#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 158 of 1
So the idea is that you can always make a frame locally
Because of the local triviality condition
Right
So you have a bunch of local frames
And you can't always paste them into a global frame
You have a global frame iff your bundle is trivial
Hmm ok
So a framed manifold is a manifold w trivial tangent bundle
That excludes all nonorientable manifolds
But also like
S^2
Yes
Which is weird to me
Interesting
Sorry what’s the form of this transition map?
Please @ me next time there's a difftop discussion
So like we have maybe some path

And we want to be able to transition our local frames
So I mean that a frame gives you a basis of your vector space in TM
Along this path?
I only really did the very beginning stuff in Bott-Tu but maybe
Read Lee lol
Though that's more about characteristic classes
It's long af but very good
Lee is where I learned all of this
Vector bundles raw aren't too bad though
Which lee
is careful about all the details which I think is important for a first encounter
smooth lee
"Intro to Smooth Manifolds"
So wait
you won't ever be as verbose as him when working with or discussing these htings in the future
I’m still a little under informed about the orientation picture
We get a local frame at each point
but building the initial intuition kinda needs some verbosity by nature I think
So do you know what an orientable vector bundle is?
No
Okay so, let's say you have a vector bundle p:E->B
There's a local trivialization, right?
Yeah on each of the open sets of a cover
Ohhhhh
Lel
But yeah so on the intersection of any two of these open sets you have a transition map
Ok
This is induced by the basis
But is noncanonical?
Unnatural maybe is the better term
I mean it depends on your trivialization
Like I gues my point is in general we have two trivialization
Giving two bases
But in general a nonunique map between them
ofc, but orientability is a statement about the EXISTENCE of a nice collection of trivialisations.
or equivalently a nice cover of local charts.
Ok ok
And yeah you can talk about a reduction of the structure group
Basically are we able to choose some trivialization such that the transition maps are all in some given subgroup H of GL_n(R)?
The vector bundle is orientable if you can reduce to GL^+
Namely if you can find some covering by charts such that the transition maps have positive determinant
Any open cover
Like if there exists a trivialization such that blah
Then your vector bundle is orientable
Ok then if all the transitions can be chosen such that they are all of positive determinant
Then our manifold is orientable?
Yeah for a specific open cover
For compact manifolds this reduces to finitely many choices
Yes
This structure group business is nice because other reductions give different things. For example, I think I read that an O(n) structure basically is the same data as a Riemannian metric
So let’s say I cover S^2 by the two D2s
And let them overlap a lil
Oh wait sorry
Nevermind that was a bad example
But yes I get the picture
Well so you can use the cover given by stereographic projection
Thank you everyone
What does the proof that nonorientable manifolds have nontrivial tm
Anyway yeah orientability of a manifold means the tangent bundle TM->M is an orientable vector bundle
Look like
Well if the tangent bundle is trivial then it's obvious
The open cover can just be the whole manifold
So you choose that open cover and the only transition map is the identity
(nonorientable => nontrivial TM) = (trivial TM => orientable)
Orientable manifolds need not have trivial tangent bundle
S^2 is the easiest counterexample
Yes that’s what started all of this
Someone said this contradicted Harry ball
Can you expand on that?
Yup
Okay so hairy ball theorem says that there's no vector field on S^2 which vanishes nowhere
Yes
If M has a trivial tangent bundle, then choose any nonzero v\in R^n
The map M->TM=M\times R^n given by x\mapsto (x,v) is a vector field
Specifically a framed manifold has a frame
Which is a specific choice of global trivialization
Nope
Wait so RP3 is S2/antipodes
So is there an obvious way
To associate a rotation with S3
I’ve always thought of a rotation of 3space being parametrized by the sphere
Well, keep in mind RP^3 gives rotations of R^3
That's not easy, you have to prove that RP^3 is diffeomorphic to SO(3), which is what acts in the obvious way
S^3 is a Lie group but that's just as unit quaternions
Oh
Rather than some rotation group
Then I get it
I know the quaternion connectction
Right ok so rotations of 3 space
Are more complicated than I was thinking
I should play around w blender sometime
So let’s fix a point of S2
Maybe just on the positive x axis
Then every other point corresponds to two angles
But this isn’t enough to parameterize SO(3)
Which wants also a choice of axis
Right?
Wait I think too many things are conflated here
In the case of SO(3), a single point corresponds to a rotation
Namely the rotation matrix
If you give me two points in SO(3), you compose the associated rotations to get a third and that's the multiplication
But rotations are just singletons here
In the case of S^2, even if you had a unique rotation given by two points, that wouldn't correspond to a third point (thus giving a multiplication)
Also are there only two rotations which send a point to another point on S^2?
Like, if you ask that a given point is fixed that's just choosing an axis so you have a lot of options
Does that make sense?
No sorry
I was thinking about like
What kind of information you need to specify a rotation of R3
I know a unit quat works
you need to choose where to send the north pole, and then you are free to rotate about the axis through this new position of the north pole.
Third quarter grad topology/geometry is diffgeo
2nd quarter is differential topology
Which is a superior subject tbh
Differential geometry is just bad
Though Amie Wilkinson is teaching diffgeo this year and she's supposed to be really good
Neves difftop is actually fucking amazing
Wait sorry
I mean difftop lol
So lee smooth is the standard reference?
I’ll try to go through it over the winter or something
Are you guys in the same university?
Is he a postgrad now?
Dami works for Goldman Sachs now
Quick question
Suppose I want to prove that f and g are one to one and onto if they're inverse functions.
If B is not f(A), do I use B or f(A) for the domain of g?
what's A and B
A is the domain of f and the range of g
B is the range of f and thus the domain of g
by range you mean codomain?
My book defined ranges; no codomains
Though I know of their existence, I don't want to alter my definitions until I know them perfectly
replace the word surjective with onto, if you prefer that word
Right. So if f is not surjective, which set do I use for the domain of g
to show what?
That they cannot be inverses
you want to show that there does not exist an inverse?
I want to prove that if f: A --> B and g: B --> A then both functions are one to one and onto.
I've taken care of one-to-one, but restricting B to a proper subset of f(A) creates confusion in choosing the domain of g for me.
you want to show that if a function f has an inverse g, then it is one-to-one and onto?
Exactly
if f: A -> B, then g is necessarily B -> A
if f(A) is not B, there is nothing to show, because it cannot be onto
That feels really loose to me
I've been tackling this problem with a proof by contradiction.
there are 2 implications to show
onto and one-to-one => inverse exists
and
inverse exists => onto and one-to-one
which are you tackling
currently
Inverse exists
My book defines inverses by being able to compose both functions for an arbitrary element of each set and showing that the functions undo each other
So I was trying to restrict B somehow that I cannot pull the function back out from f.
*element back out
Though it's in the domain of g
👀
I'll just show you so you can follow
lol indeed
It's just that the first chapter talks about sets and stuffs
hmm, you'd probably find this stuff at the beginning of an analysis textbook, or even abstract algebra textbook
Haha
you would find this at the beginning of many books
functions are essential in pretty much all branches of maths
it's basics
well being in a topology book doesn't really mean it's for the topology channel necessarily
So can I say that B is not f(A) and use f(A) as the domain or no
tbh i would suggest not attempting a proof by contradiction
the domain of the inverse is B
Alrighty. I'll try another approach when I get sat back down.
Thanks mates
And sorry for asking in the wrong place lol
What's the difference between diff geo and diff top?
@honest narwhal
Currently taking a sequence on "the topology and geometry of manifolds"
Using ITM in 1st quarter and ISM in 2nd/3rd
hey guys idk if this is the right place to ask but what are some of ur undergrad book recommendations for geometry of the euclidean space through vectors
Ah yeah
I think Lee said something about that
How you really need more structure
Yeah
Diff top seems cooler
I agree
If I ever have to talk about the law of cosines I'm immediately bowing out lol
quits math PhD
I think we're just doing that
This year
But if I took the special topics geometry stuff next year it's something to keep in mind
By that definition wouldn't Lee be difftop? Smooth manifolds just involves a smooth structure I think?
I haven't read it yet
But I thought diff geo would be more like intro to reimannian manifolds
Lee is neither difftop nor diffgeo tbh
It's like
The definitions surrounding smooth manifold stuff and basic mechanics
To me the actual topology is like
Let's say transversality and intersection theory
would anybody be able to provide any hints as to these three? i'm able to come up with bijections, but coming up with ones that are continuous is proving to be trickier
What are your bijections?
@bleak crescent
For the first one, think about where you could get the extra point to add to [0, 1) to get [0,1]
my (i think non-continuous) bijection for A -> B would be
well, i restricted it to a bijection from [0,1) to [0,1] first
if x = 1/n for some positive integer n greater than 1, then f(x) = 1 / (n - 1).
otherwise, let f(x) = x.
Ah yeah, that's not continous
yeah hmm
I guess my hint is that on that restriction, it's just the inclusion map
But since it's surjective, you need to pull the 1 from somewhere else
I think there is a continous bijection from A to [0,1] actually
Challenge problem, lol
guess i'll think about if this is continuous lol
If x > 1, then f(x) = x.
If x in [0,1), then f(x) = x. (It's just the inclusion!)
If x = -1, then f(x) = 1.
If x < -1, then f(x) = x + 1.
Yeah, that's exactly the map I came up with
it... looks cts hm
It is
given each restriction is continuous
(thanks! i will think about 2nd part now haha)
Because there's some space separating each set in the union A, a function out of A is continous iff each restriction is
And each restriction is just a polynomial
Ahhh, yeah
i just wanted to double-check, but: each of these individual singleton sets or half-open intervals are "open" in the subspace topology of A, right?
Yup
because {-1} = (-1.5, -0.5) intersect A
and same argument with half-open intervals
That's what I mean by "some space separating them"
Ahh
And then the restrictions (how i listed them) are either opens themselves or arbitrary unions of opens
yep
Yeah, so the components of A are the sets in the union
ah, right
Because they're also open (this means A is "locally connected"), A has the disjoint union topology wrt them
I don't know how much you know, that might not make sense
Also I've convinced myself that there's a continuous bijection A -> [0,1], but it would be bad to write down
haha i'm thinking about the continuous bijection B -> A, and i can see why it's harder than the former question
No, I think I unconvinced myself again
I'm too tired for this
Yeah, B -> A is trickier
Okay, got it
is it fair to say that there's going to be a restriction [0,1]? i'm guessing i can't separate
case 1: x = 1
case 2: x in [0,1)
because i want a continuous function
Your logic is right
Knowing the function on [0,1) will determinate its value at 1
Map two points onto the endpoints, so you just need to get a map A -> (0,1). Map a single point onto 0.5 to bisect the interval. On the left half, write (0, 0.5) = union_n [1/(n+1), 1/n) and map countably many (but not all of!) your half open intervals in A into this segment. In the other segment, repeat this process
This is for a continuous bijection A -> [0,1]
It's probably not the clearest, lol
Yeah, after your get B -> A I'd recommend thinking about this
@sleek thicket is it fair to say that, because [0,1] is connected, then f([0,1]) must be connected if f is continuous?
so then the image of [0,1] must be entirely contained in one of [0,1), [2,3), [4,5), etc.
f(K) is compact if K compact and the image is T2
you don't need that last condition do you
Idk
In a book I've seen someone showing T2 to prove that the image of some continuons equation was compact
I didn't understand why lol
Take an open cover of f(K). Preimage of open is open. It pulls back to an open cover of K, which has a finite sub cover. Then the images of the finite subcover cover f(K).
I do not think hausdorff matters here
you need hausdorff if you wanna argue about relations between closedness and compactness
but the image of a compact set is always compact under continuous maps
im hijacking this channel
to do pset problems
hope thats ok w everyone
Ok let X be path connected
we have some 1-cycle c
that is, $c=\sum k_i\sigma_i$ for some simplicies $\sigma_i$
MaxJ:
and in particular $\del(c)=0$.
MaxJ:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
I want to show that there is some map $S^1\to X$
MaxJ:
such that when I look at the induced map $f_*:H_1(S^1)\to H_1(X)$
MaxJ:
ie $\mathbb{Z} \to H_1(X)$
MaxJ:
there is a generator of $s \in \mathbb{Z}$
MaxJ:
such that $f_*(s)=c$
MaxJ:
Ok whats the idea. Well, let's think about what $\del(c)=0$ really means
MaxJ:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
well if it were over Z/2Z then this would literally just mean we have a loop
but we aren't working over Z/2Z
but if all the coefficients are 1/0 this is the same thing
Lets say I have something simple like a triangle
with sides e1 e2 e3
then I get something like e1-e2+e3 as the oriented loop around
this has a clear map S^1->triangle representing it
how did I get it? well I subdivided by circle and then chose to follow the simplicies between the verticies in the specified direction
Ok in particular a map from $\Delta^1$ is an oriented map $I\to X$
MaxJ:
So if $\sigma_1,sigma_2$ are 1-simplicies in $X$, can we in gener compose them?
MaxJ:
Yes, if their orientations match up, but not really if they dont
like $a\to b \leftarrow c$
MaxJ:
that's not a path
maybe think about this form another angle
given $f:X\to Y$ what exactly is $f_*$
MaxJ:
Right ok
so up to homotopy
f takes simplicies to simplicies
in particular we want to look at a map from S^1 to X
we partition S^1 in the obvious way to have "enough" simplicies
then we map S^1->X and match up simplicies
wait not exactly
we're going to want to send the standard delta structure on S^1
to our exact linear combintation
this is basically a pointed loop, but it shouldn't matter where we send the "vertex" as long as its really a loop
in particular we can just look at a map $I\to X$ and prove that if the linear combination is a cycle
MaxJ:
then we can descend to a map $S^1\to X$
MaxJ:
so how do I want to naively make this "path"
start at a vertex
we have a cycle, so in particular, we have at least one path leaving and entering the vertex
otherwise the values would not ~cancel~
so choose one thats leaving it
we get to the next vertex
now its possible we again have ~many~ choices that we can make
clearly the last one could be arbitrary
can this one?
ok so theres no backtracking that has to be done
why?
because the coefficient ie either negative or positive
but we can always collect these coefficients
so we in particular only have one direction to travel along any vertex.
so clearly the next choice can be arbitrary too
i think this idea works
bc you can just keep going
and you either end at the starting point
or "leave" it too many times
...not sure why I need path connected though
hmm
maybe once I work out the details this will be clear
Anyone know a good resource for a free particle on the surface of a sphere? I want to do simulations given initial theta, phi and their time derivatives.
What type of material should I have down to start intruductory topology? So far, I've learned Linear Algebra, Number Theory, Graph Theory, and some elementary abstract algebra. Is that enough to start with metric or some intro topology?
It helps to know some analysis
Because a lot of intro topology (esp. metric stuff) is generalizing open balls in R^n
What type of analysis? I've done some analytical calculus course but nothing like real analysis
Real analysis
Preferably real analysis in R^n
I mean there's only so far you can go with that before you need to talk about topology more seriously
But having thought about basic topology of R^n already helped me a lot
When learning real topology
Like, if you know the definition of connected/path connected/compact and like have solved a problem with heine borel, you'll be good
Alright AG is geometry so I'll migrate my ranting here
Daminark:
Do people compute cohomology of spaces from the definition in terms of a cochain-complex or do you usually compute homology and use the various dualities?
It’s not really obvious to me how to ex compute the cohomology of a delta-complex
I'm somewhat stuck on this differential geometry exercise
We're working with the tautological line bundle tau of CP^1
We have the standard charts on U0 and U1, which are
$$ U_0 = { [a, b] \in \mathbb{CP}^1 \mid a \neq 0 }$$
Ridder:
And similarily for U_1
Local frames are given by
$$\mathbf{e}_0(z) = e_1 + z e_2 \text{ and } \mathbf{e}_1(z) = z e_1 + e_2$$
Ridder:
Where e_1 and e_2 are standard basis of C^2
So the usual stuff
Now the question is:
Obviously we can place the tautological line bundle inside CP^1 x C^2
Quite by definition
On CP^1 x C^2 we have the canonical connection
Which should then induce a connection on the tautological line bundle
And the exercise is to show that it's given locally by the 1-forms
$$ A_0(z) = \frac{\overline{z}}{1+|z|^2} \mathrm dz $$
Ridder:
Well on U_0 at least
I've tried the following:
Instead of taking any section and any vector field, just take e_0 and partial/partialz for now
Calculating the connection in the trivial bundle C^2 by definition it becomes 0
By definition of the flat connection
Hence projecting onto the tautological line bundle it stays 0
And well that's kinda a thing because that would mean the connection is 0 on tau as well, which I have to show it isn't
The full question for anyone interested (section b)
This is the one question I'm having trouble with, so I'd love some help
And it looks so awesome because it is leading up to calculate the first Chern class of the tautological bundle
And thus proving that the tautological bundle is not trivial 😮
But I need some help here
¯_(ツ)_/¯
Anyone have a suggestion for an intro to De Rham cohomology for a dumb dumb physicist?
I’m okayish with simplicial Homology... the singular stuff I don’t really understand but would like to
I think the idea is kinda straightforward
Any lecture notes online
Should probably work
ugh maybe I'll just crank through hatcher
Can someone give me a pointer for this problem?
Suppose h : S^1 -> S^1 is a homeomorphism. I want to extend it to a homeomorphism H : S^1 × I -> S^1 × I such that H(x, 0) = (h(x), 0) and H(x, 1) = (x, 1)
Essentially H is a homotopy from h to id, but with the extra constraint that it's bijective if we add in t
Uh
Maybe I’m being dense but can you take the canonical factorization
The mapping cylinder
Let me think for a sec
The class this is for has not gotten to homotopy yet, so I might be doing the original problem entirely wrong
I'm not sure if this is even true, my homework problem is to show that if f : 👌D -> 👌D' is a map between closed n, m cells and p, q are interior points of D, D', there is an extension F : D -> D' of f sending p to q
Yeah I was pausing
Bc I’m not sure that every automorphism is homotopies to id
Actually I think it’s false
Take a finite topological space w discrete topology
Any permutation should be an homeo
But I don’t think this is homotopy eq to id
Hold up: isn't a map of degree not equal to 1 noninjective?
Something like that
For the circle specifically
Yeah I believe that should be true
I can write down a homotopy
Sorry I’m in the middle of a thick green out
For each x in S^1, go along an arc counterclockwise from h(x) to x
Nah you're good
Maybe that's not continuous?
I wouldn’t be surprised if all homeos of the circle are homotopic to id
I think the degree thing proves it, right?
"all homeos of the circle are homotopic to id" iff "all homeos of the circle have degree 1"
And if maps of higher degree are noninjective, that's gotta be true
Any map of degree > 1 induced an non invertible Map of homology
So in particular it’s not a homeo
Cool
Is that how your class defined degree btw?
It’s normally defined by the map on homology
No, we're like 3 weeks away from degrees and don't do homology
Oh ok
Interesting, I guess you can do it for S1 with pi1
But that’s kinda inelegant bc it’s hard to generalize
Yeah that's how it's defined
Makes sense
But higher htpy groups are usually intoruced after homology
I’m a little confused w your approach to the problem
But I haven’t thought about it much
What are you thinking?
The cell problem or the homotopy thing?
Cell problem
Wlog they're closed n balls
It suffices to show there's a automorphism of an n balls fixes the boundary and sends p to 0, for any p
Because we can first do that, then do like F(x) = |x| f(x)
And then do it in reverse on the codomain
Does that make sense?
Well I can define a homeomorphism from a closed n ball to itself which sends p to 0 and permutes the boundary
Tbh it would suck to write down
Yeah it would
But there’s an obvious homeo that does that
Really all I need to do is (for any p) construct a homeomorphism B^n -> B^n which sends p to 0 and is the identity on the boundary
This should be easy
I mean you can describe such a thing
It’s not hard to see it should exist
Just like stretch the ball
Won't that move the boundary around?
The obvious one Im visualizing will
Like what I'm thinking is translate so p is at the origin
Then normalize the length of each point on the boundary
And do the same for the rest of the points
you want f : B -> B so that if |x| = 0 then f is the constant map with value p and if |x| = 1 then f is the identity map on the boundary
you can write down a simple such f by deforming linearly between these two maps as |x| varies from 0 to 1
so f(x) = (1 - |x|)p + x
@sleek thicket
Is that a homeomorphism?
I did come up with that map
But it wasn't obvious to me that it's injective
hmm
or surjective lol
yeah for someone who's taking two graduate level geometry classes I sure am bad at visualizing things
lol
it sends line segments from 0 to the boundary to line segments from p to the boundary
right?
should be possible to turn that into a proof
errr
I'm thinking like this
you want the line segment between 0 and x/|x| to go to the line segment from p to x/|x|
so you get (1 - |x|) p + |x| x/|x|
then the |x|/|x| cancels
Okay yeah I think I'm being dumb
I appreciate the help but I've been doing math since 11am continuously
So I'm going to take a look at this tomorrow morning
👌
Could anyone explain to me what the use/motivation is behind subspace topology?
well uh… if you have a space, and you have a subspace, and you wanna talk about open sets in the subspace…
like you have to define it in some way and the way it’s defined seems extremely natural to me, what do you not understand?
I understand the idea but I don't really see a point to it
If the inheritance property were to be consistent I would. But if inheritance is not always the case I don't really see a point.
I'm writing an essay right now and I am starting a chapter about subspaces but I'm having a hard time introducing it
Inheritance?
Something I read about where a subspace inherits property from it's motherspace (Probably wrong terminology but you get what I'm saying right?)
Well yeah, it depends on the property
E.g. compactness is not always inherited
But we can't even ask the question "does a subset S of X have the topological property P" without fixing a topology on S
Of course
But what confuses me is that if inheritance isn't consistent what's the point? I might be missing something, I am no expert
The motivation isn't whether properties are inherited
Actually, let me back up
The unit sphere should be a space
Yeah?
Yeah sure
What's the topology on the unit sphere?
You mean with B(x)
I'm not sure what that means
the open ball thingy
A topology on X isn't a collection of elements of X
It's a collection of subsets of X
Yes
So what's the topology on the sphere?
well the collection of subsets of said sphere
Not all the subsets though
If it had all the subsets then the sphere would be discrete
oh so you mean it's just a collection of subsets of said sphere
Yeah I know the three you're referring to
So, what's the topology on the sphere?
What? I just told you, a collection of subsets contained within the sphere
Yes but which subsets
subsets for which the distance to the center is less then 1
All such subsets?
What if I take just a point set {x} where x is a point on the sphere
Well that wouldn't be an open set
Yes, exactly
since it's on the border
So what are the open sets?
Informally you could say any subset that isn't on the 'border'
or for which you can make a epsilon-ball
What do you mean by the "border"?
By sphere I just mean the shell, not the whole ball
(i might ask a quick question in a bit when he's finished haha)
I guess my point is that sometimes subsets of a topological space can be interesting spaces in their own right
E.g.
the sphere
We get a topology on it automatically from the topology on R^3
See here's the problem. I think we can agree on the statement "More is better", right? Well, that means the higher dimension the sphere, the more interesting it is
But S^{infty} is contractible
And points aren't interesting
I can't tell how serious you're being
Now you know how it feels
Milnor wants to know your location
Oh so you're point is that it can be handy if a topology is carried over to another
Well that's the whole point
It gives us a way to carry the topology over
To a subset
This is actually the second time today lol
Thanks for your patience
I spent all day explaining basic analysis and topology to my cousin
It was very very fun
@bleak crescent
shoot
@honest narwhal dumb question
What is S^infty?
Is it the obvious colimit?
Can we describe the topology more concretely?
oh is it a subspace of the countable product of R with itself?
I think that makes sense
I'd be worried about the norm on such a space
I think you can take the unit ball in a Hilbert space?
(Anyway I should get to sleep soon so see you!)
um, so that problem where we’re supposed to construct a continuous bijection from
B = ... {-2} U {-1} U [0, 1] U [2, 3) U [4, 5) ... to
A = ... {-2} U {-1} U [0, 1) U [2, 3) U [4, 5) ... , where A and B are subspaces of R
is it fair to say that uh
Because [0, 1] is connected, then f([0,1]) would be entirely contained in a connected space because f is continuous?
but f is a bijection, so f([0,1]) would have to be in one of [0, 1), [2, 3), ...
oops, should include @sleek thicket haha
@sleek thicket s_infty has the following structure: the colimit is taken over inclusions
So an open set of s infinity is any U such that U\cap S^k is open
For all k
cool, that's what I meant by the obvious one
Oh but you're saying because they're inclusions it's nice
Of course
@bleak crescent that reasoning is valid (you might want to justify it a little bit more)
Note that we could also have image contained in {-1}
Always takes me a sec when I have to actually consider element-wise constructions lol
Like real subsets instead of injections
Same
I like just saying "it's a colimit"
But it's good to actually understand what the thing is a little more concretely
What would the totally abstract condition be? Take U in the colimit, then U is open if we take the image of the (composed) inclusion, intersect, pull back and then that set is open?
Yuck
What is the actual weak topology of a colimit now that I think about it
You’d just want all the universal maps to be continuous I guess
I think that thinking about it like that would lead you to the specific weak topology here
@sleek thicket image f([0,1]) contained in {-1} would be impossible because f is a bijection, right?
Let $\varphi : \mathbb{S}^1 \to \mathbb{R}^3$, $\varphi(t) = ( x(t), y(t), z(t))$ be a smooth embedding such that $z'(t) = y(t)x'(t) \forall t \in \mathbb{S}^1$. Let $\pi:\mathbb{R}^3 \to \mathbb{R}^2$ the projection on the $(x,z) -$plane. Suppose that for $t = 0$ we have that $(x'(0), z'(0)) = (0,0)$, I want to show that if $x(t)$ is A Morse function then the map $\pi \circ \varphi $ is locally like $t \mapsto (t^2, t^3)$ around $t = 0$.
emme:
Now
By Morse lemma we have a chart around 0 s.t. X(t) looks like $t^2$ and by the relation $z' = yx'$ we have that $z''(0) = y(0)x''(0)$. Now suppose that $y(0) != 0$. The book I am following says that If we choose the line parallel to the x axis, passing through the singularity as the first coordinate axis and the line with slope $y(0) = \frac{z"(0)}{x"(0)}$ ( also passing through the singularity) as the second coordinate axis around the singularity, we get a local coordinate system in the (x,z) plane such that the projection is given by $t \mapsto (t^2, f(t))$ where $f$ is such that $f(0) = f'(0) = f"(0)=0$
emme:
My question is: why $f"(0) = 0$? The change of coordinates in the plane seems to be linear, so I don't understand why we get a function $f$ such that $f"(0) = 0$
emme:
@bleak crescent yes but you need to consider that case
You're trying to show such and f can't exist
yeah
right now, i'm thinking more about how i'd construct that function period haha
Go back to what you showed earlier
Wait hang on
What was the originating problem?
*original
I don't think f is a bijection, is it?
Maybe I forgot how it worked
Ah okay
So we're pretty much done
The image of [0, 1] is compact and connected
And it sits inside one of the [a, b)
What are the compact connected subsets of the real line?
@bleak crescent
You can use this to determine f([a, b))
hmm
all closed, bounded intervals or one-point sets, right?
hmm, so all f([a,b]) should also sit inside other [c,d)....
Book recommendations for self-studying intoductory topology?
@bleak crescent so is the image open in the subspace topology on A?
could you theoretically
map
[0, 1] to [0, 0.5) and
map [2, 3) to [0.5, 1)?
and map [4, 5) to [2, 3)
and map [6, 7) to [4, 5)
and so on?
@sleek thicket
No, that first bit couldn't work
ah
ah, right
You could map [0,1] to [0,0.5]
And [4,5) to (0.5, 0.75]
And [2, 3) to [2,3)
And [6,7) to [4,5)
And so on
That's a continuous bijection between the two
Unless I'm missing something
oooooh
yeah
Then the image of those two will be [0, 0.75)
So we're back where we started
And we can keep filling it out with every other interval
This will define a continuous bijection from B to A
wait, i don’t think i fully understand—what happens to (0.75, 1)
Yup
to “fill out” but never quite reach 1
powers of 2
Send the (2i-1)th interval to (1 - 2^(-i), 1 - 2^(-i-1)]
Send the 2nth interval to [n,n+1)
And send [0,1] to [0,1/2]
yeah
And leave each discrete point where it is
aaaaaaa that’s clever
Do you see what I mean?
Continuous bijection
I think I came up with this the last time you posted it
So back to the problem
We have [0,1] mapping to [a, b], which is contained in some half open interval
Right?
Is that set [a, b] open in A?
i want to say no because [a, b] isn’t open in R
but each [a, b] in A would be the intersection of a closed interval in R with A, right?
and the only sets open and closed in R are R or empty set
That's still not enough
{-1} is the intersection of A with both [-1.5,-0.5] and (-1.5,-0.5)
oh oops
Remember that closed and open aren't opposites
so [a, b] is necessarily the intersection of A and either (c, b] or [c, b] in R, where c <= a, because [a, b] is contained in a half-open interval.
but neither (c, b] nor [c, b] is open in R
and [a, b] would have to be the intersection of A and a set open in R to be open in the subspace topology of A
@sleek thicket wrote it out!! and thought about it more hahaha
thanks for the help
Nice!
Sorry, I forgot about this lol
But good job
I'll take a look if you post it
i just had to write about it on paper haha
Ah okay no worries
i think my prof wants to start algebraic topology tomorrow, so this was a way to segue into it for him
(though i’m not quite sure how yet)
i think we start... defining homotopies? @sleek thicket
we're doing sections 51 and 52 of munkres this week, i believe
Oh gosh
so homotopy and stuff and then fundamental group
we just finished urysohn metrization theorem
oh okay
Sorry I thought you were just doing like subspaces
For some reason
I'm pretty jealous ngl
ahh, nah, this was a review problem haha
My course is doing the classification of surfaces
Which is neat
But it relies on the existence of a triangulation of everh surface
Which we don't prove
ooooooh
And we don't get to homotopy for like 2 more weeks
my prof is probably skipping what you're covering this week and next week haha
Yeah, probably. We're focused on manifolds
It's taught by the manifold guy
And the next two quarters are on smooth manifolds
oooooooooooooh
Oh sorry by "the manifolds guy" I mean Jack Lee
Author of introduction to topological/smooth manifolds
He's pretty great
i've only had like one or two profs who were relatively famous, and they ended up being really disorganized, unfortunately, hahaha
glad you don't have the same experience so far
What do you guys recommend to learn topology? Is munkres fine?
It's fine
I used Munkres and liked it
My class went a little fast, but if you're learning on your own and just covering the point set part of the book, you'll be good
Ive tried reading few books and they all had different approaches and definitions
different definitions
do you just mean notational nuances
or do you mean, like
wholly different notions
I mean, some definitions are equivalentl but stated differently
My course doesnt really use much of the limit definitions (hard to give example now, Im just starting) , which I found a lot of in few books
who uses limits in topology lmao
Kuratowski
only time I used limits in my gen top course was for certain metrics
you mean the textbook or the embedding theorem?
Kuratowskis text book
It really is
Limit points are a big part of topology definitions
You don’t need a metric, and they characterize closed sets
Nets are a different thing tho
Limits are good
If you're just doing stuff in second (or first I guess?) countable hausdorff spaces
wowee I wonder why people like manifolds
Wait
I could be wrong or my point set rusty
but afaik limit points are completely general
I'm thinking about covering spaces
Let p : X' -> X and q : Y' -> Y be covering maps
And let x, y be basepoints for X, Y
Consider the subspace Z = p¯¹(x) × Y' union X' × p¯¹(y) of X'×Y'
Is Z a covering space of X wedge Y?
Let r : Z -> wedge be the product of the maps p and q
Where wedge = {x}×Y union X×{y}
I guess Z = (p, q)¯¹(wedge)?
I'm just thinking out loud but if anybody wants to help that would be grand
Okay so I think it's definitely connected
I'm fine assuming X and Y are path connected, in which case that's easy
And r is continuous and surgeons
*surjective
So take a point (a, b) in the wedge
If it's the point (x, y) then take canonical neighborhoods U and V for x and y wrt p and q
Then U×{y} union {x}×V is the intersection of the wedge with U×V, and it's preimage under r is p¯¹(U)×q¯¹(y) union p¯¹(x)×q¯¹(V)
p¯¹(U) is the disjoint union of U_i for which p restricts to a homeomorphism U_i -> U
Similarly V_j for V
So this preimage is the disjoint union of the U_i × q¯¹(y) unioned with the disjoint union of the p¯¹(x) × V_j
Oh and each point of p¯¹(x) lies within one of the U_i
So really the index set for the i's is the fiber of x
lol im fucked
talked to AG professor today
turns out we're going to try and speedrun schemes and cohomology next quarter
lemme just uhhhh
read two chapters of hartshorne
in 10 weeks
Is this correct?
Yup, looks right
Suppose p : X -> Y is a covering map between nice spaces
Don't assume it's a universal cover though
Too late
/(
:(
Let y0 be a basepoint for Y
We get an action of Aut(p) on X
And also on the fundamental groupoid of X with basepoints p^(-1)(y0)
And this is like a nice action
In that it acts by functors
Is there a way to get an action of Aut(p) on π(X)? I'm worried about noncanonical choices or w/e but I think it just works
If you contract the groupoid to a point
If so, more interesting question: can we interpret the semidirect product of π(X) and Aut(p) topologically?
In some nice way?
@honest narwhal you responded so you have to help
also @marsh forge you do algebraic topology
this is that
My AT is really bad lmao
Yeah me too
Mainly because I've never actually learned it
Just read the dumb groupoids book on my own
Ronnie Brown wants to know your location
Hey uhhh
Let's attach B^(n+1) to P^n
For fun
So my thought is
P^(n+1) has an affine open like [1:...] in it
Wait sorry I mean it has a chart, wrong class
I want to map the interior of B^(n+1) in there
So like send it to the hyperplane at x=1 in R^(n+2)
And then quotient down to P^(n+1)
And handle the boundary separately
So
How do I handle the boundary?
I feel like I just use the quotient map S^(n+1) -> P^n
But won't the embedding of the interior make that fucked up?
Maybe I should do an example?
But I think I need to jump up to 4 dimensions
In order to attach B^3 to P^2
Maybe I'm thinking about this backwards
Or too forwards
There's an adjunction space P^n cup_p B^(n+1)
Where p : S^n -> P^n is the quotient map
Can I abstractly show this is homeomorphic to P^(n+1)?
what do you mean by "abstractly"?
I mean without plumbing along a bunch of coordinates and quotient maps
let $X$ and $Y$ be topological spaces. Let $(A_i){i \in I}$ be a family of closed subsets of X satisfying $\bigcup \limits{i\in I} A_i = X$. Let $(f_i)$ be a family of continuous function from $X$ to $Y$. If I define $g : x \in A_i \mapsto f_i(x)$ ($g : X \rightarrow Y$) for all $i \in I$. Is it true that if $g$ is well-defined, then $g$ is continuous ?
Zak:
