#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 176 of 1
might help to look up an alternate construction and compare as well
im pretty sure there are at least 2?
Etale spaces are nice
i guess this is what you're referring to
Am I correct in thinking that, within the space defined by the 2d surface of a square flat torus in R4, no finite amount of points defines a unique line?
and by “square” I mean that if you unfolded it into a rectangle that rectangle would be a square
For example, imagine you’re given 2 points on a torus that, unfolded into a square, has side length S
like
if you have a square of the 2d plane
and fold it in R4 so it’s like Pac-man in how it loops around
I was under the impression the resulting shape was called a flat torus, or am I wrong?
doesn’t it stretch in R3?
okay then
so that object
say it unfolds into a square with side length S
and you are given two points on it
Define one point as (0,0) and the other as (x,y)
then I would think you could have lines with slopes y/x, or (y+S)/x, or... etc etc, all of which pass through both points
am I correct in thinking that?
for the special case of 2 points?
um
I think it’s the Clifford torus, though I don’t know enough terminology to say for sure
um
I don’t understand the question
The embedding, I think
slimvesus:
that’s the one that would fold a square so the opposite edges match, right?
oh
whichever one is the one where opposite edges of a square are the same line
and not twisted
oh sorry
quotient of the plane
because for example
what the exact question here
Am I correct in thinking that, within the space defined by the 2d surface of a square flat torus in R4, no finite amount of points defines a unique line?
and he helped me better define what I meant by the torus
if you take a square in the plane, and fold it into a torus
now what do you mean by lines?
ah I see
Yeah okay
I mean more or less what I said unless this term is obvious from a diffgeo perspective
And the embedding of the torus in R^3 has a different metric
gotcha
like, imagine you have a square of the plane
okay
and it wraps around like a torus
sure
you start at one point, and you choose a fixed direction to go in until you hit the other point
the line would be your path
well technically the line is infinitely long, not just that segment, but you know what I mean
I’d think any finite number of points allows for infinite lines that cross through them all
I think you need more structure here
there are certainly infinitely many maps [0,1]\to T^2
crossing through any finite set of points
the line is straight sorry
but this is all you get if you just take a torus to be a folded plane
If your 'straighness' is induced by R^2 then
mhm
you can take the line to be the unique one in R^2
but it can wrap
no, in either direction it doesn’t stop
so for example
Unique up to a basepoint
let’s say the square is of side length 1
we're literally prescribing 2 basepoints liquid lol
Okay sure
and the points on the square are (0,0) and (0,1)
then the straight line from the lower left to the lower right corner would be one
but the straight line from the lower left to upper right corner would be another
Yeah there is one lift for every point in the preimage of that basepoint
is that in response to me or Equivariant?
Equivariant
Okay
anyway
do you understand my question?
im double checking to make sure liquids point isn't clouding my thinking
Sorry lol
no no i mean
i might be wrong
me too
but in theory we have a choice of lift
OH
but they are all the same
once we pass
yeah
yeah yeah i got there and forgot about it sorry
in a lecture rn
Okay so like
Imagine you take the square from (0,0) to (1,1)
and map it onto a torus
Now imagine you take the points (0,0) and (0.5, 1)
that second point is the same as the point “0.5,0”
yes glue the sides
Sounds like a question I still have
there are infinitely many lifts in the plane that all define the same map in the torus
unless im losing it
Is there a space-filling curve that is “toroidal” and resolution independent - i.e. preserves the donut-ness while filling the space and giving the same general point regardless of resolution
so if you were to look at the equation of the line y = 2x, that line crosses both points
and so would the line y = 0
not to give you the same answer again polite
but
a square transforms very nicely into a torus
and you can ofc spacefil a square
but those two lines cross different sets of points, because the line y = 2x crosses the point (0.25,0.5) and the line y=0 doesn’t
so they’re different lines, right?
I will think about tihs when i can actually focus on it
I think I will use a fractal five pointed star for my own [0. 1) => (x, y) disk filling curve
T H A N K S @eq
@marsh forge
But if you take a square and designate two points, there is a unique line going through both. Likewise any such line in a torus lifts
we don't even need to pass to R^2
square is fine
Didn’t I just demonstrate that there isn’t a unique line passing through both though?
oh wait
duh
sorry
i cant think in coordinates while multitasking
so i ignore that
I actually think you're correct
You can basically abuse the wraparound
but if you’re on a torus, you can always define one point to be (0,0), right?
and let’s say you have the points (.25,.25) and (.75,.75)
then obviously the line y=x passes through both
that’s not right either why am I failing tbis
sorry that’s not the right line hang on a sec
there is a unique line that hits the second point before the boundary of the square
i think
but i dont think its actually unique
oh duh
ofc it is hahaha
thanks for rephrasing it in a much smarter what haha
y=2.5x - .375
An icosahedron (ike) is to a hexacosichoron (ex).
@west brook is that correct for what icosahedron is to?
oh youre right
lmao
im all over the place
im literally not capable of thinking about anything not up to homeo
yeah okay
i think we are both correct
but describing different distinct lines
but
i dont think the lines are unique
I think shortest line is unique, but there are infinite distinct lines
am I right about that?
basically you can get inf many by changing how fast you wrap around
And I think that applies in the more general case of n points for finite n, not just 2 points right?
yeah exactly
yeah that worried me
pi/2 is a number
and is why i said probably
irrational slope wouldn’t be an issue I’d think
i dont think so either
certainly if we can wrap around and get to the second point
we can do that twice and three times and four times... as fast
(0,0) to (1/pi, 1) can have the lines y=0 and y = pi easily
you mean like (.999, .001) to (.001,.002) has shortest line wrapping once?
sorry
why can I ask?
well okay lol
fine
so new question
does this always work with finitely many points
actually evidently not
some sets of three points would have zero lines
but I’m not sure if it would be limited to 0 and infinity, or if there are cases where there would be just 1 (or even finitely positively many) lines
if the line between the first two points is perpendicular to the line between the second two, I don’t think there’s any lines, right?
this gets
increasingly more complicated
and might start depending more on a choice of 'torus'
like (0.25,0.75), (0.75, 0.75), and (0.75, 0.25)
I don’t think any line can hit all three of those
i think there is an interesting theory here but i think it should be nontrivial
that line doesn’t hit (.75,.75)
and I think an easy way of looking at it
can you help me phrase it properly on math stackexchange?
and to be clear in a rectangle I think there’s always infinitely many
it’s only in the case of a square that I think the 0-line option is possible
and I don’t know how to phrase “the surface of a torus defined by wrapping a square”
slimvesus:
Idk if the n>2 is required
why not just n
I think it may be easy to show why the 0-case holds
On the square, there are three cases
-The line travels parallel to the x-axis. In this case, it cannot, by definition, travel along the y-axis at all, so if there are two points of differing y-values, this line cannot hit them both
-the same thing but with x and y swapped
-the line does not travel parallel to either axis. In this case, either it passes through every x-value exactly one time before returning to where it started, or it passes through every y-value exactly one time before returning to where it started. In the case where it passes through every x-value exactly one time, then if two points lie on the same x-value, it cannot pass through them both. Same with y. Therefore, if there exist points such that two points lie on the same x-value, and two points lie on the same y-value, no line can pass through them all.
To be clear I don’t think right angles in general are an issue
just when they’re angled so the lines are parallel to the axes
although... hm
irrational numbers may be an issue
no it isn’t
?
wdym
can you give a counterexample?
before retracing its steps
like
sorry I’m trying to figure out how to phrase it
you don’t count the same point twice
yes
are you sure?
right, that’s why I said irrational numbers do present a problem
but on rational slopes that holds
ok ok i think ive figured out a covering approach to the general problem: the set of lines through a finite set of points in the torus is the set of straight lines in R^2 that intersect any of the lifts of these points
thats what was throwing me so off
So the question should be approachable entirely in R^2
(I’m more curious about rational points anyway)
I’m not actually sure how irrational slopes work in this context
for example, if you have the points (0,0.5) and (0,0.75), does an irrational slope from one ever hit the other?
after how much time?
I don’t think it is finite is the thing
and here’s why-
the distance between the x-components of the points is rational
the distance between the y-components is rational
so by definition, the slope is rational
You should be able to tackle this with the fact I posted above. The question is whether an irrational slope can intersect a point that is mod Z^2 equivalent
this should just be whether a certain equation in R^2 can ever hold
not really
I don’t know the terminology
here’s a question
does this give a method to determine whether e-pi is rational?
are the dense lines all the same line?
how can a dense line miss a point?
yes
well
not in topology
Im not sure density helps here
because we care about a specific point
not up to some error term
but anyway we can 'characterize' the possible slopes
when is there a line with slope alpha
such that
(x_1 + a_1, y_1 + b_1) + t(alpha_1, alpha_2) = (x_2 + a_2, y_2 + b_2) has a solution
where the a,b are integers
I assume it means that when you draw the line, if you take the any two points on the line with the same x-coordinate, say (x, y1) and (x,y2), then there is a third point on the line (x,y3) such that y1 < y3 < y2, and the same with x and y swapped
basically a and b here control our 'lifts'
dude I don’t know what a lift is either that doesn’t help lol
anyway is my definition a good enough one for now or not?
ok then
so here’s a question
i think what i posted should lead you to be able to attack this problem number theoretically
at which point i get less interested lol
do lines with irrational slope only pass through points that are rational multiples of that slope?
bad phrasing
could you use this to test if pi-e was irrational?
no
by working in the square with sides 4-long, and seeing if there was a line that passed through all three of (0,0), (0,e), and (0,pi)?
and by “you” do you mean me in particular?
well
i also dont know enough
but i am not going to think abt this much harder probably
can you help me phrase the original question to post on stackexchange?
Given a finite set of points in T^2:=R^2/Z^2, when is there a straight line in R^2 whose image under the quotient passes through all of them, and can we count how many? Can we classify the possible slopes of said lines (i.e. rational, irrational, etc)?
and for the body text, help me phrase “I think there are (0 lines if there are at least two points with the same x-coordinate and two points with the same y-coordinate),(0 lines if there are two points with a difference of x-coordinates of a and two points with a difference of x-coordinates of b such that b and a are not both rational multiples of the same irrational or rational number), (the same but with y), (0 lines if there are two points with an x-coordinate difference of a and two points with a y-coordinate difference of b such that a and b are not rational multiples of the same irrational or rational number), (countably infinite non-dense lines if all sets of two points have rational differences in both their x-coordinates and y-coordinates), and (countably infinite dense lines if all sets of two points have differences in their x-coordinates and y-coordinates that are multiples of the same irrational number)”
fine
replace non-dense with (lines that go back to their starting point) and dense with (lines that don’t)
and I sort of want to include that in the body text
yeah thats just sort of a wall of text that makes me not want to read your question
if anything put it in a separate part of the post
with a subtitle like
"my thinking so far"
...like the body text?
the title should be
Can we classify "straight" lines in a torus through different sets of points
or something short like that
the post body should be what i wrote
and then you can put what you want below that
oh okay
Im telling you if I opened a post and saw that mess I'd like
close it instantly lol
If you want to put your hypothesis
make it succinct
and only give one or two
how do I make that succinct
something like
"As far as slopes go, I think the (ir)rationality might matter, depending on whether the points have a rational differnce"
or something like that
I don’t know how to phrase it and I don’t want to turn people off from answering by my lack of... good phrasing
like formally I mean
i mean what i wrote is fine
learning to phrase things formally is the art of revision
you dont need technical language to do it
you just need to be patient and write and rewrite your sentences
until they actually make sense
what about “lines that hit where they started” vs “lines that don’t”
how can I phrase that formally
does a line start anywhere
like
okay
sorry one last thing
does the way you worded your question earlier necessarily imply a square as opposed to a non-square rectangle?
ok thanks
actually
how do I phrase about x-coordinates vs y-coordinates?
@marsh forge
like how do I phrase “depending on whether the components of each point are all rational multiples of the same rational or irrational number”, or “with an exception made for the case where there are two points with the same x-coordinate and two points with the same y-coordinate”
I can just use the terminology x-coordinate and y-coordinate no problem?
okay thank you
so final thing
I’m gonna copy my body text for you to tell me if I made a mistake if that’s okay with you?
"I think there are either 0 lines, countably infinite open lines, or countably infinite closed lines, depending on whether the x and y-coordinates of the points are all rational multiples of the same rational or irrational number, with a 0-line exception made for the case when two points share the same x-coordinate and two points share the same y-coordinate."
along with the bit you already posted earlier
a closed line is one that, if you start at (p,q) and begin walking along the line, you'll hit (p,q) again
that's the terminology he used, and it seemed common when looking at other similar-ish questions on stackexchange
is that body text good?
@marsh forge sorry for the ping, this is the last check before I can post
what should I say?
I wouldn't say completely, I'd say I have a fairly solid reason to claim all of them honestly
but just say "lines that become closed loops in the torus" and "lines that don't"
thanks
This channel seems clear atm?
I need to create a five spoke radially 5-folve symmetric disk space-filling curve
A single input produces an (x, y) output
the disc is a unit circle
I’m stuck at how to make a starfish fractal
😄
I’m very stupid at maths
basically a disc-oriented space filling curve
just as a heads up
its not obvious that you can do that
unless you have seen it done
space filling curves are hard to design
That is exactly what I’m finding banging against this wall
does it need to actually be space filling?
I think I need a star fish 5 spoke fractal curve to start with
with a step count parameter
and spoke count parameter
thats doable
but space filling has a very particular mathematical meaning
that might not actually be what you need
It’s fine if it’s close enough to space filling
at the limit we don’t really care
we’ll never get there
why not just use a spiral then
archemedian spirals
I can try an archimedian spiral
that was my first guess
I’ve wanted to avoid code as long as possible
and I think this is just a case of “guess and check” with archimedian spirals...
I’ll try that and see what I Come up with
@marsh forge where would a person who wanted to make a parameterized with spoke count and iteration count start to learn to make a fractal formula?
@marsh forge if you give me a starting point to where this knowledge is
I think I can figure it out from there
I would really prefer a radial fractal over a spiral any day
I honestly don't know
this is pretty useless to mathematicians
so its not smth people here will likely know much about
ok
if i were you
is matlab a good playground for generating parameterized fractals?
i'd make a normal spiral somehow
honestly if i were gonna play just with algos
i'd use processing
OK
its like ideal for sketching programming art
wonderful
I need a fractal
my soul needs one
What is processing?
link?
(also thank you for your help today)
I’m building a physics system
and a disc-filling curve is the center of it
That’s all I can say for now
I’ll google “processing sketching programming art”
that should do it
thanks again
I found it
T H A N K . Y O U !
yeah theres a javascript and java version
it's what i used to teach programming back in the day
p5 is more suitable to be a processing substitute than processing.js Id say
havent used either since i was 16 lol
p5?
I’ll take a look
Joshua, that looks nice.
*Sweet Joshua
*Sweet Baby Joshua
*Sweet 2 lb 5 ounce Baby Joshua
I'm just gonna ask now
since I feel like I didn't really get a good answer last time (no offense to those who helped me, it was a really enlightening discussion, I just felt like it didn't give the full answer I wanted), if anyone else is willing to help please ping me!
How many straight lines are there on a torus through a finite number of points?
Given a finite set of points in T2:=R2/Z2, when is there a straight line in R2 whose image under the quotient passes through all of them, and can we count how many?
I think there are either 0 lines, countably infinite lines that become closed loops in the torus, or countably infinite lines that don't become closed loops in the torus, depending on whether the x and y-coordinates of the points are all rational multiples of the same rational or irrational number, with a 0-line exception made for the case when two points share the same x-coordinate and two points share the same y-coordinate.
Am I correct in believing these things? If not, what cases have I missed/gotten wrong?
Can we characterize when a curve in the torus lifts to a straight line?
when you unfold the torus into a square on the plane, it's a straight line in that plane
imagine the square tiling the whole plane, then where one point lies is at infinitely many points in the plane, so you can draw infinitely many lines
right
in the n=2 case
but when there's more points, is it always guaranteed you can find a line that does that?
what's the difference?
those are the same points
if you have points at (.25,.75), (.75, .75), and (.75,.25), you'll never be able to draw a line connecting all 3 I believe
I know they're the same point on the torus, just to give a reference
oh you specifically want to make 1 line that connects all the points
probably depends on if they're rational or irrational
what I have so far
if they're rational, look for the lcm or something
and I'm not completely confident of this-
-if the distance between the x-components of the points is rational, and the distance between the y-components is rational, you get a countably infinite number of "closed" lines
-if the distances between the x and y components of points are all rational multiples of the same irrational number, you get a countably infinite number of "open" lines
-if the distances between the x and y components are rational numbers of 2 or more irrational numbers, you get 0 lines
-if there are two points with the same X-coordinate and two points with the same y-coordinate, you get 0 lines
I don't know how to check each of those, nor do I know if there are any cases I'm missing even if those are all correct
and a "closed" line is one such that, if you start at point (p,q) on the line and walk in one direction, you'll eventually hit point (p,q) again
an "open" line is one where you won't
oh actually one more case: -if the x or y distances are all rational multiples of 2 or more irrational numbers, but all points are colinear (as in, they would still be colinear if the square didn't tile), then there is exactly one line
why are you interested in this question?
It came up while I was thinking about something else and it seemed interesting
for example, it may theoretically be able to be used to find if numbers such as pi - e are rational, though I kind of doubt it
but ultimately, it just seemed like an interesting problem that might have interesting applications
Why would it be able to be used to do that?
Yeah it seems hard to be able to tell a dense line and a loop apart
More like, if you could have both the distance (pi - e) and rational distances between points, and still be able to construct a line, then (pi-e) must be rational
Sorry can you rephrase that?
like
I'm trying to think of an example, but there may not be one
but if you can have it so points A and B are pi-e apart, and points A and C are a rational distance apart, and points C and B are either pi-e or a rational distance apart, and you can construct a line passing through all points, then you know pi - e must be rational
ah- you have points (e/4, .75), (e/4, .25), (pi/4, 0.5)
obviously the x-distance between the first two is 0, and between either of the first two and the third one is (pi-e)/4, while the y-distances are .5 and .25
and if you can construct a line between those, and all of what I proposed earlier is true, then pi - e is rational
and if you can't construct a line between them and what I proposed earlier is true, then pi - e is irrational
do you agree that if pi - e is rational, then it is possible to construct a "closed" line between all of those points?
sorry actually a better example
the last point is at (pi/4, 1/3)
now do you agree?
wait why did I change that the original was good
imagine constructing a line of slope
let me work out the numbers really quickly
huh
that arrangement with two points sharing a vertical line is really really strange
I'm too tired I know I'm doing something weird here and I can't figure it out
my equations keep showing that 1/3 is a number that cannot exist, and clearly that's wrong
even if it doesn't work for this, though, the general case of "how many lines are there" is still interesting and still something I'd like to know the results of
oh I see my mistake
well, at the very least it could test if pi - e is a rational number, such that its simplest form is a/b, where either a is not odd or b is not a multiple of 4
because the line won't work for rational numbers where a is odd and b is a multiple of 4
but it should work for all other rational numbers, showable by the fact that in all other cases there is at least one solution for X and Y in the integers such that .25bx = a(y+.5)
which comes from .25/(a/b) being the slope of the line, and being equal to (y+.5)/x
does anyone know whether the non-negative reals equipped with the metrics |x-y| and binary xor(x,y) are homeomorphic?
oh I should say bitwise xor
so d(1,2) = 3
we can restrict this to the naturals i think reals is looking difficult
but yeah same question
like um
$\text{xor}(5,7) = \text{xor}(101_2, 111_2) = 010_2 = 2$
xdres:
_2 is base 2
no worries :)
i mean it's not an urgent question im just genuinely curious
if anyone else has ideas feel free to @ me
how would you go about finding such a sequence?
I don’t see how that proves it though
That would only prove they aren’t homeomorphic via the identity map
Maybe I just suck then lol
surely if they're homeomorphic the bijection is continuous and so a sequence that converges in one has to converge in the other
Yes, but you said to find a sequence converging in R that doesn’t converge in R_xor
But then aren’t you assuming that if x_n converges in R, that f(x_n) = x_n?
What if the homeomorphism sends that sequence to something else?
not neccessarily
The image surely is convergent, but the image might not be the same sequence
if x_n in R converges then f(x_n) converges, right? and if y_n in R_xor converges then f^-1(y_n) converges?
Yes
oh I thought you meant the image of the sequence converges @gritty widget
yeah just misunderstanding i guess
We don’t have a specific map to work with
So unless you wanna range over all continuous maps R-> R_xor
Then I don’t see how you could tackle it that way
Try computing the fundamental group?

Also sorry but I don’t see how the R_xor is even defined
I get it for integers
But what happens for like d(1.479, pi)?
yeah i restricted to naturals later because of stuff like 0.1111... = 1 in R
so reals seems like a bad idea
i meant in binary
Ah
but yeah same idea
Wait but if you restrict to naturals
The subset topology on N is the discrete one right?
(WRT standard topology)
Yeah
Is it true that anything homeomorphic to discrete topology has discrete topology?
Yeah that’s true I think right?
Yeh
So I guess you just have to see if N_xor is discrete
Which turns this into an easy problem
Because if it is you take identity
Well “easy”
We know what we want to look for
Wait
Doesn’t xor lead to distance 0 things that aren’t the same number?
Umm let me think
no?
Nvm
Lmao
Thing is 0 iff they’re the same lol
Yeah
I forgot what xor was for a second
And remembered it is 0 for 2 out of the 4 options
And was like “lol wut”
Is there a nice condition for when a metric topology is discrete?
We can show every point is open
I think?
Yeah
So every point is open
@golden gust we solved it
🥳
I think once you restricted to N
It became plausible
And possibly even sort of intuitive
now try dyadic rationals : )
userformerlyknownasmathemagician has left the room
yeah the pair (N,xor) forms a metric space and a group
and im investigating if you can get one of those in R too
Oh wait it has to be
Lmao
It has discrete topology
So the operation must be continuous
Altho any group is a topological group under discrete topology
So i don’t think there’s anything of note to say there
Oh yeah, what is the identity?
are we talking about different things
the last airmonke
I’m the only chmonke
nice
Woah
wait no no 0 is the identity
bitwise xor
if you have a 1 it outputs 1 because they're different
if you have a 0 it outputs 0 because theyre the same
i was really scared for a second
i came across this problem a few weeks ago and ive been trying to learn everything i need to tackle it
and then someone comes along and says 0 isnt the identity
no worries lol i was just worried
yeah R is difficult
could you do Q+ by having a bijection to N, doing the xor there and going back to Q+?
Wait a second
Oh lmao
I can’t do bitwise xor addition
Was the issue
Oof lmao
I did
The opposite
I think I did nand or whatever
Cuz I said 101 + 000 = 010
Oh sheesh
theres a really cute bijection i found
Theoretically you can yeah, but wew
Slim I saw a nice bikection
I looked one up for a set theory class
It wasn’t that bad
Yeah, I don’t think it was a group iso either
Oh also N and Q aren’t iso as groups
Since N is cyclic
And Q isn’t
let the primes $(2,3,5,...) = (p_1, p_2, p_3,...)$. now, every $n \in \mathbb{N}$ can be written as $n = p_1 ^{a_1} p_2 ^{a_2} \cdots$ where $a_i$ are naturals, and every $q \in \mathbb{Q}$ is $q = p_1 ^{b_1} p_2 ^{b_2} \cdots$ where $b_i$ are integers. so just get a bijection $\mathh{N} \to \mathbb{Z}$
xdres:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
you can get it for dyadic rationals
Wut is a dyadic rational
but for maybe rationals and definitely reals, binary expansions arent unique i think
oh it's every fraction n/2^m
Oh
so denominators are strictly powers of 2
yup
For some ~ which like puts them to be coprime
Eh?
CS + Math person
I don’t think a CS person thought about it as a topology haha
Ah sure
TCS = CS + Math change my mind
TCS?
Theoretical
So like programming languages
Or like verification
Discrete + doesn’t believe in LEM
For some of them
Since like there’s actual reason not to for that stuff
I remember Shamrock told me about it
Yeah
I feel like it isn’t possible though
Like
An irrational number will always have non terminating binary
Or n-ary expansion
So you have to accept like infinite length strings
So d(x,y) has to be allowed to be infinity
Is my gut instinct
I suppose
Oh yeah
And you can’t round down n-digits down
For the same sort of reason
fun fact: plotting z = xor(x,y) for naturals x and y gives a cool surface
any guesses before i pull it out?
Umm
Yeah
Also
I hesitate to call it surface
Because it’s just isolated points
And idk what the “right way” to extend that to a surface is
aight thanks guys
@golden gust So it's 'well known' in communication complexity that if you plot the matrix corresponding to the 'disjointedness function' -- disjoint(x,y) = 1 if x and y in {0,1}^n correspond to disjoint subsets, and 0 otherwise -- then you get a Sierpinski triangle. This is a lot like what you are drawing -- the level surfaces of xor(x,y) are basically descriptions of the symmetric differences of the subsets corresponding to those natural numbers (assuming I guessed your definition correctly). So it's not the same thing as disjointedness, but kind of similar in spirit. Anyway, maybe check out Rao's book on communication complexity -- the perspective on looking at 'graphs' of functions like xor in a similar way to what you described is pretty important, and the 'fractally' picture turns into concrete lower bounds on some algorithms.
oh damn thats pretty cool thank you much, that's a lot to look into
@golden gust See figure I.2 here https://assets.cambridge.org/97811084/97985/excerpt/9781108497985_excerpt.pdf ... you can find the book though I'm sure.
hello guys
so, I was looking at the definition of manifold
and it says that it is a locallly euclidean hausdorff space
and it makes me wonder, do you have an example of a locally euclidean space that is not hausdorff?
slimvesus:
AG? what does that mean?
Algebraic Geometry
oh, i see, ty <3
modulo the equivalence relation ~
the key term here is "quotient spaces"
essentially its a new space constructed by taking X, but for all a, b in X, a ~ b iff a = b in X / ~
(more formally: X/~ is the set of equivalence classes on X under the relation ~. so, each element of X/~ is some "class" of equivalent objects in X under ~)
so X/~ becomes a collection of sets?
i might be reading 'each element of X/~ is some "class"' wrong
you should look into equivalence realtions
and a set theoretic quotient by an equivalence relation
they will come up in many situations
so X/~ becomes a collection of sets?
kind of
what the elements are doesnt matter so much as what they represent
like super-duper-formally X/~ is the space formed by taking X, constructing a bunch of elements [x] for each x in X, and saying for a, b in X, a ~ b iff [a] = [b] (and then equipping it with the appropriate topology)
this isnt really how people think about it though
(this intuition is helpful in more algebraic contexts but not necessarily in topological ones)
a better way to think about it is what slimvesus says
if a ~ b in X, then we say a and b are "the same" in X / ~
(you'll note that i've switched from writing [a] and [b] for elements of X / ~ to just a and b; this is a notational convention)
(and again, represents how we actually think of these spaces)
i feel like a more natural place to learn this stuff is in a group or ring theoretic context
let me give an explicit example though:
consider the set of real numbers R
define an equivalence relation for elements of R by a ~ b iff a - b is an integer
[a \sim b \iff a-b \in \bZ]
Namington:
intuitvely, numbers are equivalent under this relation ~ if their "fractional parts" are equal
so -2 ~ 7, and 3.5 ~ 4.5, and 2.915934 ~ -101.915934
anyway, giving R/~ the appropriate (quotient) topology gives us a space that is actually homeomorphic to the unit circle S^1
if you picture the interval [0, 1)
placing fractional parts on this interval as appropriate
note that this "gluing together" process means that 0 ~ 1
so it makes sense to connect 0 and 1
making the interval [0, 1) a circle
(not a rigorous proof obviously)
(but you can prove that this plays well with how we'd want a circle to behave)
also yeah, that works too
here it's like
we're "rolling" it
we have a ball and the real line gets wrapped around it
such that each full rotation is an interval of size 1
this "glues together" points with the same fractional part
("overlapping" them, if you will)
anyway this is a somewhat contrived example but this is a very powerful concept
it lets us "filter out" what aspects of elements we "care about" and study the structure formed just by those aspects
if we only care about the fractional part of real numbers (for whatever reason), this process lets us assign a structure that represents the properties of just the fractional part
and this structure is very different from the structure of R as a whole
i mean, it's (homeomorphic to) a circle!
(this specific example is also the prototype of the concept of an orbit, but thats better explored in a group theory course)
yeah, its one of the most powerful and versatile ways to construct new spaces
while also giving us an immediate "analogy"
in the sense that, if we already understand the elements of X well, it's often fairly easy to get an intuition for how X/~ should look
whereas if we just construct a random space out of the void by explicitly giving sets and a topology
that intuition is harder to build up
how would one think about the fundamental group of a torus in R3 (with a point on its surface)? i have a feeling it's closely related to the fundamental group of a circle in R2 with a hole, which is isomorphic to (Z,+), except there is an extra "direction" you can move in (aka through the hole)
thank you so much namington and slimvesus :D
@fair bear did you mean a disk with a hole?
i think so
is there any topology properties/spaces repository?
https://topology.jdabbs.com/ might be like what you're looking for
the book "counterexamples in topology" as well
actually, i think that website gets most of its examples out of the aforementioned book
Ive heard about the book before
it's a fun book to look at every once in a while
i'm having trouble taking this identification in. what does im(phi) look like as a subsheaf of G?
like i know that the image presheaf embeds into the image sheaf, and so (im(phi))(U) contains the image of phi(U). but the sheafification process seems to enlarge the image presheaf, so it seems (im(phi))(U) can potentially be bigger than image of phi(U)
maybe i have to look again at my proof of sheafification. this whole thing just seems really messy and i feel like i'm missing something
That bit is nontrivial
That’s the whole point of the exercise is to show you can
The gist of it is that if you have a “sub presheaf” of a sheaf
In the sense that F(U) < G(U) for all U, G is a sheaf, and F is a presheaf
Then you can construct a subsheaf of G which satisfies the universal property for F^+
I believe is how it goes
And if you remember my description of like “locally representable”
In terms of how like the analytic function z is locally representable by stuff of the form e^f(z) on the punctured plane
That’s actually what it looks like
Hmm, so I think you're saying in general that if F is a presheaf sitting inside a sheaf G, then with the proper identifications you have inclusions F -> F^+ -> G. Maybe I'll prove that tomorrow
Gonna go to sleep now
Image is just a special case of that then
Yup
But the F^+ isn’t the same construction as the one in the book
There’s a subsheaf of G which satisfies the same universal property
Namely that maps to sheaves factor through it
By some categorical nonsense this means that the F^+ Hartshorne constructs and this thing are isomorphic uniquely (with respect to commuting with some maps)
Doesn't the psi in his sheafification proposition let you map F^+ into G
Like he says in that picture im(phi) includes into G, which I'm quite sure is through the map psi
So the F^+ sitting inside of G should be just the (sheaf) image of that psi map
Oh I think I see. The subsheaf you're talking about and the image of F^+ under psi are the same thing, because psi will be injective in this case I think
Uhh, well image is very nebulous
Precisely because you have to sheafify
But in general with a product “has a unique map to/from such that...”
Is unique up to unique isomorphism
Like the good way to show something is a tensor product is to just show that bilineae maps from M x N factor through it
By providing a map M x N to whatever the object is
And show any bilineae map M x N -> L factors uniquely through this new object
Then this gives you an abstract isomorphism from M (x) N to this other thing
Hmm. How do you construct the F^+ as a subsheaf of G then?
Locally representable stuff
It’s stuff in G(U)
Such that for some open cover of U
The element restricted to that part of the cover is equal to something in the subsheaf
Really the issue with not being a sheaf is that you might not be able to glue (or it might not be unique)
Living inside a sheaf tells you that uniqueness is true for the subsheaf
What you don’t have is that elements which agree on intersections actually can glue
But when you view the elements of the subsheaf as elements of the sheaf you actually can glue them
So instead of doing this weird ass way of gluing stuff like artificially (that’s what the sheafificafion in Hartshorne does)
You just use the glued version which exists in G
Oh that makes a lot of sense
From this you can show this subsheaf satisfies the universal property for F^+
And then you get this isomorphism from the subsheaf F^+ and the like artificial one
It seems like Hartshorne intended to arrive there by a different path though? Like he never mentions this construction you're giving. Unless it's implicit somewhere
He doesn’t but it’s how you solve that problem
He delegates that to an exercise I think so you can figure that out
Maybe that's what 1.4 was. I was trying to do 1.2 and it had surjective stuff in it so I started pondering this stuff
Yeah 1.4 is that
Cool, I'll prove it tomorrow
Using G to get gluing in F makes a lot of sense. That's really cool
Yeah I only really thought of that now tbh
I just did them before
But after having sat on it for a while what’s being done is way clearer in my head
That's always a great feeling
Yeah haha, it’s making sense!
Going to sleep, it's 2am. Thanks for the help
Np
@hidden arrow so hi, I have a question about hyperbolic geometry
lets say i pick some point in the hyperbolic plane
lets call it A
then I pick a unit vector and go from A in the vector direction in until I reach a distance of lets say N1. Then I put a point B there
weird ping
then I pick another unit vector and go in that direction from point B
(I mean so that If the vector were to point at 0,1 in euclid place we would now go straight to the same direction we were already going)
I go into that direction until N2 distance
then I place a point C there
Now, I have 2 questions
1.) How long distance is point C from point
2.) What is the vector that points in the direction of point C from point A
weird ping
Well i just wanna know the answer, i guessed zeno could know something but Im open to answers from everyone
im not sure if my explanation makes sense
if somebody is curious ask me for clarification
you could use the hyperbolic cosine rules for that
@arctic siren https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hyperbolic_law_of_cosines
In hyperbolic geometry, the "law of cosines" is a pair of theorems relating the sides and angles of triangles on a hyperbolic plane, analogous to the planar law of cosines from plane trigonometry, or the spherical law of cosines in spherical trigonometry. It can also be relate...
(probably quite easy to derive the formulas in the hyperboloid model too)
Can someone check my solution to an exercise about lie groups? Should be pretty simple
I'm supposed to show that [X, Y] = 0 iff exp(tX) exp(sY) = exp(sY) exp(tX) for all s, t in R
Where X, Y are in Lie(G)
My solution is that the flow of X is θ_t(g) = g exp(tX) and the flow of Y is ψ_s(g) = g exp(sY), and [X, Y] = 0 iff the flows of X and Y commute
From which it's immediate
I'm supposed to use this to show if that G is connected, then G is abelian iff Lie(G) is abelian. If G is abelian then exp(tX) exp(sY) = exp(sY) exp(tX) for all X, Y, t, s, so [X, Y] = 0 always. Conversely if Lie(G) is abelian, then exp(X) exp(Y) = exp(Y) exp(X) for all X, Y, and you can restrict exp to a diffeomorphism from some neighborhood U of 0 in Lie(G) to some neighborhood V of e in G, and so there's a neighborhood V of e in G such that gh = hg for all g, h in V. Since G is a connected topological group, it's generated by V, and thus is abelian
The final part of this problem is to give an example where this fails if G isn't connected, i.e. G is nonabelian but Lie(G) is. By the above Lie(G) is abelian iff the connected component of the identity is abelian, so I want a nonabelian lie group G where the component of the identity is abelian
Oh lol I can just take any finite nonabelian group and make it discrete
That's so lame
@sleek thicket Mildly less lame: O(2) is non-abelian, but SO(2) is (since it's connected and its Lie algebra is one-dimensional)
Ty
saved the day with an optional add-on solution eight hours too late 😎
imagine the surface you have defined by F, if you make a slice through it to make a level curve then where it hits the maximum is just a single isolated point, not locally euclidean
similarly for the saddle point, you'll have a crossing there
whatcha mean generically?
oh like outside of 2D
I think so
in terms of the hessian matrix I think
yeah, probably useful here
So I'm trying to make sense of a differential 1-form
it's a cotangent field that maps a point p on an open subset to a vector field which assigns it to a vector in the tangent space at p?
that wouldnt be a 1-form tho
a 1-form is a section of the cotangent bundle. unwinding the definitions gives you something that assigns to each point p a covector in the tangent space at p (i.e. a linear map T_p M -> R)
that's a more precise definition
i think you were steering in the right direction bacono
isnt it like d: UT_pM -> F st. d|T_pM is linear
kind of? but not exactly
a 1 form is a map M -> T*M such that for each p in M, the image is in Tp*M (meaning it is a linear map TpM -> R)
(here, T*M is the union of all the dual spaces to the tangent spaces; aptly named the cotangent bundle)
also someone might ree if you use d to represent a form
cause d usually means the exterior derivative
i.e. a covector field: dual to a vector field giving you a tangent vector at each point, a covector field gives you a tangent covector at each point
wait
where did I say anything wrong
union of tangent spaces to field such that restricted to a tangent space it is a linear functional
but ye d was my bad 
personally prefer varphi
(field being field of your vector space)
i don't think you said anything wrong, ive just never seen it formulated like that
ok yeah I'm a little confused because my text basically said that the differential of a map df can be written as a bilinear form <Xp, f> where Xp is a vector space
then it said that the tangent vector can be seen as a function of the second argument of the bilinear form?
yeah what you said seems fine, it just kind of hides the dual-ness to vector fields, and that might help bacono to understand covector fields
sorry I meant Xp is a vector field my bad
basically my intuition is that the space of derivations at a point are isomorphic to the tangent space, so that a derivation is essential a sum of coordinates of the tangent vector multiplied by the respective partial derivative
so then wouldn't X_p be the tangent vector, not f?
my bad tterra
that restriction being a l functional gives the dualness
what is X_p
tangent space to X?
vector field assigning a point p
ah a vector field
I'm just confused because the book never fully explains what it means by an open set we define these concepts on
I've always just assumed there's an implicit dependence on a manifold
but when you say multiplied by the partial derivative, are you taking the usual derivative already?
the derivation is just a vector
that acts upon differentiable functions
what book?
Tu, introduction to manifolds
oh im using that book right now!
what these concepts try to do is take out the dependence on the euclidean coordinates and put it solely on the manifold
wherever it is
ah
theyre taking any derivation to be represented by partial
the top part of the page is what has me really not sure
that's what I was talking about
it takes a vector and smooth function and defines an inner product
you can think pf <Xp,.> as a derivation operator that acts on smooth functions (usually taking their directional derivative in the direction of Xp)
so is the book just badly worded in saying the tangent vector is a function of f
and you can think of <.,f> as the differential of f which assigned to a derivation gives you the respective derivative associated with a vector in Xp
uhmm
lemme think about what that means
well not really
define <Xp,.> as a function
f -> Xpf
Cinf -> Cinf
wait is the codomain Cinf
should be
Cinf(Rn) to Cinf(R) right?
or am I being dum
I believe so
ok
so it would be
$<X_p, \cdot > : C^{\infty}(\mathbb{R}^n) \to C^{\infty}(\mathbb{R}) \ f \mapsto X_p f$\
where $ X_p f : \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R} \ x \mapsto \sum \frac{\partial f (x)} {\partial x_i} (v_i)_p$
something like this?
jeez
fuk mobile latex reeee
Fractal:
this notation may be better
Ok yeah I see what you're getting at
the differential of f sends f to a derivation along X_p, which is dependent on what vector field we choose in the inner product
I think I understand
$f \longmapsto D_{X_p}(f)$
bacono:
bacono:
the book defines
ahhh I gotta recall what the form df does
$(df)_p(X_p) = X_p f$
bacono: