#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 172 of 1
this is nice, should be a good complement to topology without tears
then off to algebraic topology we go
it seems to me like twt sometimes lacks the motivation behind the theory
this looks super nice, I might use this for something
I think the motivation behind the definition of a topological space is tricky, which is why it took so long for people to come up with the correct definition. I think it is better to think of point set topology as foundational, and let the motivation sink in as you appreciate how nicely all these other things fit within it.
Big thing to remember is that we didn't discover math in the order that we teach it
Sometimes it's about digging in to find "oh this is why we discovered this"
I haven't really been convinced that our definition of topological space is the 'right' one. Ig it's useful because it's super general
And it's a good place to build on
(eg it'd be awkward to define manifolds or cw complexes or schemes or w/e without it)
It's right in the sense that you can completely describe continuous mappings with the relatively simple rules of topology
But who knows what we're possibly missing? Haha
oh yeah, who knows maybe even better definitions will be found
but I would say, the biggest thing I try to impart on students is that definitions are not handed down from above, and that if you're asking about definitions, you're asking the wrong question. We can define all these things to mean whatever we want. But there are a very small number of definitions that I would say that doesn't apply to, and topological space is one of them
(What I mean by that is that in point set topology, the definition is the content)
That makes sense
Regardless of whether a better defintion exists/whether we'll use something else in a century, topological spaces are what is used in math right now
[Though the fact that people disagree about the definition of compact is one of my biggest petpeeves.]
Oh like compact vs quasicompact?
do you include hausdorff.... oh no????
I read that in Hartshorne/another AG book and got super confused, but I figured it would never come up in practice
then I talked to someone on here and we confused eachother
Because they were a native French speaker
And their topology class used "compact" to mean "compact+hausdorff"
I vote for not including hausdorff, for what its worth.
Me too
though if you allow people to get away with sneaking "second countable" into the definition of manifold, I see how they think they can get away with this
hey now
I like my manifolds second countable
Give me the baire category theorem or give me death
This actually came up with a comment of mine on reddit a couple days ago
I said a continuous bijection between manifolds is a homeomorphism
oh yeah, I mean, I like the second countable there too. But then, you convince geometers they can get away with throwing random things in definitions.
I can just google those lol
What you said was write
Yeah I want to say grothendieck initially defined schemes as separated? I might be misremembering
I mean
the thing we call a scheme
he called a prescheme
I don't remember what property it was but a scheme as he defined it was some nicer scheme for us modern ppl
It might have been separated
hehe a friend of mine always argued we should call subgroups presubgroups
and then call normal subgroups just subgroups
me and Mathemagician had a friend who said we should define subgroups as images of group homomorphisms and normal subgroups as kernels
~duality~
shamrock got a reddit reply about how to introduce normal subgroups
and the response was as a fiber of 0 in the quotient or something
It was an... interesting take
Idk, I'd just be like
lmao when you conjugate it, it stay the same
now you might be asking wtf is this, who cares
Cuz now I can make quotient
Why do we care about this?
Oh time ran out sorry see ya
I do homomorphisms first
and then define kernels
and then ask the question "what can be a kernel"
and show, by basically brute force, that you can't make a subgroup of order 2 in S_3 a kernel
I just don't think on a first pass there's really even a particular reason why someone would care if something can be a kernel
Well, the trick is: once you see something can be a kernel, you know a homomorphism
Maybe this is lazy on my part, but I feel like your first introduction to quotients and stuff like that is just gonna be a clusterfuck and super confusing
just for free
Idk that sounds pretty defeatist
I mean... I guess
As an instructor, they don't need to understand every step you do. But they need to see your tone of "this makes sense and it is logical to go from here to here to here"
this reminds me of when my manifolds course introduced immersed submanifolds
In like, week 2 or 3
The motivation shows up at the end of the second quarter of the course
I mean the inuition of quotients being kernels
And it's very hard to justify until then
I guess it doesn't really help that as a student I just sort of... listen to lectures and just learn the stuff. I don't really care all that much about motivation for stuff since it was cool stuff and I like it. Examples also don't really help me so it's a weird position to be in the teaching role since what works for me doesn't work for a lot of people it seems
I guess it doesn't really help that as a student I just sort of... listen to lectures and just learn the stuff. I don't really care all that much about motivation for stuff since it was cool stuff and I like it. Examples also don't really help me so it's a weird position to be in the teaching role since what works for me doesn't work for a lot of people it seems
I guess it doesn't really help that as a student I just sort of... listen to lectures and just learn the stuff. I don't really care all that much about motivation for stuff since it was cool stuff and I like it. Examples also don't really help me so it's a weird position to be in the teaching role since what works for me doesn't work for a lot of people it seems
wym max?
Oh yeah, that's definitely a big level up as a teacher. You're not teaching to a classroom full of yourself.
Oof, mood
I get very jazzed about like active learning and involving students
And in my first quarter TAing I went super hard on that
And then realized I was making students uncomfortable by calling on them before they'd had time to process stuff
I don't know, I find that I like to see like applications. If you introduce the notion of a flat module, after you show that free modules are flat or something, seeing a proof that uses flatness to get something cool helps me a lot more than like showing 8 different modules are flat.
But some people really like to just see examples before any sort of application so I have to like
take a step back and be like "okay, do you guys want to see an example?"
I remember my advisor telling me "Before you can udnerstand any algebraic geometry, you really need to get a death grip on flatness".
I still don't understand anything about flatness ;-P
lol
(I like to think I understand some algebraic geometry haha)
It just means curvature zero, don't worry about it
I feel like flatness for modules I get, but not for like the AG version of flatness haha
Uhhhhh
see algebraic geometry fucked up by not including algebra in the geometry
topology understands that algebra is a tool
Oh like flat ring/scene map?
see algebraic geometry fucked up by not including algebra in the geometry
topology understands that algebra is a tool
yeah like a flat morphism of schemes has fibers all of the "correct" dimension
(I think)
cuz sheaf, and then stalks
yeah like a flat morphism of schemes has fibers all of the "correct" dimension
and all that jazz
yeah like a flat morphism of schemes has fibers all of the "correct" dimension
(I think)
cuz sheaf, and then stalks
It shows up in the weirdest places in algebra
I was reading something in Hatcher last quarter and I realized that you didn't really need free, only flat and finitely presented
It's just like a randomly good condition
That shows up
Yeah, I just never found that germ of an idea that made it click intuitively
I always feel like I'm reasoning purely formally about it
Same
Yeah, I just never found that germ of an idea that made it click intuitively
This is a reason that teaching things is useful for me
As a student I can slip into "okay just manipulate this purely formally" for a lot of stuff
But if I'm explaining it to someone else, I need to come up with some amount of motivation
Yeah, definitely
though teaching flat/projective/injective modules did not do that for me haha
Lol
I don't have an intuition for projective/injectives. I have a hope that learning more about vector bundles might make projectives click but ehhh
A friend of mine was like "oh yeah projectives and injectives will make perfect sense when you learn about model categories"
She said the same thing about chain homotopy
who is this?
and here is where if you have a certain kind of brain you go "oh this is a really natural looking universal property" and that's all the motivaiton you need.
Oh lmoa
I heard apparently that at some talk Lurie was asked a question like
"what's the geometric intuition for this"
Zeta I used to think I was like that
and his answer was that it was a contravariant functor
Then I realized i didn't understand things
Yeah, I'm an arithmetic geometer, and I do not like to think about commutative algebra at all.
and had no reference point
I do not claim this is true, I just heard it secondhand
I successfully avoided learning commutative algebra
Wtf no you didn't
I stopped going to class in the last couple weeks of last quarter
And then the final was canceled
You avoided learning it when we covered it in class
yeah I don't know anything about primary ideals
by having self studied it a quarter early
I was lost on some of the dimension theory stuff
506 did things in a lot more depth
I don't know any commalg rn
join me in reading matsumura
absolutely not lmao
I have better things to do like get confused about whether the symmetric group acts on the left or right
lol
that took me like 2 hours together
Getting very confused
Yeah, commutative algebra is like dental work to me. Which is funny becuase I love so much algebra stuff. But I cannot write down a short exact sequence or a chain of ideals without falling asleep.
Lol on our 504 midterm I didn't want to bother learning how to make semidirect products work on the other side
So like, I just flipped how it works and just stated it works
but I got full points
The key is to just redefine it whenever you want it on one side
🤔
oop
let me tell you, wheny ou're grading a proof, there is a really strong tendency to go "I could look at this for 5 minutes and realize it isn't quite right and take off two points, or I could just give it full credit"
that doesn't work when I'm reading a paper
and there is a really strong pull towards the latter.
Yeah zeta that's a mood
Honestly it's worse grading code
I have done both in the same class
I mean what I said was true, but I really didn't want to reprove the existence of semi direct products haha
Mine numbing
I really love the fact that groups are isomorphic to their ops but rings aren't.
yeah I have caught bugs the test suite doesn't
By reading student code really closely
Also yeah zeta that's pretty weird
My algebra prof claimed that semisimple rings were iso to their opposites
As a consequence of Artin Wedderburn
Turns out it's false even for division rings
Which is pretty cool
Actually iirc the counterexample involved some number theory (brauer groups?)
I love that there are rings that are PLIDs but not PRIDs
(love in the sense that I never want to be forced to think about an example)
There's a lot of bad rings
In my REU we're dealing with operads a lot
And like, monoidal categories
but yeah, number theory is like, a machine that generates ugly division rings
And there's a lot of really really weak algebraic structures
Like things that aren't associative
We unironically had to think about magmas the other day
It sucked
oh god, I'm terrible about not using associativity
the fact that the notation x^5 assumes associativity is sad
Lol
By Singleton of Element is Subset:
By the definition of submagma, the result follows.
■
Yeah the like, most important thing I'm defining involves "non-associative monomials"
omg I'm so sorry
which are products of {x0, x1,...,xn} where you can use x0 any number of times and must use x1 through xn exactly once
but you need to keep track of parentheses!!!
Yeah it's baaaad
why can't the tensor product be strictly associative
something something Catalan numbers?
In a perfect world...
Wait, lie algebras aren't associative right?
The lie bracket isn't, no
Lie Algebras aren't associative, but they're almost associative
hmmmmm
I was debating taking the lie algebra course in fall, but if non-associativity is this trash
There's an operad that defines semigroups
do I really want to subject myself to it 🤔
I would not worry about dealing with non-associativity in a lie algebras course
I think I honestly should
a lie algebra is very highly structured
Or rather assosciative algebras
Since I will never ever learn that stuff unless I take a course
And it's dual in a precise sense is the operad which defines lie algebras
Which is kind of cool
That is the course I most wish I had paid attention to in grad school that I did not
that's pretty cool
I didn't think I would be interested in taking it
(we're at the same school zeta)
but then people convinced me to
And I got super hyped
And then found out I don't have time
r i p
Sandor told me that specifically because I'm not interested in it that I should take it haha
lol
taht sounds like having me as an advisor 😛
I mean, that's a huge area of math
I was told "if you care about geometry/lie groups you need to take this course"
And then they were relevant to my research this summer
and I will never ever know any lick of it unless I took a course in it
it's intimately connected with lattices and those show up all over the place in good maths
honestly I've still managed to come this far
barely knowing the definition of a lattice
Literally the only thing I think of is a grid of rhombuses in R^2 when you say lattice lmao
I mean, grid of rhombuses in C is already getting into super deep shit about elliptic curves
so really, even if that is your only picture, you're already in deeper than yo uthink
hey elliptic curves are the good stuff!
Honestly I always end up liking the stuff I think is gonna mega suck
You know what we should do
next year
Over zoom
In the spirit of stuff we think will suck
Doing some slight topological groups stuff in complex was actually fun. I still don't like reals tho. this is why I will never do number theory
number theory reading group with Thomas
Because what if I...
hahaha yes
start to... like it
well I went to grad school saying "I will absolutely not be a number theorist"
and then look what happeend
Lol
I turned into a rainbow frickin zeta 😛
I haven't slaved away and spent like two weeks solving hartshorne problems all day
just to not do AG
I have no idea what I want to do in grad school tbh
there's a lot of fun math out there
anyway folks, I'm crawling off to bed, good night!
hahaha poor thing
at least you said Hartshorn enough times, that should mollify it
manifolds manifolds manifolds
Oh yeah, #geometry baby
uhhhh
uhhh foliations
parallel postulate
sard's theorem
Falting's theorem
Weyl law
oh I love sard
it's my happy place
• Rank Theorem
• Sard's Theorem
• Whitney fun bag
• tubular neighborhoods exist
• stokes'
choose your fighter
I really do love smooth manifolds
sards is one of those crazy bang for your buck theorems
another that comes to mind is Baire's in real analysis
it just does so much work and goes into so many things.
I think he was putting together in a bag whitney embedding/approximation (at least).
Yup
baire is good
Also for manifolds
this is why I want second countable in my definition of manifolds
Sard and BCT are fucking excellent
Theorem (Whitney fun bag):
Around every point of a flow on a manifold, there exists an open neighbourhood of the point (called a fun bag) such that..
Can anyone who is familiar with Several Complex Variables tell me why Definition 2.1 in this paper is integer valued?
I can't seem to figure it out
oh shit 22 you're right
I forgot about existence of flows/solutions to ODEs
And more generally frobenius
I like the flow box theorem for flows on manifolds
What's that?
Around every non critical point of the flow there exists a neighbourhood (called flow box) and coordinates one the neighbourhood such that the flow is conjugate to that of the vector field (1, 0, ..., 0)
oh, yeah that's a good lemma
even cooler is that it works for multiple vector fields
if X1,...,Xk are linearly independent at p and [Xi, Xj] = 0 for each i, j, then there's coordinates near p where Xi = d/dx^i
Yeah you use the fact that commuting vector fields have commuting flows
Which is also great
This is known as Frobenius theorem. You can also reformulate it in terms of ideals of differential forms, which is even cooler.
I think it's a bit easier than local Frobenius because in his version the fields actually commute.
Right, his version is the only technical part in the proof of Frobenius. Nonetheless it is not exactly the same. :/
Can someone tell me how the '+' in the picture below is defined ? It is from https://arxiv.org/pdf/1701.04862.pdf paper. Also, I don't think if dim(M)+dim(P)< d the manifolds can intersect transversally, but still the paper tries to proof that they don't intersect transversally using some other logic in Appendix. Please help . I would be grateful
I think the addition is just defined by a "translation" of each point lying on the manifold
e.g.
If E is a subset of the reals, then E + x is just the set of y + x, where y is in E
And x is a constant ?
Usually it is, but in your case it's a continuous random variable
Jeevesh:
That would be my best guess
Also , can you tell anything about the second problem ?
So transverse intersection, if I recall correctly, is when the tangent spaces of the manifolds don't "line up"
They aren't linearly dependent
To say that they don't intersect transversally is to say where they intersect, the tangent spaces are linearly dependent
(I'm a little uncertain here)
I have no clue how that would be proven using dim(M) + dim(P) < d. Can you do contradiction? Say they are transverse and try a dimension counting argument?
dim(M) = m, dim(P) = p
Tangent space chops a dimension?
Sorry I got something little wrong in my head.
It seems like you'd need more dimension in order for them to be linearly independent
That's what my gut says
I hope this clears things
what're the dimensions of
T_x(M), T_x(P), and T_x(R^d)
we know that dim(M) + dim(P) < d
But it should be the case that you'll get
dim(T_x(M)) + dim(T_x(P)) = dim(T_x(R^d)) = d
Which (hopefully) contradicts the above
Yeah dim(T_x(M)) = dim(M)
etc.
$m+p \le d$ is a case for proving lemma 2.
When $m+p \le d$ we need to prove that the intersection of M+$\eta$ and N+$\eta '$ is empty with probability 1.
In case, $m+p \geq d$ , we can say by General position Lemma that their intersection will be empty.
So now you need to show, by virtue of transversality, $$ dim(T_x(M) + T_x(P)) = dim(T_x(M)) + dim(T_x(P)) - dim(T_x(M \cap P))$$
Yet : $$ dim(T_x(M \cap P)) = 0; dim(T_x(M)) = dim(M); dim(T_x(P)) = dim(P) $$
MoonBears-C-:
I know that for oriented smooth manifold M without boundary, there exists a smooth non vanishing n form. Does this also hold for if we consider manifold with boundary?
I think the same proof as for the without boundary case should work
You have an orientation
This defines a convex subset of the space of top degree forms at each point
Use partitions of unity
Something like that?
ya
Schuams:
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Let $g$ be a Riemannian metric on the open unit disk ${(x,y)\mid x^2+y^2<1}$ which is complete and conformal to the Euclidean metric $dx^2+dy^2$. Can the curvature of $g$ go to zero as we approach the boundary circle?
gustavn64:
Intuitively it feels like the completeness should force it to look like the hyperbolic metric near the circle, but I don't know how to justify that formally.
would someone care to help me with this one
haha jeez
after reading the discussion in that channel i think this would have better luck in r/cheatatmathhomework....
😐
aaand he left
Lmao
I don't know whether this is the right channel or not, but I will ask anyway
how can I prove this :"let C be a conic and A and B two points on C, and let D and E be points on line (AB), then there exists a projective transformation which fixes lines (AB) and sends D to E, A to B and B to A"
nope
well, this channel has geometry in the name as well
it has topology in the name too
dude how is that related to trigonometry
that's projective geometry
geometry-trigonometry and topology-and-geometry can probably be confusing if there aren't any rules for content laid out clearly
i wouldn't think projective geometry lies under "pre-university" (maybe its not a canadian thing to teach that in high school), so i see no issue with it going here since "early university" doesn't really have a category for it
I agree
Idk why I can’t find a projective geometry book that doesn’t involve algebraic geometry
To me it feels like you shouldn’t need algebraic geometry for projective geometry, but I might be horribly wrong
how is this related to our discussion
because "requiring algebraic geometry" is a pretty significant way to determine which channel this belongs in, id think
im not the person youre replying to though; i don't mean to put words in their mouth
@coarse kestrel algebraic geometry is like the reason people care about projective geometry in math
I don’t know if that’s quite right. I think projective geometry has historical intrigue outside of the AG context
From my understanding
slimvesus:
So fwiw even if proper containment is what holds the whole proof is still fine
I'll think about it some more but there's a chance it's errata
Yeah it's errata
@sleek thicket you must answer for Lee's crimes
lol
This is not too many tiers below Weibel level
no u
Hey guys, my university just got a new course "intro to topology" and the prereqs for it are analysis 1 (which I've taken) and a course on rings and fields (which I've not taken). I was wondering if I would be completely lost taking the course on topology while concurrently taking the rings and fields course? I have some very basic understanding of rings and fields from analysis 1.
we don't know
It depends on the course content
You'll probably be fine
But it's hard to say without seeing a syllabus
yea.. I would share it but it hasn't been released yet unfortunately
Oh dami I got an invite for zulip for agitocc
I also got one
I guess we're not in the same group lmao
@sleek thicket the topics covered are these:
Point set topology: definition, continuous maps, homeomorphisms, product and quotient topologies, Hausdorff topologies, connectedness, compactness and compactifications. Algebraic topology: paths, homotopies, fundamental group, universal covering spaces.
If this tells you anything let me know 🙂
yeah you should be fine w/o rings and fields
But you need to know group theory
Like, you should know what a group action is
And what a group is
Ok, thanks for the heads up!
@dim meadow sad reacts only
I think point set topology has almost nothing to do with abstract algebra
that list has some algebraic topology🙃
Yeah, but before you get to it, you should have more than enough time to brush up on fields and rings
Does it mean A has no points that are isolated in T or in the induced subspace
the first one is trivial as (X, T) has no isolated points if its a perfect space
i dont really see fields and rings appearing lol
prob isolated as in the subspace topology
Indeed algebraic topology is pretty strictly groups
for the second one, in an indiscrete space all points are a limit point of every non-empty subset, so its a perfect space and every non empty subset is dense, including a singleton set which obviously has an isolated point in its topology, so wouldnt that contradict the claim?
I suspect I made a mistake somewhere but I can't see it
@sweet wing that guy said rings and fields is a prerequisite for his intro to topology course
From what I am reading, a subset is perfect if it contains all of its limit points (therefore all perfect sets are closed!) and if every point in the set is a limit point (implying it has no isolated points)
Bear with me I'm at work so I might respond slow haha
Now, just because a space is perfect doesn't imply all of its subsets are.
You made a perfect example - every indiscrete is perfect, but every singleton subset of it is not
Unless the space itself is a singleton I guess
but every non-empty subset of an indiscrete space is dense
including singleton subsets
Oh haha. A point is isolated if the point itself is an open set
right, so a singleton subset obviously has an isolated point in its space
which means its a dense set with an isolated point
Right, but that's fine, because the singleton has no isolated points
how so?
There's no open singleton
So there's no isolated points in the indiscrete
Ergo no subset can contain one
okay, but the singleton subset has an open singleton in its induced subspace
There's no induced topologies happening here. Just subsets of the topology
okay
so the answer is trivial
if (X, T) is a perfect space then it has no isolated points, therefore no subset of it can have an isolated point
the question asks if A that is an open set or a dense set, then A has no isolated points
obviously it has no points which are isolated in T, but does it have isolated points in the induced topology?
That seems too simple, you're right. I'm messing this up somewhere
i asked if the question is about induced topologies or (X, T), @sweet wing said its probably about the subspace topology
Even if Hatcher in particular might not use ring/module theory, it does come up a decent bit. Field theory not so much
I don't think rings come up until like, cohomology
modules too
Maybe that's just my journey in topology
can anyone give me a hint with this
i’m not sure how to start
I(x) is just the family of neighbourhoods of x
This is just
Oh shit uhhhh
Let me think I thought this was just definition of closure
Since {x} = its closure
no lol that’s what I thought at first too
Wait no it is
So the inclusion < is immediate
Since x is in all sets U right?
All U are nbd of x
So they contain x
wait but nbhds in I(x) could be open
Yeah so {x} is a subset of it
but the other direction
Take any point that's not x
It's a finite subset so it's closed
The complement is an open neighborhood of x
Oh Dami here with the omega plays
I realized my proof of the other direction fell through so I’m glad u came in
ok ok thanks I’ll try finishing it off
So that should give T1 => {x} = blah
I'll let you try the other direction first yeah
this is actually how you could construct the closure of {x}, yeah
personally, I'd first prove that every finite subset is closed iff every singleton is closed
that simplifies things a bit imo
and that is a definition of T1 that I'm familiar with
@plucky veldt
I've done a bit of investigating with a few others into the question and I think it's typo'd.
If A is merely a subset, then my argument works and no subset has isolated points, simply because there are none.
If A is the subspace topology, then you made a counter-example. Take the indiscrete space. The singleton is dense, and its subspace topology trivially has an isolated point.
Okay, so what was the author's intent when writing the exercise?
Not sure yet! Haha. Still polling people so maybe something will come up
@small obsidian thanks for investigating this, I was pretty puzzled by this so I'm glad I'm not the only person who wants to get to the bottom of this
What is the exact question? @plucky veldt @small obsidian ?
the one I posted above
okay, will think about it at some point today.
Something that seems loosely related: If a space has an isolated point, any dense subset will contain it.
well, an open subset of a perfect space indeed can't contain any isolated points in its subspace topology, since any set open in A is also open in X, so X would have an isolated point otherwise
but a dense subset? hmm... someone messed up here
for a little less trivial example, if X = {1, 2, 3} and τ = {∅, {1, 2}, X}, then it is a perfect space, {2, 3} is a dense set which has a singleton {2} in its subspace topology
is the function f: Y -> {a} x Y, such that f(u)={a} x u good enough to show the homeomorphism between {a}xY and Y?
like it feels lacking since it seems like i could have used anything to show that any other thing is homeomorphic
I'm assuming that the topology is defined so that if U is open in Y, then {a} x U is open in {a} x Y
in that case, yes, your function is a homeomorphism
a homeomorphism is a bijection that preserves open sets both ways
and no, not every continuous function between spaces is a homeomorphism
it's rather obvious that your example is a homeomorphism, and not an interesting one
But it is a useful one!
@nimble jolt what conclusions did you come to after thinking about it yesterday
I had this question on distortion of the unknot
I emailed Gromov and he said he forgot, so if anyone's got anything I'd love to see it
Hey @elder yew where exactly in the paper does he state that?
Page 114 of Filling Riemannian Manifolds
First example
The citation is for "Metric Structures for Riemannian Structures"
Pages 11-12, first remark
It says the equality only holds for circles
Not for unknots
So I looked at the proof in metric structures for riemannian manifolds
I'm loosely calling unknots circle
You are or the book is?
I think he might mean a literal circle
I looked at the proof in metric structures
And I was able to show r(s) = d(c(s+l/2), c(s)) is constant
And is l/(2dil(g))
So maybe that's enough to show that the curve c(s) is a circle
John Pardon cites it
Despite the simplicity of (1.1), very little is known about the distortion of knots, especially
if one is interested in lower bounds. Gromov showed that for any simple closed curve γ, we
have δ(γ) ≥
1
2
π, with equality if and only if γ is a circle, thus determining δ(unknot)
Sorry fraction didn't render from copy pasta
This is what Gromov said when I emailed him
Hmm maybe he defined it to be the min over the isotopy class?
"My recollection is that a closed curve C of length 2\pi in the
Euclidean space, where the Euclidean distances between opposite
points c, c'\in C (with arc distances in C are equal to \pi) are all
\leq 2, is isometric to the unit planar circle, because the map of $C$
to the unit sphere for $c\mapsto (c-c')/2 is distance non-increasing.
But, probably, you had in mind distortion<\pi, where I don't remember
what happens."
But the way distortion is defined in Pardon
Check the definition of distortion in your paper
Probably he defines it to be the min over the isotopy class
Is that distortion of the unknot is the distortion of a regular circle
$$ \delta(K) := \inf_{\gamma \in K} \sup_{x, y \in \R^3 } \frac{d_{\gamma}(x,y)}{||x-y||} \geq 1 $$
MoonBears-C-:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
x,y in R^3
K represents smooth ambient isotopy class of knots
Then it makes sense
Sorry I had this for a final project I turned in a month or so ago so some of the details aren't fresh
So in any case I'll go through the process he talks about in the paper
Cause I think it's interesting
Assuming dil(g) = pi/2, we get a lot of our inequalities turned into equalities almost everywhere
Hrmm
Like 4/r(s)^2 = (4dil(g)/L)^2 is true almost everywhere
Since r(s) is continuous it's true everywhere
So r(s) is constant
It's not so mysterious
Well the way gromov writes is pretty mysterious
But the actual stuff isn't so crazy
There are a lot of details he mentions briefly which you have to pay close attention to
Like for example the norm of the gradient of c is 1
Lol sure
Hello! can you guys suggest an approachable introductory text for topology? My math background is not super strong, but I want to learn it to better understand some functional programming stuff I want to learn later on.
I like Elementary Topology by Oleg Viro
What kind of topology @tepid jetty
Do you know any yet? What kinds of things do you want to know
I don't know any at all, just basic stuff from youtube videos.
Need a jumping off point.
Does anyone know of reference for the fact that the bar complex actually gives you the right classifyng space
i can only find it asserted lmao
@tepid jetty Allen Hatcher's Notes on Introductory Point-Set Topology for a bird's eye view or Topology Without Tears for a more detailed treatment
if you just need it for programming then Hatcher's notes will probably suffice
although I would recommend reading a proof that (a, b) is homeomorphic to R, which Hatcher hasn't yet included in his notes
Thanks!
Ya
so I asked on stackexchange
no helpful comments so far 😦
can anyone give me a hint for the backward direction
it's probably just stupid but someone said bump functions and i have no idea what that is q_q
Do you know what partitions of unity are?
Also where is chi coming from and going to? Where is f coming from and going to?
@gritty widget
The phrasing of the problem is a little ambiguous
\chi:M->N
f:N\to\mathbb{R}
They're using the convention that "function" = codomain of R
I see why someone was thinking of bump functions here but I don't think they're necessary
Or wait no I get it
If $\chi:M\to N$ isn't smooth, then we pick a chart $(U,\phi)$ in $M$ and $(V,\psi)$ in $N$, let's say $\chi(U)\subset V$, such that $\psi \circ \chi \circ \phi^{-1}:\phi(U)\to \psi(V)$ isn't smooth
How do we extend psi to a smooth function on all of V? That's kinda where the bump function business kicks in.
Daminark:
This is super useful for manifolds because it basically lets you kinda fuck with shit strictly locally
So what's the idea? We have V in N, we can find a ball in it's image, a smaller ball in that
Or okay well psi doesn't land in R but you can handle that by just projecting, some projection of psi is not smooth if psi isn't
But yeah so get psi':V->R
Choose W_1 \subset W_2 open subsets of the image of psi'. Then find some function g that's 1 on W_1 and 0 outside W_2.
Then g times psi' (pointwise multiplication) actually extends to a function on all of N, because you just say it's 0 outside V
That's smooth still because g times psi' is already 0 on a neighborhood of the complement of V
Or I guess it depends on how you choose W_2, at least it's 0 toward the boundary of V
The upshot here is the earlier argument, that I know psi chi phi^{-1} isn't smooth, well alright some component psi' of psi will satisfy psi' chi phi^{-1} isn't smooth as a map to R. Then using bump functions I can actually refer to psi' as a function on all of N. And then psi' is our f
Yeah that seems like a reasonable argument
I guess the big fact you are using here is that a map from R^m to R^n is smooth iff all of the coordinate functions are smooth
Which is the only thing you really need calculus to prove
Focus on my last message, it's got what you want, the previous stuff was me explanation bump functions and all
oh i'll read it anyway ty
And yeah dami that is obvious because literally you can construct the Jacobian from the derivatives of the coordinate functions
oh this is really detailed ty n.n
no it's just lecture notes lol
That would be good probably
is that in lee?
Yes
ok i'll check it out ty
(Also think about why bump functions aren't a thing in complex analysis)
great thanks all
That's because if a holomorphic function on a connected open set is 0 on an open ball it is the constant 0 function
no

which part?
for i) you want to show that if f_1, f_2 is another orthonormal basis, the value of the jacobian stays the same
for i) you will need to remember the condition under which axb=0
and IVT probably
Can someone help in this??
Yeah i got it... thanks @hexed holly
an intersection of neighborhoods isn't necessarily an open neighborhood, but that doesn't matter match for the purpose of this problem
this seems correct, although I'd change some notation
but this is a finite intersection right?
personally, I'd prove it by induction I think
it is a finite intersection, and a finite intersection of neighborhoods is always a neighborhood, but it isn't necessarily an open neighborhood
oh right our book defines neighbourhoods as being open
yes sorry you’re right that’s redundant
why would that be stupid
maybe I’m misunderstanding hold up let me take another look
so the terms neighborhood and open set are synonyms?
I'd say that a neighborhood N of p contains a point of A by definition of p being a limit point, and if N contains n points of A then it contains n + 1 points of A, since we can take an intersection of all neighborhoods of p that don't contain one of those n points with N and that would be a neighborhood of p in N that contains another point of A, so N contains an infinite amount of points of A
I would tend to believe this is what most people are used to
wikipedia defines it differently
ok right I’ll keep that in mind
i guess I just tried to mirror the proof from analysis in metric spaces
@gritty widget it's not clear to me why you think you proved it
also interesting corollary: if a hausdorff space is finite it's discrete and therefore has no limit points
oh nice
seems like I misunderstood but didn’t you say ‘this seems correct, although I'd change some notation’
your steps are correct and are necessary for this proof, but I'm not sure why you think your last sentence proves the claim
there's something lacking that would make me sure you know what you're doing
oh you mean I should add a sentence saying this is a contradiction
how would you change the notation?
well I think you wrote (A∩U) - {p} twice unnecessarily, also it doesn't matter that the resulting neighborhood is contained in U, what matters is that it's disjoint from A
also hausdorff implies that there's a neighborhood of p that doesn't contain q, you can have one that is a subset of U but you'd have to take the intersection with the one that's guaranteed by hausdorff, I think
oh right, this has been really helpful, thanks n.n
and then the intersection of all those is a neighborhood of p that is disjoint from A, so p is not a limit point of A
sorry it's not necessarily disjoint, if p is in A then it intersects with A, but that intersection contains only p
Can someone help me understand this definintion of a continuous function (Topology Context)
This is from Hatcher's Basic Point-Set Topology Notes
Your definition in mind is delta epsilon right?
If so, you can show these are equivalent. The idea is that, okay let's say you satisfy delta-epsilon and let O be an open set in R. We wanna show f^{-1}(O) is open. Choose x in f^{-1}(0). Then f(x) is in O, which is open.
Means we can choose some ball of radius epsilon around f(x) that's contained in O. Now the delta-epsilon stuff kicks in
There exists some delta such that |x-a| < delta => |f(x) - f(a)| < epsilon. What does that mean? That means the ball of radius delta around x maps inside the ball of radius epsilon around f(x), and thus inside O
So the ball of radius delta around x is a subset of f^{-1}(O).
What have we done? We've shown that for every x in f^{-1}(O), there is some ball B such that x\in B \subset f^{-1}(O)
But that's just the def of being open
Now assume we know f^{-1}(O) is open whenever O is open. Fix a point x and choose epsilon > 0. The ball of radius epsilon around f(x) is open, call that O
f^{-1}(O) is open. Well, x\in f^{-1}(O), so by def of open we can find some ball B, call its radius delta, such that x\in B \subset f^{-1}(O)
Wdym by ball of radius
But okay, let's say |x-a| < delta. Then a is in B. So it's in f^{-1}(O). So f(a) is in O, which is a ball of radius epsilon around f(x). Which means |f(x)-f(a)| < epsilon
Oh replace the word ball with interval
Okay...why do we have to prove using the inverse function?
I’m pretty new to topology...I’m used to the def taught in ap calc. with epsilon
An open set is just the collection of open intervals right?
See I’m also confused with the ball of radius thing
What is that?
Like I’ve taken ap calculus
I’m in high school
So what would be covered in an analysis course... how long would it take?
slimvesus:
well it is worth noting that
So do you think I can just continue with Hatcher?
some schools call "intro analysis" something like "advanced calculus"
and in continental europe the terms tend to be synonyms
kinda
I think either munkres or hatchers notes would be better than topology without tears most likely.
Homestly it’s the notation that so annoying and confusing
Example? It may just be standard in the subject rather than something hatcher specific djoker.
Doable but I think the other way makes more sense pedagogically.
topology will feel pretty unmotivated without analytic connections
like it wont be obvious why some definitions are the way they are
at least a first course in analysis up to the point where open sets in R^n are defined and you see how slick it is to work with continuity phrased in this way rather than epsilon delta.
By that point in the course, the typical student is probably sick of epsilon delta.
And so the chance to work purely with set operations is probably going to be welcomed.
point set definitions are really just "intro analytic definitions but less finnicky"
ehh jan
i think epsilon-delta is good "first practice" in inequality juggling
epsilon delta is great motivation for the abstraction of metric spaces and then point set. Also it can't hurt to give students some basic practice manipulating inequalities.
yeah
i'd accept the statement that eps-del stuff is overemphasized though
but i think its important pedagogically
yeah and kinda tricky to teach well, a lot of students walk away with the impression that it is a valuable skill to be able to choose the delta well to make whatever exactly smaller than epsilon.
oh man i remember undergrad analysis
when usually you are extremely happy to just get an upper bound that is o(1) in delta.
my choices of deltas were
ugly as shit
consistently some weirdass min{1, fuckyfraction}
or whatever
haha
but hey it works
I got burned once bc i didnt choose it quite small enough (some scalar)
So i started using delta/100000
For all of my proofs
I noticed almost no overlap between analysis and topology, except for the fact that the topological definition of continuity is equivalent to the one from analysis in the euclidean R
never heard about any of those before topology
openness only in the context of open intervals
A lot of early topology is there to formalize basic notions in analysis
those are already formalized, topology generalizes them
by treating R as one of its spaces
Well it defines a notion that applies more generally but it was also kinda how they realized "the right" way to think about those concepts even in the setting of R
Plus analysis cares about way more general things lol
I had a question on Hatcher's proof that the fundamental group of the circle is Z
It's the part where he shows his map phi is a homomorphism
what page?
Uhh hold on lemme get it out
hmm sorry I'm not sure i see a to verify
Top of page says The fundamental group of the circle
yeah
"To verify that phi is a homomorphism, let $\tau_m : \mathbb{R} to \mathbb{R}$ "
MoonBears-C-:
homomorphism doesn't appear untl page 34 according to my search
maybe he changed the proof?
He does a translation on the lifts, then projects down
The translation takes you from ns to (n+m)s
Then when you do the group product you go to
[(n+m) + m]s
Are you gluing n+m to 0 and looping back around to m?
(on the helix that is)
Or is it only a loop when you project down
I'm not entirely sure I see what you are saying?
It's only a loop when you project
It's a path lifting of the loop
the latter
ns + m
which it why you can compose tmwn with wm
because the latter ends at m
and the former starts there
Ahh yes that was my question
yeah he's usng that
The notation isn't too clear
and implicitly the fact that \tau_m is not visible once you take the quotient
like R->R/Z is the map from R to the circle
you're working mod 1
so adding m doesn't matter
Ok so this way it does form a loop when you project
yeah
Ok thanks for the clarification. It's been a while since I did anything like this
np
hatcher is notoriously much easier when you know what it is supposed to say and much harder when you dont
I got it about a year ago after taking knots trying to rigorize what I had learned
But other things got in the way. Since I've done 3-manifolds and my reading comprehension of hatcher is much, much higher now
tbh i dont entirely blame hatcher, i think topological arguments are often like, very hard to explain until you see it and trivial once you do haha
Yeah, every time I was at office hours it was an hour and a half discussion just explaining some weird geometric thing
and I got a headache, but the next day it'd be cleared up
hahaha
I kinda like it in a sadistic way
the moment when you finally see it
is worth the pain
there's an especially bad proof like that in hatcher when he proves results about K_m,n knots on the torus
Yeah I've spent a long time staring at that
I need to go back through that and the wirtinger presentation stuff
Then I'll transfer back over to heegaard splittings
what's your definition of an open set?
alternatively, if you pick a point x in the complement of A, then it shouldn't be too hard to find an open interval containing x disjoint from A using the archimedean property
what does teh phrase "together with its limit 0" mean?
assume its not in the interior and build a sequence
ok I’ll try ty
lmk if you want a bigger hint
ty
is this fine
val:
@marsh forge sorry for the pung
yeah this is the idea
ty 
you haven't quite proved that Ui ⊆ A
a better way in my opinion is that if x ∉ Int(A) then we can construct a sequence that is not in A
and an even better way would be to show that (b) follows easily from (a)
which Ui is in A
all but finitely many right?
how do you know that
because every sequence in X is eventually in A
*every sequence which converges to x
how does that follow
well x_i is just an arbitrary element of U_i
and for all but finitely many i, x_i must be in A
since x_i was arbitrary U_i \subseteq A
i mean that might be wrong
which Ui ⊆ A
how do you know they exist
if they exist then surely you are able to provide an example of one
or are you not
yes
you say that Ui ⊆ A but you didn't prove it
i don't know what to say
right so we constructed (x_i) by taking an arbitrary member of (U_i) for each i
so (x_i) is eventually in A, which means that there is some j\in\bN with the property that i\geq j has x_i\in A
since our choice of x_i was arbitrary, every i\geq j has U_i\subseteq A
what is the problem with this argument @plucky veldt
since our choice of x_i was arbitrary, every i\geq j has U_i\subseteq A
@gritty widget WHAT
each x_i is an arbitrary member of U_i
so (x_i) is eventually in A, which means that there is some j\in\bN with the property that i\geq j has x_i\in A
of course j exists
but it isn't true that Ui ⊆ A for i ⩾ j
because who said there is no another sequence
where the j is bigger than the j from the previous sequence
so you necessarily have points in some Ui that aren't in A
i see what you're saying
hmm
so what was wrong with my reasoning
well i'm still not entirely convinced it's wrong
everything you wrote was true, but you didn't prove it
There are better ways of proving the lemma, but if you want to go down this path, you have to show that there is a Ui ⊆ A
it is true that there is a N such that Ui ⊆ A for i ⩾ N, but what's N
it's sup{j: x_i ∈ A for i ⩾ j for all sequences {x_i}}
now we know there is a supremum
how do we know it exists
because otherwise it would mean that for every n ∈ N there's a sequence {x_i} so that x_i ∉ A for i ⩽ n
in particular x_n ∉ A
so if we take x_n as a sequence, we have a sequence convergent to x that is outside of A, which contradicts our assumption
and still, x_i ∈ U_i for all i
x ∈ Int(A) is equivalent to saying x ∉ cl(X \ A), which is equivalent to saying x is not a limit of a sequence in X \ A, which is equivalent to saying every sequence converging to x is eventually in A
hi folks
would a course in Analysis and a course in Abstract Algebra be useful/essential for getting through either Munkres or Lee?
i am a math noob, and am very slow. so you gotta pretend i'm lacking in maths maturity.
oh, okay, algebra, ONLY for the later chapters.
thats interesting.
Yeah the second half is called "Algebraic topology" for a reason
tyty. i will pass this info along.
One last question.
Which book is the "lower level book" Lee or Munkres?
Munkres contains all the basic topology stuff
Lee doesn't cover basic topology but more differential geometry stuff, but Munkres has algebraic topology, which is quite different from differential geometry
He might've meant Lee Topological Manifolds
Wait by Lee I assumed you're talking about Lee's Introduction to Smooth Manifold
ah
If he's comparing to Munkres that's the only thing that would've made sense
True
He might've meant Lee Topological Manifolds
@honest narwhal
I'm sorry, i should have been clearer, i didn't realize there were two books by lee.
So you meant topological? In hindsight actually there are also two books by Munkres lol
So you could've meant: Munkres Topology/Lee Topological Manifolds, or Munkes Analysis on Manifolds/Lee Smooth Manifolds
oops.
I imagine former? 😛
the most intro level of either from either author.
So, for Lee that's definitely topological manifolds
For Munkres... idk if either is "more intro" it's sort of a lateral shift
yes, Lee Intro to Top Manifolds.
and, Munkres it'd be Topology.
Of the two I'd prefer Lee
its more noob friendly?
And for that you'd want some basic algebra but you wouldn't need that much, mostly basics of group theory and all
