#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 170 of 1
this what you wanted to do, has your goal changed ?
(x_n) converges to irrational number
then what is an integer m such that n >= m implies 1/n in {0} ?
Sorry I forgot to mention
if you think it converges in T1 then you are saying that such an m exists
yeah unless the sequence is eventually constant
yes
so then if you assume the limit is irrational
so all you need to do is to show that any basis open for T1 that contains the limit also contains a standard open containing the limit ?
Right
i had a brain lag
And it seems trivial
Because for x irrational contained in [a, b], a < b
then since $(a, b) \subset [a, b]$
Mr. M:
and open neighborhood is a union of basis elements
so for any open neighborhood in T_1 there should be a smaller one in T
show that every uncountable closed subset of a complete separable metric space contains a subset homeomorphic to the Cantor set
the problem lies in proving that there is a subset such that is both totally separated and compact
(and is nonempty)
hmm
Probably stupid question, but assuming I have a normal cover P\to X with group G, what is Aut_X(P)?
So far so good, maybe I should elaborate a bit where my confusion comes from, so they say principal(normal) G-bundle P\to X, so I have a G Action that is free and transitive on fibers, meaning it should be Aut(P) itself right?
And like they r looking at all of those and they Aut() is invariant under isos respecting X, but what’s the point to even look at Aut if it’s just G on any iso class
Or am I just taking something wrong here?
I’m not totally sure if I’m honest
These lecture notes
Page 17 is where my confusion lies
Where they define the measure as 1/Aut
And the fields itself are just principal bundles with group G, but like if all of those have the same Aut group, what’s the point of defining a measure like this...
slimvesus:
We can always just take the base to be a point anyway and just have arbitrary groups
But for a point any cover is Normal anyway
Do covers exist that are G-bundles but not normal?
That could possibly explain this, and I’ll just ignore the normal Galois word in those brackets lol
I mean he starts the page with let G be a group
He also says later on that it’s finite because it’s just hom(pi1,G)/G
So it’s definitely a fixed group
slimvesus:
hi guys, i have some problems to find a way to solve the following question: Show the map $f : R^2 \to ; [0,\infty) \times R$ is an open map with $f(x,y)=(|x|,y)$
Black:
what have you tried ?
i have tried to see how the open balls $D(\epsilon,x)$ of $R^2$ behave when mapped by f and if $D(\epsilon,x)$ are a subset of $R^2 | x>0$ the map behave like identity
Black:
and i've come to a dead path because i don't how to show a generic $D(\epsilon,x)$ in open in $[0,\infty) \times R$
Black:
generic $D(\epsilon,x)$ with $x>0$
Black:
before this I tried to see if I could rewrite an open ball as a product of open intervals
If you struggle with round balls, you could also try using open squares instead; remember that the topologies generated by round open balls and open squares are the same in the real plane
They seem better adapted for this precise problem
@uncut surge yes I know, in fact from there I thought to rewrite an open ball as a product of open so as to have an open square; so you're suggesting you build a homeomorphism between the squares and disks before evaluating the map?
That sounds a bit more complicated than I was thinking, actually... No, what I'd suggest is that you show that if you have an open square A, then f(A) is open
That then automatically shows that if you have any open set U, its image f(U) is open (because squares and balls generated the same topology)
If you don't know that squares and balls generate the same topology, you might wanna think about that statement a bit
because each open ball can be written as a union of squares and therefore the family of squares is also a basis for the Euclidean topology
Anyone knows of some example of a contractible space as a subset of R^2 that is not pointed contractible to any points(i.e. any point in the space is not a deformation retract)
Some spaces are contractible but not deformation retract at some point
For example the comb space, if you set your point at like (0,1) or (0,0) depending on how you define the comb it is not deformation retract there
no point
hm
am doing through the more annoying exercises in tom dieck at in 2.2 exr 4 he seems to suggest such a subset of R^2 exists
K deformation retract of X if theres some homotopy from X to K that doesnt move K i believe
yea
ahh yea
feels strange for a contractible space to have such a property
i mean isnt the comb space a subset of R^2?
oh hmm wikipidea says it doesnt
for me the definition of contractible is that the inclusion pt->X is an homotopy equivalence, so it is the definition of a retract isn't it ?
as long as it isnt like the (0,0) or (0,1) point(depending on definition)
retract here is stronger, the homotopy cant move pt
where pt is treated as a subset of X
yeah its cause you are working in htpy* instead of just htpy
yup
Basically every point including origin except on the y axis
yea
needs some cursed space that acts like the y axis of the comb space but without the other points
yeah hmmst
i think hatcher actually had an example
hold on
yeah it did some cursed zigzag space
let me post screenshot
oof
lol i was about to delete too
ok yup that's cursed but works
Let X be the subspace of C^n of all tuples (z1,...,zn) where zi ≠ zj for i ≠ j. Let Y be the set of all size n subsets of C. There's an obvious surjection p : X -> Y, and we can topologize Y by declaring that p is a covering map. Clearly each fiber of p has cardinality n!. Is p a covering map? I think it is, since if you have a point S = {z1,...,zn} in Y, you can let ε = min{|zi - zj| : i ≠ j} and the product of all disks of radius ε/2 should evenly cover a neighborhood of S
Like let Ui be the disk of radius ε/2 about zi. Then let V = p(U1 × … × Un). I think V should be an evenly covered neighborhood of S, with p^(-1)(V) being a disjoint union of the connected open sets U_σ = Uσ(1) × … × Uσ(n) for σ in Sn, and each of U_σ should be mapped homeomorphically onto V by p
Err I guess I need to intersect U_σ with X, since it contains points with duplicated coordinates. I still think this should go through though
Sorry could you explain your obvious surj
Oh I see you just forget the ordering
Right
We need a word for "I thought about this for a while and it was clear to me, and I don't think I can say anything to make it faster for you, but I'm confident if you think about it for a while it will be clear to you"
It would probably have been clearer if I defined an equivalence relation on X explicitly and let Y be the quotient
Ugh this suggests Max is immune to my syndrome
For me the word obvious is "I want to make it such that people feel too guilty to ask"
the day before my oral exam I went through my paper and searched for every time I used the word "clear" or "obvious" to make sure I could quickly explain why it was true in case they asked
I think the best way to dodge people asking is to use the word "routine"
because that makes it sound like you're sparing them something boring
"The proposition is a routine application of the Grothendeik-Ogg-Shafarevich formula."
I mean there is some resemblance true

My friend painted it for me for my birthday
tensor field is section of a cotangent bundle right?
a 1-form is a section of the cotangent bundle
yes i get that
what is tensor field then if not 1 form?
oh is it just any k form?
a k-form is a section of the kth exterior power of the cotangent bundle. iirc a tensor field (at least in the context of manifolds) is a section of a bundle that looks like a tensor product of a bunch of tangent and cotangent bundles
so something like $TM \otimes ... \otimes TM \otimes T^*M \otimes ... \otimes T^*M$
Brofibration:
Have you seen vector bundles in action before?
ill check the link
hold up i'll find a more readable version
the statement on this page is fine https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/Serre-Swan+theorem
val, i know words in the article but it still seems very diffiult to understand
i am currently taking first course on differential geometry. ill take some time to understand it
oh i was reading above
$(k,l)$-tensor fields are defined to be sections of $$\bigotimes^k TM\otimes \bigotimes^l T^M=\bigcup_{x\in M} \bigotimes^k T_xM\otimes \bigotimes^l T^_xM$$
val:
yes i think i understand this definition
are tensor fields used in stokes thm ?
cause thats what coming up next
in my course*
strokes says something about the integration of forms on oriented manifolds
which are tensor fields yes
@jaunty ferry do you know what basic open sets are?
@gritty widget yeah but is knowing forms enough?
so do you know topology generated by base?
just knowing the definition is not
read https://maths-people.anu.edu.au/~andrews/DG/DG_chap13.pdf or something first
you take all possible unions
@gritty widget sure will thanks
not necessarily minimal
oh wait up sorry i made a typo
@jaunty ferry base is collection of open sets such that any open set is union of open sets from this collection
@gritty widget i am in fact reading up on forms from Lee
i wanted to know if i have to know tensor fields in detail
@jaunty ferry so do you know what is base for product and box topology ?
@gritty widget LOL
yeah but i am kind of lost in the details
check them on wiki @jaunty ferry
problem with differential geometry is all the indices
@gritty widget i would say that is bookkeeping and can be managed. difficult part is making sense of abstract definitons like vector bundle. for me atleast
how are they defined ? if you can answer this question then you are done!
yea it shouldn't happen
categorically product topology is a lot more natural and box topology
Just a quick sanity check
If $p:E\to B$ is shrinkable, then $(E,p)$ is homotopy equivalent to $(B,\text{id})$ in $\mathbf{Top}_B$, in other words:
There exists some maps in $\mathbf{Top}_B$, $f:E\to B$ and $g:B\to E$ such that there exists some homotopy $H_t$ with $H_0=g\circ f$ and $H_1=\text{id}_E$ with $p=p\circ H_t$ and $f\circ g=\text{id}_B$(let $G_t$ be a homotopy with $G_0=f\circ g$ and $G_1=\text{id}_B$ with $\text{id}_B=\text{id}_B\circ G_t$, so $G_t=\text{id}_B$)
ariana:
it's ok right
not rlly
what is Top_B here?
lol
yea ive just never seen the term shrinkable before?
is this a htpy thing or a point set open cover meme thingy
idk it is like a random thing i skipped previously in tom dieck XD
points in $\text{Top}_B$ are $(A,a)$ with $a:A\to B$ and morphisms between $(A,a)$ and $(C,c)$ are maps $f:A\to C$ such that $a=c\circ f$, so basically we get this triangle
\begin{tikzcd}
A \arrow[rd, "a"'] \arrow[rr, "f"] & & C \arrow[ld, "c"] \
& B &
\end{tikzcd}
so this is spaces over $B$
ariana:
yee
first one?
not necessirely htyp equiv
agreed
hmm is g:B-> E a map in Top_B tho
i guess maybe we should work thru this concretely and start but just choosing a B?
uh what would a good B be
RP^2? or smth?
ok a bit lazy when i typed $f:E\to B$ i meant like $f:(E,p)\to (B,\text{id})$
ariana:
B={*} Top_B becomes Top hehe
what are some examples of nonshrinkable spaces
non normal ones
i think
Zariski top on Spec(Z) 
(shrinkable is in regards to the map $p:E\to B$ here)
let $E=B+B$ and $p$ be the obvious injection
h u h
ariana:
how are u defining shrinkable then
If p:E->B is htpy equiv with id:B->B in Top_B, so (E,p) htpy equiv to (B,id)
ok so is this ur defn of shrinkable?
do u want an example of a non-shrinkable space?
the injection from B+B to B isn't shrinkable
i just need a sanity check to make sure im sane lol
so like it should be eqiuvalent to saying
some maps f:E->B, g:B->E in Top_B with homotopy from gf to identity on E and fg is identity on B
this is kind of wack
im not sure i understand the Top_B memery well enough to help
sorry D:
whats B+B here
$B\coprod B$ kek
its very hard for me to conceptualize Top_B geometrically
ariana:
oh smh
i would start with fixing a B
yea i should probably not use + XD
hm true
what is this even used for
ive never seen this b4 and when i googled i found nothing
tom Dieck pls
lol
lol
so basically the counterexample im finding is some htpy equiv p:E\to B that has a section but is not shrinkable.
If we let E to be the space Y in https://media.discordapp.net/attachments/496785752936546304/718140633742573630/Screenshot_from_2020-06-04_09-34-19.png and B be the bolded line then p is a htpy equiv that has a section but you can't construct the H_t from E to E that satisfies the appropriate commutativity relations in Top_B
cursed spaces
Counter Examples in Topology is a great book to flip through on occasion.
Pathological examples bolster the mathematical mind's immune system I suppose 😂
Counterexamples in topology should be burned
Its a joke from my first alg top professor
He told us all to buy a copy and burn it
If you want to know why I actually agree w the sentiment its because as far as im concerned the pathological counterexamples show our defn of topology was too naive, not that these are real spaces anyone should care about
as far as im concerned the pathological counterexamples show our defn of topology was too naive
what is implied by "naive" here
if you mean "broad", then yeah, thats the whole point
if you mean "bad"
then i strongly disagree
the point of a topological space is to be a really really general fucking object that becomes substantially less general when you add like
any structure
CiT, if anything, shows how "important" this added structure is
Uh maybe this is a usage of the word that isnt common beyond my dept?
Naive meaning like, oh this definition looked like it might be good enough to capture all the stuff we like and get rid of the stuff we dont
But really we wanted more conditions
but i think "naive" tends to carry an implication of being "bad"
i would not consider the definition of a topological space bad/flawed
Like “naive” vs “genuine” is a common terminology in topology for old vs improved defns
Oh sure
I didnt really mean it that way
the point of CiT is exactly to illustrate that:
the notion of a topological space is really general
so you need some additional definition on top of it
before you can make "natural" statements
in full confidence
Yeah I dont have anything against the book/author
But i do think ppl fetishize those counterexamples in a way i think is kinda silly
even if the spaces are esoteric and generally not the most useful things to consider
Like ooooo the l o n g l i n e
well i mean
at least they're falling for the mysticism kool-aid in general topology instead of cat theory or some shit
¯_(ツ)_/¯
Idk if i think thats better lmaooo
i mean like, theres a certain sense that we only care about CiT up to how much we care about general topology
and theres not much reason necessarily to care about general topology unless youre like, a logician
but idk, if people find it neat
nothing wrong with that
idk i dont know any logic
Set theory
i know topology is relevant to logic and the spaces used generally have less structure than they do in AT or whatever
i dont know exactly how much "less" is
because again
not too experienced
with logic
but i mean if you wanna criticize anything about the "fetishization" of topology maax
i'd criticize the undergrad curriculum seeing a full semester of gen top as "core"
in the same regard as ring theory is core
wait what
like realistically most undergrads only need the first month of a gen top course
I agree that gen top is too long
I didnt even bother to take it
But ring theory?
Id extend it if anything
no im saying
Ok but plenty of mathematicians use things every day that arent core jan
the fact that general topology is regarded as a "core" course on the same regard as ring theory
in that its a prereq for fucking everything
Idk
feels a bit wrong
Topology should be there imo
like general topology is important for some people
Yeah idk
mine?
I think that top is as important as like
Oh sure
but i only need like the first few chapters
i mean idk
maybe i like
use the intuition from later chapters of munkres
I feel like theres two diff args here
¯_(ツ)_/¯
for some mathematicians
I do think its sad that one can graduate undergrad without even seeing a defn of topology tho
While Galois theory is trumped up like its as important as ring theory
Honestly galois theory as a standard course needs to be electivized
ok i strongly disagree there max
i think everyone should be familiar with galois stuff
i mean it just feels like part of a "mathematician's repertoire" in the sense that
i feel like you cant even understand the like
motivations or processes
of, say, alg NT
without galois stuff
Yes
Alg NT people
Should learn galois theory
But its not nearly universal enough
Galois theory is also a model for a ton of stuff that happens in other areas, like Algebraic Topology
Covering spaces are a nearly exact analogy.
and honestly i feel like galois theory teaches
Yeah but that analogy is not strong unless you degenerate to riemanniam geo
"algebraic thinking"
very well
like ok im gonna be frank here
most of an intro group/ring theory class
is definition pushing
like basically all of it
I also think those classes should be modified for sure
galois theory is a nice "middle ground" between that and actually having novel ideas
But like idk I could have learned all the galois theory id ever need
In 3-5 weeks
Rather than 10
ehhh
i guess thats maybe fair
but how do you structure an undergrad curriculum such that
the 40% of undergrads that need it have a class for it
but the remaining 60% only cover half of it
Shorten galois theory add soem other stuff
yeah but then when will they learn galois theory?
no im saying like
if you drop half of galois theory
then you have a "rump" of "leftovers"
that a lot of undergrads need to know
but that doesnt really justify
a full course
i guess mayyyybe you could have like a
"galois theory and algebraic number theory" course
at an undergraduate level
Again I feel like the core requirements
Should not be built
To supplement niche interests
Like you can graduate from uchicago without knowing what cohomology is
Or a category
but its necessary for a lot
I mean certainly if you're going to study PDEs or something, you don't need to take Galois theory (though its still beautiful). But otherwise, the ideas from it are pretty essential, even if you're not directly applying them.
Category theory is the bread and butter of like, a huge chunk of math
i'd argue the same for CT and stuff
I mean, Galois Theory is going to be part of a grad algebra course anyway, so I don't think it is obligatory for undergrads.
my grad algebra course assumed you knew GT
but there is no way an undergrad is going to get all the math that they technically "should" know for grad school.
I think the big ideas and findamental theorem could be beelined quickly
admittedly it probably wouldnt be hard for a motivated student to self-study
but still
Spending weeks computing galois groups of polynomials no one cares about
Is objectivrly a waste
For most ugs
Haha, that hurts me
Sorry ahah but topologists dont make every ug compute 100 fundamental groups
I think computing Galois groups of polynomials is the first time you really see number theory. But I don't think undergrads have to do it. But I definitely think grad students have to compute 100 fundamental groups
We deep dove into like, algos for polys of specific degrees
W determinants
And resolvents
Tbh i wanted to commit sepuku
yeah, I don't think that stuff is super worthwhile
but the fact that, e.g., x^4+2 and x^4+3 are fundamentally different even though they shoudl be "the same" is important
youre referring to
It might he the perfect storm
Of frank caligari and matt emerton
Creating the worlds worst algebra class
we did do some
Bc frank is obsessed with computations (sometimes rightly so)
but I would say, resolvants are a bad bad thing to emphasize in a course because they are A) not useful that often and B) easy to learn.
And Matt is obsessed w going slowly
including the lecturer
Oh god
I didnt even read that chapter
I figured id take the bullet on that pset
I might tear this class apart in the review
We spent like 2.5 weeks on 14.6 in dummit
I think the high level summary of the ruler/compass stuff is really cool. "Solving quadratic equations only gives you degree 2 stuff, so everything you get lives in quadratic extensions of quadratic extensions of quadratic extensions of..." so you definitely don't get cube root of 2.
And every pset was just miserable
Idk my problem w this is like
Theres a lot of stuff i find really cool
oh yeah and the ruler-compass stuff is historically very very relevant
but I struggle to spend more than half a lecture on the ruler/compass stuff.
in that it shows one of the most direct applications of the more abstract framing of algebra
but yeah
we spent like
Bc it changes hugely from person to person
Like i could not care any less about ruler compass stuff
meanwhile we talked about diagonalization and canonical forms and change of basis matrices and the gram-schmidt process
all in the same lecture
of linear algebra
yeah, the point, in my mind, is "From this point of view, this historically important and difficult problem is completely trivial"
if you spend two weeks on it, you really undercut the "is completely trivial" part 😛
Also i dont think historical relevancy is good either
i mean i think its worth mentioning
No one i talked to found “quintic solving” to be a good motivator
Like
No one cares about solving quintics
Lol sorry
I'm certainly a mathematician because for reasons I cannot explain, my high school taught a math history course and I found it fascinating. I did my final project on quintic solving.
I have bad news 4 u
Yeah I mean Im not surprised some peoole find it interestint
Maybe jan
I cant argue that
oh i wouldnt say i find galois theory all that interesting
but i think its important for a "well-rounded" mathematician just to be familiar with the "basic repertoire"
i wouldnt mind having them spend less time on it
But I'm huge on teachers communicating broad connections to history and other areas. That's what teachers can do well, that textbooks cant' do so well.
I dont think it matters whether its interesting or not. I dont find analysis interesting but i dont disagree it should he core
but i think everyone should at least have like a
Be*
surface-level understanding
Surface level understanding is like 3 weeks nami
Yeah yeah ik
Idk if youre right
Ive never interscted w people that care about polynomials that much
Hell dummit has a chapter on AG
Thats a way more interesting segway
Lmaooo
Hey we actually have an LA requirement now
Ill have u know
Idk if you did like
Rings -> mods -> baby galois -> varietirs
I think thats way more interesting
Varieties*
Mine had 10
It was
Pain
Its over now
Thank fucking fod
God
Literally 3 weeks on the “Galois Groups of Polynomials” chapter
I have no idea how it was justified bc i didnt go to lecture even once
But the psets were awful
No
i mean ok we did something like
10 weeks of galois and no more algebra nami
groups -> rings -> modules -> BRANCH
I am done w algebra as far as uchi is concerned
and from the branch there was
galois -> alg nt
and also
varieties -> comm alg -> schemes
I mean, Galois Groups of Polynomials over Q is an incredibly important area of active research in number theory. It's one of the only things you can touch on in abstract algebra that connects to current active research.
Sure
But 1/3 of ug algebra
Being about it
Is insane
Imo
You could throw all sorts of stuff into a core curriculum
And justify it w proximity to research
I dont think thats a good idea
Hell throw spectral sequences into the algebra core for that lol
Where I teach now, we have a semester of algebra, followed by independent study if a student is interested. Where I taught previously, it was trimesters, Groups, Rings, then Fields/Galois, which felt right.
Tbh given that this channel is dominated by regulars
I think its okay for this to be our #general lol
Unless someone has an actual topology questikn
AG is like taught every other year here and has galois as a prereq iirc
Well, when you get to Galois Theory for infinite extensions, and you connect it to topological groups, that's pretty sweet.
but one of the courses was:
Group actions, Sylow Theory, solvable and nilpotent groups, Galois Theory.
and another course was:
Field extensions. Groups of automorphisms of fields. Galois theory. Finite fields and applications. Solvable groups, the insolvability of the quintic equation. Ruler and compass construction.
now you might tell yourself
"both of those are galois theory courses"
the answer is
"yes"
i honestly dont understand the motivation behind this structure
at all
but whatever
Haha I was just connecting Galois Theory to the topology channel.
I think the finite group theory curriculum is overly influenced by what was important when finite group theorists were working on proving the classification theorem.
but curriculum change is always slow.
if only the proof of classification was actually written down somewhere
Z/n is my only real counter example
rather than being spread in like 12 different sources combined with the folklore of like 100 finite group theorists
Finite abelian groups and infinite groups are my only friends
Well once some brave soul
I would say that the most important part of finite group theory is emphasizing all the tools of studying group actions, because groups exist to act on things.
Writes it all down in coq
Youll have it nami
Lmfao
Group actions were under emphasized in my course for sure
i dont think anyone actually knows the full proof
And my prof explicitly emphasized them more than the others
they just know one subsection of the proof
stitched together with their own internal folklore
and believe all their peers have their own areas covered
All group actions are continuous
real take:
groups exist to make rings out of
all other applications are vestigial
Generally, when I have taught graduate algebra, the majority of my time in group theory has been spent on group actions.
I thought you normally have to generalize out of Z/p to do equiv
Like in equiv topology
We use mackey functors
And mackey functor fields
Which are cursed but whatever
Can someone explain coends to me like im a stupid undergrad
Bc im a stupid undergrad
Coends are one of those things that when i saw it i was like
I can def blackbox this
And it has gotten to the point
Where i cannot do that
Oh boy
Who is faye
Fadingmidnight?
does fadingmidnight know coends 
Oh i should ask them then
faye is good
I think mniip knows them but tbh i think we think so differently that it might not be helpful lol
faye told me the negi umich math dept guy story which is very close to my heart
I would say that the most important part of finite group theory is emphasizing all the tools of studying group actions, because groups exist to act on things.
"Groups, as men, will be known by their actions".
hello there, oddly enough, i am looking for a problem... i was once asked this question of : if you take a sheet of paper, take a second one, crumble it without cutting or puncturing it, and have the total 2d span of this ball of paper be inside the domain of the original piece of paper, show that there is bound to be a point who's coordinates on both pieces of paper are the same. maybe ive phrased it incorrectly, i was hoping somebody who was familiar with this problem could link me the proper wording! (and maybe even the proof
, this is purely out of curiosity, this is beyond my level atm haha)
This sounds like the Banach fixed point theorem
hmmm... is the mapping i described a contraction mapping though? 
cos mine allow for points to be superposed upon one another
i think it sounds more like Brouwer's fixed point theorem
Banach's seems to be some derivation of Brouwer's? yet the former was proven after the latter, which seems to suggest elsewise

the two are not really related. in your case, banach’s isn’t applicable but brouwer’s is
banach requires a complete metric space X and a lipschitz-contraction, brouwer requires a convex compact set in ℝⁿ but then the function just has to be continuous
(more generally for brouwer it can also be convex and compact in a banach space, but that generalization is apparently known as “Schauder’s fixed point theorem”, I wasn’t aware of it)
isnt contraction continuous though? im wrong but thats how i understand it
also, topology is so interesting wtf, for the past hour ive been stumbling upon numerous interesting results 
gotta wait like a year before we get to topology tho haha
also, is there a way to find this point?
Forgive me but isn't the second condition redundant? Basis having all 'x's means that everything is already included no?
just because we have all the points doesn't mean we have all the sets of the topology
go back and check the axioms a topology needs to satisfy
Ah. So if it wasn't a topological basis but just a basis it wouldn't need the second condition?
no such thing as "just a basis" here, the basis is for a topology
we care more about open sets than just points here
mhm
try taking a point in the closure and looking at sequences in S converging to it
should that first function be S->R
bot pls
Token:
yes, this is either the definition of closure or an easy equivalent one
metric spaces are nice when it comes to sequences
well, you can start by showing that if a point lies in the closure, you have a sequence in the original set converging to it
that should get you started
then try using that to define the extension of f
(maybe i gave too much away)
as long as you're careful about it, sure
also im not too sure about that definition of closure
ok, good
that's the harder part
Would it be correct to say that the subspace topology is the coarsest topology that makes the retract continuous?
Yes, that sounds equivalent to the definition about intersecting the open sets with X to me.
Oh thanks. Any idea how to deduce the coarsest-ness?
Well, let's say we have the inclusion X to our ambient space. Then the inverse image of an open set U in the ambient space under that map is exactly U intersect X
so that has to be in there
but the subspace topology is nothing else but those
so itis the coarsest
Hmm, yeah I was aware about the subspace topology being coarsest for the inclusion map but wasn't sure about the retraction map.
Although the subspace topology gives us that the retraction is continuous, but I am not sure whether it is coarsest for it
r: X → A where A ⊂ X such that r restricted to A is the identity on A
oh sorry, I thought you were using retraction to mean pullback!
Oh right, it is useless to talk about coarsest for a map where the topology on the codomain is arbitrary.
Hmm right right
@gritty widget But it talks about quotient topology from π : U → π(U) instead of π : X → π(U) = U⋂A where U ⊂ X and π is the retraction : X → A.
Yes I agree with this.
slimvesus:
Say you take the unit circle in R^n setminus {0}, n >= 2, and smoothly deform it via a smooth homotopy. Now put it back into R^n.. if a subgroup of (R^n, +) contains this deformed circle, is it necessarily all of R^n
sheesh
This at least fails for n = 1, where your unit sphere is {1,-1} and thus you could just take the subgroup to be Z
Yeah it's the only one which is fun
just take the circular path to the correct angle
and then go up or down
i.e. for any point on the annulus, you can go straight to one of the edges, go around until you get the desired angle, and then go back to the right radius
thats a well defined path and is clearly continuous
You can also use the ivt if you really want to
what
On your f(t)
Oh sure ig
is this for a class or for fun
because if you have a really nitpicky professor then maybe you have to explicitly write all this out
but the path is like, very clear
I'll draw a picture
technically when two points are directly opposite you need to just assert you mean clockwise or something
but this is a perfectly good proof of path connectedness
huh????
how is this related to jordan curves
Sorry?
If you have a point in an annulus
and you take the straight path to the origin
you will intersect the circle by IVT or just by explicitly computing when this will happen
it doesn't have anything to do with the jordan curve theorem
Like let $v$ be a vector with $r\leq |v|\leq 1$. Then you can shrink $v$ by taking $tv$ for $t<1$. At some point $|tv|=t|v|$ will be $r$ before it hits $0$
MaxJ:
this is just IVT
Is closure of the intersection the intersection of the closure?
I didn't see the whole argument
But that's the only thing I caught
i think its not necessarily true
let me construct counter example hmm
(one inclusion is true btw)
Yeah I realised the equality doesn't hold so I removed the argument
even worse example: Let 𝕀 := ℝ \ ℚ
then cl(𝕀 ∩ ℚ) = ∅ but cl(𝕀)∩cl(ℚ) = ℝ
Lmao I wasn't asking a question, I was pointing out a problem in someone else's argument
They deleted it before I was able to finish
I forgot who it was tho
oh oof
oh lol makes sense
Oh for rudin it was union
i think for union it is equal right
right makes sense
Yeah
because infinite union of closed sets need not be closed
Exactly
so infinite union of closure not closed which is lol
Is every metric space homeomorphic to a subspace of R^n for some n?
don't make me angry
I mean, for one you can have metric spaces on sets that have cardinality larger than R^n so definitely no
In fact, there are even finite sets that you can't do this for
at least, this is what wikipedia says
Hi, I have a question about orientability of surfaces, why do we require the Jacobian of a change of parameters be positive? Doesn't the Jacobian being negative just mean that the normal vector at that point is the just the negative of the original? Which is fine since there exists 2 normal vectors to a tangent plane?
it's just a convention that you have to maintain
it's impossible to do on nonorientable surfaces like a mobius strip, once you go around you end up where you started but with opposite orientation, it's inevitable
but what does 'going around' mean
you're covering it with a family of coordinate neighborhoods
why can't i also pick a convention for the mobius strip
and at the intersection between two neighborhoods they have to agree by definition you just posted
have you ever seen a mobius strip in real life
maybe think of it this way, orientable surfaces have two sides
I saw the ant picture of it
nonorientable surfaces don't
so the key here is that
if you try to paint an orientable surface you could paint one side red and the other side blue if you're imagining the normal vectors outwards and inwards
if you try to paint a mobius strip, you can't paint it with 2 colors because it only has one side
there's no way to distinguish in a global way the difference between normal vectors
maybe try drawing a picture of a mobius strip with a covering on it and try to orient each of them around the entire thing
a point on the mobius strip has two neighborhoods that are opposite to each other, thats why, correct?
yeah
i was trying to apply the same idea to the sphere
the inside of the sphere
is not parametrized?
a hollow sphere of course
a surface is 2 dimensional
there's no "inside" points
the only inside it has are the points of the surface itself
i mean
the "inside" points aren't parametrized because they lie in 3D space which is just an artifact of how you think of the sphere
there is no external space to the sphere really
yeah im switching between the mobius strip and the sphere right now in my brain and trying to convince myself
it's kind of the opposite problem of how pictures of the klein bottle end up showing a self-intersection
i kind of got it but need more time
that's not really there either for the same reason that how we immerse it in space is just to try to convey the connectivity
klein bottle is a nice example too, see if you can determine if that's orientable or not
also a torus is another example to work out
the torus looks orientable to me
yup
easy way to find out if it's nonorientable is to imagine tracing out a path while carrying a normal vector that leads to the same spot with your normal vector flipped
alright I finally got it, thank you so much!
you're welcome
Let N be the space of continuous nowhere differentiable functions on the interval, under the subspace topology induced by the sup norm on C[0, 1]. Show that its homotopy groups are identically zero.
(it is path connected so no need to worry about basepoint)
Topology
U stole this from facebook
maybe it's their own facebook page
If so 22 doxxed himself
It's not his real name nor pfp
@dire warren are you James Baxter?
Can somebody recount how can VA (in a topological group) be considered an open set where A is open and V is closed? I am assuming one will argue by considering VA = ⋃_{v in V} vA and argue vA is open (since a to va is a homeomorphism).
The problem I have here is that I don't need to use closedness of V. So does this hold for any arbitrary subset V or is the above argument wrong?
the argument looks fine to me
but what do you mean "be considered an open set"
something is either open or it's not
it's not a matter of consideration
What if it feels open
Is $\bC$ a universal covering of $\bC\setminus\brc{0}$ by the map $z\mapsto e^z$?
Whoever:
Where both have the usual metric topology ofc
Yeah I can see it too, I just want to make sure
its open in my heart
Stupid question: let pi(p) = q. The pushforward sheaf pi_*F maps naturally between the stalks by sending an element in f in pi_*F(U) with (f, U)_q = [f]_q being the image in the stalk to the element (f, pi^-1(U))_p or am I missing something?
Hello, what's the difference between local diffeomorphism and diffeomorhpsim? When I looked it up, it says that local diffeomorphism that the function restricted to its image is a diffeomorphism, but isn't a diffeomorphism already bijective?
basically the two spaces you’re mapping between may not be diffeomorphic themselves, but the function can still act like a diffeomorphism on small sets. I.e. perhaps f itself isn’t a diffeo, but f restricted to some small open set U is a diffeo onto f(U). if you can find such a U around every point then it’s a local diffeo
obviously every diffeo is a local diffeo as well since you can just choose U to be the whole space
as an example, the map t↦eⁱᵗ between ℝ and S¹ is a local diffeomorphism (pick for U some interval of length less than 2π) but not a diffeomorphism since it’s not bijective
@loud scarab
oh okay got it, that example made it clear, thank you
so like. if Q is a metric space that has no interior how is it open in itself
nvm i think i understand
what do you mean by "no interior"?
For a compact connected n-manifold with/without boundary, what can be said about the least number of connected coordinate charts needed to cover the manifold? Can one find an upper bound that holds uniformly for all such n manifolds for fixed n?
you cannot have just one coordinate chart cause that will make it homeomorphic to open set $U \subset \mathbb R ^n$ which is not compact. You can have 2 ($S^{n-1} $).
bertwit:
What about an upper bound?
i am not sure
are you asked to find an upper bound? i.e. do you know if any upper bound exists?
btw
Yeah I’m not sure
I accept inf as an answer
Cause that still tells us something
Ofc inf is only an acceptable answer if it’s the lowest upper bound, otherwise inf is trivially an upper bound..
related concept: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lusternik–Schnirelmann_category
also related answer: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2097690/minimal-number-of-charts-covering-a-manifold?rq=1
It seems that requiring the charts to be connected but not contractible hits the sweet spot where it’s not known if an upper bound exists LOL
Well at least not easily found online
ah, i see! coordinate charts aren't necessarily contractible
Ye
hm, but i guess there should be something like an inequality between your constant and this LS category
I was surprised that at the most general they’re not even connected
cause nullhomotopic implies connected
In general not really
Like if u take this LS category
The genus of a surface is a lower bound for the number of nullhomotopic charts
So it can be unbounded even for n = 2
On the other hand a genus n surface can easily be covered with 2 connected charts
Slice it in half
At least for low n I have a picture..
For the torus for example, if you sliced that boi, you'd get two cylinders
oh
Could prolly demonstrate an explicit homeomorphism
cray cray
Alright, so your number can stay at 2 while the LS number goes to infinity
Ye
Does your number <= LS at least?
... errr
Yes?
Because nullhomotopic charts r connected
So u can always just like
Ye okay 😄
Use those ahah
Yeah that was what I was hoping
Okay, but of course that doesn't help you with understanding whether your number might be bounded for all manifolds for a fixed dimension
Yeah haah cause the sup for LS is in general always inf
Alright, that's pretty neat.... so for n = 2, your number is pretty certain to be 2, right?
Remind me again
I guess one might wanna think about surfaces with boundary
Classification of surfaces
Every closed surface is a n-genus surface or..?
Is it fully classified by the genus?
Genus and boundary components
Right so if no boundary then it’s 2
(and maybe orientability? oh man)
O..
Yeah Möbius strip whoops
yeah idk if it’s in general 2 then ..
Is there a nice classification of non orientwble surfaces without boundary
yeah i've got nothing, but i can imagine you can build some weird klein-bottles with higher genus
"A non-orientable surface of genus h can be obtained by gluing h crosscaps to S2. For this, embed D2 in S2 (or Rh−1 from the second crosscap on), remove the interior and glue in the Möbius strip, which also has boundary S1. The result of attaching a non-orientable handle to S2 or any handle to a non-orientable surface is diffeomorphic to the surface with two additional crosscaps."
Unfortunately these are a bit ass to imagine
Like a disk, but the interior of the disk is twisted somehow
I don’t know how anything gets proved rigorously in topology
I wonder if the samurai sword approach still works there...
this shitvis some shit
LOL
In general, idk
I seem to recall something like
If u (samurai) cut a Möbius strip
You get a connected strip
Yeah you're just making it worse
It was in my childhood book
Or wait
Yeah true that was it
I thought there was also a weird way to cut a mobius strip that makes you get two strips entangled or so
tru
They won’t be charts
Fun question! Might be worth a paper or at least a mathoverflow post
Yeah I might post a mathoverflow question
It’s certainly beyond me Idk enough topology or geometry or wtv the heck u need
Oh Larto I have a fun one for you
Let N denote the space of nowhere continuous functions [0, 1] -> [0, 1] under the sup norm topology.
Show that N is path connected.
@uncut surge
i swear if this is some baire space shit
it's probably not
that makes me even more mad because you probably need some awful construction 😦
aaaah nooo it doesn't do anything because you can make path-connected spaces disconnected by taking out meagre sets
suffering is at hand
I did use Baire as a tool at some point..
But it’s not the main ingredient I guess
I only needed that the intersection of two open dense sets is open dense
Also, since it’s path connected, this gives us the go ahead to try computing homotopy and homology groups of this space. Yay! Fun!
No one can help a flat earther
I will not help you with this
why
Dont ping me please
then help me
wled le kahb
@MarxJ is a cocycle
@MarxJ is a cocycle
@MarxJ is a cocycle
@MarxJ is a cocycle
@MarxJ is a cocycle
@MarxJ is a cocycle@MarxJ is a cocycle@MarxJ is a cocycle
@MarxJ is a cocycle
@MarxJ is a cocycle
v
@MarxJ is a cocycle@MarxJ is a cocycle
Its always an elon fan
worst fandom
does idolizing a billionaire megalomaniac count as a "fandom"
$\partial _{\nu }F^{\mu \nu }=0$
Davide:
yes
slimvesus:
bit only from $\varphi_i(U_i\cap U_j)\to\varphi_j(U_i\cap U_j)$
val:
*but
slimvesus:
you can identify the tangent space of an open subset of V with V
(I'm assuming we're working with manifolds? I saw someone say banach spaces above so I might be out of my element. Sorry if so)
ya sorry i should send more context
hmm okay
oh nice
well yes
anyway i'll go read the first chapter more carefully 
ty
how does that give a map from E_i \to E_j though
yes
Does this book define manifolds as locally a banach space and not locally Euclidean? So you can have like infinite dimensional manifolds?
yes
That seems cool
m
ok
i think i understand
i will read chpt 1 more closely 
ty
yes
where should i go then
