#point-set-topology
1 messages ¡ Page 156 of 1
@sleek thicket how do other people usually define affine variety? A tuple k^n for any alg closed field k?
Finitely generated mean (locally at least) it's polynomial with finite indeterminate?
An irreducible closed subset of k^n in the zariski topology
Where the closed sets are the zero locii
Finitely generated means quotient of polynomial ring in finitely many variables
See Hartshorne or Gathmann's notes
This definition is weird because it's not classical AG but it's also less abstract than schemes
The structure sheaves are actual functions
I'm not that big brain enough to imagine sheaf in general ring which is not polynomial /function
Well the structure sheaf of an affine schemes is more complicated
It's a big tuple with some local compatibility stuff
this image must be preserved for all time
aren't you a fucking geometer
@civic kraken wait what kinda geometry do you do? Your answer will either make us friends or enemies
mostly arithmetic
but im writing my thesis on teichmuller dynamics 
i like geometry in general, but mostly i like number theory
How are the definitions of T_3 and regular different?
personally, Iâve learned them to be synonyms, but wikipedia says that Tâ is regular + hausdorff, our definition of regular included hausdorff as a condidion (or rather, that points are closed, which is equivalent in this case)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Regular_space just see here
In topology and related fields of mathematics, a topological space X is called a regular space if every closed subset C of X and a point p not contained in C admit non-overlapping open neighborhoods. Thus p and C can be separated by neighborhoods. This condition is known as A...
Okay so yeah that's fine we're friends. That meme I think makes fun of differential geometers anyway
that is correct
@midnight jewel In Munkres, regular is defined as following Suppose that one point sets are closed in X. Then X is said to be **regular** if for each pair consisting of a point x and a closed set B disjoint from x, there exists disjoint open sets containing x and B respectively.
If I am correct, does that not imply Hausdorff? (just take the closed set to be another point
it does
but not everyone takes the points are closed condition to be part of the definition
if you do then regular spaces are always hausdorff
otherwise they may not be
In my notes however, I am provided that Regular = T_3 + T_1. Is it possible that the singletons are closed is provided by T_1?
and Tâ being defined how?
literally none of these words have unambiguous definitions
Closed and a point are separable by disjoint neighbourhoods
T_1 being two points can be seperated by neighbourhoods (not necessarily disjoint)
apparently itâs equivalent (if Iâm reading the wiki article correctly) but itâs not obvious to me
ah wait
let y in X and for each x define Oâ to be an open neighborhood of x not containing y (exists by Tâ). then the union of the Oâ is precisely X\y, and thus {y} is closed
so Tâ already implies that points are closed
For me T_0 means given two points atleast one of them has an open neighbourhood that doesnt contain the other.
So by T_0, we might as well have gotten a neighbourhood of y
doesnât Tâ mean that each point has a neighborhood not containing the other, but the neighborhoods donât have to be disjoint?
That's T_1 for me
ah wait
I meant Tâ the whole time
fucking numbers
yes youâre right
just imagine I said 1 every time I said 0
In my notes however, I am provided that Regular = T_3 + T_1. Is it possible that the singletons are closed is provided by T_1? Is this correct then
yes
Smh obviously...
as I just proved
np
âhow does this relate to upper undergraduate-level geometryâ
John H Conway discovered most of these equilibrium honeycombs
The ones I showed are cubic honeycomb
A honeycomb is a space filling tessellation of polyhedra.
Cubic honeycombs, Archimedean and Platonic solids share great relation to subatomic structures. For example the Higgs boson is an E8 (quasicrystal composed only of platonic solids up to the eight dimension).
Everything except for the links was of my own work
Iâm working on these honeycombs and making my own honeycomb structures because Iâve envisioned ways to build technology and advancement with these structures. Also for the interest and desire to find a cellular automaton capable of explaining all particle physics and occurrences via functions.
Technology
- Euclidian warping structures
advancements in fiber technology (using genuflecting bipyramids).
Impact safety features with an inverse metamorphose cuboctahedrille
Or other metamorphosis honeycombs
- Agriculture
Agricultural advancements in hydroponic automaton using space filling curves and AI data tracking systems.
Agriculture advancements using topology optimization with circular fields and the phi ratio.
- data compression with space filling curves
Etc.
You didn't answer the question.
But either way, if this is as revolutionary as you say it is, I highly recommend you either:
a) get it written up as a paper and published
b) sell the patent to some big company
quasicrystal composed only of platonic solids up to the eight dimension
that seems like a lot of fancy words without any meanings if you ask me
for one, platonic solids are by definition 3-dimensional
rather than posting huge walls of links and technoblabble on discord without further elaboration
(also, iirc conway didnt construct the convex uniform polychora, but rather showed that they were the only ones that existed?)
(I believe he did discover the grand antiprism, but I think that's about it)
admittedly, it's uncited, but wikipedia corroborates my claim
though apparently the proof of completeness was due to MĂśller, not Conway-Guy
rather, Conway-Guy simply enumerated them and demonstrated some basic properties
and either way, I don't see that you're doing any actual mathematics
you seem to be mashing shapes together, which is nice exploration and all
but I haven't seen any, like, mathematical work
you threw out a bunch of buzzwordy terminology, but none that's actually used substantially in the fields involved (geometry, geometric topology, algebraic geometry, algebraic topology)
and I don't see any, like, theorems or claims or statements you've proven about your construction
just that "I made a thing"
and it's great to make things - concrete examples of geometry are quite interesting, and a great opportunity to explore mathematics in a physical manner - but I think you're greatly overestimating the impact and interesting qualities of your work, and it's bordering on mysticism, a la numerology.
but who knows? maybe you're the Cantor to my British Academia, and in a decade, graduate students will be studying your honeycomb constructions
somehow, though, I doubt it, considering I struggle to see why what you're doing is interesting or relevant.
I don't mean this to discourage you, but perhaps don't toot your own horn with such grandiose statements - or, if you do, do it to publishers/big pharma companies rather than to a random math discord.
Trust me, if this actually does have substance, it'll be better for you - and the world - if you communicate it through the conventional avenues for groundbreaking work.
and work on your presentation cause like⌠I have no idea what youâre talking about youâre just saying words
Yeah, perhaps if you explained it using the typical terminology and presentation of the field (or even, you know, mentioned what field your results belonged to), it'd be easier to understand your thesis.
(I'm not trying to gatekeep you or say "if you don't understand the fancy words used by mathematicians, you can't possibly make contributions"; but the fancy words are standardized for a reason: mathematicians understand them and there's no ambiguity.)
(Sadly, that's not the case for the terminology you're using. If you can find some alternate way to explain your findings, then go ahead! But clearly, what you've done above is not adequate; I can't parse any concrete claims, theorems, proofs, or hints at broad relevancy.)
I'll ping you here because while you should read everything that's being said, this is administrative and thus you have to read it. @finite turtle if you're going to pursue your stuff further without following the recommendations of Namington and Sascha, from now on you are to do it in #chill
I explained the constructs using proper mathematical lexicon. And no, Platonic solids (regular polyhedra) are not restricted to just the 3rd dimension. You are correct, I am just putting shapes together, these shapes however do share relevance to subatomic structures and crystal growth patterns. The mathematics behind these constructs Iâve shared and explained with mathematical lexicon rather then equation.
Most people donât even know what a tetrahedron is
Sad
It can be a difficult task to estimate the educational background and retention rate of those that view your works. Especially given the retention rate of modern kind is less then that of a nat. speaking this in a simply stupid guide form would astronomically lengthen the explanation into something nobody would read.
I enjoy sharing my works on social media and chatting with others doing similar work.
This is a way for me to connect and meet new people interested in similar subjects, so I will continue to do so.
Sure Iâll do it in #chill
Tell me whatâs wrong with my explanation please âThis space-filling honeycomb, In Isometric Projection, produces the Rhombitrihexagonal Tiling Pattern.
The matrix is a truncated variant of the Cantic Cubic Honeycomb. It is a uniform matrix composed of tessellated Cuboctahedrons, Square Prisms & Semitruncated Rhombic Dodecahedrons.â
~ Discovery by Abyssal Dionysus ~
Info - Learn more
All the links I posted on words I used above
Showing each component of the matrix individual
Why is there so much negativity towards this?
lol
Read Namington's post from earlier
Also listing stuff like "data compression with space filling curves" as an application of your work is an obvious sign of crankery
He spread the same stuff on Kik as well and even accredited his work to the works of some crank physicist.
@finite turtle this is an administrative order, from now on only chill
k
should i learn about topology before i start trying to learn about algebraic geometry? i just wanna get somewhat of an appreciation of it because it seems important
I think so
AG doesn't actually involve any topology, the zariski topologies are fake
cofinite? more like costupid
wait fuck costupid would mean smart fuck fuck
gg shamrock
So I know the Zariski topology is there but how often do you do things with it?
honestly getting to know an âuglyâ topology in the wild (in this case: non-hausdorff) is like the only thing thatâd interesting me about alggeo
is this correct?
If $n$ is even, then $\delta c_n = \sum_{i=0}^n (-1)^i c_{n-1} = c_{n-1}$. Thus, for odd $n$, $c_n$ is a boundary, but for even $n$ it canât be, as that would violate $\delta^2 = 0$
Sascha Baer:
Let X be a locally compact, noncompact Hausdorff topological space and Xâ itâs one point compactification. Call such a space âcompactification symmetricâ if Xâ minus {p} is homeomorphic to X for any point p in Xâ.
What are the compactification symmetric spaces?
spheres?
X' doesn't have to be a sphere
at the minimum it can be any compact (connected) manifold, just remove a point to get an X that compactifies to it
Wait
Given any compact connected manifold, is M minus any point homeomorphic to M minus any other point?
Nice
Hello
I feel like there should be a proof that there exists no field structure on R^3 that respects R in the usual way as a subfield, starting by the fact that there is no topological group structure on S^2. I can't quite make it work, any idea? (I want to induce a group structure on S^2 via the multiplication, but actually making multiplication a map S^2 x S^2 -> S^2 doesn't always work, so I want to prove there is something homotopic to it.
Is there some intuitive notion of "separability" hidden under the definition of a separable space as having a countable dense subset? I understand the notions of separability supposed to be captured by say like separation of a set or separability axioms. Not sure what sort of separability is being mentioned here.
Thanks!
I'm have trouble with parts of this problem from Munkres:
I understand the cases for the horizontal line and the vertical line but how can I figure out diagonal lines? Just working on the case for one R_L x R_L should be enough for me to understand the problem.
Is R_l the topology generated by [a, b)?
Yes
@thorny flame if L is a straight line in the plane and it is not vertical, then for every real number a, there is exactly one (x,y) in L such that x = a. This gives a bijection L -> R (think projecting down to the x-Axis). When you send open sets in L through this bijection, what happens to them and how do they look like?
(What you do on the back-end level is you give R a topology by sending open sets from L to R through this bijection. This makes this topology on R homeomorphic to L and this topology is easy to describe)
ah ha! ok that comment kind of helped thank you. I drew a picture out if it helps someone who is stuck
Can we make a non-Hausdorff space Hausdorff by defining an equivalence relation such that x ~ y iff there exists a filter which converges to x and y
Yep, a space is Hausdorff iff no filter has two limits
And I guess the space you get is actually the Hausdorff reflection, but I'm not quite sure how to prove that
Would these definitions be correct?
N_x are neighbourhoods of x?
it's easier if u just write out in english what ur trying to say with those symbols
@vocal wharf Yes
@civic kraken I am aware but this helps in problem-solving much more (atleast for me). For me, the english definition seems to coincide with this, just double checking.
the first definition is fine, if the index set i is from is countable
the second i'm not sure đ¤
Secondly, is there any difference between metrizable and metric spaces?
a metrizable topology is one that is induced from a metric
but you may not know that metric
So I can use every result on general metric spaces on metrizable spaces?
and vice versa? (so long the result is not dependent on the choice of metric itself)
yea
So anyone has any idea about the second one?
actually in both statements you would at least need $x \in B_{i}$
Lochverstärker:
Yes hence the x subscript in B
so B_x_i means for me the set that contains x and is indexed to be i
ok, for the first line
that's not mentioned in second line?
because then i think it's fine, but it's a different definition of basis than what i'm used to and i cba to prove equivalence now
so someone else can comment
Yes B_i merely means sets indexed as i and not necessarily neighbourhoods of x
Ok so I get that the lower limit topology is strictly finer than the standard topology so it must contain open intervals like (a,b). However, how can I construct an open interval (a,b) from intervals of the form [a,b) using infinite unions and finite intersections?
take the union of [x, b) over all x between a and b
@thorny flame
$\cup_{x\in (a, b)} [x, b) = (a, b)$
Liquid:
ok so its like x is getting closer and closer to a but never actually touching it. So if we are on the R numbers then it should be an uncountable infinite union?
nah, you can do this with a countable union if you want, but in my case it is a uncountable one yeah
cause I was being lazy
@thorny flame unions of arbitrary cardinality are okay, but you could take x = a - 1/n if you wanted
^
Or x being all rational points in (a, b)
no but I like it better for some reason
haha
It feels like a thing that could generalize to separable spaces somehow
But you need an order to talk about lower limit
So idk
seperable metric spaces are at most the cardinality of the continuum
man infinity is freaking weird
đ
like everytime i think about it i'm like yeah but no but yeah ok i guess
and there are exactly continuum many of them
Wait what? That's wild
nah, not so much
Up to what notion of equivalence? Homeomorphism?
isometry
basically completions are unique
so you need to find the number of possible metrics on a countable set
And your completion is the completion of the dense subset, got it
and thats the same as the number of maps from N to R
and there are exactly continuum many such maps
that gives you an upper bound
what is continuum?
Oh yeah, makes sense
Cardinality of the real line
Or the real line itself
Depending on context
yeah
is that just the Card of reals?
Yee
oooo ok
all compact metric spaces are seperable
so there are exactly continuum many compact metric spaces
(there is an easy lower bound)
(at least for isometry)
haha this is a train of thought I've been talking about for a bit
I should probably stop sharing it lol
It's neat
I guess something interesting would be showing a lower bound for homeomorphism
I never really learned about metric spaces, just went straight to general topology
for isometry you just look at 2 point spaces
I'm taking a metric geometry class rn
so I've been thinking about metric spaces quite a bit
I'm thinking about subsets of R^n
for a homeomorphism lower bound you can probably do some trivial stuff with connected components
hmm
That seems plausible
I would be surprised if there were countably many homeomorphism classes of subsets of R^n
haha why not something in between
đ
yeah you can look at finite disjoint unions of spheres
n spheres for different n
Concentric circles at the origin with irrational radii?
oh ok
Where do you put the spheres?
you can make a bijection to binary expansions
And stay seperable?
in a funny way
Sure
Oh you mean like countable disjoint unions of S^n
no, thats finite
I think youre idea of concentric spheres is good
S^\infty is compact, right?
no
I don't think about the infinite sphere very much
it's not
haha
Why doesn't the binary expansion trick work?
Convert 0 to 0 and 1 to Z in homology
Basically
cause each space only has a finite number of spheres
Why?
cause they are disjoint
Oh I mean you can't embed it in R^n
But it's still separable
And I think it's still a metric space
and a compact space has a finite number of connected components
Sorry, were you were working on separable metric space homeomorphism classes or R^n subsets homeomorphism classes?
I was saying it would work for the first
Ohhh
Sorry
Mb
This is probably dumb, but would it be useful to think about the cantor set? Doesn't every compact metric space show up there somehow? I'm talking about things I don't understand, sorry
Maybe you're thinking of the hilbert cube?
đ
Ah I just checked Wikipediaâ˘
"any compact metric space is a continuous image of the Cantor set"
That's what I was thinking of
But I don't see how to apply it here
It gives an upper bound but not a useful one I think
Like R^R
so if we can find a countable number of disjoint compact subsets of the plane, we can do something
not disjoint
i mean not homeomorphic
and actually there is an easy way to do this
I'll draw a picture
Can't you do n circles in a line?
I was thinking you take a circle and put n chords in it
oh cool
If you put the chords in a certain way at least
and then you make a line of the circles with n chords in it
Every chorded circle is homotopy equivalent to n circles touching at a point, for some n, which might be bigger than the number of chords
and have the circles get smaller
and do the trick with bijecting onto the binary expansions
it's not too hard
I think I get it
Please do, I thought I did but then realized I didn't
Again
Oh I think I have an idea
Put countably many touching circles in [0,1]
Getting smaller
Take a binary sequence
yeah
Put a point in the middle of the nth circle if there's a 1 in nth spot
same idea
Are those always not homeomorphic? I think so
I believe something like this works
Cool!
Yee, I got it
But imagine there is space between the n and n+1st
Okay so I don't think my example works
Because you can move around the points
They aren't ambiently homeomorphic
But if you have infinitely many, you can pull them all out into the plane
Can you give it again?
Probably
Just un-bend them and move the endpoints
Anyways
The endpoints of the chords/arcs line up
Yeah
So you put a bunch of them in a row
With a small amount of space seperating them
So that the infinite amount of them are contained in the unit box
Yup
(you need to add in a single point to make them compact, but whatever)
The nth one having n chords?
Yeah
And then you choose a subspace of that
Where a particular binary expansion tells you whether the nth one is there or not
I think that works
Can you draw a picture?
Because you can tell the circles apart
But it's not a disjoint union
No I suck at drawing lol
Yee
Next level of the question would be: can you do it on the line
But I need to get back to other things
Ty for the fun topology problem
Yeah, ttyl
Are these two proofs correct?
Hi, I just started my topology course and I'm having troubles in proving that three topologies are the same generated by three metrics: 1st one being euclidean, 2nd one $d_s\left(a,b\right) = \sum_{i=1}^{n}|a_i-b_i|$ and third one: $ d_m\left(a,b\right) = max_i |a_i-b_i|$. The book says it's because three inequalities, which I don't understand why make the topologies equal: $d_e \leq \sqrt{n} d_m, d_m \leq d_s, d_s \leq \sqrt{n} d_e$. Could someone help me understand and write a proof sketch why those are equal?
Godel:
What is the criterion by which we understand that two topologies are equal?
Union of all open sets made by those metrics are the same?
More that the open sets are exactly the same
I suppose we need to show inclusions like every ball d_s is in d_m and vice versa?
If you know what finer/coarser topology means
I think that the inequalities show that d_e is coarser than d_m and d_m is coarser than d_s and d_s is coarser than d_e
So they must all be the exact same
QuickMaffs:
I didn't think equivalent metrics meant they generated the exact same open sets, I thought it just meant they gave the same cauchy sequences
maybe I'm conflating open sets with open balls actually, since same radius open balls with different metrics are different open sets but doesn't necessarily mean they have to coincide in that sense I guess
Open balls are the basis elements in a metric topology. They generate the metric topology. Open sets are elements in the topology. (taking the terminology from Munkres)
gotcha, yeah that makes sense
Not sure if that's what you meant, but $\lim_{n \to \infty} p_n = p $ is equivalent to any ball B centered at p contains all points $p_1, p_2, \dots $ besides countable many
Godel:
@chrome dew (bilipshitz) equivalence implies homeomorphism trivially
I didn't think equivalent metrics meant they generated the exact same open sets, I thought it just meant they gave the same cauchy sequences
equivalent metrics also generate the same topology, Iâm pretty sure. but if you have two metrics that generate the same topology that doesnât necessarily mean they are equivalent (e.g. you can equip â with a bounded metric that generates the same topology as the standard one).
Terminology varies. Sometimes authors use "strongly/weakly equivalent" to distinguish between homeomorphisms and bilipschitz equivalences.
and sometimes they just use "equivalent" to mean one of these, and they are consistent with that choice.
not quite sure which channel to put this but since I (might) need it for diffgeo Iâll put it here
letâs say I have a closed injective curve in â². by JCT I know that it has a well-defined interior (a bounded open set whose boundary is the curve). is the following claim true:
if for any two points on the curve, the line connecting them lies in the closure of the interior, then the interior is convex
I know the converse is true cause the closure of a convex set is convex
should be true i think
pick any two points in the interior and connect them with a straight line
No, take ([0,1]^2\{(0,a), 0<a<1})\{(1,a), 0<a<1} in [0,1]^2
hm that doesnât have a closed curve as its boundary though
or, well,
it doesnât fit into the description of what I have Iâm failing to put it in words rn
plus it does actually have convex interior? it just doesnât satisfy the assumptions
I defined it
Oh you mean smth like jordan th ?
JCT is the jordan curve theorem
Ok
if you have a closed injective curve c in â², then â²\im(c) has a unique bounded connected component, which I termed the interior of the curve
anyway Iâm not even sure if I need this
but I think what ann said is correct
you can take two points in the interior, take the line passing through them, and extend the lines in both directions until they hit the boundary. then the two points have a straight line connecting them which lies in the set+boundary, and since straight lines are uniquely defined by two points this is the same line as before
In R^2, I think it's true for bounded sets
which was part of the condition
How could I prove that two continuous functions f,g; S^2 -> S^1 x S^1 are always homotopic?
nvm, finally did it
just need to show that any continuous function f: S^2 -> S^1 x S^1 is homotopic to a constant function
For a locally finite cover, is it okay if there exists a such that all of its neighbourhoods have a non-empty intersection with no elements in the cover? This would not violate the locally finiteness of the cover right? Only when all neighbourhoods of x have a non-empty intersection with infinite number of elements in the cover?
that violates the "cover" condition
because then a is not in the union of the open sets
Thank you!
Does this seem correct? I am not particularly sure about how I arrived at the numbering
you canât start with âfor each integer nâ
because that assumes countability of U
but otherwise the argument works out
How about saying. Take U. Find B_n. Index U to be n. The indexing is unique?
Like this right?
the indexing isnât unique, actually. you can have multiple basis elements in the same U
however, the indexing is well-defined (in the sense that different sets will never get the same index)
Oh yes true true. I should have proved the converse then. n = m \implies U_n = U_m
QuickMaffs:
Does the reasoning over here make sense? Particularly, I am confused about the injection I have built and whether the use of min lets me make an injection.
(The idea is to partition R^2 in 1 by 1 squares )
I'm becoming aware that (pre)sheaves are a kind of natural pair to manifold structures, in the sense that "attach an algebraic structure to open sets" is similar in spirit to "attach homeomorphisms to R^n to open sets". But why do algebraic geometers care so much about the roots of polynomials? Is it just historical, or is there some deep geometric (or algebraic/categorical) reason why the roots of polynomials are things we should care about?
Iâm trying to understand what this question is exactly asking from me. In particular, I donât understand what the function from $H_n(X; \Z/p\Z) \to \ker{\dots}$ is supposed to do. In particular, isnât the function inside the ${ }$ injective?
Sascha Baer:
@burnt mirage varieties are just the historical setting to work on, but in general schemes of finite type over a nice ring (which is what polynomials are) are nice objects to work with
I don't know if you think that's restrictive, but it's similar to asking that manifolds have charts onto R^n as opposed to R^infty
let me maybe be more explicit, I don't know how comfortable you are with these things.
assume our scheme is affine, Spec R -> Spec k
I have no clue what a scheme is and wiki just makes me surer of that, but I'm trying to figure out the intuition here
that is, R is a k-algebra
finite type is just asking that R is finitely generated as a k-algebra
that is, that it's the quotient of the polynomial ring k[x1,...,xn]
the objects of study in schemes are algebras
its what you get when you map a ring to another ring
Quotient of the polynomial ring in the same way as a clifford algebra is the quotient of a free algebra? modding out all but finitely many of the higher-degree elements
you don't need a further finiteness restriction like that
just k[x1, ..., xn]/I for some ideal I
by the isomorphism theorem
you just go to town on the arbitrarily high-degree elements by subtracting elements of the ideal
no need
degree is fine
it's fine to be infinite dimensional as a k-module
the point is guess is that scheme maps are morally ring maps k->R, that is, rings R with the structure of k-algebras, and asking them to be finitely generated algebras is just asking them to be polynomial rings k[x1,..., xn]/I
I think I'll need a bit [a lot] more time before I get comfortable with that idea, but one possible idea I had for the motivation behind varieties was that most geometric objects could be expressed as varieties
a circle is x^2-y^2-1 = 0, ditto for higher-dimensional spheres; you can take finite unions and arbitrary intersections, allowing you to build e.g. squares and cubes and whatnot, right?
geometric object usually means of finite type, sure
and in a sense the theory of varieties studies how this construction attaches algebraic meaning to geometric ideas, and what can be done with these constructions
it's a natural condition
I haven't been weaned off of finite-dimensional things yet ;~;
but is this a proper motivation for studying varieties? studying geometric objects like circles insofar as they're algebraic sets generated by polynomials
sure
they arent as restrictive as it seems
see GAGA
so that complex analytic spaces are actually really close to being complex varieties
ok, this is great
my initial mental image of a variety was some set of points or a curve in C, which left me really confused as to why people liked doing this stuff...
C is dimension 1 as a complex variety
so smaller (closed) varieties are just finite sets of points, though you do have open sets
a better image is complex analytic spaces in C^n
or better CP^n
but even studying analytic open subsets inside C is quite rich
maybe you haven't seen much of riemann surfaces yet
only riemannian manifolds
I guess the takeaway is that polynomials seem boring, but observe that vector spaces being geometrically boring doesn't stop differential geometry from existing
@midnight jewel H_{n-1}(X) may have p-torsion, so your thing may have a kernel. They aren't telling you what the function is but the point of the problem is to find/prove existence of functions which make it work
riemann surfaces are just the most general spaces in which you can do (single-variable) complex analysis?
And yeah RS sound super dank
yeah, i'm pretty interested in learning about this stuff now!
thanks @urban anvil !
At one point in time I was considering going through Forster but never got around to it
Kinda still wanna do it though
Though atm I've got a lot lmao
I tried to take a course on RS but it was above my level and I had enough other things to do so I dropped it
also: today we learned about the christ awful symbols
the name is fitting, I agree
@midnight jewel for the problem you posted earlier, use universal coefficients for homology, then a long exact sequence from the Tor functor
And that does it
I donât know anything of what you just said
Do you know the universal coefficient theorem?
I only barely understand the notation
we pretty much only just started on this stuff
đ¤ˇ
he introduced exact sequences last week
I'm not sure how else to do this
well I was gonna brute-force my way through explicitly finding the maps
but the objects are fucking hard to understand
Good luck
I mean the first map is pretty clear
The last thing is really Tor(H_{n-1}, Z/(p))
Iâm gonna wait till after next class
maybe weâre learning about these things now and the exercise was a bit premature
Hopefully
This is definitely a universal coefficients problem
I think this is the intended solution
lemme check if the theorem came up in bredon before that question
weâre technically following that book but Iâm kinda ignoring it
I donât like it that much

so we had the statement of this theorem here, but not the proof yet
and a bit after that is this, right before the exercise
That's not universal coefficients
that last bit looks kinda similar
yea in that case itâs not here because thatâs all there is in the âhomological algebraâ chapter before this exercise
so is this in some way supposed to be obvious now or what?
Maybe not
I can barely understand what it even says
I swear to god this is all so much above me
And in Tor(A, B), if A is free abelian then Tor(A, B) is 0
I guess one way to learn to swim is to get dropped into the ocean and be told thereâs an island 50km to the west
except they forgot to tell me about the island
Notice $Z \otimes H_{n-1}$ is $H_{n-1}$
yea I donât really know anything about the tensor product either
Liquid:
but he just said donât worry and just treat it as âthe coefficients come from there insteadâ
And the induced map will be exactly multiplication by p
we did so little in algebra I feel like
Oof I fucked up actually
dw I didnât even notice
I was computing Tor(Z/(p), H_{n-1})
Iâm not really following anyway
This is more for me tbh
to be quite honest
(also, the non-zero integer n is a prime p in the book)
Okay this actually isn't too bad @midnight jewel
I was wrong
You basically consider the chain complex C_n(X)
And take the tensor with the exact sequence
the one from the top?
You have
aight
But yeah, this gives you a short exact sequence of chain complexes
and C_n(Xââ¤) = C_n(X)?
look I donât know what the tensor product actually does
Look it up lol
I donât understand it
So here's the construction
the notation is all sorts of confusing me
You take the free abelian group on A and B
And quotient out by stuff
One sec
Here
we were just said to treat Î_n(X)âG as having coefficients in G instead of â¤
and that was it
Sure
That's fair
And if you take coefficients in Z
Well that's what you're doing already
So it's the same group
You should learn this though
You should definitely know this much if you're learning Algebraic Topology
yea it wasnât prerequisite
tensor product is covered in the commutative algebra class
which is parallel and equally optional
and Iâm not taking it
That's weird
It should be covered in a abstract Algebra class
Do you know what a module is?
barely. we covered them but with basically no detail
Oof
like we did the definitions, and then the theorem about finitely generated modules over PIDs and how to decompose them
and that was it
spent about ⌠4 hours on the topic?
Eh
right at the end of algebra 1
That's not so good
and algebra 2 was exclusively about galois theory
yea I passed algebra with perfect marks but I donât feel like I learned anything there
the prof was a bit peculiar
I just checked a few years back and yea basically modules arenât really part of that course
werenât with that teacher either
and I know that prof, heâs good
so yea basically modules are covered in commutative algebra, which is explicitly not a prereq for algtop
theyâre covered at the same time
and com algebra also only requires a basic course in ring theory as its prerqs
for alg top he writes:
You should know the basics of point-set topology.
Useful to have (though not absolutely necessary) basic knowledge of the fundamental group and covering spaces (at the level covered in the course "topology").
Some knowledge of differential geometry and differential topology is useful but not strictly necessary.
Some (elementary) group theory and algebra will also be needed.
That's gross
Tbh I learned all the alg top I know on my own
So probably us undergrad classes are just as bad
I mean itâs a one year course I assume theyâre gonna be able to squeeze in some catchup stuff
yea so about that
they were supposed to be part of the linalg course but we ran out of time and had to skip the topic, but it was only gonna be a short intro at the very end anyway.
I watched the lectures about them from the previous year on my own, but I didnât do any of the exercises so my understanding is pretty rusty
but at least in the finite dim case they seemed pretty straightforward tbh
Yeah, vector spaces are the easy case
Cause you're just dealing with free shit
You should do problems from dummit and Foote
I don't think the explicit construction is actually important, they just have a really useful universal property and satisfy a bunch of good rules
One useful way of thinking about tensor products is that they're a way to transfer operations on the ring to operations on the module. Like, R/I (Ă)_R M is iso to M/IM, and R[x] (Ă)_R S is iso to S[x]. Obviously this is incomplete because it doesn't cover the tensor products of two modules but still
@sleek thicket he's thinking about abelian groups, not modules
Oh sorry lol
So I think the construction is alright if you're only doing the abelian group case
I stand by what I said about the universal property though
Eh, the construction is still kind of gross
I kinda like free constructions tbh
I like them because they let you get exactly what you need and nothing more
But once I've done that I don't care about the actual thing itself
Fair
when I use tensor products I'm just applying abstract properties 90% of the time, but maybe that's because I haven't done enough with them
Apparently theres a k theory and characteristic classes class the same time as when I teach
Kill me
Preemptively fail all the students?
I'm taking an AG course this year instead of an AT one (which gets to characteristic classes in the third quarter), and I really wish I was doing AT đ
Schedule conflicts are the worst
@sleek thicket oh shit I was wrong
About the timing?
The k theory class is next semester
Yesssss
đĽ đĽ
Have fun
I've been thinking about a topology thing and not making much progress
Give k^2 and k^2\{(0,0)} the zariski topology
Are they homeomorphic?
Obviously not if k is finite, but what about if k is algebraically closed? If k = the complex numbers?
They aren't isomorphic as varieties, but what if we just think about the topological structure e
And relatedly, is there a homeomorphism k^2{(0,0)< which sends the punctured coordinate axes to two lines whose closures in k^2 don't intersect?
Should not the last be false? If uncountable then not second countable and hence not metrizable?
are you saying that no uncountable space is metrizable ???
@wanton marsh Uncountable coupled with discrete topology
i'm not very familiar with "second countable" and it looked like you were saying uncountable implies not second countable which then implies not metrizable
so it's the second implication that's wrong ?
Oh yeah sorry I confused two notions. Lemme recorrect
you can give any set with the discrete topology the discrete metric d(x,y) = 1 for xâ y
regardless of cardinality
Oh nvm yeah true. I misinterpreted the claim If finite then metrizable <=> discrete as If metrizable then finite <=> discrete
Hi I do not quite understand the definition of partial derivates on manifolds
Why is the inverse of the coordinate mapping inside the derivative and not outside?
Like why is it D(f \circ x^{-1})(x(p)) and not D(f)(x^{-1} \circ x(p))
Nevermind figured it out was being silly
i'm trying to prove that given a Lie group $G$ with a bi-invariant metric, the geodesics starting at $e$ are the one-parameter subgroups. my plan is to show that one-param subgroups are geodesics so uniqueness gives us the result. i need to show that for left-invariant vector fields $X$ and $Y$, $\langle X, \nabla_YY\rangle = 0$, and i wanted to get at it by the definition of the levi-civita connection
\begin{equation*}
\begin{split}
2\langle X, \nabla_Z Y\rangle = Z\langle X, Y\rangle + Y\langle X, Z\rangle - X\langle Y, Z\rangle\
+\langle Z, [Y, X]\rangle + \langle Y, [Z, X]\rangle - \langle X, [Y, Z]\rangle
\end{split}
\end{equation*}
since if you set $Z = Y$ you get the $\langle X, \nabla_YY\rangle$ on the left. im not sure how to simplify the right though; i assume i need to use the left-invariance of the vector fields at some point, since without making assumptions about the vector fields i just get that $\langle X, \nabla_YY\rangle = \langle X, \nabla_YY\rangle$ which isn't helpful. do any of yall have any insight that could point me
in the right direction?
https://i.imgur.com/Bs6VDA0.png yo wtf is even going on here
well i got 3 lmao
i know the n(n+1)/2 is somehow encoding information about "we have 1 vector, then 2, then..." and terminates at n vectors
regarding 4, you can treat an element of GL(n) as a set of n basis vectors for R^n (since the elements have to be invertible). by changing them into an orthongal basis, you get an orthogonal matrix back, and i guess the R^n(n+1)/2 part has to do with the way you get to that matrix
yea that's excatly what i'm thinking
the O(n) part is clear
the idea is very similar to 3
yea
is $\frac{\mathrm{D}}{\mathrm{d}t}$ standard notation for the covariant derivative casue this seems exceptionally ugly
Sascha Baer:
yeah it's very standard
you get used to it haha
also if anyone is wondering, i solved my problem; you can use the left-invariance of the metric and vector fields to show that the inner product of left-invariant vector fields is constant. then differentiating along the vector fields gives you zero, so the first three terms in that koszul formula go to zero
Is it true that if d(x,y) is discrete metric on X and d' is an equivalent metric to d then there exists a>0 such that d'(x,y) >= a for all x=/=y in X?
should be, right?
but don't know to justify that
hmm, also I'm not about one thing which might be slowing me down: if we take any x, we can always find a ball such that its open, right? Not sure if my wording is correct, but if we take B(x,a), where a<1 then we have an open set?
Okay, so if d' is equivalent to d then md(x,y) <= d'(x,y) <= Md'(x,y). I had to show that d'(x,y) >= m for some m>0, so it's pretty much definition? Cause for x=/=y md(x,y) is just m?
Thanks, although it feels like cheating since this definition wasn't defined on my topology course, only in the analysis one haha
yup
Oh, also, there was this question that asked whether in Q \subset R every open set is closed. I'm not sure if my reasoning is correct - I think only empty set and Q are open so they also need to be closed. (We can't have a ball in any point in this space because its in R) Is that right?
There are open sets other than those two
And in fact there are other clopen sets
Look more carefully at the definition of the subspace topology
I get how every point in closed, cause it's a point, and after your answer I feel like every point also might be open, but I have completely no clue how can that be possible.
it means there exists r such that B(0,r) \subset {0}
?
Im using definition taht $U \subset X$ is open if $\forall x \in U \exists r>0 B\left(x,r\right) \subset U$
Godel:
in this case U = {0}, so there is only one element x, being 0
Right
but no matter how small r is there will also be another rational
Yup
Also, that definition only works if you have a metric. Do you know the definition of the subspace topology? If your class hasn't gotten to that nvm
So if we think of Q as a subspace of R, what would it mean for {0} to be open?
Your proof above does work, I just think this is a better way to go about it
it means that its either in the intersection of finite open sets or in the sum of any open sets?
Q is a subspace of R, right?
When is a subset of a subspace open in that subspace?
If X is a subspace of Y, and U is a subset of X, then U is open in X if there is an open set V of Y such that U = X intersect V
This is the definition of the subspace topology
Anyways, we proved that point sets aren't open in Q, but there could still be more complicated sets which are closed and open
Can you think of any possible examples?
Wait... we proved that point sets aren't open in Q?
you mean that arguemnt that you cant take a ball
because there is alwasya a rational near
Exactly
I thought that if a set is closed and open then it implies its open
and implies its closed
That's true
So point sets aren't both closed and open in Q
Because they aren't open
I'm thinking about a set in Q like (0,1]
its closed beacuse of 1
yeah should also be open near 0
That's not really how open and closed sets work
yes
Nope
but only elements of Q
It doesn't contain a ball around 1
(0, 1] is a a good example of a set which is neither closed nor open
But we're looking for the opposite of that
any (a,b) should be open I think
I agree
but how is that closed?
How is it indeed
What do you mean by (a, b)?
That's not a subset of Q, right?
Really we should be looking at (a, b) intersect Q
Yes, my bad
[0,1] intersect Q
yeah, any [a,b] for any a,b in Q
Ah, but we can be even more general
and whole spcae
Why are we restricting a and b to Q?
oh yeah, it can also be irrational
No, we can't - we can't take a ball in center a if its irrational, right?
the center has to be in Q
That's true
But all we need is that the complement of [a, b] intersect Q is open in Q
And that means that for any rational x outside of [a, b], there is a ball centered at x contained in the complement of [a, b] intersect Q
Is that true?
yes
So [a, b] intersect Q is closed in Q, for any a, b in R
And (a, b) intersect Q is open in Q, for any a, b in R
And you said there ARE closed open sets we haven't mentioned yet?
There are!
Well I didn't say we haven't mentioned them yet
Just that we didn't notice they were both closed and open
Think about how we could use the thing I posted above about the intervals
handwavy xD
we put a ball in any x in Q in interval above and we notice theres always a radius such taht the ball is still in the interval because there are still continuum rationals between x and a or b. And also complement of [a,b] intersection Q is open so the interval itself is closed
I gotta say, you helped me understand some concepts while doing that, thank you so much. So far I don't really get topology although I had only 2 lectures, it's for sure the hardest course I've taken so far.
In this problem I have to determine if the set $\mathbb{R}^2$ without $\left{ \left(2^{-n}, 1\left) : n \in \mathbb{N}^*\right}$
Godel:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
With this metric:
And I thought about one arguemtn for which I think it isnt open, I'll send a pic
wait, nvm, my thing doesn't work
you havenât actually said what that set is supposed to be
what do you want to show?
that R^2 without (2^{-n}, 1) for n =1,2,... is/isn't open with this metric
how do I type '' in latex?
\
you can just use dollar signs to invoke math mode
if thatâs the question
like this: $x^2 + 1 = 0$
I may have misunderstood the question
I meant the âhow do I type in latexâ one
oh
yeah I got it, but I remember there was a command for \ in math mode
doesnt matter
whatâs $\N^*$?
Sascha Baer:
oh, itâs \setminus
and like⌠\textbackslash in text mode I think
anyway lemme take a look
$d_e$ is the euclidean metric?
Sascha Baer:
yes
aight so thatâs the SCNF/paris metric then
so if they lay on different lines going through (0,0) we add euclidean distances form each of the points
do you know how open balls look in this metric?
its like lines ending with 'normal' balls?
if the radius is biugger than dthe distance to (0,0)
if Iâm understanding you correctly, not quite
so for example letâs say $x = (2,0)$, which points have distance 1 from it?
Sascha Baer:
its just going to be from (1,0) to (3,0)
yea
it would be an euclidean ball of radius 3 around the origin, and the line from (1,0) to (5,0)
Iâll spare you the drawing
nvm hope you didnt see that
donât worry I did
but I get it, issa ball and a line to the right
yea okay, so now take a point in your set
it is yea. the interesting points are those which are collinear with one of the (1,2^-n)
for all others you can just take like, a ball of radius (so that it reaches halfway to the origin)
or sth like that
and then you can argue about those that are collinear
and you should be able to give a description of an open set surrounding each point that way
yeah co if they are colinearm only one point that was excluded from our set R^2 will be on the line, so we can calculate the distance to it and tkae that as raidus right?
yea
or half that, but it doesnât particularly matter
I like giving myself a bit of âroomâ
lol
even if itâs not necessary
ok thanks for the help:)
np
@dim meadow Iâve been able to solve the exercise btw
I saw through the matrix after we did the proof of the snake lemma in class (we had seen the statement but I didnât really grasp it before seing the proof)
itâs kinda interesting, I think these (algtopo and diffgeo) are the first subjects Iâve had that I both
enjoy and struggle with
it was usually one or the other
struggle with â not interested in it
but hey, Iâd be in the wrong degree if I didnât want a challenge eh
That's true
Did you tensor in the end and take the induced long exact sequence?
And mod out by the kernel for the first one, and restrict to the image for the last one?
yea
I didnât really understand what you meant with the tensoring when you said it but it made sense once I realized what I actually needed to apply the snake lemma
I gotta work through that proof again tho
gotta get used to diagram chasing
How would I approach this: "show that any nonempty open subset of an irreducible topological space is dense and irreducible"?
Say the space is X and the open subset is Y. A proof for irreducibility using the definition would suppose Y is written as a union of proper subsets Y_1 and Y_2, each of which is closed in Y
Being closed in Y means each $Y_i$ is of the form $Y \cap C_i$ for some subsets $C_i$ closed in X
Auvera:
So I get $Y= Y_1 \cup Y_2 = (Y \cap C_1) \cup (Y \cap C_2) = Y \cap (C_1 \cup C_2)$, which says Y is contained in $C_1 \cup C_2$
Auvera:
if your open set wasnt dense, then the closure isn't everything, so closure plus complement is a finite union
so set isnt irreducible
How would one go about proving that the closure of a topological group subgroup is itself a subgroup?
@urban anvil that makes sense. How do I prove irreducibility though?
@signal venture what's the closure of the union of two sets?
The union is already closed
All good đ
So suppose we have U = Z_1 union... union Z_n
All closed in U
Or just U = Z union Z'
What do we know about Z and Z' as subsets of X?
I guess you already said this above
We get closed subsets C and C' of X such that Z = C intersect U and Z' = C' intersect U
Right?
Yup
So then U = (C intersect U) union (C' intersect U)
Yeah?
What can we do with that?
Well I factored out U but I'm not sure if there's an alternative
That's what I was getting at
So U = U intersect (C union C')
What's the relationship between U and C union C'?
Lol U is contained in the union. I did all this up there in my attempt at the problem đ
Omg I'm sorry
I didn't see that
Well you were almost there
Is the bright side
What does X look like?
Draw a venn diagram bunch of blobs representing the sets on paper
You have U, and C, and C'
How do we cover the bits outside the union of C and C' by a closed set?
Hmm. Take compliment of the interior of C union C'?
How do you know that contains it?
We know X\Int(C union C') = Cl(X \ (C union C')) = Cl(X \ C intersect X \ C')
Wait maybe I'm being dumb, give me a sec
Yeah I think this works
So that will contain X \ C intersect X \ C'
Nvm
You're right
This feels wrong to me
Oh it's because I made a typo
I wrote union instead of intersect
So this might be too small
You write X as (C union C') union (X\Int(C union C')). Both sets in the outer union are nonempty and closed
If an element isn't in C union C' then it's in the compliment of it, which is contained in X\Int(C union C')
You're saying X \ (C union C') is contained in X \ Int(C union C')?
Yes
Haha how come
It feels too general
We forgot about U
Like, pick and two closed C and C'
You can write X = C union C' union X\Int(C union C')
I think I see the issue
They need to be proper subsets
How do you know X\Int(C union C') is a proper subset of X?
Well if it were X then we get Int(C union C') is empty. Not sure what that implies
Well, the interior is the largest open subset of C union C'
So what would that imply about open subsets of C union C'?
The empty set is the only open subset
Oh wait U was contained in it, and it's open. I think it's assumed nonempty also
Oh yeah it should be
Yeah it is
There we go
And C union C' is also not X...?
Ah right lol
I'm too tired to be doing this haha. I think that's everything though
Well there's one more step
Since X is irreducible, either C or C' is all of X
And then C intersect U or C' intersect U is all of U
But besides that, you're done
Right, that makes sense
Thanks for the help! I'll go through this again from the beginning in the morning
Np. The core idea is pretty simple: if U is covered by closed sets of U, that lifts to a cover of U by closed sets of X, and then you add in the complement of U
U is dense already
so if you use that you get a cleaner proof
cover U by U-closed sets
their closure is a covering of X
Oh yeah, that's why I originally said "what's the closure of the union of two sets?"
I shouldn't try and help people with math while getting dinner
hmmm