#point-set-topology
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Let $M, N$ be two manifolds such that their De Rham cohomology is finite dimensional. Let $\chi(M) = \sum_{i = 0}^{n}(-1)^i b^i(M)$ and $\chi(N) = \sum_{i = 0}^{n} (-1)^i b^i(N)$ their euler characteristic, where $b^i$ are the betti's number(aka dimension of the $i-$th cohomology space). I want to show that $\chi(M \times N) = \chi(M)\chi(N)$. Do you have any hint?
emme:
I think this is the one where you use UCT and poincaré duality, emme
@gritty widget what is uct?
thank you
universal coefficients
idk if you have the assumptions for poincare duality
have you proven kunneth?
I can use the PD which in my course was introduced as isomorphism between H^k(M) and H_c^(n-k)(M)
where in H_c we consider only differential forms with compact support
have you proven kunneth?
@dim meadow Kunneth formula? Yes
Now that I look at it
the fact is just an application of kunneth formula lol
about what?
I don't think so
you don't have compactness
I don't know the proof of kunneth off hand
besides for taking the tensor product of the complexes
or whatever
for poincare you need compact orientable (not really cause you can do Z/2 orientable)
lol
yeah goodnight
Let $M$ be a compact orientable connected manifold, we know that this means that the de rham cohomology on $M$ is finite-dimensional. Can we say something about the dimension of cohomology of the open sets of $M$? I think that the cohomology should be finite-dimensional too.
emme:
Let me think abt this
sure
Hm. Take an open disk of dimension greater than 3. You should be able to embed a sequence of shrinking solid tori all connected whose cohomology would be infinite in degree 1
mh ok, then I make a further assumption. How about the open sets $M \setminus {p}$
emme:
I believe that should work. Consider the homology of M rel a nbhd of p homeo to R^n this will be the same as M. And near x the change should be small, and then mayer vietoris can be used i believe
Im running errands so this is just a sketch
Yes using Mayer-vietoris I can show that the bettis number of $M\setminus {p}$ are the same of $M$ except for $b^n$
emme:
but I used a fact about finite dimensional spaces
Oh you want inf dimensional? Im not going to conjecture abt that bc things go wrong and i dont know a lot abt them
That is: if I have an exact sequence $0 \to V_1 \overset{f_1}{\to} V_2 \to \ldots \to V_{k-1} \overset{f_{k-1}}{\to}V_k \to 0$ then $\sum_{i = 1}^{k} (-1)^i dim V_i = 0$
emme:
I used applied this result to the mayer vietoris sequence
so I was assuming that $H^i(M \setminus {p})$ was finite dimensional
emme:
for example taking your open sets, just call $N = M \setminus {p}$ and $V = $diffeo to an open ball of radius one
emme:
We get that $N \cap V $ is homotopic equivalent to $\mathbb{S}^{n-1}$
emme:
so $H^{i}(N \cap V)$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$ for $i = 0, n-1$ and trivial otherwise
emme:
and $H^i(V) $ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$ for $i = 0$ and trivial otherwise
emme:
so to compunte $b^i(N)$ for let's say $i > 1$ I have the following sequence
emme:
$0 \to H^i(M) \to H^i(N) \to 0$
emme:
Without already knowing that $H^i(N)$ is finite dimensional I can't say that $dim(H^i(M)) = dim H^i(N)$
emme:
right?
@limpid mural i only skimmed the conversation above, but are you asking whether exactness of that sequence implies the two vector spaces are the same dimension?
Because if that sequence is exact then the map H^i(M) -> H^i(N) is an isomorphism
Also I think max got scared off because he thought you were asking about infinite dimensional manifolds, not vector spaces lol
Lmao
Oh I just got busy hahaha
So RxR is the set of all ordered pairs in R, how is this different to R2?
Not at all, that's usually how R^2 is defined
Ok, I think its a product topology thing im getting confused with
Yeah its that, basically was getting tripped up over considering R2 via euclidean open sets then the the product metric on RxR
which would then imply that all sets are open and closed, which is obviously false in general
Ok thanks
just follow the hint
show that those sets are all open and that their intersection is S
Oh yeah I've done this question
then you’re done
I was thinking about using it
no actually i did use it for the pointwise topology
showing that the point zero is closed
by saying its the intersection of of closed sets which i then proved were closed
Let $T = \mathbb{S}^1 \times \mathbb{S}^1$ the torus, $p \in T$, $M = T \times T$, $N_1 = T \times {p}$, $N_2 = {p} \times T$ and $X = M \setminus (N_1 \cup N_2)$
emme:
I want to compute the De rham cohomology of the smooth manifold $X$
emme:
So I try to study the Mayer-Vietoris sequence
with $U = M \setminus N_1$ and $V = M \setminus N_2$
emme:
im not sure this approach makes sense how are you gluing those two
$M = U \cup V$ and $U \cap V = X$
emme:
oh nono, thank god it's not the quotient
ok so $U$ should be diffeomorphic to $V$
emme:
Now I don't know how to compute their de rham cohomology groups, I think an homotopy equivalence could be the way to compute them
But I suck at this, my thought is that $U$ should have the same homotopy of $T \times \mathbb{R}$
emme:
Because I think about a torus minus a circle, which is another situation but seems similar
So (T x T)-(T x p) is the same as T x (T-p)
@marsh forge oh
wedge of two circles if I aint wrong
you aint
So (T x T)-(T x p) is the same as T x (T-p)
@marsh forge how did you see that?
So what is T x T
what I do is I take a torus
and I replace every point on the first torus w another torus
if I then remove one of the tori
its the same thing as never having added it in the first place
so it suffices to remove the point before I take the cart. product
np
Hy everyone
I need some exercises, better if with a solution, on de rahm's cohomology, solvable with mayer vietoris. Do you know any?
have you done all the exercises in bott tu
if not do all the exercises in bott tu
Here's a good one
The (unreduced) suspension of a space X is given by XxI/~
where the quotient collapses all points $(x,1)$ to a single point and all points $(x,0)$ to a single point
MaxJ:
(two distinct points)
Compute the cohomology of Suspension(X) via mayer vietoris
in terms of the cohomology of X
@knotty pasture
Mmm nice
I try to think about the exercise you proposed, however I still have to learn how to use this technique well
For example I have a quick doubt, if x is a manifolds, how could I prove that suspension (x) is a manifold?
always if it is
mmm
idk
no sorry i forgot that you need a manifold for derham
you can pretend its a manifold
the computation is entirely algebraic
it's just ||the cohomology of X shifted one degree up|| right?
Because ||you can take U = suspension minus bottom point and V = suspension minus top point, both are contractible and the intersection deformation retracts onto X||
Shifted one degree it means H(X)^k=H(susp(X))^(k+1)
I computed the de rham cohomology of $T - {p}$ and $T \times (T \setminus {p})$
emme:
where $T$ is the torus $\mathbb{S}^1 \times \mathbb{S}^1$
emme:
For $T \setminus {p}$ we have $H^0(T \setminus {p}) \cong \mathbb{R}$, $H^1(T \setminus {p}) \cong \mathbb{R}^2$ and $H^2(T \setminus {p}) \cong 0$
right?
emme:
$\setminus$ is the set difference
emme:
Am I right?
higher cohomology groups are trivial
While for $T \times (T \setminus {p})$ we have $H^0(T \times (T \setminus {p})) \cong \mathbb{R}$, $H^1(T \times (T \setminus {p})) \cong \mathbb{R}^4$, $H^2(T \times (T \setminus {p})) \cong \mathbb{R}^5$, $H^3(T \times (T \setminus {p})) \cong \mathbb{R}^2$, $H^i(T \times (T \setminus {p})) \cong 0$ for $i \geq 4$
emme:
I hope there is something wrong in this calculations lol
That's what I meant
@sleek thicket Sorry but i have obtain that X(S(x))=X(x) where X(M) is eulero-poincare characterist. Is right?
Also I have a problem applying the result with X = S1
I obtain H1(S2)-H1(S1)-H2(S2)=0
S(S1)=S2 right?
slimvesus:
slimvesus:
ok
I don't understand why it should to be true
Wait
I know only de rahm cohomology
defined for manifolds
But is isomorphic right?
de rham cohomology is isomorphic to real singular
Unfortunately I did not follow a real algebraic topology course, I know de rahm cohomology only for the application to differential theopology
But if you want to show me how you did the exercise maybe I understand where I went wrong, however now I try to do a tex with my reasoning
alternating sum of dimension of de rham cohomology
$\chi(M)=\sum_{n}(-1)^n b^n(M)$
that second ^n is bad
better $b^n(M)$
you can probably just do stuff with mayer vietoris
However, in de rahm comology (
always if it makes sense) i have $\to H^1(S(X)) \to H^1(X)+ H^1(X)\to H^1(X)\to H^2(S(X)) \to H^2(X))+H^2(X)\to H^2(X)\to$
Davide:
Xx[0,1) Xx(0,1]
slimvesus:
Xx[0,1) Xx(0,1]
@knotty pasture ahahaha loool
But the quotient is not trivial here
ahaha
sorry
i contract Xx(0,1] to X
slimvesus:
i can contract $X\times(0,1]\backslash\tilda$ to (0,1]
Davide:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
lol
then i have $\to H^1(S(X)) \to 0\to H^1(X)\to H^2(S(X)) \to 0\to H^2(X)\to$
Davide:
yes is a cone
@sleek thicket yes, in fact suspension is axiomatized in Eilenberg-Steenrod
huh I didn't know that
I don't think it's mentioned in the axioms for homology in Hatcher
There should be something like it, its possible it follows from the ones present
The classification of cohomologies via spectra demands it
I think it follows from the ones in hatcher yeah
@sleek thicket Hatcher, exercise 3, 165
Max, I made the computations for the cohomology groups of $X = T \times T \setminus (T\times {p} \cup {p} \times T)$ where $T = \mathbb{S}^1 \times \mathbb{S}^1$ using Mayer vietoris on the 4-manifold $T \times T$ with $U = T \times T \setminus (T \times {p})$ and $V = T \times T \setminus ({p} \times T)$. The sequence doesnt seem to help me at all, there are too many non-zero terms. Do you see any better open set to find the cohomology groups?
emme:
Let me think about it for a second
Emme, can you use de rham's theorem? I think you can actually write down a pretty concrete delta complex structure
I might be wrong though
that seems hard to me it's a 4-manifold
Well you know a structure for T in which p is a zero cell
So I think you can get one for T×T in which p×T and T×p are subcomplexes
Just like, using the delta complex structure on the product
Oh no nvm
That won't give you a delta complex structure on X
I'm being silly
I wish I knew so much math but this is my first exposure to everything in a differential geometry course, i don't know much about complexes. I just know basic de rham theory for smooth manifold(homotopy invariance, mayer vietoris, PD and kunneth formula)
No worries, it didn't work anyways
Use the identification of T-p with S1vS1
as we talked about before
and use kunneth
Can't use that
S^1 V S^1 is not a smooth manifold
oh right lol deRham
this is why you shouldn't learn deRham first
anyway
uh i have no idea how to do this smoothly all of my idea rely on htpy invariance
For $T \setminus {p}$ we have $H^0(T \setminus {p}) \cong \mathbb{R}$, $H^1(T \setminus {p}) \cong \mathbb{R}^2$ and $H^2(T \setminus {p}) \cong 0$
@limpid mural .
emme:
While for $T \times (T \setminus {p})$ we have $H^0(T \times (T \setminus {p})) \cong \mathbb{R}$, $H^1(T \times (T \setminus {p})) \cong \mathbb{R}^4$, $H^2(T \times (T \setminus {p})) \cong \mathbb{R}^5$, $H^3(T \times (T \setminus {p})) \cong \mathbb{R}^2$, $H^i(T \times (T \setminus {p})) \cong 0$ for $i \geq 4$
Tx(T-p)
emme:
emme:
Man this is so much harder with deRham
but not the others, since there are too much non zero terms
i don't really know how to picture generators for it
Emme can you post the sequence in full?
yes I can
but you need to think about the LES geometrically
and use that to compute
you can determine some of the maps this way (hopefully)
i unironically think learning deRham first rather than as an obscure computational tool is bad
First of all do you agree that $T \times T \setminus (T \times {p}) \cong T \times T \setminus ({p} \times T$? Where $\cong $ is diffeomorphism
emme:
Yes
also you don't really need that
you need that they are htpy equivalent
which is trivial
Yeah I just want to make sure we're all on the same page before trying to figure it out
sham lmk if you want to try to figure out a category theory thing thats been messing w me today
its kind of involved tho lol
Oh sure
I think you probably don't want to just look at the dimension of everything
Like, you know generators for some of these groups I think
I did my best
It is very nice
yeah this guy looks bad enough
that you need to actually use the map
rather than dimension spamming
often times you know more about the maps than just the kernel = image thing
So I need to find $\delta$ and stuff
emme:
You might not need to go that far
i would try everything else first
You can sometimes concluded that like, something is a surjection by looking at generators
So the next map has to be zero
Stuff like that
But To get the generators I need to actually compute the groups and not their isomorphism class, right?
Right, exactly
What's your formulation of the kunneth formula?
Does it give you an explicit iso?
I'm thinking that we know a generator for S^1
So we can get ones for T and M
If kunneth is explicit enough
$H^k(M \times N) \cong \bigoplus_{p+q = k} H^p(M) \bigotimes H^q(N)$
emme:
Sure but do you know an iso between them explicitly?
proof use induction on open sets
and five's lemma
I don't see any morphism constructed
Hmm maybe not then. I'm thinking of the singular cohomology case, where you prove some explicitly defined map is an iso
I haven't seen it for de rham
btw can I ask where you got this problem
I know that the map $H^p(M) \otimes H^q(N) \to H^{p+q}(M \times N)$ descend from the map
emme:
yes
of the pullback of the projections
btw can I ask where you got this problem
@marsh forge sure it's an exercise my professor gave last week, you can find in english here
Okay cool so you actually know generators for the cohomology groups of T and M
http://people.dm.unipi.it/martelli/didattica/matematica/2020/Manifolds.pdf page 242 exercise 8.7.5
Emme do you see what I'm saying?
I am thinking
I guess If I know the generator and I know the maps of Mayer-vietoris then I know pretty much everthing
Well in principle, but you probably want to avoid looking at δ
But yeah that's what I'm thinking rn
I am outside on a walk so I can't bash everything out
But I will when I'm at a whiteboard next
So spamming dimension(to avoid delta) + generators should be the right path
yeah finding like, a 0 map for instance is almost as good as finding a 0
and stuff like that
Just write down everything you can and pick at it for awhile and come back if it seems untenable
Yeah I can see there is a zero map but only on the first row, that make the first map of the second row injective, that's all that I know so far
So write down mayer vietoris but don't just make everything R^n
@sleek thicket I'll try that
There's probably a better way to do this
I don't have a good sense of what this space looks like
I'm just visualizing it with T a circle lol
One trick I like to use emme
is I write like
$R_\gamma \times R_\eta \times R_\alpha$ instead of $R^3$
MaxJ:
and keep track of what generators gamma alpha eta refer to geometrically
or i guess for deRham analytically
and of course it suffices to think about your maps on just those generators
thank you for the advice max
I am going to sleep
thanks for the help
I hope you'll enjoy the others problems on the book
That book looks cool
it is, he did a geometric topology book too if someone is interest in low dimensional topology (http://people.dm.unipi.it/martelli/Geometric_topology.pdf )
Okay so things are actually super nice for the 4-torus I think
We have four angle "coordinates" θ, γ, φ, ψ
These aren't actually coordinates, but they do give a global frame for T^4
Namely $\partial/\partial \theta, \partial/\partial \gamma, \partial/\partial \varphi, \partial/\partial \psi$
shamrock:
This gives a coframe, i.e. a smoothly varying basis dθ, dγ, dφ, dψ for the set of 1 forms
And these forms are locally the differential of a function (you can choose charts where angle functions exist for real) so they're closed
This gives a basis for the space of k forms, namely take all wedges of k of these together
and these are all actually closed
They'll descend to give a basis for the de rham groups
I saw this by kunneth but you can probably think about it more explicitly?
I'm not sure what a basis looks like for T^2 \{pt} though....
Well the 0th group is easy, the 1th is free of rank 2, and the 2+th is 0
hmm so maybe it's actually the same thing?
Like the inclusion T^2{pt} -> T^2 is possibly an isomorphism on H^1, meaning the (classes of the restrictions of) dθ and dγ are a basis for H^1(T^2\{pt})
that map should def be iso
The map S^1 wedge sum S^1 -> T^2 is an iso on simplicial H_1 by direct computation, so the same is true in singular, so T^2 \ {p} -> T^2 is an iso in singular H_1 by homotopy invariance, so T^2 \ {p} -> T^2 is an iso in singular H^1 with coefficients in \R since \R is a field. Thus its an iso on de rham H^1
Okay so what does H^2 and H^3 of T^2 × (T^2 \ {p}) look like?
Should still be wedges of stuff
But now some will be zero?
Right so in U = T^2 × (T^2 \ {p}) we have [dφ ^ dψ] = 0, but all others are nonzero
So the map H^1(T^4) -> H^1(U) (+) H^1(V) is the diagonal
The map H^2(T^4) -> H^2(U) (+) H^2(V) sends a basis vector b to (b, b) if it's one of the middle 4, sends it to (b, 0) if it's the first, and sends it to (0, b) if it's the last
And the map H^3(T^4) -> H^3(U) (+) H^3(V) acts on the first to basis vectors by b -> (b, 0) and on the last two by b -> (0, b)
All of these maps are injective I think
So if I did my computation right, the maps in this diagram should be
Which are all injective
This says the mayer vietoris sequence splits up into nice exact sequences
And the final map is an iso, so actually we get that $H^3(X) \to \R$ is an iso
shamrock:
So
\begin{align*}
H^0(X) &\cong \R \
H^1(X) &\cong \R^4 \
H^2(X) &\cong \R^4 \
H^3(X) &\cong \R \
H^i(X) &\cong 0 \quad \text{for } i > 3
\end{align*}
shamrock:
And you can get an explicit basis from what I wrote above if you want, you know that the maps from H^2(U) (+) H^2(V) are surjections
@limpid mural
hey topologists. I was wondering, you cannot have parrallel lines on the sphere? What about parrellel curves? I tried to do a graph theory proof on the torus using parrelel curves, but just realized now that parallel curves can't be assumed to be existent, which is what my (probably bad) proof did.
i defined it to be a one to one correspondence of points with the points in another curve, that are all equidistant. not sure if thats a good definition
i dont really know anything about topology but we were doing planar graphs in a course and had some questions about drawing them on the torus
Topology might not be what you want
But i think the answer is yes
To any reasonable interpretation of the question
@sleek thicket thank you very much!
Np!
You really have to get into the details with these kinds of problems (sometimes)
I still think there's probably a better way to do this though...
Like maybe X is homotopy equivalent to a nicer space
Is the product of continuous functions in a topological group continuous?
From a topological group to itself I should say
yes, since the product is continuous
Oh ok in product topology on $A\times B$ the function $h : X \to A\times B$, $x\mapsto (f(x), g(x))$ is continuous if $f$ and $g$ are continuous?
datorangeguy:
yes, try to show it using the definitions
Oh right finite intersection
some notes I was looking at define a cover of $X$ as a set $\mathcal U \subseteq \mathcal P(X)$ such that: $$\bigcup_{U \in \mathcal U} U = X$$. This isn't standard, is it? More or less every other source I've seen has $$X \subseteq \bigcup_{U \in \mathcal U} U$$ instead
[link because it breaks the latex: (https://dec41.user.srcf.net/notes/IB_E/metric_and_topological_spaces.pdf)]
George!:
The latter is fine
The former works if X is your total space
Yeah obviously equality will hold as defined
it threw me off because later on they say that given a cover V of [0,1], you can cover {0} with a subset of V
which isn't necessarily true with the former definition?
Thats an open cover in the context of subspaces
But if you think about the subspace topology
It works
right, just struck me as weird, though it makes sense now (and ofc the opposite inclusion is obvious as the union of open sets), thanks again.
Hey, not too sure if this is the right channel, but I'm wondering if anyone can help me with metric transformations? That is how something like a box transforms being moved through a metric
I'm just a bit confused on how to use a metric I guess. Trying to teach myself some GR
It would provably help if you were able to formulate a specific question
What book?
Or give an example
Ok, given a square box, where in regular cartesian coordinates has lengths L, and given the schwatzchild metric, how does the shape of the box change when its center of mass is at some point (r,theta,phi) in the schwartschild metric?
Or if it better communicates my struggles, how does the shape of the box change as it falls into a black hole? Only accounting for the metric and not special relativity or tidal forces or anything
I may have answered my own question actually. I think the metric just describes a geodesic of objects, but doesnt affect the shape of the object itself
Not quite. What you are looking for is geodesic flow. Every point of your shape moves according to a geodesic. Of course it can be distorted.
The key fact here is that a metric (any connection) induces a path structure.
@limpid copper that does make sense. Do you think I could get around this box problem by modeling each of the corners of the box as a massless particle and tracking their paths?
I'd have to account for stress forces later of course
Sure why not. Your image will be rather coarse tho. But if your goal is to visualize distortion due to curvature I would recommend doing more Riemannian geometry. There are very 'visual theorems' about different parts of the curvature tensor, for instance about size change or shear.
Solving all these geodesic equations can get ugly.
I'll look into it thanks. Ultimately my goal is to see how wave functions transform near a black hole
Hello, quick question, from this definition, I have a question, lets say a point p in U is a regular point, then the image is a regular value of F, but, what if another point, q in U is a critical point but which has the same image, i would say the image is a critical value of F, but how can both statements be true at the same time?
point p in U is a regular point, then the image is a regular value of F This is not what's written in the definition. It says a value is regular iff it's not critical.
well
I still dont know what happens if two points that have the same image are different
p critical --> f(p) critical
q not critical --> f(q) not critical
f(p) = f(q)
Blessed Theorem
q not critical --> f(q) not critical Wrong. Rephrasing your definition: q critical value of F iff there exists a critical point p s.t. q=F(p). Negation of both statements yields: q regular value (not critical) of F iff there is no critical point p s.t. q=F(p), i.e. all points in the preimage are regular.
oh okay got it now
sometimes capturing the true meaning of a definition is not apparent at first glance
I actually also came with a question. I am kind of desperate at this point. Please give it a shot.
Axion:
Do manifolds with boundary (embedded in R^n) have a tubular neighborhood?
Compact?
I think the answer if you're not closed is "Yes but maybe the radius is epsilon(x) instead of epsilon"
Oh yeah, in my brain the defintion of tubular neighborhood allows for varying radius
You can probably use the same proof as for the empty boundary case then
I'm thinking about how to show the de rham groups of a compact manifold with boundary are finite dimensional
The proof in Hatcher is pretty indirect
Do you know the De Rham theorem?
Yeah
That's what I meant by "Hatcher's proof"
He proves that the singular homology groups are finitely generated
From which it's easy
With de rham
Hi
Can someone provide intuition on the conditions under which there is a unique local solution to Hamilton's equations on a symplectic manifold and the conditions under which it can be uniquely extended
For instance, we know that if grad H is Lipschitz, then there must be a local solution
And if the energy level curves are compact then there is unique extension
Could anyone help me with the following:
Show that a polynomial f(z) with complex coeff can always be extended to a continuous map \tilde(f) from S^2 to S^2. Show that the degree of this map equals the degree of f as a polynomial. Show also that the local degree of \tilde(f) at a root of f is the multiplicity of the root.
I don't understand how to do this
I understand that z^k has degree k if it's considered from S^1 to S^1
But what happens with S^2?
@brittle thicket are you familiar with homotopy?
Pretty sure he does know that. And @brittle thicket yeah so you just extend to f(infinity) = infinity
As for degree stuff
Hmm
I guess f(z) = z is the identity so degree 1
And then the idea would be that deg(fg) = deg(f) + deg(g) where f and g are polynomials
And in principle you could also do that locally
Yes but my issue is that I'm not working over S^1
Hatcher does exactly that computation in the case of z^k:S^1->S^1
So what do I do here?
S^2 is locally C so I can view z^k as a stretch in the plane?
Which should be homotopic to a rotation
Which is itself homotopic to the identity
I think I get the idea but I'm lost in the details
The other issue comes when I have a full polynomial
Not just a z^k
The degree of \sum^n a_iz^i is n
But deg f + deg g = deg f+g
Right?
So z^k + z has degree what, z+1?
How do I justify this locally?
Wait nvm
Hatcher doesn't say anywhere that deg f+g = deg f+deg g
So that's a non-issue
all polynomials of degree d should generated the map with class d
Oh we haven't seen higher homotopy groups
That's Hopf right
Pi_n(S^n) = Z
Sadly we haven't seen this in class
oh i mean idk who proved it
And I don't see how I could use it
Okay so the degree is the integer defining the induced map f_*
It's a map from Z to Z so it has to be of the form da
For some integer d
Ok then just translate everything I said from htpy to homology lol
degree of polynomial should give which map it is
That's precisely what I don't understand lol
In the text Hatcher does the following:
He takes z^k
So for the S^1 maps, as z gets very large all polynomials are basically z^n
And sees it as a function S^1 to S^1
This should be the same idea
Then what he does is he gives a homotopy argument
Let me think about a nice homological approach
Namely, locally there are only finitely many points x_i in S^1 such that f^-1(y) = {x_1,...,x_k}
And near every point, f is a local homeomorphism
Then he homotopes that to a rotation
Which since it is a homeo and is homotopic to the identity, has degree 1
Then he just sums it
Surely I can't just copy paste this argument can I?
Or does it work just the same when working over S^2 (seen as the 1-pt compactification of C)
what page in hatcher is this
Oh wait this is immediate from some hatcher results
You want to use prop 2.30
Put y=0
then the fiber over 0 has some k\leq n elements
Then the degree of the map is the sum of all their local degrees
Therefore the problem quickly reduced to showing that the local degree is multiplicity
Oh wow
So that's really what it boils down to ok
And this comes from the fact that there are finitely many roots
And that locally, those are homeomorphisms?
not just finitely many
but (with multiplicity) the degree = number of roots
I'm not sure what you mean by locally a homeo
we actually need these local degrees not to be 1
if multiplicity is higher
Oh duh
Okay so the linear map (x-x_i) has degree 1 because its a local homeo
Oh wait hm
Ok think about z^n. For any nonzero point we have n distinct roots, all of which will have degree 1
so that gives z^n with degree n near any point
Then (z-z_i) has local degree 1
by composition with z^n
(z-z_i)^n has degree n
and locally we can't distinguish p(z)(z-z_i)^n from (z-z_i)^n as long as p does not have root (z_i)
that should do it
you might need to fill in some of my boldly asserted lemmas there
Lmao I'm so lost
Why are you composing here?
I don't get what this has to do with multiplicity of root = local degree
Maybe it's something along the lines of
If z_i is a root with multiplicity k then p(z) = q(z)(z-z_i)^k?
Ok so
if you compose degree maps
you get the product of the degrees
thats in hatcher
so to show that (z-\alpha)^n has degree n
it suffices to show (z-\alpha) has degree 1 near alpha
and z^n has degree n
because then we just compose
and multiply
Okay that makes sense
Let's back track a little
Oh I see
At a root
I only have one point in the preimage
Wait no
The preimage of zero is all the roots
And their local degrees are all one
Wait no that's not what you said
Ah I see this solves the first point
But how do I deal with showing that the multiplicity of the root equals the local degree?
Can a fractal embedded in an n-dimensional euclidean space have a hausdorff dimension larger than n?
i don't think so
I would be very surprised too but I can’t immediately find anything confirming it online
the hausorff dimension is increasing and i believe you can show that the hausodrff dimension of R^n is n with some effrt
the second bit is definitely true. by increasing you mean that if U⊆V then dim(U) ≤ dim(V)?
that would do it yea
@brittle thicket Thats the statement i proved hahaha
Multiplicity is given by terms of the form (z-\alpha)^np(z) for some irrelevant p(z) term
welperooni:
ignore it, got it
OH
it makes a lot more sense now hahahahaha
why is p(z) here irrelevant to the discussion?
Uh thats something you probably have to prove
but the idea is that near a root
the root term dominates
there is probably a way to make this rigorous but I lost interest at that point lol
so in local homology we should basically not be able to differentiate
ultra basic question- is the manifold the flat plane or the curved plane?
additionally, if anyone recalls hearing something early on in their math career that made manifolds click, would love to hear it. they sorta makes sense but not quite enough to answer questions about them
In that depiction, the manifold is the curved space, where the flat plane is the tangent plane to the manifold at the point x
I don't think there's a better philosophy for manifolds than "things which locally look like R^n, but can have a more complicated topology globally"
And to understand most basic diffgeo concepts, understanding this "locally manifolds are just R^n" picture is sufficient. At least to understand how you can do analysis on manifolds, i.e. differentiating
ha! that makes a ton of sense now for several reasons, thanks so much!
is there an unknotting algorithm for 2-knots?
Had to proof that if f extends to a continuous map $E^{i+1}\to X$, then f represents the zero class in $\pi_{i}(X; x0)$
Stephen:
Compile Error! Click the
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My attempt: Every element in $\pi{i}(X,x{0})$ it's a class of a map $(S^{i},) \to (X,x{0})$. Via the extension $\tilde f$ of $f$ we would have that the same class is produced via $\tilde f\circ i:S^{i}\to E^{i+1} \to X$. But now we recall that $E^{i+1}$ is contractible hence an element in $\pi{i}(X,x{0})$ that comes as image of an element in $\pi{i}(E^{i+1},)$ as to be $0$.
Stephen:
is this ok?
Is this channel for algebraic geometry also?
yep
Do i need to learn stacks to get into moduli spaces of algebraic curves?
I don't know a ton about moduli spaces but the answer is probably yes
If you only really want a vague, unrigorous idea of what moduli spaces are, you can work only with schemes
But when you try to actually construct some moduli spaces of curves, you run into problems
Like, it's probably not clear to you why this is a problem, but sometimes your algebraic curves will have non trivial automorphisms which means the naive way you'd want your moduli space to be can't be a scheme
And I think there are ways to fix this solely by working with schemes, but stacks are generally the more natural answer to fixing these problems @meager python
Thanks. I only vaugely know what moduli spaces are. I kinda lack the understanding exactly why you need the more general machinery of stacks
Is basically one reason why things fail to work
Okay, this example is probably a bit complicated. I think there's an easier example using rational curves but
the easiest way would be to construct the open sets in S^n, i think
eh, nvm that is probably not what you want
actually constructing the cones in R^{n+1} seems like a drag though
Alternatively, if you really want to stay in R^{n+1}, choose any open neighbourhood U of one of the lines that does not intersect the other line, and then by Hausdorffness of R^{n+1}, for every point of the other line you can find an open neighbourhood disjoint to U
oh wait that's too dumb
no no
my general idea would be to construct open neighbourhoods of the preimages in S^n
and make sure that they are saturated
yeah that works too
just think of RP^n as a Z/2 quotient of S^n. Take two points in RP^n, lift to S^n, take neighborhoods giving hausdorfness in S^n of all 4 preimages, and then go back downstairs
Oh, well open sets of lines are going to correspond to antipodal open sets on S^n
Theres no real difference you're just hiding it
But I mean, it's not hard to take these cones on lines using like, degree-wise arugments
like a basic open set of lines will just differ by some small \theta, and these \theta can be chosen so that the cones dont overlap
well they will overlap at 0 but thats removed
yeah as stated I think any topologist would be fine but maybe you'll wanna work out the details
I am trying to use a lemma to make a geometric argument about whether a given curve is asymptotic with respect to our surface M. The lemma says "Let M be a surface in R3, let a:I->M be a curve, and let U be the restriction to a of the unit normal vector field on M. Then a is an asymptotic curve iff a'' is tangent to M" (a=alpha)
Can someone explain what the bold part means visually or geometrically?
My teacher didn't explain restrictions very well.
Ok I kinda see the automorphism problem in regards to why coarse/fine moduli spaces are not enough. But it’s not obvious why generalizing to stacks solves that problem. Which is the gist of stacks im guessing
Well, to answer that question you need to figure out what a stack is lmao
Which I don't really understand very well either but
Yeah precisely my point with my last sentence :p
I guess an analogy is that people realized that working with varieties wasn't enough and we needed schemes
Digging into orbifolds explains the importance of the automorphism group and deligne-mumford stacks into the necessity of capturing more information
Yeah, that's essentially the connection
iirc there are also a couple other problems that stacks solve but I'd have to look at some notes to remember
Is it true to state that if acceleration of a curve alpha in a surface M is zero, the it is both normal and tangent to M?
I am having trouble with some stuff with frobenius's theorem
okay wait actually things might be good
shamrock:
and the algorithm in ISM involves first finding commuting vector fields and then using their flows to find a flat chart
shamrock:
and so those coordinates should give a flat chart
ty for helping shamrock
hmm those coordinates don't look so hot anymore, and I erased the computation on my whiteboard
oof
shamrock:
and said iso send V and W to coordinate vector fields
okay, now I have a first order linear system of pdes
$f : U \to \R$ has to satisfy
\begin{align*}
z \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} &= x \frac{\partial f}{\partial z} \
z \frac{\partial f}{\partial y} &= y \frac{\partial f}{\partial z}
\end{align*}
shamrock:
I do not know how to solve pdes, halp
okay this is in lee somewhere for sure, I think
oh I also need that $\frac{\partial f}{\partial z} \neq 0$ everywhere
shamrock:
shamrock:
so like, I reduced to finding a flat chart for the distribution $\operatorname{span}(\partial/\partial x, \partial/\partial y)$ on $\R^2 \times (0, \infty)$
shamrock:
shamrock:
wait can't I just take z' = ln(z)?
but ln(x^2 + y^2 + z^2) isn't a solution to my original differential equation...
okay yeah this works
but I am
confused
guess I fucked up setting up the PDE?
oh no, $\phi(x,y,z) = (\ln(x), \ln(y), \ln(x^2 + y^2 + z^2))$ isn't surjective
😦
shamrock:
I googled my exercise and found a seemingly incorrect answer on mse
I don't think the flows of either of those frames exist for all time
Which means you don't get a global flat chart
Unless I'm misunderstanding something
i can't ask on there though because someone in my class got called out for posting homework questions on mse already lol
Does Spec(Z) being final in the category of schemes have any geometrical meaning?
I need a counterexample for two closed sets whose sum is not closed
what do you mean with sum?
I assume set of all sums x+y where x in X, y in Y
$A+B = {a + b | a \in A, b \in B}$
Navix:
Z and πZ in R maybe
yeah
any reason u chose pi? or is any irrational number plausible?
yeah
any irrational works
So what it's saying is prove it for two things first
ike how would you even prove something,iek this
e.g. let U and V be open sets. Prove that U intersect V is open.
yeah, open just means in T.
What are your axioms for T?
- T includes null set and the set X
- T contains the union of any subset of X
- T conatins the intersection of any subsets of X
Definntion of a topology on X
I think you're not being quite precise enough, as axiom 2 and 3 should look more different from each other
wait what
You have that for any $U, V \in \tau$, $U\cap V \in \tau$. You want to show that for any finite collection of elements $U_i \in \tau$, the finite intersection $ \bigcap_{i=1}^n U_i \in \tau$
kxrider:
so how would show that mathematically
do you know how to write a proof by induction?
you are probably missing serious prereqs for topology, then
i mean, topology without tears is a pretty gentle introduction. Do they not talk about induction at all somewhere in the book?
Yeha thats the book i'm using
this is an actual book problem?
this is so weird
why are there quotation marks around mathematical induction
i can guide you though this, but lets move to #proofs-and-logic
Yeha epic thanks
How can I define in a "simple" way the Ricci Scalar?
Any of you guys know good latex to text convertors
let Y be a countable discrete space and X=\{1/n: n\in\bN\}. i'm struggling to prove that X and Y don't have the same homotopy type
all i can think about is compactness
so, in my mind, X is a countable discrete space
it's countable
and the subspace topology inhereted from R is the discrete topology
so X and Y are homeomorphic
i second what buncho said. You might be thinking of X union {0}? That's not discrete (it's countable and compact)
oh yea thanks you're right I mistyped
I'm kind of surprised ig, it seems like homotopy equivalence shouldn't be able to distinguish these two?
I think they both have homology which is 0 in degree > 0 and free on countably infinitely many generators in degree 0
hold up there's a hint let me find it
All paths into either have to be constant by connectedness
ya
What does that tell us about a potential homotopy equivalence f : X -> Y?
What can we say about the image of any continuous function X -> Y?
it's compact?
No, Y itself is not compact
So let S be a subset of Y
What's the subspace topology on S look like?
E.g. what are the open sets?
it's discrete
if it's finite?
oh
all but finitely many points in X get mapped to a single point in Y
wait
how
?
Didn't you just prove it?
Here's a proof: let y = f(0). Then f^(-1)(y) is a neighborhood of 0, so it contains all but finitely many elements of X
Here's a proof: let y = f(0). Then f^(-1)(y) is a neighborhood of 0, so it contains all but finitely many elements of X
You don't really need to think about compactness ig
You don't really need to think about compactness ig
speaking of contractible spaces
is this space contractible
a double comb
there is a line segment for each rational slope
Lol
you're spoiling all the fun
Is this supposed to be p^tilda?
I haven't seen p tilda defined like this anywhere else
Yeah looks like a typo @pseudo crane
Thanks
Here, how do we know that we can just take $V_s$ to be the closure mapped to a unique $A_\alpha$? Thanks!
ClearlyHalfAlive743:
i think it's this https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lebesgue's_number_lemma
TTerra:
well, that's not really what he's doing, but this should also work
yes
the wording makes it seem like contractible implies connectedness, and hence convex implies connectedness
idk maybe i can't read
wait so is the question asking me to prove convex implies connected?
if A implies B and A implies C, you can't make any connection between B and C
no, it's asking you to prove contractible sets are connected
and then deduce that convex sets are connected
because convex ==> contractible ==> connected
oh right ok sorry lol
I realize this is introductory Topology, but could anyone help with this?
it's not really topology at all, but the flaw is that it assumes that every element is related to at least one other element
@dim meadow Thanks, the problem is from the Munkres Topology lol
probably from chapter 1
(consider the empty relation on a nonempty set, which is both symmetric and transitive but not reflexive)
Here, it says $f_i$ is path obtained by restricting $f$ to $[s_{i-1}, s_i ]$. What does this mean? We can't just say $f_i: [0,1] \rightarrow X$ as map where everything is 0 except on $[s_{i-1}, s_i]$, since that wouldn't be continuous, and we can't reparameterize since that would defeat the purpose of proof. Thanks!
ClearlyHalfAlive743:
Why can't you reparameterize?
If $f_i$ is the map $f_i(t) = f((s_i - s_{i-1}) t + s_{i-1})$ then $f$ is homotopic to $f_1 \bullet (f_2 \bullet (\dots (f_{m-1} \bullet f_m) \dots))$
@lyric quartz
You mean $f_i(t) = f((s_i - s_{i-1}t + (s_{i-1})$?
ClearlyHalfAlive743:
@sleek thicket
Yes except you screwed up the parentheses a little
Yeah, true.
shamrock:
I'm not sure what you meant when you said it would defeat the purpose of the proof
it just didn't seem right lol
I mean all the stuff about reparameterization is bookeeping. All that it's saying is that you can cut up the path
The author (Hatcher) isn't the most formal lol
Yeah, having trouble reading because I'm someone who needs everything spelled out lol.
So I've been thinking of reading this one book by Tammo tom Dieck
Which seems more formal than Hatcher
(It's written by an algebraic topologist rather than geometric topologist lol)
I would probably be lost anyway, but it does look nice lol
Yeah I mean, if you prefer things spelled out look into other books. Hatcher's kinda notorious for being wishy washy
Rotman I think is the best easy book on algebraic topology
Thanks for the rec, I'll check it out!
By knowing all the fibres of a scheme over (p) for p prime, can we ”construct” the scheme?
I'm not really sure how to interpret your question
Like, what would a counterexample look like? Two nonisomorphic schemes with isomorphic fibers over each (p)?
Okay maybe I do know how to interpret your question
What about Spec Z versus a big disjoint union of {(0)} and {(p)} for p prime?
Like take a scheme vs the disjoint union of its fibers over p
That might not have the same topology
@meager python idk if this makes sense
But it seems like it answers your question in the negative
So I think concretely this will be Spec Z vs the disjoint union of Spec Q and Spec Z_(p) for each prime number p
Do you really mean Spec Q? @sleek thicket
I think so. I calculated that that was the fiber of Spec Z over (0) but I might have fucked up
Z_p being Z/p?
No, Z localized wrt to (p)
This is a stupid question just trying to get a feeling for what information we miss from looking at the fibres over (p)
Sorry no
It should be Fp
I said that originally but I thought it was wrong
You miss how the fibers fit together
Like, think about the corresponding statement with topological spaces
I wonder what the geometric meaning of Spec Z being final in schemes is
I think I have another counterexample, maybe?
What are the fibers of Spec Z_(p) over Z?
Is it Spec Fp? I think so
Because you end up with the fibered product of Spec Z_(p) and κ((p)) over Spec Z, but κ((p)) is Fp and so you're looking Spec (Z_(p) (×)_Z Fp). Tensoring with a localization is the same as localizing, and localizing Fp wrt (p) as a Z-algebra just gives Fp, so the fiber should be Spec Fp
That's the same as the fiber of Spec Fp over (p)
So that's a counterexample with two one-point spaces
Spec Fp vs Spec Z_(p)
Both have the same fibres? (I need to check that on paper cant see that in my head)
I think so
No I am a fool
Z_(p) has a generic point that I was ignoring
The original example of Spec Z vs the disjoint union of Spec Q and Spec Fp for all p should work though
I should probably add a disclaimer that I'm bad at AG
I am trying to show that the convex envelope of a set of points of an affine space is the set of barycenters of these points affected with non-negative coefficients
Any ideas?
the set of barycenters is convex so it contains the convex envelope of your set of points, and the convex envelope of your set of points contains your set of points and is convex so it also contains the barycenters
What I tried is I took two points P and Q barycenters of two systems of points with non negative coefficients
The segment PQ is formed of the barycenters of {(P,1-α);(Q,α)}, where 0<=α<=1, but why are these barycenters, barycenters of points in the original set?
And in the inverse statement I can't see why it should contain the barycenters, if you can elaborate please
for "contains segments implies contains any barycenter of any finite number of points with non negative coeffs", it's just induction
Ok I see that
For the first implication I can't see why that is true
I should use the associativity of the barycenter operation
But as I said if I take P Q barycenters of two systems of points with non negative coefficients, the segment PQ is formed of the barycenters G of {(P,1-α);(Q;α)} where 0<=α<=1
Why these points G are barycenters points of the original set?
which original set are you talking about ?
The set of points given in the affine space
why would you think it would contain the segments ?
It doesn't have to, there's just points, the envelope contains the segments
I mean the set of barycenters, why does it contain segments?
These segments are formed of barycenters of the endpoints with coefficients 1-α α
Why these barycenters are in the set of barycenters of the points
segments are made of barycenters
Yes
so the set of barycenters contain the segments
This is what I don't get
The segments we're talking about are the segments with endpoints barycenters
Why the barycenters of the barycenters are in the set of barycenters
To show that I should show that these barycenters of two barycenters are barycenters of systems of point in the set of points considered with non negative coefficients
you should be able to brutally rewrite a barycenter of barycenters as a barycenter of your original points
Yes the associativity property, but I can't rewrite that
Because G=bary{(P;1-a);(Q;a)} should be written as G=bary{(A1;a1);...(Ak;ak);(B1;b1);...;(Bm;bm)}
P is a barycenter, so it is affected of the coefficient Σci, and Q is a barycenter so it is affected of the coefficient Σdi
It should be that Σci=λ(1-α) and Σdi=λα to use the associativity, right?
idk what kind of associativity principle you're trying to invoke
all of this should just be a verification
This is the associativity principle
Thanks for the help
I'll think about what you said
here, why can we assume that we can do a small perturbation, and how can we assume that there are at least three rows? Thanks.
My guess with perturbation is that it's something to do with $A_\alpha$ being open, so you have some wiggle room or something. And for three rows, maybe if you have less than three rows, you get something trivial? But I'm not sure.
ClearlyHalfAlive743:
slimvesus:
The proof says you can make a perturbation.
So the grids misalign.
Open cover of $X$.
ClearlyHalfAlive743:
$$\text{dist}(K,A) = \inf{\text{dist}(x,A), x \in K} = \inf{d(x,y) : x \in K, y \in A}$$
How can I prove that if A and K are closed but not compact, disk(K,A) is not necessarily > 0?
Navix:
you can find an explicit example of two disjoint closed sets A and K such that dist(A,K)=0
for example in R², the graph with equation y=1/x and the line with equation y=0
@fervent citrus Is y=1/x closed because it isnt convergent? In R it would be open I think.
the set {(x,y) in R² | y=1/x} is closed in R²
in general y=f(x) is closed for f continuous
thanks @fervent citrus @sweet wing
you're welcome
Hi, I've just been introduced to the Minkowski distance metric and i just have a quick question, i understand that when p = 1 and 2, it corresponds with the Manhattan and Euclidean distance respectively and the Minkowski distance metric is mostly used when p = 1 and 2. How i do know which p to use?
What do you mean
Consider the
Topology generated by the basis of closed intervals with rational endpoints
Then show then convergent sequences in standard topology converges in this topology
Topology on R
I think you can show this topology is finer than the standard one
Mr. M:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
I'm trying to show
for any open neighborhood of x in $T_1$ there is an open neighborhood of x in $T$ contained in it
Mr. M:
which one is T1 ?
is {0} an open in T1 ?
yes
does the sequence 1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, ... converge to 0 in T1 ?
for all reals a and b such that a<b, you can check that the open interval with endpoint ms a and b is the union of all the closed intervals with rational endpoints it contains
so an open set in the standard topology is a fortiori also open in your topology
so you're done