#point-set-topology
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GL(2,R) is a Lie space
Gln(R) is a lie group
The proof I found for showing the nth homtopy group of n spheres is iso to the integers uses homotopy type theory
Is there a way to do it without type theory or is that how it’s done canonically
Lmao nobody ever uses homotopy type theory for that. I'd wager most topologists don't know homotopy type theory
There's a way using differential topology (Hopf degree theorem) and I think if you know that S^n is simply connected you can use Hurewicz?
they do it in the books by the freudenthal suspension theorem @gritty widget
definitely ignore homotopy type theory lol
Could anyone help proving this?
Prof gave us definition of fundamental class ONLY. with no further insight
So for example how do I determine fundamental class of sphere S^n ? I know it's supposed to be generator of Hn(S^n,Z) with some property, but idk any generators of Hn
no words on higher homology group generators either
I fucking hate classes like this
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3164063/is-a-function-x-times-y-to-z-continuous-iff-precomposition-with-continuous-f/3209266#3209266
Someone found a counterexample!
@lucid turret a generator of Hn(S^n, Z) is the identity S^n -> S^n
oh shit @dim meadow
@steel needle where do I find proof of this statement? somewhere in Hatcher?
sure
I mean it follows from say cellular homology
since there's only one top dimensional cell
or from simplicial homology noting that this map isn't 0
if you regard the first S2 as a simplex
well if I see S^n as CW complex and use CW complex homology all I know is that generators of its chain complex at n are at bijection with cells of dim n
i.e. there's one generator which we called the same we call our cell
Idk how I can see that from cellular homology is what I'm trying to say
I mean it's what you said about CW complex structure
that's how you compute cellular homology
But I honestly can't see why I can see the identity as a generator from the CW structure
an N-cell is an embedding from S^n
you're just saying who the N-cell is
through the identity map
ok according to my definiiton n-cell is just the interior of the n-ball we're attaching when we build CW complex
I have to show that ]0,1[ is homemorphic to the real number line, can I make it into ]-inf,0[ union 0 union ]0,inf[ using y=1/x but restrict it away from x=0?
if that makes any sense
I know there is a better way to do it, but i'm curious if that is allowed?
yeah @lucid turret
wait
ok i'm cheating a bit
but you can see spheres also as cells
it's maybe better to see it as a gluing of two 2-cells
given by the top and bottom hemispheres
<@&286206848099549185>
that's not gonna be continuous colen
but that's the idea
arctan is the usual function that you use
you can go for a rational function too
hmmm not seen arctan used
my book says some funky thing using abs or some log function
you can even use piecewise linear functions
Colen:

there are many homeomorphisms
yea, just these seem weird to me
1/x was my initial idea but thats only half the line
1/x + 1/(x-1) i think this should give you one
hmm
,w plot 1/x + 1/(x-1)
ye
How do you do the arctan one?
its not in my book sadly
]0,1[ can go to ]-pi,pi[ with y=(2x-1)*pi?
$\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\left(\frac{x}{\pi}+1\right)=y$
inverse
Colen:
you just need to come up with any monotone function that goes from -inf to inf in finite time
has to be monotone
:^)
is this right?
(1) {(r,θ):r>0} and (2) {(r,θ):r>1}
(1) maps from (r,θ) -> (r+1,θ) with inverse (r-1,θ)
Thus {(r,θ):r>0} -> {(r,θ):r>1}
Which is identical to {(r,θ):r>1}
there
they are the same length
it just looks a bit weird
who needs paint when you have desmos 
Yeah, just do a bunch of different configurations of that
yea think I have now, just was a bit confused on what it was asking. An example pic would've been nice
Nice
Oof it's actually trivial true
The space is star convex
@dire warren those 4 am fuckups though
Hello, I need some help on the following: We are given a 1 dimensional simplicial complex $\Gamma$ over a field K and are supposed to calculate $H_0(\Gamma)$. $H_0(\Gamma)$ is given as $Z_0(\Gamma)/B_0(\Gamma)$ with $Z_k(\Gamma)=ker \partial_k$ and $B_k(\Gamma)=Im(\partial_{k+1})$, where $\partial_k:C_k(\Gamma) \rightarrow C_{k-1}(\Gamma)$ and $C_k(\Gamma)=K-span{[\tau]:\tau\in\Gamma, dim \tau = k}$.
mathDE:
Quick Q, whats an example of an irreducible but connected topological space?
Ck(G) should be the span of the ones of dimension k, not the complement, right? @gritty widget
think about what the boundary (B) of a 1-simplex looks like
because that's what you're quotienting by
and think what a 0-cycle (Z) looks like
H0 has a very straightforward description
Yes excactly, - wasnt supposed to be a set minus at all. Sorry for the confusion.
The relative boundary of a 1 simplex is the two points spanning the simplex. What do you mean by a 0-cycle? Just one point?
All of them since $C_{-1}$ is just 0
mathDE:
yeah
therefore Z0/B0 is what
all the points
identifying the ones which are connected by lines
So Z0 are all points and B0 are all points which were boundaries in C1. But what exactly is the difference between H0 and B0 then?
B0 is Z-linear combinations of boundaries (pi - pj)
where pi and pj are connected by a line
H0 is a quotient of Z0/B0
which is gonna be Z-linear combinations of points, where those which are connected by a line are equal
@pliant dragon every irreducible space is connected? There'd be no way to split up your space into two disjoint open sets if every pair of open sets intersects
Ah ok thanks @steel needle
there's a very simple description of it
that I'm refraining from saying
because I don't wanna spoil it
but you should think about it
yes
you're never too sure 😄 ty
Btw do you think that the fact that R^3 \ (R^2 \ 2 disjoint open balls) has fundamental group of circle is obvious?
Or does it need additional commentary
it's clear, you can comment on a retraction that makes it obvious
where's an example of a non trivial loop there tho wait
oh wait I get it now
there we go
you have a wall with two holes in it lol
How can I show a cube without a boundary is homeomorphic to a sphere without a boundary? (In R3)
I'm thinking to show that they're both homeomorphic to R3 but unsure how to proceed
Let X be a metric space, and let C be it’s completion.
Is it true that a function f: X -> R can be extended to a continuous function F: C -> R iff for every c in C, there exists r > 0 such that the restricted function f|(B_r (c) intersect X) is uniformly continuous?
<@&286206848099549185>
whomst pungg in non questions channels 
I have a test in a few days so trying to clear some stuff up 
wlog we can assume the cube is (-1,1)^3
but i suppose you could just do a scaling on the radius
wlog?
without loss of generality
without loss of generality

gott ago fast
and then just construct the mapping by scaling linearly along each straight line from the center to the boundary
hmmm
wym?
My book says to use (-1,1) to the real line but idk how that applies to a cube
oh, the book suggests using the entire space as an intermediary?
sure that works then
if you have a homeo $\varphi : (-1,1) \to \bbR$ you can make a homeo $$\varphi^3: (-1,1)^3 \to \bbR^3$$ by applying $\varphi$ coord-wise
Ann:
$\varphi^3(x,y,z) := (\varphi(x), \varphi(y), \varphi(z))$
Ann:
coordinate-wise
(x,y,z) -> (f(x),f(y),f(z)) where f is a homeomorphism from ]0,1[ to the real line is what my book says
so that
but I just don't understand what that means really, like is the reasoning because you can stretch x, y and z out so that stretches the entire cube with them?
unsure on what is actually happening in the background
well
if h (or phi) is thought of as "stretching" then i guess yeah you could just say you're stretching the cube along each dimension
okay, and for the sphere we're just saying v/(1+|v|)?
mapping radially outwards?
I was thinking to change to spherical coordinates but don't think that really helps much
you can go spherical if you want actually
(r, phi, theta) -> (g(r), phi, theta)
where g: (0, +infty) -> (0,1) is a homeo
doesn't matter exactly what it is
only that it's a homeo
Ahh yea, that I like more. I've been using the polar, spherical and cylindrical tricks a lot
yeah those come in handy a lot
okay one last Q, I know we can't but what is the problem with just mapping everything to (0,0,0) and saying the same?
Like we can overlap sometimes but not like that?
Confuses me
yes. homeomorphisms are bijective (and the inverse must be continuous too)
thanks uwu
Topology question: Show interval I = [a,b] subset of the reals is compact... the notation alone gives us closed and bounded, does it not?
have you already proved closed and bounded subset of R^n => compact
~~ heine borel~~
we have the heine borel thm'
^
right... i was thinking so but didn't know if I was overlooking something
Does topology have any practical applications?
it allows you to drink coffee out of a dount
Coffee donut meme 
Does anyone have any references for infinite connected sums of manifolds?
@gritty widget you have any ideas?
I mean like a book where it's defined
The construction I was using was you construct a direct system whose ith term is the connected sum of the first i manifolds - the ball you glue the i+1st manifold on
True
But I think they're all diffeomorphic
Hmm
How would you get a cantor tree?
@gritty widget how would that work?
Can anyone please explain to me why the part in red is correct?
Is there any situation where we would consider simplicial or CW complexes over Δ-complexes?
I'm wondering if homology by Δ-complexes and singular homology are all you need for baby's first homology computations
I think CW is most common
Seems to be the most common way that a space is given to you
Simplicial complexes are kind of old school, I know it has the advantage over CW complexes that it's purely combinatorial, while CW isn't, but idk much about Delta complexes. I know you can triangulate spaces with way fewer simplices in the Delta case so I wonder if there's any real reason for simplicial complexes to exist anymore
🤷
yeah it feels like these are all mentioned just to respect the history of the subject
it just seems much faster in general to use delta complexes
wondering if we had a computer to do all these computations, when would it pick one way of gluing over the others?
Nah CW I think is the modern way of doing things
Second attempt:
Can anyone please explain to me why the part in red is correct?
is this from the field arithmetic book?
say u have a 2d planetary system on the surface of a torus. would this explain repulsion force?
I’m not convinced this is a coherent question. what is there to be explained about repulsion forces?
hmm
because
gravity attractss
but if it is in a closed surface than it can cause a repulsion effect
is this doable ona computer program?
yes, if the system is constrained, those constraints can be seen as forces acting against the “natural flow” of the particles
could this explain dark matter or somthing?
yes, you can model the equations of motion e.g. via lagrangian mechanics
why dont we see such simulation
how could this explain dark matter?
im a big math newbi
is ther a physics room?
and I guess in the math setting most closely related to analysis
not in this server cause this is a math server
let’s move to #multivariable-calculus tho cause it’s the most topical on this server
ok
@dire warren I've considered the definition yet couldn't understand.. I attached the def, if you'd like to take a look
@gritty widget Yeah, it is
ah ok
What’s the definition for compatible?
Sorry for all the screen shots, it's easier that way..
@vale lynx inverse limits aren't that bad
Draw a picture and it will make sense
Basically you have a map from X into the Cartesian product
Which should descend to a surjection onto the inverse limit
thanks, @dim meadow, I don't think inverse limits are bad, I'm rather new at this but I find it interesting.. My question is not regarding the inverse limit, it's about a part of a proof I attached few massages back
Oh, what was the question?
I think X itself must be viewed as a inverse system
With X_i = X for all i
And pi_ij = id
Then we have
That kind of reminds me of chain complexes
We then have
Pi_ji Phi_j = phi_i
For all i > j
So that phi_i^-1 (s_i) = Phi_j*-1 pi_ji^-1 (s_i) = phi_j^-1 pi_ji^-1 pi_ji (s_j) (by definition of inverse system, s_i = pi_ji (s_j)
Well now I’m stuck
I would like cancel the pi_ji^-1 and pi_ji
But
It doesn’t work that way..
Argh I’m so close
Ok, it's a little bit loose but I think the compatibility allows us to determine the the preimage of s_j by \theta_j is contained in the intersection
what do you mean?
It’s pi_ji phi_j = phi_i for all i < j
In that case this is settled
Let i < j. Then Phi_i^-1 (s_i) = phi_j^-1 pi_ji^-1 (pi_ji) s_j
Which in particular is a superset of phi_j^-1 (s_j) (because s_j is an element of of pi_ji^-1 pi_ji s_j)
Done
I'm not sure I got this line: Phi_i^-1 (s_i) = phi_j^-1 pi_ji^-1 (pi_ji) s_j
Did you get it from the compatibility def?
Err
s_i = pi_ji s_j from the definition of inverse system
And then the left hand part is just inverting this: Pi_ji Phi_j = phi_i
^ this one is from compatibility
All good?
Sorry, I'm kinda slow todaY..
Let's denote x_i=phi_i^-1(s_i).
then by the line: Phi_i^-1 (s_i) = phi_j^-1 pi_ji^-1 (pi_ji) s_j
after you cancel pi_ji^-1 pi_ji with each other, you get: phi_i^-1 (s_i)=phi_j^-1 (s_j)
meaning x_i=x_j.
How is it possible?
You can’t cancel
Them
In general s_j is an element of pi_ji^-1 pi_ji s_j
Note that the rhs is a set,
And pi_ji is the swt theoretic inverse, it is not the inverse function
So we can’t just cancel but we can conclude that phi_i^-1 s_i is a superset of phi_j^-1 (s_j)
ooooohhh..
I think I got it.
A bit convoluted of them to just throw it in the proof without any explanation
thanks very much
No prob!
Hello again
there's interesting algebraic topology exercises on graphs
The topic is called topological data analysis and you could look into that
for example the fundamental group has a very nice description
but for point set topology you probably won't find much near that background
it's a pretty self contained topic
I have experience in DFF networks and their variants
I heard sometimes topology can be embedded within these networks? Is there a nice way to visualize them? I can generate 2d and 3d shapes/objects/manifolds in a C++ program I made
My experience with these DFF networks is typically feeding data into them (data science)
and I will look into "topological data analysis" thank you
^that
it's the topology you get when you draw them inside some R^n
My english isn't very good with math
After some quick googling, this looks pretty cool:
https://arxiv.org/pdf/1710.04019.pdf
thanks for the suggestion
since Euclidean spaces are contractible it's pretty fun and easy to play around with homotopies on em
Theres a really trivial one that is sooo much fun to fuck w in desmos lol
https://www.desmos.com/calculator/4nz7qmv7te
I know the example here isn't actually a homotopy cause of the breaks but still it's a good teaching tool
a better example would be s^3 to sin(s), maybe change the step to 0.00001
hit the play button, change up the functions
there's PDE stuff that's more graphically amusing but this is nice too tbh lol
anyone know good educational tools for topology?
getting physical is neat, but anything specific even?
here's another one showing the transitive property
put in any functions you'd like
So I have been thinking of doing integration on some space X by using singular simplices,
first by defining a complex that would model (mapto) X. Then take the value of function f on X pulled back to the simplex on its barycenter. Then do the sum f_x*Dx, with f_x is value at barycenter of simplex x and Dx is a suitable measure on simplex x. Summing it over the simplices ala Riemann sum. Then further refining the model complex with barycentric subdivision, hopefully convergent.
What's better way to do this?
I need help with general topology someone save me

Someone teach me it from the ground up.
read munkres or hatcher's notes and ask questions when you're confused
hatcher's notes are linked in #books-old, no one's reviewed munkres yet so it's not listed there but it's essentially the standard work
pointset topology is pretty easy imo, provided you've done some analysis to motivate it
just gotta do a bunch of exercises to get unituitive things internalized
Hmm it seems cayley graph is simply connected
there’s tons of different cayley graphs and certainly not all of them are
like this one for the dihedral group of the square certainly does not look simply connected
ㅋㅋㅋ
Oh right
I would, without much thought, conjecture that the cayley graph of a finitely generated group is simply connected iff the group is free
cause if it’s not then you’ll have a cycle
and that’s gonna make being simply connected rather difficult
Yeah I was looking at free group cayley graph. Must have mistaken that for general cayley graph
The Stone–Čech compactification of space X is naturally homeomorphic to the spectrum of C*-algebra C_b(X) of cts bounded functions with sup norm (this was in fact original construction of stone-čech compactification)
Does anybody know of some modern text that proves/treats this?
Nice, ty. That looks very interesting
What properties of a Cayley graph only depend on the group actually?
I know if you choose different generating sets you'll get something quasi-isometric
Are quasi-isometries homotopy equivalences?
Oh wait no Z^n is quasi-isometric to R^n and I don't think Z^n is contractible, is it?
I don't understand much of the notation used in general topology
like what
These labels are foreign to me.
I'm not disputing that.
I would love to know more on what they are.
What they mean*

How about in this context
You know when people use indices for the $\Sigma$ notation? It's the same thing here.
Zopherus:
you're just unioning sets which have indexes contained in some set
Except you're performing unions/intersections instead of adding
sounds like a #proofs-and-logic problem
Munkres literally has an entire intro section dedicated to getting you to know all the prereqs for topology
however, if you don’t know this notation, I assume you’ve not done much analysis. and topology without analysis is just weird. like, they don’t rely on each other, but topology is motivated by things that come up in analysis, and it’ll be really weird stuff without that context
^
Though if you really want to jump into topology I think there was that book that do it mostly on metric space
Was it topology without tears?
Not sure
It was freely available for download somewhere (and I meant not in something like lib gen)
i wouldnt learn topology without knowing some analysis first tywin
Well, I just got munkres :D
yeah I'd learn some analysis first
Is this S1 u S1 link isotopic to the trivial S1 u S1 link ?
(here, there are 9 petals for the toric knot K(1,9) but there could be any given n>=2)
can you remind me what the defn of isotopy is
I took this one : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ambient_isotopy (the article is very concise)
I think it's not the case tho :\
Even n=2 seems to be problematic
Not even isotopic to ^
Did you try computing some of the standard knot invariants? Some polynomials? To see if they match up?
So someone mentioned in a seminar that there is a classification of integer homotopy invariants for manifolds in terms of betti numbers, trace, and some other stuff
Does anyone know of any papers about that?
RIP the prereqs for the 4-manifolds course are way more than what I could reasonably get down before fall
which sucks becasue I really would want to take it and it’s a one-time thing
but you essentially need to have all of diffgeo I&II and algtopo I&II down
or at least various topics that will be presented throughout those
For a given n, is the homology group H_n just a "reduction" of π_n? What I mean is that the generators for π_n always includes all the generators for H_n.
yes but it seems for each copy of Z we get for calculating H_n, there's at least one copy of Z for pi_n
An example to think about is pi_2(T)
T being the torus
pi_2(T) = 0
But H_2(T) = Z
That's because there's no spheres in the torus but there is a 2-cycle, that being the whole torus itself
hmm strange
Do you know what a cycle is?
boundary map takes any cycle to 0
You build cycles out of pieces called simplicies or cells. When you attach these n-cells along their faces so that the whole thing "wraps up", ie there is no boundary, that means you've sort of encapsulated a hole via your cycle.
Yes
yeah the latter makes sense
For example
You can glue lots of triangles along their edges to triangulate a sphere
That entire complex would be called a cycle
But you could also glue the triangles in such a way that they triangulate a torus
That's still a cycle, and formally you can check it has no boundary
Where as the homotopy groups only check for spheres in your space, the homology groups check for cycles, which are much more general
Glad to help
going back to just homology groups, what is a good way to interpret the actual computation?
What do you mean?
I mean it's kerd_n/imd_(n+1) what is a good way to think about what this actually is?
as in what this quotient is actually measuring
I could give you the intuition in 5 seconds if I could draw on a paper
But I'll have to type
So we talked about cycles and how they account for cavities or holes in your space.
But really you wanna talk about cycles upto equivalence. Two cycles are equivalent if you can move one onto the other. So imagine physically moving a loop or some other cycle in space from position A to position B. This traces out a cylinder which happens to be a n+1 dimensional chain. And the boundary of this cylinder is the difference between the two cycles, the initial cycle and the terminal cycle. So a very convenient way to define this equivalence relation is to say two cycles are homologous if one can be moved onto another, ie if their difference is the boundary of an n+1 chain (the cylinder connecting them)
so is this quotient measuring the extent to which generating cycles in the denominator can be moved onto generating cycles in the numerator?
But cycles in the denominator are treated as 0
I mean when I did the actual computations it seems for e.g if you have two hollow triangles pasted together that H1 goes from Z + Z to 0 once you fill the triangles
Look
n+1 chains are like bridges between n cycles
If two n cycles are on opposite sides of an n+1 chain, then they are equivalent
If an n cycle is literally just the boundary of an n+1 chain, then it's 0
Think of a hollow tube but then there's a cap at the right end. (I would draw this)
Then you have one cycle going along width of the tube. But it's really a trivial cycle because you can move it along the tube to the right end and see that it's the boundary of this cap or disk . So it doesn't capture a cavity or hole, what would be a hole is actually filled in as a disk (2 chain)
yes this makes sense
@midnight jewel what book is the 4-manifolds course using?
doesn’t say, but it’s on Seilberg-Witten theory
whatever that is
this is the course description
of those prereqs, the only thing I have some knowledge of is the easiest parts of homotopy
but tbh the course description doesn’t sound nearly as exciting as I thought it would anyway
meanwhile, next semester’s Geometry class is like, exactly what I was hoping for
axiomatic euclidean geometry and then projective geometry
That’s a lot of prereqs..
I mean it's pretty much just algebraic topology and differential geometry, both of which you can do in your third year
Well I mean
I’ve done riemannian geometry and smooth manifolds
But I’ve never seen moduli spaces or elliptic operators
any we're doing Van Kampen now
... "before we get to Van Kampen, we have to do some algebra"
I apologize for the trouble because lmao I'm an imbecile, but
what exactly is locally convex anyway?
@real notch Are you familiar with topological vector spaces? Locally convex spaces are basically generalizations of normed vector spaces and seminormed vectors space. They’re topological vector spaces whose topology is defined by a whole set of seminorms rather than a single seminorm.
ooh
@real notch Here’s how to define the topology. If $F$ is a set of seminorms on a vector space $X$, then a net in $X$ is convergent in the locally convex topology generated by $F$ if and only if it is convergent with respect to every seminorm In $F$.
lugita15:
Or if the topology is Hausdorff you can use sequences rather than nets.
I'm rather poor at topo, so I'll try not to fuck it up
What is meant by "homology is the simplest example of a functor and can be used to approximate functors, sort of like a derivative"? Does anyone know what this means, if it's even well formed?
"Homology is the simplest example of a functor" is a really strange sentence
Maybe the simplest example of a derived functor?
yea wouldn’t that be more like… the identity functor between a category and itself?
mapping everything to itself. that ought to be a functor unless I’m absolutely stupid
and it’s pretty simple
^^
Yeah. Or Hom. There's a bunch of simpler functors
followed perhaps by the forgetful functor as a second easiest example
But homology is I guess a derived functor, and the simplest version of derived functors. I think, I don't actually know much about this
yeah that seems more reasonable
this statement is missing f,g continuous, right? it doesn’t really make sense otherwise
Yeah
since the homotopy itself has to be continuous and it couldn’t be if f wasn’t
When doing AT I think the general rule is to assume continuity unless it's explicitly specified that it isn't (the term I've seen for when it isn't assumed is "set map")
that was actually a nice exercise. did force me to think a little bit but then it wasn’t tedious
Your definition of contractible is that the identity is nullhomotopic, right?
yes. in particular, it’s weaker than deformation retractible (where the point to which is being contracted to is fixed by the contraction)
the last exercise on the sheet is on showing that they’re indeed not equivalent
the ⇐ direction was essentially trivial, just set Y=X, f = id, g = x0 and you’re done
the ⇒ direction was a bit more interesting
onto part b), which is the same… except the functions are now Y→X
well, that was just way easier
Are connectedness, compactness and fundamental groups the only topological invariants? As in, is there any pair of non-homeomorphic topological spaces such that you need new invariants to show they're not, in fact, homeomorphic?
how do you use any of those to show that [0,1) and (0,1) are not homeomorphic?
they have the same fundamental group, are connected, and not compact
but the former has a special point {0} where removing it leaves it connected, the latter does not
so they can’t be homeomorphic
...wait, how does this show they're not homeomorphic?
if they were homeomorphic, then there should be a point in the other set that upon removal makes the set homeo to [0,1) \ {0}
basically
assume f is a homeo: [0,1) → (0,1)
then f restricted to (0,1) is a homeo (0,1) → (0,1) \ {f(0)}
but the latter is disconnected, the former is not
contradiction
so, cut points are a thing
but also read the paragraph below this for a warning
Yeah, I see. I still have to pass my algebraic topology exam so I know almost nothing about it, except what fundamental groups are and how to use them to show the open disc is not homeomorphic to the open sphere.
what is an open sphere?
An open ball in R^3.
oh, why not just call it that then
Because I felt like calling it an open sphere.
Yeah, I hate the fact there's thousands of names to remember for literally anything.
also, path-connectedness would be another invariant
which is different from connectedness
Yeah, I've heard about that. I thought it was too similar to connectedness though.
and then higher homotopy groups, and I think homology and cohomology bring their own invariants too, but I don’t know them
I just know those topics exist
I see, thanks for your answers anyway.
There is another cool integer invariant that I recently learned about called the signature that only works for oriented manifolds of dimension 4k
euler characteristic is also an invariant isn’t it
basically, there are a lot of invariants
Well, that's very interesting.
Yeah, but Euler characteristic is determined by rank of cohomology groups
as said I don’t know anything about (co)homology
There are more general things called characteristic classes that I plan on learning about this summer
Milnor Stasheff?
Yeah
Lol I love how in algebraic topology there are 500 intro books and then barely anything after that
Are you studying topology and algebraic topology on your own, @dim meadow? Not at college/uni?
Yeah, I have a friend who wants to do homotopy theory who was complaining about that this week
Like he's past the intro books but he's plateaud
Hatcher, Concise, Fulton, Rotman, tom Dieck, Greenberg/Harper, Spanier, Massey, Vick sorta, Munkres sorta
Lmao yeah there's a lot
Also Bredon which I think is probably just the correct one tbh
You forgot May
Concise = May
Lmao
That's what Peter himself refers to it as
Oh cool
I guess because it feels strange for him to be like "Read May". But yeah he always jokes that it's unreadable
But yeah a friend was trying to learn Bredon/equivariant cohomology
And resources for him were a nightmare
We were both doing REU papers and I remember just seeing the pure contrast between his having to look everywhere for things and my having just two books that covered everything
Honestly, even if I'm doing something that only needs one or two sources I always look up a million other sources
Research must have been hell before access to the internet
/libgen/scihub/arxiv
Yeah I imagine
@midnight jewel is that hatcher
This is more analysis than topology
This one is topology
But also it's not particularly hard
If you know basic definitions
The solution would be extremely nasty though.
Why?
What do you mean?
Bashy.
What computation could you possibly need
Okay so basically spse C is a closed subset of X and a is a point disjoint from C. Then we can take the corresponding neighborhood V of a and it's closure $\bar{V}$ so that $\bar{V}$ is regular. Then if C intersects $\bar{V}$, the intersection is closed and so you can make nbds around $C\cap \bar{V}$ and around a so that their intersection is empty. Notice the complement of the nbd around $C\cap \bar{V}$ is a closed neighborhood which contains a and doesn't intersect C so we can use that to get an open neighborhood around C. We can then use the open neighborhood around a in $C\cap \bar{V}$ to get a open set U so that $U\cap \bar{V}$ is the nbd around a. We can then intersect U with V to get the second open set around a which doesn't intersect the open set around C.
Liquid:
Compile Error! Click the
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@stoic vigil
Literally just follow your nose
And draw pictures
I can post a pic of the pictures I drew if you want
Sure.
This is the main one
Also the second condition implies hausdorff
Idk why they gave hausdorff
Does my argument make sense?
@stoic vigil
I guess I used some stuff without mentioning
Like closed subset of closed subset is closed
But that stuff should be second nature
But yeah, the first intuition when you see this sort of problem is to make nbds around every point
But the only way that works is if you have some sort of compactness condition
An easier way just to see that this condition implies hausdorff is given two points a, b you can take the balls around a and b as the V given in the condition. If either point is in the interior of the others ball you can simply take the nbds U, U' which separate them inside the closed ball, take the open sets in X which intersect with $\bar{V}$ to give you U and U', and intersect those nbds with V
Liquid:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
@stoic vigil what did you mean by computation btw?
Is this bash?
Not really.
How else would you do this?
Here's a solution I found.
By bashing
That just looks ew
It might actually be my argument
:0.
If I could unpack it
What I did just seems like the natural thing to do
I don't want to unpack it though
Does stack exchange have a dark mode?
Does anyone know if in general the space $$X\times I$$ is homotopic to $$X$$?
MaxJ:
Whoops too many dollar signs, anyway I is the unit interval here
Yeah
So define $f:X\times I \to X$ by $f(x,t) = x$ and define $g:X\to X\times I$ by $g(x) = (x,0)$
Dami:
Right yeah that makes sense. Trying to make sense of applying Mayer-Vietoris to T^3
T^3 = S^1 \times S^1 \times S^1?
Yeah
I'd probably cop out here and use Kunneth tbh
Visualizing stuff like this isn't my forte
What was the approach? Did you just cut S^1 into two intervals?
You used the standard charts on S^1 I think
So yeah
The intersection was homotopic to the disjoint union of two points
So the cohomology of the intersection was the product of the cohomology of two S^2's
I was doing de rham so it was pretty easy
But I had to write out the full exact sequence
Are you doing homology or cohomology @marsh forge
you can get the 0, 1, and 3 homology for free, I believe
by poincare duality it doesn't matter tbh
So yeah, you literally have one dimension to figure out
Are you allowed to use poincare duality?
I just got asked a topology question I realised I can't answer, despite having studied topology for a while
@chilly silo maybe you just need pen and paper
Let's say you have a finite set X = {1,2,3}. Define a topology T={∅,{2},X} and a second topology T'={∅,{1},{1, 2},X} and an undergrad just claimed that T' was comparable to T because, up to isomorphism, you could simply swap elements 1 and 2. Is there a canonical way of describing this?
what is an isomorphism here tho
cause I don’t think you just want to allow any bijection
So, he didn't know what to say when I asked him that. So that issue was cleared up
But what he asked next was, is there anything useful that comes out of doing something like that?
neither $i_1: (X, T) \to (X, T'), x \mapsto x$ nor the other direction are continuous, so they’re not comparable. simple as that
Sascha Baer:
hm
Yes, clearly
It's definitely an abstract question coming from someone who doesn't know a whole lot about topology. But it got me thinking, and I can't just say, no, that's not useful
hm, so I suppose you could make equivalence classes on the topologies by “these are equivalent up to a bijective map”
you're just comparing topologies
I don’t know what those could tell us or be used for
you compare topologies up to iso
not up to set theoretic issues
that would be useless
what is an isomorphism here tho
...
Homeomorphism?
ye
Doesnt seem to exist
he already said what the homeo is
I suppose I could talk about homeomorphisms, but he just finished calc 3. I'm not sure he's ready for a more formal introduction to topology
Oh I didn't see that
Yeah
sounds ready to me
I guess. I'll introduce what a homeomorphism is tomorrow
As long as he's motivated enough
Yeah, and I could use some undergrad help on projects, especially cuz some of them have a lot of compute power lol
My roommate's an undergrad and he's got way more physical cores than he could ever use
@chilly silo
Neither are topologies?
Wut
Since {2} ∩ X = {1, 3} isn't an open set
Uh
The intersection of {2} and X is {2}...
You're doing set difference
But, backwards
Calculate the fundamental group of the complement K \ S^1, where K is the Klein bottle and S^1 is the boundary of a disk D^2 inside the Klein bottle K.What's the answer (without workings) to this? It came up in my exam and curious if I got the right result.
is that even well-defined? as far as I can see that's a disconnected space, so you'd have to choose a basepoint
that's word for word what was on the exam
well choose a basepoint inside the disk D^2 and it'll be trivial, qed
(I don't have enough intuition to answer the interesting part)
I mean, this is how I imagine the problem
atleast, in the exam that's what I drew xD
but that D^2 isn't in the bottle
what you drew is a cylinder tho
so it ought to be Z
it says D^2 was inside the bottle
and I drew the disc inside the bottle with the boundary touching the surface of the klein bottle
technically no it doesn't
but look at the question
and look at the drawing
it seems like the inside
the only way the statement makes sense to me is that D^2 is embedded in K
but I know what you're saying
but lets scrap the original question and look at the drawing
remove the red from the klein bottle
so that's Z
cylinder ought to have fundamental group Z
??
Oh sorry
I scrolled up and I saw Raysena say "I actually started topology with not much background either"
topology isn't hard, it's just unmotivated without experience in analysis
though I'm dimwitted unfortuantely
so you'd be learning things that don't seem to be at all interesting cause you lack the context of what results they generalize
I found topology difficult xD because there're so many definitions which seem sorta random until you put in a bit of effort to figure out what they mean and why we want the definitions that way
you could pick up munkres rn and learn it but it would be weird
I'm still in the set theory chapter of munkres book
XD
Sorry
The logic and set theory
attempting to break this down into smaller piece so my small brain can process xD
I would have preferred to learn topology in my own time, at my own pace, as opposed to learn it at uni where you memorise the definitions and move on to keep up with the pace of the class but then everything seems random/boring until you figure out those definitions and relearn everything xD
Also, that picture of text seems soo dull for what it's trying to describe xD
Too advanced for me ;-;
I think you'd surprise yourself
@zinc tinsel I started with reading Wikipedia and just focused on making sense of neighborhood
Took quite long time though
I understand that the contrapositive of something like "If it is my birthday, I will eat cake" is "If I don't eat cake, it is not my birthday"
what's the negation of
"for every x > 0, f(x) > 0" ??
There exists x > 0, f(x) < 0?
too much for me xD
f(x) < 0 or f(x) = 0 yeah
My brain struggles with the function notation XD
Yeah with the equality too
for every x is larger than 0, function of x is larger than 0
those are things you'll need to get used to if you're reading a text like this
if x is smaller than 0
Well if you're persistent enough one or two years should be enough to internalize the language of topology
Maybe
then the function of x is smaller than 0
?
how long would it take to master differential calculus :p
a life time
^
I mean
to understand the calculus required for top xD
Because I'm terrible with calc
btw, this principle logic stuff with quantifiers and what not etc.. probably belongs in #proofs-and-logic more than it does here
sorry
are you talking about, the usual calculus courses like AP calculus, vector calculus, complex variable theory etc... ?
dw 😛
AP calculus
oh, people are usually pretty confident with that stuff after 2 years of maths undergrad work
and that's split focus on other topics as well
And the thing about analysis motivating topology that's probably quite true. One particular thing for example is that thing about continuity defined using open set. I think there was motivating example in real function. Though I got that quite later.
In the end like other things it's about persistence. And usually motivation feed that so
Yeah, the real eye opener/motivation for topology is when you get to metric spaces in analysis and generalise continuity of a function through open balls (that uses the matric) etc... and THEN show this is equivalent to another definition involving open sets (independent of the metric)
So when thinking about what properties you need a space to have in order to describe continuity of functions, you don't actually need a metric xD you can have a topological space
.
^ three step above
different language in my head XD
A metric space is a set that has a distance function withing on the set
Try topology with metric space book. I think it's not that painful to think of
or am i confusing it
What was the book again
Byeeee
It's free download
Topology without tears?
oh well
I'm still sturggling to understand this negation idea
XD
i'm just hopeless
That's something you get used to with experience I think
virtually no analysis experience
Yeah it's probably that book. I remember the typesetting.
One way to think of topology probably as a kind of microscope you use to examine the space in question.
Say you want to look at bacterium. Discrete topology is like atomic scale microscope that give too much information atom by atom. While trivial topology (X and empty set) is like meter scale microscope that's too big to see any bacterium.
mhm
Also
What happens when X is the empty set
Is that the super trivial topology xD?
the empty space can only ever be endowed with the empty topology
it's a bit of a trivial case
I mean it's still just called the trivial topology
it's also the discrete topology
as is the singleton space
same with X having only one point
Is it called a logical tautology?
no
I think you will learn more if you do it yourself
make sure you truly get the definitions and see why this would not work
Take a closer look at 2nd condition of topology
the fact you don't understand it immediately means there's a definition you've not understood fully
so you must go back and reread stuff closely, with the example in mind
Persistence
oh boy there we go
infinite subsets
Van kampen theorem 
be sure to clearly distinguish "set with infinitely many elements" and "infinitely many sets" from one another
and be clear about what is meant when something is called infinite
I miss those blackboards :(
Is that hagoromo chalk 
I strongly doubt it
Can't find anything on infinite union
Yea I'm lost
Someone tag me if they can help
What do you not understand
Its a union of infinitely many sets
@zinc tinsel
A topology has to be closed under arbitrary unions
When we say a set is closed
Under some operation
We mean , if we take a,b in the set and apply the operation to them, say a+b, it has to exist in the set too
I have not covered that
In this case under the operation of unions our set has to remain closed
(note that a topology is a set of sets)
Its the definition of a topology
(so the above statement makes sense)
I'm very dimwitted unfortunately
$\mathcal T_4$ contains all finite subsets. For it to be a topology is must also contain ALL possible (including infinite!) unions of elements of $\mathcal T_4$. Since for any $n$ the set ${n}$ is finite, we certainly have that all these sets are in $\mathcal T_4$. But the infinite union ${2} \cup {3} \cup {4} ... = {2,3,4,...}$ is an infinite set, so it's not an element of $\mathcal T_4$. So it's not a topology.
Its right here
killer_memestar:
Number ii
I don't understa Nd any of it
Read slower
The definition of a topology is rather abstract
Look at the examples
Think through them 
So what part do you not understand
The set of sets has to satisfy those rules to be a topology
Do you understand why the first example is a topology?
What are finite aubsets
Are you sure you have the math background for this
Finite subsets are sets with finite elements
they are subsets that are finite 
Which are a subset of some superset
Then how is N finite
I don’t think you’re ready for topology if you’re still getting used to sets
N as in the natural numbers?
Yes
If you mean ALL POSSIBLE subsets of N
There are infinitely many
We call that the power set of N
Ok nvm i get it
Theres a difference between FINITE SUBSETS and FINITE COLLECTION OF SUBSETS
In this case its finite subsets where the subsets have finitely many elemens
Like {1,2}
{7}
that's precisely what I emphasized about 20 minutes ago
You are mixing up really basic terms here 
Have you done any rigorous math before this
be sure to clearly distinguish "set with infinitely many elements" and "infinitely many sets" from one another
and be clear about what is meant when something is called infinite
I'm very dumb, as my dad tells me baer
like I literally emphasized this
Moronic is more precise
you're not gonna gain anything by insulting yourself
^
but you are jumping into the deep end here somewhat
it's not particularly hard stuff per se, but you lack the mathematical maturity
you do, but that's not the only option you have
I can take an infinite union of all sets except the ones containing 2
consider the union of all sets {n} where n is an even number
Then my final set is an infinite set which is N{2}
Ok my dash dissapeared
But N set difference 2
and mine's an infinite set too (the set of all even numbers)
neither of these are all of N
Rightttt
Why not do real analysis first 
It will motivate ideas in topology while also letting you get familiar with set notation working with calculus
Which is hopefully something you’re familiar with
So when you infinitely union the finite subsets of N but apply some sort of condition on the elements you get a set that does not belong to the topology
;-; thought I actually got it XD
But because it does not belong to N it defies the axioms
And thus makes T not a topology
An axiom is something we take to be true in our system
I thought the definition of a topology is made up of axioms
Where
A different text
Yes
An AXIOM is something we take to be true
What
im confused
there are multiple meanings of axiom, logical axioms (probably what @minor stag is thinking of) and non-logical axioms like the field axioms that define a field, group axioms and the axioms of a topological space
But anyways
Your original statement was right
The infinite union of subsets where the elements of the finite subsets have some sort of condition produces a set which is not a subset of N, therefore meaning that T cannot be a topology
Oh ok
@tepid totem what do you mean by non logical axioms?
I would call group and field axioms logical axioms
Cause they're expressible in first order logic
Logic 
Maybe I'm just missing context
I think the intended distinction is this:
-a “logical axiom” is something which we declare as true and that’s it. stuff like the axioms of set theory, with which we now just work
-on the other hand, there are axioms of some system (e.g. a field), which are properties of that kind of system. we can’t simply assume them to be true, but have to verify that our given system really does satisfy them
From Wikipedia: These are certain formulas in a formal language that are universally valid, that is, formulas that are satisfied by every assignment of values. Usually one takes as logical axioms at least some minimal set of tautologies that is sufficient for proving all tautologies in the language; in the case of predicate logic more logical axioms than that are required, in order to prove logical truths that are not tautologies in the strict sense.
Non-logical axioms are formulas that play the role of theory-specific assumptions. Reasoning about two different structures, for example the natural numbers and the integers, may involve the same logical axioms; the non-logical axioms aim to capture what is special about a particular structure (or set of structures, such as groups). Thus non-logical axioms, unlike logical axioms, are not tautologies. Another name for a non-logical axiom is postulate.
of course you could take it further and say, well, we can try to verify whether our system of set theory really satisfies the axioms of ZFC
so in that sense I suppose they’re really one and the same
it’s just that the first are kinda taken to be a property of the universe, and not soemthing to be questioned
Hmm, I've never heard this non logical axiom term before
me neither
It seems like a silly distinction
either way, it’s definitely common parlance to consider whether a certain object satisfies certain axioms
you have ended up in the way wrong end of this server

cant ping helpers?
but like, you’re in the “a few years into university” section of this server, this is the topology and differential geometry channel
my bad 
you’re not in the right place
nvm
Anyone able to explain this definition to me?
It just means if there are finitely many elements in the set
Its said to be finite
Like you give me a set {a,c,b} i can map a-1 c-2 b-3
So the set is finite
What does it mean by one to one function

