) and drawing line segments between every point in this ball and (0,1), forming essentially a cone.
yeah i see it, i was being a dumbass
thank you
maybe you can visualize the octagon case like this:
use a line to split the octagon into two halves. if we collapse this middle line to a point while doing the gluing, we'll get two squares joined at a point. each square can then have its sides glued together like you would to get a torus (as pictured). then you have the double torus
@gritty widget yeah that's exactly how I thought about it!
@oak skiff You're mapping to a set with the same topology (an open set) or something else ?
Why don't you send that problem so that it'll be easier to explain with an example.
@oak skiff mostly it's obvious, but are you aware of "The Rules for constructing continuous functions" ?
ahh,I guess you construct continuous functions by proving that they're continuous over specific topologies
So you know these and have you practiced examples on this ? @oak skiff
btw what book is your course referring to ?
ahh Munkres shouldn't create any confusions tbh. But you should be looking at Chapter 2 Section 18 i believe.
That's fine, good luck with that though. Hope you get the confusions cleared up
Do you even need that X1 and X2 are algebraic here?
I'm not sure if I'm missing anything because the equality seems to follow straight from the definition
Ok that's good to hear
Hi ! Just to be sure : A manifold is simply connected if it is arcwise connected and has the trivial fundamental group (i.e. for all x in M, all loop from x to x are homotopic to the identity) ? (I hope this is the place to ask, I'm new here, just tell me if it is not 🙂 )
that sounds like the right definition of simple connectedness yes
you only need that the fundamental group at some point is trivial, since you have path connectedness
you only need that the fundamental group at some point is trivial, since you have path connectedness
@gritty widget I didn't get that, I think I am lacking something
If it's path connected, then it suffices to check that the fundamental group is trivial at a single point because you can always use that change of base theorem in Hatcher
Showing that the fundamental group at a base-point contained in the same path connected set are isomorphic
@gritty widget does that make sense?
Yes I get the idea and the intuition
but I did not see that theorem
i'll check it
It's chapter 1
I forget which theorem it is exactly, but the proof isn't too difficult
Just compose paths cleverly
ok but basicly it says that if there exist a continuous path between two path and if the fundamental group at one of them is trivial, then it is also trivial for the second one ?
if you have a path from a to b, then the fundamental groups are isomorphic by the following map:
-take a loop at b
-map to a loop at a by starting at a, following the path to b
-do your loop at b
-go back to a using the path in reverse
in alg lecture rn, can't go super in depth
it should be in literally any topology book
(yeah yeah, homotopy class of loops, i get it)
Just use the path a to b (and b to a) to turn a loop at a into a loop at b
And a loop at b to a loop at a
Conclude these processes are inverses
There’s only one way to do this that you should be able to think of
I guess verifying this plays nice with the operation or whatever becomes more of a pain but once you have the map you can just verify details
Ok so there is a way to map a loop at a with a loop at b but i don't see how this help us to conclude that the fundamental groups are isomorphic
And why the fact that they are isomorphic implies that if one is fundamental, the other one has to be
one is fundamental 
if one fundamental group is trivial*
sorry i'm a little tired 😅
why if one is trivial the other is
well if two groups are isomorphic and one has only one element, so does the other
oh yes make sense
chmonkey described why the map gives you an isomorphism of pi_1(X, a) and pi_1(X, b)
you can find the details in e.g. munkres or hatcher or on wikipedia probably (or just do it lol)
ok, thanks a lot for your patience 🙂
If $\mathscr{E}$ is a locally free $\mathcal{O}_X$ module of finite rank, I want to show that
$\mathscr{H}\text{om},(\mathscr{E},\mathcal{F})\cong \check{\mathscr{E}}\otimes \mathcal{F}$ for any $\mathcal{O}_X$ module $\mathcal{F}$
Chmonkey:
On an open set $U$ for which $\mathscr{E}$ is isomorphic to a free $\mathcal{O}_X$ module, I was able to produce an explicit isomorphism, and was (with trouble) able to show that these agreed on intersections to give a global isomorphism
Chmonkey:
Is there a way to define such a map globally however, and then to simply check that it's an isomorphism locally? If so I'd much rather do that, but it's really not clear how you can get a map either direction
We can define the following map from the presheaf that you get when you take the tensor product over each open set
I figured it out ;w;
oh okay nvm
I literally couldn't think of a map Hom_A(M,N) to Hom(M,A) (x) N
for like an hour and a half
Err, I guess it's the other way around
yeah the map I have goes the other way
yup
I had this like exact idea, but thought for some reason I had to pick an arbitrary n to use
forgetting you get given an n to use
😔
and sat around for an hour and a half mulling about how tf I can do this
but this is just a map from the presheaf right
Right, but you can show it's a local iso
you need to sheafify after that
so it doesn't matter
yup
You don't even need to localize
or just on stalks
err stalks
the issue is
to know that sheaf hom plays nice with stalks you need like
the first thing to finitely presented or something
at least that's what I saw on Stacks??
hmm
And I don't want to deal with that shit right now haha
The idea is sheaf-hom_{O_x}(F,G)_x is just Hom_{O_X,x}(F_x,G_x) right?
But I think this fails in general
I think youre fine in this case as they're locally free
Yeah, but basically
I don't want to prove that equality
XD
I mean I guess I should, but also it's equally easy to just go to a trivializing cover
to get the map we defined is an iso
but to prove the equality of the stalks above is more work and I'll just... save that for later
Omg my geometry lecturer just wrote f holomorphic from compact Riemann surface X to CP^1, d for degree of f, F' for # faces of a triangulation T of X, F for # faces on f[T], and then reasoned F' = dF XD
hello shamrock
i was typing a witty response to what epicguy posted
but then i realized i had read their post wrong
it's 4 am for me so the chances i'll be able to contribute anything are infinitesimal
but ok

I'm supposed to show <ad(X) Y, Z> = - <Y, ad(X) Z> for all X, Y, Z in \g
kinda looks like the "connection is compatible with the metric" condition but equal to zero with some terms shuffled
I tried to do this as follows:
Let γ be the one parameter subgroup with γ'(0) = X. Define vector fields V, W along γ by V(t) = d(L_γ(t))_e(Ad(γ(t)) Y) and W(t) = d(L_γ(t))_e(Ad(γ(t)) Z). Then d/dt <V(t), W(t)> = <D_t V, W> + <V, D_t W> by compatibility with the metric
By left invariance of the metric <V(t), W(t)> = <Ad(γ(t)) Y, Ad(γ(t)) Z>, and by bi-invariance this is constant
(bi invariance is equivalent to the inner product on \g being invariant under the adjoint representation of G)
okay so the derivative of a constant is 0
So it suffices to show (D_t V)(0) = ad(X) Y
(and by symmetry the same thing but for W)
This feels plausible to me because ad(X) = d(Ad_e)(X) = (Ad ° γ)'(0)
But I haven't gotten any further than that
wtf is D_t
I hate it
V(t) = d(L_γ(t))_e(Ad(γ(t)) Y)
should it be Ad(γ'(t))Y inside? or am i missing something about lie groups
in what way?
Ad : G -> GL(\g)
ad : \g -> \gl(\g)
Ad(x) is the differential of the conjugation by x map : G -> G at the identity
ad(X)(Y) = [X, Y] but also ad is the differential of Ad at the identity
okay well one more thing: if we define $A_x = d(L_x)e(Ad(x) Y)$ then $A$ extends $V$ so $(D_t V)(0) = \nabla{\gamma'(0)} A = \nabla_X A$
shamrock:
lemme try it for a little bit and see if i come up with something
Sure, I'm mostly just trying to sound off the problem again and see if I notice anything new
the only technique i know of to make calculating covariant derivatives easier is writing things in parallel vector fields but i don't really see how that'd make this easier lol
i'm still thinking on it tho
I think I maybe figured it out but I'm confused by something
So like
If you instead define V(t) = d(L_γ(t))_e(Ad(γ(t)^-1) Y) then I think V(t) = d(R_γ(t))_e(Y)
Because in G if you conjugate by γ(t)^-1 and then multiply by γ(t) on the left, that's the same as multiplying by γ(t) on the right
Actually I think I see it now
ty for the help
does working with this new definition of V(t) and W(t) solve it?
also it would be V(t) = d(R_γ(t))_e(Y), can confirm
there's a proof of this in do carmo 
I think so
I mean, I actually changed it to d(R_gamma(t))_e(Ad(gamma(t)) Y)
but things work out right I think
So with this change V has extension the left invariant vector field corresponding to Y
hmm no this does not immediately solve my problems
but it is insight
and I should go to sleep
i guess i can give an uneducated hint
it's in the section before covariant derivatives in do carmo so you shouldn't need those

What is?
the proof of the thing you wanna show
oh uh
(the first thing)
ya
Maybe I'm fucking this up then
It's in the section on the Levi-Civita connection in Lee
But there's more to the problem
lemme take a peek at lee
i might look at the problem more tomorrow
i don't have a lot of homework this week so i have some spare time to mess around with
oh nice copy
It's on my homework so I'm going to think about it more for sure lol
Yee
I have the trio
i am jealous
both of my classes concerning smooth manifolds so far have completely ignored lie groups 
Oof
and my rg prof is speedrunning do carmo, any%
My course last year didn't do a lot with them
like
The important stuff if at the end of ISM
But do to covid we didn't get there
and so they did it in prelim prep seminars over the summer
But I was doing other stuff
ism chapter 19 
I read it on my own but it's not the same
Oh 19?
We did that
We did cover the closed subgroup theorem
foliations are cool
idk what the lie group exponential is so i don't understand lee's hint
is it related to the geodesic exponential
where you go along a geodesic for time t = 1
Well uj
That's this problem lol
See part c
if you have a bi invariant metric they're the same
oh 
but it's pretty simple
Same idea I mean
You know about like, integral curves?
Did you know that left invariant vector fields on a lie group are complete?
Pretty cool
i kinda wish my courses would go into this stuff, seems like i have to go read it on my own
well like, the exponential of a vector X in the lie algebra is γ(1), where γ is the integral curve with γ(0) = e and γ'(0) = X
So like how the exponential on a riemannian manifold works but with integral curves instead of geodesic
Yeah
This is an integral curve of the left invariant vector field which is X at the identity
and which starts at 0
and exists for all time 😌
Yee
so you don't have to worry about scaling issues to define gamma(1)
👀
maybe i'll read the lee lie group stuff over my break 
It's good!!
I wish I understood it better
Me and a friend of mine are thinking of reading a book on Lie groups/lie algebras
But time...
how much stuff from algebra actually comes into play? i'm taking algebra right now so it'd be nice to have the two (algebra, smooth manifolds) really mix together
(for lie groups)
Idk
I assume rep theory of lie groups is different
But on the other hand, there's some stuff which is the same
algebra has just been "symmetric group goes brrr" and i want to see a little more 
oh okay lol I was gonna ask if you'd seen rep theory for finite groups
So like, I was thinking about this on my own the other day
oh god no lmao
There's this theorem called maschkes theorem in finite group rep theory
It's like the first theorem in that
And it involves averaging something over your group
the most rep theory i've seen is skimming the gelfand naimark duality stuff from my func anal book, and it's not like i actually read it 
And the proof works the exact same for compact lie groups!!
oh neat
You just need to assume your representation is smooth and take an integral to average
anyways, I think there's definitely bits that are algebraicy and bits that aren't, but I haven't studied it yet so idk
My uni is doing a completely algebraic course on lie algebras right now and I dropped it
Lecturer was terrible and I want some geometry
geometry > algebra
tbh
anyone who says "but algebra = geometry" is smoking crack
good thing it's 5 am and the people who know more mathematics than me can't come get angry at me for that 
anyways i'm going to head off to sleep now
if i notice anything when (if) i look at the problem tomorrow i'll post it here
good luck on the problem (and rest of hw)
ty
I have two weeks so I'm not worried
Benefits of being in post-quals courses lol
I'm working in k[X1,X2,X3,X4] over some unknown field, not necessarily algebraically closed. I want to write the intersection (X1,X2) \bigcap (X3,X4) more explicitly. My guess is (X1X3,X1X4,X2X3,X2X4), but I'm not sure how to prove the inclusion to the right
@gritty widget you were right about not needing covariant derivatives
any bilinear function T : V x W -> U between fd vector spaces satisfies $dT_{(p, q)}(v, w) = T(p, w) + T(v, q)$
shamrock:
is there some easy way of showing a function from a compact space to a compact space is continuous with looking at the open sets?
Maybe the closed graph theorem?
if the domain and range are metric spaces I believe the function is uniformly continuous
i interpreted their question as: "is there a quick-shortcut for testing continuity of functions between compact spaces"
The fastest way I know is to just claim that it is continuous
i believe a continuous map between compact spaces is closed. I can't think of a sufficient condition easier than the usual definition of continuity tho
i interpreted their question as: "is there a quick-shortcut for testing continuity of functions between compact spaces"
@little hemlock yeah - that's correct
hmm maybe the closed graph theorem
Oh, I misread the original question, I thought it said "without" open sets, not "with" open sets
what is a visualization of the one point compactification of a countable set with the discrete topology?
i guess i have never used this space before, but why not just Z+infinity at the end?
i meant like a visualization of it
like how the one point compactification of R is visualized as a circle
i guess the one point compactification of Z is just the subset of the circle that corresponds to {∞} U Z
xD
I guess that works
a countable set with the discrete topology?
isn't that already Hausdorff (if it has ≥2 elements)and compact?
How is it compact?
I guess countable to me means infinite countable (maybe some people use it to mean finite?)
Eg I think I have heard "enumerable" as finite or cardinality of integers
aaaaah yes you're right. then you can take e.g. an open cover of singletons and it fails catastrophically
for an infinite set
oh yeah by countable i meant infinite countable
So in bijection with the set of naturals
t. wildberger
I'm doing a problem which is asking me to interpret $\int_{\mathbf{P^n}}c_n(TP^n)$
Brofibration:
where c_n(TP^n) is the top Chern class of the tangent bundle of projective space
I computed that it is (n+1).Vol(P^n)
and I know that this is somehow supposed to correspond to the number of times a generic vector field on Pn vanishes
but I'm unable to make the connection
no pun intended
I found an answer online which used Hirzebruch Riemann Roch and the Hodge decomposition lol
and the Borel Serre identity
there's gotta be a more low-tech way of doing this
given I have the radius, the major axis is the blue line, and the minor axis is the red line, how do I find the shortest distance from the major axis for the curve of the circle
I was trying to make radial sanding blocks myself because they are expensive and I ran into this problem
im taking euclidean geometry next semester but for right now I only have 11th grader education on it
Sorry, your question isn't clear. Shortest distance between what and what?
oh sorry. Im trying to find how far apart the blue line and the edge of the circle are only on the y axis.
What do you know about the circle? Length of the blue line? Radius?
Angle from center to edge of blue line?
the radius, major axis (blue), and minor axis (minor) are all given. I am essentially setting it up by superimposing an ellipse on a circle where the radius is know
another thought is to find the velocity of y via partial derivative given that the edge of the ellipse is half of one period. but im also not sure if a formula for the perimeter of an ellipse based upon just the major and minor axis exist (it probably does).
and then maybe integrate the partial of y to get the distance from the major axis?
im not sure. Im just using my knowledge of calc because thats what I know. there is probably a much better way to do it
"Im trying to find how far apart the blue line and the edge of the circle are only on the y axis."
I took this to mean you're trying to find the length of the red line. But you have that as a given?
Oh haha I see
That would be
√[r² - x²] - height of the blue line
Height of the blue is just r - red
ah ty
I don’t see how the locally finite collection implies the closure is the union of the same U’s
local finiteness lets you commute union and closure, you can see a proof here https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2623619/closure-of-union-of-locally-finite-collection-of-subsets-equal-to-union-of-closu/2623626
does bredon not mention it?
it's like one of the reasons you'd care about locally finite collections ig
😔
the proof in the mse post i linked is good imo
it's good to keep in mind, it comes up sometimes when you work with partitions of unity
whoever ur learning topology as well

Damn, I cannot understand this. I am not sure if this is "Whoever, you as well are learning topology" or "Whoever, you are learning topology as well"
apparently you can do the forward direction using that the identity function is a homeomorphism if you assume the topologies are equivalent
when you assume continuous i can get the upper bound easily but i can't get the lower bound
ok i guess my process is wrong because doing the inverse does nothing for me
how do you use continuity to find the bound
Is that true independent of dimension?
Even in infinite dimensions?
My fcnl background
Is a little lacking
I only know finite stuff well
lol
Really?
It's that basic?
No, it's ok
My background is fucking wonky
I deserve it
Ahh I see
That is fair
As you can tell, I was thrown into advanced topics courses without a whole lot of background
Ahh, bounded if and only if continuous
I knew it was true in finite dimensions
I didn't know it was true in infinite
Bounded if and only if continuous
Yeah
The proof is the same as the finite version
I only took an applied functional analysis class, where we were interested in Boundary Value Problems
and using things like compact operators
bounded if and only if lipschitz if and only if continuous at the origin if and only if takes bounded sets to bouned sets yada yada
just read pedersen 😌
this is correct
Let p and q be quotient maps, and r be a map. Let p = q o r. Is r continuous? Is r quotient?
let q be a constant map lol
well then the answer is "not necessarily"
i guess you could then ask what conditions on q (or p) you need?
q would be a quotient map
falls right out of the definition of one
well it's not hard to see
TTerra:
@limpid vault thx. Also to address what you said before this was just one part of "walk-through" problem for proving that all norms on Rn are equivalent
i only posted that one part which is probably why it seemed weird
unfortunately that p set took me quite a while so now im gonna have to brew some coffee as i start my physics problem set also due tomorrow

the proof is just as bad
well less bad because it's just a solid block of notation and not א1 indices
Dear god
I mean it shows how good Einstein summation notation is
@sleek thicket you are like little baby
I am very much a little baby
Riemannian geometry pushes the limits of my baby brain
Oh I meant with the indices
Does anyone know if there's a pdf of FGA explained floating around?
managed to find a djvu file but those are always horrible
what book is that from
the book shamrock posted is lee's "introduction to riemannian manifolds"
they're cool but as i said, my brain is too small
lots of ugly notation and computation
but the structure/geometry is really nice & good when you're able to see past that
how is studying riemannian manifolds?
if you can deal with the occasional terrible computation, it's super nice
take all the nice stuff about smooth manifolds, and then add some geometry, and now drawing funny warped squares and curvy lines becomes an actual proof technique
(/s)
there's going to be a class on Fukaya cats over here next quarter
im not sure if I should do it as I know pretty much nothing about symplectic stuff
other than the definition
or the Kaehler case
yeah I looked at that, some of the links seem to be broken
but thanks!
oh wait nvm that linked to another page and I could access some lecture notes
thanks!
Here's the link if anyone else cares:
There's a course on "Canonical metrics in Kahler geometry" here in spring and I haven't decided whether I want to take it
I've heard bad things about the prof and the course announcement thingy says "Prerequisite: good handling of multi-variable calculus and mathematical maturity"
Which is very concerning to me
Right lol






