#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 165 of 1
the outer boundary of a sphere is a surface
etc
indeed, the outer boundary of a 4-ball would be 3-dimensional
so i was being a bit... informal when i said "n-sphere" earlier
so the boundary of a glome(?) is a sphere?
not necessarily a sphere, but 3 dimensional
yeah okay
anyway this is just a terminology/definition thing
so a 4-ball has four dimensions, but a 4-sphere is 5d?
the 4-sphere itself is 4-dimensional, but it's usually thought of as existing within 5-dimensional space as the boundary of a 5-dimensional ball
in the same way that a line is 1-dimensional, but if we wrap this line up into a circle, we view the circumference as existing within 2-dimensional space of a 2D circle
oh okay, yeah. that makes sense
so if im using that formula to find the n-dimension volume of an 8-ball, it's just plugging k=4 into the forumla?
yeah
and for the 9-ball, you'd plug in k = 4 also but use the other formula
the 2k+1 one
okay i gotta read this all again, thank you so much!!
i'll send you my working when i'm done just to make sure i get it
since X is a set, its powerset is a set too, and all subsets of the powersets as well
so the topology is a set
why would they say its a class though?
I mean it’s not wrong, maybe they wanted to emphasize that it’s a set of sets or sth. it’s weird tho, I agree
I’d have gone for sth like “family”
^^
class means collection of sets
not in set theory
you think of proper class
class = thing which is either a proper class or a set
“proper class” just means “class but not set”
I have no idea what the formal definition of a class is tho
maybe it helps in cat theory or sth
never looked that deeply into it
there is no formal definition of class in ZFC
yea cause zfc is about how sets behave
its defined in NBG
yes, as a collection of sets
Sets are formulated in terms of classes. They are classes. The thing we refer to as a “proper class” is a class that is not a set like the universe of the ZFC.
yo N/U whats up mate
Not much kinda doing nothing atm
not here lol
usually people call something a "class" or a "collection" or a "family" when:
- its elements are sets
- they know that sometimes sets that contain other sets aren't actually sets themselves
- but they don't know the set theory needed to know when that applies so they use a more non-committal term
I call something a family when my intuition tells me I wanna call it a family cause “set” sounds too generic even though “family” literally is just a synonym
that's fair
a lot of times i use family when I mean like, a set of things but they have something big in common
e.g. a family of antiderivatives (only differing by a constant)
I've seen "collection" typically used there
like in the standard definition of a topology; e.g. in Munkres' "Topology" he calls it a set with a collection of subsets called open sets
from a cursory flip through that section I didn't see the word family once
i generally use "family" to refer to a set composed of the relatives, ancestors, and descendants of an individual
Looking for help
U and V are given by the intersections with the open half-planes {y > -1/2} and {y < 1/2}
I tried to follow up the Mayer Vietoris sequence proof as the argument seems related but i have problem even with the start as I am not comfortable not even deciding if I shoul prove it directly or showing that P_ - P+ lays in the image of \partial and then use the exactness of the sequence
hey guys
@here Kevin Buzzard is doing his Algebraic geometry imperial class on twitch
thought you would like this
proof: idk the proof 
lecture over
Quick lecture
1 hour MSc lecture over livestream seems... fine
Oh I was going with the timestamps of your messages
Why is it that integrating any k-form over a not k surface is always 0?
is tht just by definition
Also another question
if I integrate a k-form over a k-surface that is only dimension less than k
is the reason why it gives 0 because when translating to classical integration, one of the variables dxi is integrated over an interval of length 0?
<@&681259184582688842>
If S is a subspace of the given metric space (l infinity d infinity), how can I show that there exists a Cauchy sequence in S which does not converge? I am trying to show that S is not complete.
(If nobody can help, might try again tomorrow when I wake up, and DMs are welcome ^_^ Thanks.)
Depends a bit on S here
Well I mean so l^{infty} is a complete metric space so it boils down to showing S isn't closed
Subspace meaning vector here?
@river saffron
Topological subspace, basically subset
That's terminology which is used, and the fact that he said "subspace of the given metric space" suggests that a little bit
I guess we can give the vector subspace answer since that holds for both
The thing that worries me is more he's asking for techniques
Like he has some S in mind that he hasn't told us and he's asking the more vague "Let's say you find some S\subset l^{infty} in the wild, what are some techniques for showing it isn't closed?" like hmm
Anyway yeah I mean, I guess jan's business about finite support sequences is a non-closed vector subspace if that's what you're asking. If it's more "How do I go about solving these things?" the answer is, depends
If it's given to you explicitly there's usually some obvious candidate
Hmm I guess I'm reading a bit of chapter 2 of Silverman's elliptic curves, which is some general stuff about algebraic curves. If you're interested in that I can chat a bit in #groups-rings-fields
I tried to follow up the Mayer Vietoris sequence proof as the argument seems related but i have problem even with the start as I am not comfortable not even deciding if I shoul prove it directly or showing that P_ - P+ lays in the image of \partial and then use the exactness of the sequence
@gritty widget anyone can help?
aight there's six problems here
which one do you wanna start with
uh huh
lemme just transcribe this here for my own sake
Let $X$ be a topological space, and let $A,B,C,D$ be subsets of $X$ such that $A \cap B, B \cap C$ and $C \cap D$ are all nonempty. Prove that $A \cup B \cup C \cup D$ is connected.
Ann:
okay so what have you got so far
you forgot your quantifiers
yeah that is not the definition at all
it's also not the standard definition
and ALSO you're clashing with the notation used in the problem
which isn't a good sign
yeah try to use different definiotion and proof by contradiction should work
it is, but have you heard about the one that says that X is connected if there arent any disjoint open subsets of X such that AuB =X?
that's certainly more correct that the thing you wrote earlier
it's still wrong because using A=X and B = the empty set, you can show that every space is disconnected
it should be okay if you add that A and B have to be non-empty
this certainly isn't a convenient definition to use here imo
I don't think it's that different from the normal one
I think this will be about as hard with either defn
@gritty widget anyone can help?
@gritty widget any tips hint?
Is there a go to intro to topology group?
Trying to learn it over the next year or so for a physics project
Group?
do you mean topological group?
No like a reading group i think
AMC im playing games rn but can take a look later tn
Remind me if i forget @gritty widget
what games do you play?????
How do I do these?
@austere dawn
You just need two different sequences that go to (0,0) that have the same limit
Consider x = 0 and y = 0 as "the sequences"
You could call them
(1/n, 0)
And
(0, 1/n)
But, without fully justifying it, let x = 0 and instead let y = 0 to show that you can get two different answers
the answer would be that there is no limit right?
Yes, since you can get multiple answers
im assuming that if lim_x lim_y = lim_y lim_x is not true then the limit does not exist?
No matter how you approach (0,0), if the limit exists, you should get the same answer every time.
If you use two different paths, and get two different answers, the limit must not exist
thank you so much!
how about the one under it?
that one is confusing for me too
for that one, I think I should use the definition, right?
for multivariable differentiability; namely, lim |f(x+h)-f(x)-Ah|/||h||=0
?
Don't take my word for it, but a point is differentiable if both partial derivatives exist, right?
<@&681258879522177051>
A point R² → R is differentiable when?
Each entry of the jacobian is continuous?
uh iirc both partial derivatives can exist but it’s still not differentiable. hang on we had a theorem about this lemme look in my analysis notes
yea okay it’s not true in general
they give this example as a function where the partial derivatives exist on all of ℝ² but it’s not differentiable at 0
however, this is true:
Let $U \subseteq \R^n$ be open, $f \colon U \to \R^m$ be a function. If for each $j \in {1, \dots, n}$ the partial derivative $\partial_j f$ exists on all of $U$ and defines a continuous function, then $f$ is differentiable on all of $U$
Sascha Baer:
so you just need the partial derivatives to be continuous and then it works
@small obsidian @austere dawn
@gritty widget @bitter yoke sorry I was so tired, I meant go to intro "book"
I had an idiot moment today. I tried to look up a bijective mapping between the Euclidean plane and a hyperbolic plane
I mean that’s easy enough if you don’t want it to preserve any structure :P
just take the hyperbolic plane embedded in ℝ²’¹ and project upward from the xy-plane
Ok idiot moment number 2
Ty
Is it safe to assume that any of these projections between spherical or hyperbolic planes and such are continuous
Oh wait nope, boundaries at infinity
Are continuous bijective maps sufficient to show that a space filling curve in a Euclidean plane corresponds to a space filling curve in a hyperbolic plane?
Intuitively feels like yes, but that also implies that any space filling curve in hyperbolic space has a Euclidean analogue
Can't think of a reason why it wouldn't work
if it's bijective and space filling on one side, it's space filling on the other, otherwise it's not really bijective
Clearly (1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/n, 0, 0, ...) is a member of l-infinity
Could I then say that: (1, 1/3, 1/3, 1/n) is a member of the subspace of l-infinity?
Uh, there are lots of subspaces of l infinity
So if that element is in your subspace depends a lot on what your subspace is
I'm basically using the metric space l-infinity, with distance function d-infinity.
There's definitely subspaces that contain that as an element
We are asked to take a subset S of this space and find a cauchy sequence to prove that the subspace S is not complete.
Oooh ok, so if I find 2 sequences, and use d-infinity distance formula, I could perhaps somehow prove that S is not complete! Ty
you might want to find a sequence of sequences
converging to some sequence that's not in your space
Okay yeah, they give you a specific subspace here
The annoying bit is I fairly well understand what is being asked, but just cant make progress aaa
Meros solution is good
Just play around with sequences and try to get a sequence of vectors in your subspace to converge to something outside of the subspace
Your original idea of looking at (1, 1/2, ..., 1/n, 0, 0 ,...) was fine
this sequence (which nth term is (1, 1/2,..., 1/n, 0,...)) converges in l-infty but you don't need to know that to show it doesn't converge in S
There's definitely subspaces that contain that as an element
I would argue that (1,⅓,⅓,1/n) is not an element of l^\infty since it’s not an infinite sequence
I'll head to the math help channel 🙂
Topology noob here. I've been trying to show that given any knot (closed 1-surface), you can construct a 2-surface that is oriented where the boundary of the 2-surface is the knot. Is this logic correct?
- any knot must be oriented, so it is homeomorphic with the unit circle
- construct a disc with the boundary as the unit circle and apply the homeomorphism to make it into the knot again
(and the disk is oriented and a homeomorphism can't change that)
again i really dont know anything about topology and im trying to show this for a calc class so a lot of the assumptions i make are pulled out of my ass
This would not really constitute a proof
as of course any map S^1->R^n
extends to a map D^2->R^n
But you haven't shown that this image is a manifold
and of course you have to choose the correct on as its not too hard to build one that isn't
well i wouldnt need to extend the map from s^1 to D^2 right? the knot is already in 3 dimensions
so i would just need to extend this mapping to be continuous on the disk?
Lol
Ohh
that’s also what I’m thinking
I couldn’t think of any reasonable counterexamples for the if direction, anyway
an annulus?
Disrespect? Where lol
that"s a counter examble
but you can ask "if two open sets have the same fundamental group, are they homotopically equivalent ?"
how do you show an annulus is not homeo to ℝ² with a point removed? I remember showing that there is no biholomorphic map bewteen the two (as subsets of ℂ) and that was decently difficult
(was an exam question)
hum
homeo is less restrictive and I don’t think the proof would extend
oh actualyl yea
they are homeo
since (0,∞) and (1,2) are
and you can just apply that radially
that's sad x)
and if it works for a single annulus I’m sure it also works for two connected ones
it’s just gonna be a whole lot uglier
anyway as for the infinitely generated case
consider an infinite “row” of such annuli
take a non connected open set
I’m pretty sure that has the same fundamental group as an infinite “cross” of such annuli but also doubt they’re homeo
they specified connected
lemme sketch how I mean
take an open strip, along the x axis; cut out a circle around each (n,0) such that none of the circles touch each other or the boundary
for the cross, just take this thing and also rotate it 90 degrees around (0,0), and take the union
I think that would be homeomorphic to R²\Z points too
oh can you?
the cross ?
Geometric group theory saves the day
oh ok
LOL
Well I mean I learnt it in geometric group theory for the first time
Rite haha
what does “ends” mean in this context. I mean I can see it goes off in four directions obviously
Geometric group theory by kapovich drutu is where I saw this
anyway this should be an example of two open, connected subsets of ℝ² that aren’t homeomorphic, with (probably) isomorphic but not finitely generated fundamental groups. no proof that they are isomorphic but I reckon if you label each generating loop with an integer in the strip, and an element in ℤ×{0,1} in the cross and then take a bijection between the two sets you prolly get an iso
I assume what I wrote works I just didn’t wanna actually think through it
thx
CH in my topology
I wouldn’t even be surprised but openness kinda removes a lot of the ugliness that could arise
right you can just remove single points
Wait wdym jan
I keep thinking of the problem in terms of gluing together nice open sets but obviously you can just remove arbitrarily ugly closed sets
I cant really think of an example?
wtf how is it possbile that I've ever heard about ends
@midnight jewel closed sets aren’t that ugly.. are they?
So like is CH true? What is the consensus
Yeah I mean like
What do people think should be taken
As the axiom
like how people say “choice is true” that kinda thing
I find it hard to like
Care about results
Dependant on adding axioms
Dependent*
Which is like
Tautologically nonsense
It’s tautological, doesn’t mean it’s nonsense xD
But like if theorem T requires CH
I feel like idc about theorem T
Unless it like can be applied to show something without CH
But idk if thats a thing
compromise: there is exactly one cardinal between aleph0 and c
Assume CH -> it’s true, assume not CH -> it’s true
I feel there should be proofs that go like that
by definition N/U yes
Usually you take 1 tho
Assume CH, there are inf many primes
Not zero
I mean he’s not wrong
Ok thanks
I mean that was intended to be a joke
I feel like everything i say comes off more chaotic w this pfp
:))
It’s crazy
Why is it independent
Why don’t we have absolute truth
In our maths
Math is insane
It is no sign of sanity to be well adjusted to an insane world
(Math is the insane world btw)
I guess my main reason
Is that I feel like the big pictures that i appreciate
Require that i work in zfc
And not assume extra stuff
I expand them
Just in different directions
The year is 1900
“The stuff I appreciate requires I work in peano axioms”
Without assuming extra stuff
I prefer to be agnostic
All proof requires faith
As godel proved
Therefore god exists so u cannot be agnostic
Models dont matter if something is provable from the axioms right im not insane?
Assume X models ZFC 
Like provable iff true in every model
I have faith in naive set theory
So is it unreasonable to not care?
How can u
that one barber can just never shave I don’t care
Look at an interesting looking question
And then once u find out it’s independent just not care
Shouldn’t you be more like
WHY ISNT THIS DECIDABLE
WITH MY FAITH
22 you've gone insane
The empty set 
Not even close
Just logical tautologies
didn’t you just assume tautologies exist
The weakest system such that such and such holds
That’s a field of math right
Reverse math or something
If you truly have no assumptions
Are there even tautologies
Dennis Hirschfeldt does it
And taught us some
Like RCA and Konnig
What’s the weakest system in which I can shitpost analysis questions
I see
Like idrk how youd formulate
ZFC though?
Most questions
How strong of choice do you get in ZF
only finite, right?
#sleepswithcrazy
Well like some surjections
Will have sections right
Even w ZF?
So like, are finite collections of finite sets ok
you can make infinitely many “nonarbitrary choices” too, ofc. like if you can just write down a formula for how you’re choosing things
but that’s not choice
that’s just writing down a formula
Is there a way to detect orientation of a 3D vector to respective axis ?
I am using the atan method with all axis to determine the rotations , seems to go haywire
Is it true that if in a space every subset is saturated, that this space is T1?
I’ve proved the converse but I don’t think this is true since for the converse it required to take possibly infinite intersections.
But I seem to be unable to come up with a counter example.
<@&681259184582688842>
Solved.
Those two statements are equivalent btw so T1 is equivalent to all subsets are saturated
hey can someone explain CW complexes to me in simpler/more fundamental terms
Hello, I'm trying to figure out why the highlighted part here is true, is it meant that all the neighborhoods contain x and thus they intersect A at x only, or can it be any other point of A? If its any other point of A, how to justify that?
You don't necessarily have that x is in A, so it has to be another point. But if x_n converges to x, then by definition any neighborhood of x must contain all the x_n for large enough n, and those are all in A.
@grim coyote
So, we like manifolds right?
because they are locally R^n
Now, it's too restrictive in some sense to require that this n be fixed
also, we might want to allow some small places where the space isn't locally R^n for any n
But we still want to keep a lot of the nice intuition
how do we do this?
Well, the next best thing is to try to patch together spaces with really nice pieces
Disks!
So we build CW complexes by taking disks and gluing their boundaries
starting with dimension 0 (points)
adding the skeleton (1-disks)
and then we add 2 disks and so on
gluing each to the lower skeleton
Does this make sense?
Ah I see
Also it's worth knowing that these guys can basically approximate any nice topological space
and every space is weakly homotopy equivalent to a CW complex
how about their relationship to simplicial complexes
okay so simplicial complexes are kinda like CW complexes but with more rules
kinda
sry lol, a high schooler interested in discrete morse theory
np
@tepid totem oh got it, I seem to have forgotten the topological definition
its not topoloogical
you just prove it on the point set level
take a point in one, show its in the other
your definition of D doesn't include the pt (a,b)
See afterwards
what
(a,b) is defined afterwards
you define the radius in terms of a,b then make an open ball not containin the boundary
i mean n/u
it's just like
demonstrate that that inequality holds
for any R_(a,b)
like let x be in R_(a,b)
it gives you some inequalities for free
then you have to show that x is in the unit disk
Is it just working w the inequalities that is tripping you up?
It seems to get quite long and leading nowhere
So I thought I'm overlooking something
No probably not
you just gotta compute |x| for all x in R_(a,b)
and show its less than 1
or at least bound |x|
Hm ok thanks
Do the metrics $$d_{1}=\max\limits_{a\leq x \leq b}|f(x)-g(x)|$$ and $$d_{2}=\int_{a}^{b}|f(x)-g(x)|dx$$ determine the same metric topology?
Tiamtum:
Oops, on the space $$C[a,b]$$ , continuous functions from $$[a,b]$$ to $$\mathbb{R}$$
Tiamtum:
no
consider [a,b] = [0,1] and the functions xⁿ for n∈ℕ
consider dᵢ(xⁿ,0) and conclude that the d₂-ball of radius 0<ε<1 around the 0-function cannot be contained in any d₁-ball around 0
@odd thistle
btw, single dollar signs for inline latex
wrong channel
it is for plane geometry, could you please direct me to right channel
this is for higher university-level courses
mostly topology and differential geometry
quite a few people have calculus in university but we put it in pre-university anyway
i see
So I'm trying to show union of connected sets is connected if their intersection is non empty
I'm not sure if my proof is 100% right but i took the case for two sets which are both connected
call these sets A,B, then by definition we can find a continuous function f such that $f:A -> {0,1}$ is constant, and $f:B -> {0,1}$ is constant as well
こ こ だ よ:
Then since their intersection is nonempty we can take some element c in both A and B, which must be mapped by f to the same element
so f is constant on A union B, so A union B is connected
Is this ok
@midnight jewel thanks, I thought so. sorry for the display mode spam.
Hello friend
I am an italian guy closed in quarantine who want to help me with a problem?
I have to find explicitly an embedding for klein bottle in IR^4
statement: the closure of any set is closed
isnt that only true if the set has at least one limit point?
no
oh if a set has no limit points then its closed
Hello, in the intermediate value theorem statement in Munkres' topology, the theorem stated that if there exists a real number 'r' between f(a) and f(b) in the image, then there must exist a real number 'c' such that f(c) = r, it is natural to think that this 'c' lies in the interval [a,b], but it does not say that in the statement, is the number 'c' free to be any number in X provided that its image gives 'r'?
in short, can this intermediate value 'c' be somewhere other than the interval [a,b], at least in a topological statement?
The "interval [a,b]" is not defined in the general setting because X doesn't necessarily have an order
Y has an order and f(b) > f(a)
X does not have an order
f(a) < r < f(b)
so here the number c that makes f(c) = r is free to be less than a, right?
Again, "less than a" makes no sense because X does not have an order
Ok, thanks for clearing that up, but this is a generalization of the theorem, the theorem in calculus is a special case, how to transition into calculus and say that a<c<b ( we let X be an interval now )
I mean, this generalized theorem guarantees that there exists a number c such that f(c) gives r which lies between f(a) and f(b)
regardless of whether the domain has an order or not
so when we impose an order on the domain, like an interval in calculus
If f is continuous, c can be anywhere?
maybe there is a non injective function
so two values give the same image
so we can allow multiple c's?
Intermediate value theorem guarantees the existence of such a 'c' in the interval [a,b]. It's possible that there could be other values of c outside the interval [a,b]
Intermediate value theorem guarantees the existence of such a 'c' in the interval [a,b].
@bitter yoke
in which context does it guarantee that?
because in the generealized theorem, there is no order
from what I understand, the c is guaranteed to exist. fullstop
but the theorem does not state where since there is no order on X, are there extra tools needed to transition to calculus or is there soemthing missing?
Well, the usual intermediate value theorem in calculus guarantees that when X is an interval in R
kxrider:
You didnt show that f^-1(V) is open for any open set V, you showed it only in the case V is the image of an open set, i.e V=f(U).
For example, take f: S^1 to [0,1) by sending a point to its angle divided by 2pi. Clearly bijective, and its also open. But the inverse image of [0,1/2) is not open, precisely because it is not the image of an open set of S^1.
@little hemlock
ah i see, thank you
@little hemlock incidentally if you think about it your question is equivalent to the question "why is a bijective continuous function not a homeo"
Because f bijective open or closed map is equivalent to f^{-1} bijective continuous
Is there some algorithmic way to create a simplical complex homeomorphic to a given delta complex?
ohh right i remember doing that
unfortunately thats not really practical for my purposes because I need the number of simplicies to stay reasonably small
You can def refine this
By finding points where it fails
And then restricting the barycenter
I have a small question: Given a vector bundle $\pi:E\rightarrow B$ and some open set $U\subseteq B$ we say a function $s:U\rightarrow \pi^{-1}(U)$ is a section of $E$ over $U$ if $s$ is continuous and $\pi\circ s=\text{id}_U$. The last condition is of course that $s$ is injective when $U\ne\emptyset$. This seems to me to be the easier definition when first getting into the topic (like I am). How were you introduced to sections, with injectivity or with $\pi\circ s=\text{id}$?
MrMonday:
Injectivity doesn't imply pi o s = id
well given a point (a,b) you can walk along the non-rational component until it's rational and then switch around and then walk along the other component. This should suffice to walk to any point of the space. Like: (1,π)->(1,3)->(π,3) where every arrow is given by a path and thus the composition is a path aswell.
You also give a path from every point to (0,0). Then you can also find a path fro. ebeey point to every other and the space is pathconnected.
Token:
Actually computing the homology of a tetrahedron simplicially finally
And wow
I have to find SNF for these matrices and UGH
path seems good @humble obsidian now you have three other cases were different components are rational
@honest narwhal are you doing weibel?
Yeah
I felt very proud of myself when I did that exercise
It's 90% of my understanding of homology
does anyone here happen to be good at hyperbolic geometry
how would i go about figuring out the side lengths and the angles in this tiling of the hyperbolic plane by hexagons and heptagons
long shot but <@&286206848099549185> maybe?
in hyperbolic geometry, aren't the geodesics little arcs instead of little line segments ?

in the poincare model yes they are arcs
and the ones here are also arcs
i don't really see an issue
they just look like line segments bc they're short
if you have a parametrization of the lines then it shouldn’t be too difficult I think? you’ll have to take the derivative and then integrate its norm (wrt to the poincaré metric ofc) from one corner to the next
there’s formulas given on wikipedia for distances between two points
so if you know the coordinates of some vertices then it’s easy enough
if not… then I have no idea either sorry
I dunno how you could construct them
it's a shot in the dark but this looks like it has a table on hyperbolic trig tables in section 9 http://web1.kcn.jp/hp28ah77/index.html
Non-Euclidean World is drawn visually. Think about infinity. Free softs are available.
hard to read I think this incomplete and written by non native english speaker lol good luck
@sleek thicket sucked it up and did the computation
Isn't that in weibel chapter 1?
Yeah at the time I was like eh I'll do it later. But nah I did it now
Really I'm on chapter 2 of Weibel modulo having skipped some bits of chapter 1. Though now with the online stuff I wanna try to finish up all of chapter 1, possibly doing all the problems
Reading over topology without tears again, making sure I take in all the details. There's a question in the Euclidean topology chapter:
Prove that {1/n, n ∈ N} U {0} is closed.
Prove that {1/n, n ∈ N} is neither.
The book hasn't introduced limit points yet. I really have no clue how this is supposed to be proven
For the latter argue that the open sets of any (just showing one sufficies) of the point isn't contained (Can you find any open neighbourhood of 1 contained inside {1/n : n in N}? Any neighbourhood must contain an irrational? What can you say from there?)
To argue against the closure, complement is again a good idea. Specifically check what happens at the left side.
If I have a connected topological manifold M and its universal cover C, is there a sense in which I can talk about the largest sets in M that are homeomorphic to some set in the universal cover? Clearly if a set is not simply connected then it's preimage for the projection map is not even the union of disjoint sets.
In other words there some necessary and sufficient topological properties that imply a set in M is homeomorphic to some set in the universal cover?
Oop, sorry I forgot I asked the question. I'm that ghost now.
Yes, the only way, right now, to prove a set is closed is to take the complement and instead prove open.
Clearly, you can just surround any point by (1/n, 1/n+1). The problem is the existence of {0}
Without the {0}, the set can't be closed, because you can't surround 0.
Huh. I think writing it out here, I just got it.
I've decided to stan Hatcher
This isn’t really what you asked, but for the preimage of projection to be a disjoint union of homeomorphic things, you need the image of the set’s fundamental group under inclusion into M’s fundamental group to be trivial. This isn’t necessary for it to be homeomorphic to some subset; consider a non-contractible loop on a torus
@sleek thicket I've decided ur bad
No I have a good reason for it
Someone is vagueing me on Twitter
And so I have to be contrarian
The proof in Hatcher is less than a page shorter than the one in Bredon! It doesn't skip all the messy details!
Alright as long as it's not genuine. Still idk even for the sake of being contrarian there are certain positions that for the sake of your status as a rational being as such you just don't take
So I'm trying to show the business about maps factoring as B->im(f)->C in a general abelian category
In particular that B->im(f) is epi
This takes some work lol
Oh I did that problem, I remembered there being something off about the statement
So it seems in an abelian cat, mono + epi = iso
But I'm not seeing it
I showed that mono <=> 0 kernel and epi <=> 0 cokernel
And I feel like it should be easy from here
So A->B has kernel and cokernel 0
We wanna manufacture a map B->A
I'm not sure what info can be extracted out of that statement. Is it to consider the 0 map B->A and mess with that?
Oh hold up that might work lemme see
Oh shit yo
Okay okay
That's slick
B->0 has the identity as the kernel
Or wait no this arrow goes the other way
Press F to pay respects
Well it goes the wrong way in the sense of "I didn't do shit"
Like B->0 has the identity as the kernel, because f:A->B is 0 there's a map A->B such that f factors as id circ f
But like
Lol
Replace "remember" with "learn"
because idk what an equalizer is
f:B->C, kernel is a map i:A->B which is initial
Initial wrt fi = 0 lol
Important detail
Oh okay actually no the trick I think is gonna use the fact that you're abelian, not just additive
Like in commutative rings this is false
Because Z->Q
So we need abelian cats
So the distinguishing factor for abelian cats is that monic = ker(coker) and epic = coker(ker)
So f:A->B is monic and epic
So cokernel is B->0
OH
A->B is the kernel of B->0
As is identity boom
Well the stronger statement that you're the kernel, not of anything but of your cokernel, is what's key here
Because id:B->B, then B->0
Can now lift to B->A
Woot
And reverse for the other composition
Yeah this is making me really appreciate R-modules
I like my elements
Well, small stuff, but I feel the property of being a kernel or cokernel is something you need the whole category for
Or I guess hmm
Or I guess if you take the abelian cat generated by stuff you want, then the 0 object of that guy should be unique? So in particular you can make some claim that "the kernel is unique downstairs"
But then the kernel of the large cat is a kernel of the small cat
Small meaning set of objects
Generated just like, add in everything needed to turn it into an abelian category
Wait then that could cause a problem maybe I need to think about this more carefully
Well no my concern is a bit different it's more like
What kinds of arguments you can Freyd-Mitchell over
Well, small ones according to Weibel at least
Yeah that's the thing that's making me worried
Like, some things allow you to just take the "category generated by a diagram"
Or abelian category generated by a diagram
In particular stuff being exact works out fine
But what worries me is that if you can construct a kernel in R-mod, that doesn't automatically Freyd-Mitchell over
Well so, here's the concern. You have a map in some abelian cat and you wanna show it's a kernel. You pass to a small abelian cat containing it and show that with respect to that smaller cat, this map is a kernel
By Freyd-Mitchell
Thing is, could a map be a kernel in this small abelian cat but fail to be a kernel in the whole thing?
Ah wait I guess you could play some game where you're like
Oh I wanna test whether this map factors right. Stick that on, push it across, your thing satisfies the property in this intermediate cat
So it's a kernel
So that map factors
And just do that to every map
Okay so if you have some theorem of the form "Maps satisfying blah are monic/epic" you can just prove this in R-mod
Alright finally proved that factorization and wow it's a fuckin mess
This isn’t really what you asked, but for the preimage of projection to be a disjoint union of homeomorphic things, you need the image of the set’s fundamental group under inclusion into M’s fundamental group to be trivial. This isn’t necessary for it to be homeomorphic to some subset; consider a non-contractible loop on a torus
@tacit stratus it's something to get a handle on it. Thanks
I didn't think about attempting to do stuff with the fundamental group
Trichloromethane:
it does not cover [0,1]
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1221467/characterization-of-compactness-in-terms-of-closed-sets
I don't understand how this characterization doesn't require the proof that OP gave?
Are they just meaning that the proof is simple to show by properties of open and closed sets, or literally that its unnecessarily? What then is the more trivial proof?
wait nvm it just sunk in lol
union of a collection is the complement of the intersection of the collection with the complement of every set in the original, and its still equal to the whole compact metric space, take complements on both sides, intersection of collection of each set's complement is empty
Yeah and then instead of "every open collection, if it's an open cover -> it has finite subcover" just put "every closed collection, if its intersection is empty -> it has a finite intersection which is empty"
so you don't need that proof OP made
Is there a name for a collection whose intersection is empty? A dual to "cover", since for every such set you can make a cover from the complements of its elements
i mean a collection of disjoint sets
Just because the intersection is empty doesn’t mean they’re all disjoint my dude
You could just say “A family of sets $A$ such that $\bigcap A=\varnothing$”
Darkrifts:
i mean but from any such set you can construct it easily into a collection of disjoint sets which has this complement is a cover condition
aw I guess there's no popular name for it then ;(
It would be nice to have a term to formulate compactness as not just "every open cover has a finite subcover" but also "every closed [term] has a finite sub[term]", where the term is that dual notion of cover
Which would absolutely be true
but yeah you would usually just say empty intersection
Hey I’m not sure if this is too difficult but I really don’t know the answer to this problem and I’m struggling , it would mean a lot if someone could solve it , thank you : What is the riemannien curvature tensor if the minkowski metric g=dt^2-dx^2-dy^2-dz^2
what are you having trouble with?
should be purely formula plug and chugging
Riemann curvature tensor can be written in terms of Christoffel symbols which can be written in terms of the metric tensor
if you're doing too much work, you're doing it wrong btw
I’m currently in algebra II
what textbook u workin thru btw
this is a problem I need to solve for an application , it’s completely random and not from a textbook . For algebra II, I don’t have a textbook we just do workshoots
•worksheets
I have no idea how to do the problem and it’s way over my head
Uh, algebra 2 like high school algebra 2?
Uh, well, why do you need to do this
My sister is in college math but she hasn’t gotten to do this so she can’t help me
Why are u doing differential geometry in high school
It’s for an application and nobody knows how to do it but I least want to answer it
What do you mean an application
I’m trying to get leadership for college and a friend is willing to teach me how to program in java and work with spigot for Minecraft but I have to apply for it
lmao
it’s basically trying to program for a Minecraft server
You have to apply for your friends mentorship?
lol what the hell
yUP
Lol
it’s a little ridiculous
This is so funny
But I just need an answer at this point I’m desperate
And he set this question?
yup
.
ok the answer is it's 0 cause minkowski space is flat ok there you go
There are three problems I’m hoping I answered the other two right
I gotta play this minecraft mod
Wait is it seriously 0
yep
Can somebody help me? I'm trying to get to the end but the portal isn't lighting
I'm in creative mode btw
can someone actually teach me how to play minecraft tho
just bought it a few days ago
no meme
sure I’m down
lmao im mostly joking
part of the fun is figuring out all the stuff myself
at least for me
I love modded MC but usually my PC can’t handle it
All of them
Mods that add machines and power
Mods that add different magic systems
Pipes and giant storage setups for automation
Jetpacks and powersuits
This is what I've been doing for the past three weeks
jesus christ, im definitely going to spend too much time playing mineceraft already
I've played 4 full days
Since I got to California
Probably more, that's just what it was the last time I checked
Yeah I'm gonna have to set hard limits
Since classes start Monday
I played so much minecraft in middle school
haha I wish I had started earlier now
this channel just turned full meme I love it
I was crazy addicted to Minecraft in middle school
also how were you gonna apply the curvature tensor to minecraft lmao
NO CLUE
The only problem related to it was how do you use algebra to find a stronghold using only 2 ended pearls
That one wasn’t too difficult to answer so I was able to do it
do you look at the java directly?
I have a friend who breaks stuff in mc like that and was mentioned by antvenom because he had a breakthrough solution recently
are you in the monkeys server?
I’m not sure what you mean but I just got coordinates from the game and substituted them in for y-y1= m(x-x1)
I don’t know how to program
you're in a good position to start learning if you wanted, you can easily make some goals of things you want to make.
I’m interested in learning more advanced math but I’ve struggled in the past so I’m not really sure if it’s a good idea
one valid question, though, is - considering that there's some "error" in the angle measurement of an ender pearl throw, where is the optimal spot to stand for a follow-up third throw to adjust for this error?
this is also just a trigonometry question
but a more interesting one
/sidetangent
I guess throw one horizontally , one vertically , and one up and down
I don’t really know though
I just put it so for he first coordinate you throw it as you’re standing on the ground and the second coordinate is from from throwing it onto the ground and recording the coordinates on the specific block it fell on
Tbh my answer is probably not that accurate but I tried my best and I’m hoping I got it right 😳
What is a neighborhood of a set
Does it have to do with open sets or a topology on a set
yes.
a neighbourhood of a subset is a set containing an open set containing that subset
the more common definition is
goddamn edit, I can't correct you
i consider myself an expert at being eventually right.
tbh i don't think I ever considered a neighborhood that is not open, so not sure why it's defined that way
Would you guys consider Topology to be one of the more abstract fields of math?
introductory topology, not particularly
it has actual applications
more abstract than what 99% of people who take math 100 in university see, obviously
but relative to the rest of mathematics, not really
in metric spaces neighborhoods are always open but not necessarily in the context of general topology @ Loch
in metric spaces neighborhoods are always open but not necessarily in the context of general topology
how? take any subset of a metric space. Then the subset is a neighborhood of any point belonging to its interior.
This is just a definition argument, people define neighborhood different ways
Thank you N/U, very cool!
N/𝔄*
thats what I said
𝔄 is A, right?
$\mathfrak{A}$
Namington:
yes.
O.o
what exactly does it mean to put a function on a CW complex?
Hello, if I have a Lie group G acting properly and freely on a differential manifold M, one can state that if x is in M and S is a sub-variety of M such that T_x M = T_x G.x (+) T_x S, the function f : GxS -> M (g,s) -> g.s is a local diffeomorphism
it is possible to compute T_(e,x) f which is equal to [(g(t),s(t))] -> [g(t).x] + [s(t)]
but I don't understand why it is equal
for me it's because the action is locally the same as addition, am I right ?
u play dota?
what is your definition of lie group, isn't it usually required that inversion is a smooth map
just from smooth multiplication?
well ok, then i dunno
we had the definition that (g,h) ↦ gh⁻¹ was smooth iirc
(from which it follows that both multiplication and inverse are smooth on their own)
from the thing I have you conclude first that inverses are smooth (fix g=e)
and then (g,h) to gh is smooth too by composition of smooth maps
since it’s (g,h) ↦ (g,h⁻¹) ↦ (g,h)
any further assumptions on G?
can you post the whole problem statement?
I don’t think you can in general conclude smoothness of the inverse from just smoothness of multiplication (but I also don’t know of a counterexample - I just don’t know how you could prove it)
actually I wonder
for a fixed h, (g,h)↦gh is a bijective smooth map
what you want is a map f:G→G such that (g,f(g)) ↦ e under multiplication
this screams implicit function theorem to me
but I honestly can never remember the assumptions nor the statement of that theorem
in any form
I know it isn’t
I just can’t remember it
I’ve even understood a proof of it at one point
and found it nice, too
a manifold isn’t a vector space
there’s the inverse function theorem
but the map is from G×G to G, which is problematic here
since it requires an isomorphism of tangent spaces
a^i?
what are the a_i?
that doesn’t make sense
the group multiplication in G is in no way compatible with the multiplication of ℝ if you embed G in ℝⁿ
you can embed it, sure, but the multiplication is just some map
nothing to do with the ambient space
anyway I found a stackexchange post about this, and it’s relatively complicated
but the proof does use the inverse function theorem
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1301221/redundance-of-the-smoothness-of-the-inversion-map-in-the-definition-of-a-lie-gro
here (spoilers)
Oh hey, this was a problem on my final last quarter
f(g, h) = (g, gh) is a smooth bijection
If you can show it's a local diffeomorphism, you get that it's a diffeomorphism and so inversion is smooth
It suffices to show that it's an iso on tangent spaces by rank theorem stuff
That's annoying but you can do it
It's helpful to use the identification T_(g, h) (G×G) ≈ T_g G (+) T_h G
@tall coral idk if you solved this already but feel free to ask my if you're still working on it
This is basically trivial... So much that I can't prove it! Any hint?
(Y<X) makes it useless but in the general case? Thanks for the help.
Hey @tall coral, let's talk in here
It's kind of messy, sorry
I was writing it for a take home final so I didn't have a lot of time
Better crop
A map into a product is smooth iff it's smooth in each component
The projection map is smooth
The multiplication map is smooth
Yup
Basically if you write it down and it looks smooth
It's smooth
Maybe that's too far lol
I promise I actually check these kind of details
But this was on the final
I was being careful like the week we introduced products
You don't really have to be in a course either
I'm on the upper end of it from personal experience
Yeah I would suggest not doing that
Not to be rude
But that's a good way to not learn math but think you are learning it
Reading books you're not comfortable with and not being able to do the exercises
If X is a finite compact space and Y is a topological space, is the product topology compact?
All finite spaces are compact
yes not discrete*
All spaces are T1 so 🙃
I know that all finite spaces are compact, but is this product compact?
So you're asking if X×Y is compact?
yes
Take X = a single point space
then X×Y is homeomorphic to Y
In general it's a finite disjoint union of Ys
So I think X×Y is compact for all finite X iff it's compact for some finite X iff Y is compact
Oh wait I lied
That's not true
It's true that this implies Y is compact
But X×Y might not be a disjoint union of Ys
hm ok thanks
Another question: is every subset of the space compact in the discrete topology?
Are you asking if every subspace of a discrete space is compact?
This is equivalent to "is every discrete space compact"
Since a subspace of a discrete space is compact (and every discrete space is compact)
Okay then yes I am asking this
Well let's think about it
Let X be a discrete space
Suppose X is compact
What does that imply about X?
Can you think of any particular open covers of X?
btw I'm not mad, the only finite compact spaces are discrete
For every set $I$ and every family of open sets $O_i$ with $i\in I$ such that $X\subseteq \bigcup_{i\in I} O_i$ there exists a finite subfamily $O_{i_1}..$ such that $X$ is a subset of those
N/𝔄:
@rugged swan I disagree
Let X be a finite space
Let {Ui} be an open cover of X
For each p in X, we have an i_p such that p in U_{i_p}
Then { U_{i_p} : p in X } is a finite subcover
@gritty widget sure, but what are the open sets in a discrete space?
Every subset
Yes
internet problems rn, so messages may come through with a little delay
So for any family of subsets whose union is X, there's a finite subset whose union is X
Np
hmm yeah that would make X compact, no?
I meant discrete implies compact
And trying to classify X in some way, or find out other properties it must have
XxY is compact iff X and Y are compact
Discrete implies compact iff finite
finite implies discrete and compact if I recall correclty which I guess what he was saying
yeah
No
oh soz yes the other way around
Take a space with two points, one open and one closed
So if I were given some set X and I want to define a topology T on it, such that this space (X,T) is compact, can this be done for any set X?
Yes
Yes, the indiscrete topology is always compact
ohhhh
Take X minus a pt
It's easier to be compact if you have very few open subsets
If X is a set, is there a ring whose spec is in bijection with X?
I assume so
But I can't think of one
I'm thinking of other ways to make it compact lol
thank you all very much guys, I guess the wording of my book just confused me
What? What's your definition of compact?
hausdorff*
Compact hausdorff
¯_(ツ)_/¯
I made this a while back when being mad at hartshorne
Zak, where did you learn math?
Not to be rude
I've heard that compact is used to mean quasicompact + hausdorff in French
But haven't ever heard it used that way in English
Yeah, that tracks
with quasicompactness we don't really have the geometrical intuition of what a compact space is
but yeah, it preserves the topological mean
I mean, I don't have a geometrical intuition of a compact hausdorff space
Yeah I know examples of compact hausdorff spaces
I also know examples of (quasi)compact spaces
that's the geometrical intuition
But I thought you were saying we don't have that for q compact spaces
I don't see how it's better for compact hausdorff spaces
Is what I'm saying
I know there's better theorems
no, there are non hausdorff quasicompact space
Yes I'm aware
You're saying that there isn't geometrical intuition for q compact spaces, right?
wait wtf why I have the COVID role
lol, it's infectious
I'm saying there also isn't geometrical intuition for compact hausdorff spaces
And the fact that there are nice geometrical examples doesn't change that
no there is
because if you're in a metric space you have all the good properties you wanted
Well I mean I'm saying I don't have it
Not trying to prescribe
Compact hausdorff spaces aren't necessarily metrizable though
no but in the case of metric spaces the word compact (with the hausdorff axiom) is well used because a compact space is a generalization of Bolzano-Weierstrass which have a meaning only in hausdorff spaces
just learning about open covers, they can be finite right?
like {(0, 1)} is an open cover of (0,1) right
although a noninteresting one
yes
cool
are there any references on orbifolds?
@sleek thicket well if they're second countable they are metrizable so...
true
but my whole point is that compact hausdorff spaces can still be nasty
e.g. not second countable and not metrizable
I mean I define topological spaces to be second countable
oh lol
and T1
"and T1"
Corollary: finite spaces are discrete 😛
a topological space is:
- compact
- hausdorff
- second countable
- a sphere
tori are on thin fucking ice
Theorem: pi_1 is the trivial functor
Well actually idk T^2 is a Lie group which is nice
Sphere isn't even paralleizable
hmm, good point
okay, take 2
a topological space is:
- compact
- the spectrum of a ring
wait aren't c* algebras like just compact hausdorff spaces?
are we back in a circle?
Any hint on the following?