#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 145 of 1
we dont need to do anything special to account for the empty set and X in a subbasis/basis right? like the empty intersections are X and empty unions are empty (intersection = product and union = coproduct in the poset category, and empty lims/colims are final/initial objects)
like we dont actually need the subbasis to be a cover for this reason
i think there are two definitions of subbase and one requires that they cover
Yeah the def I worn with just says a subbasis covers X
but you’re right that they don’t need to cover. you freely generate the basis from the subbasis and this contains the empty intersection
Emptyset doesn't need to be in the subbasis
yeah sorry this is just 0 \not\in \mathbb{N} propaganda from the 0 \not\in \mathbb{N} lobby
When doing finite intersections and arbitrary unions, emptyset should appear in the topology
And X ofc
Bases don't need emptyset or X yeah?
nah
nope. they get freely generated for the same reason
but the empty set will be an empty union and we should require the basis to be a cover
by should require i mean, it follows from things we require
Now what are the implications of this for the simple harmonic oscillator modeled by a = -w^2 x

continuity?
good luck altanis
Oh yeah I forgot about this
Or wait no I didn't
That's how {} is forced into a topology
Or I guess you can view it as emptyset satisfging "U being open implies there is a basis element B such that x in B subseteq U bla bla bla" vacuously
the conditions of a topology are usually stated as:
- it contains the whole space and the empty space
- closed under arbitrary unions
- closed under finite intersections
Yep
hmm i have a technical question about this adjunction, lemme ponder the phrasing a bit more and then ask in the category theory channel
And a basis generates a topology because emptyset is forced in
the 1st point is redundant by the 2nd and 3rd points
Cuz the emptynunion is defined to be {}
given the question might include the word "grothendieck fibration" it might not be good for this channel lolol
Umm is empty finite intersection left undefined
I think munkres addressed this somewhere in ch1
i implore you to take the empty finite intersection of subsets of X to be X
might not be good for me either lmao. idk about grothendieck fibrations too well
Wtf?
Is this a joke
Why 💀
all good, sorry my phrasing was just i have a question, not i expect you specifically to answer this
its this thing i said earlier. P(X) is a poset so you can view it as a category, and non-empty intersections and unions clearly are products and coproducts in that category

the intersection of sets is like a filter (in a non-technical sense). it is increasingly difficult to be in the intersection of a family of sets as the size of the family grows. as the size of the family shrinks, it becomes easier. so easy that when it is empty, everything should be in it
so the most obvious way to extend to empty intersections/unions is the empty product and coproduct, which are the final and initial object of the category respectively
I see
Yes okay this makes sense
yeah also like @zealous berry what does it mean for x to NOT be in the empty intersection
Smaller set less restriction
it means there is some subset you are intersecting over such that x is not in that set
Ooh
which there just. isnt
True.....
yeah this sort of thing is called a vacously true statement
It was to my understanding this was left to the textbook author to decide
And not simply vacuous
its like saying like
Like saying all elements of {} are positive and negative and zero simultaneously is vacuously true
every solution of e^x = 0 provides a counterexample to the riemann hypothesis
Riemann hypothesis solved,,,
Yeah I understand, but I don't think this is vacuous perse?
Because you can probably find a different way to think about empty intersection
i mean in a sense unions and intersections of sets dont exist
like shouldnt you only take these inside of ambient grothendieck universe
this is really only a problem for unions
okay this is a bad phrasing but the point is that it is natural to only think of intersections inside of some ambient bigger set
and my argument for this is that empty intersections deserve rights
yea, is your point that like, the empty intersection really should be a proper class?
actually i dont want to make any points, ignore all i said; what is true is that basis things are always relative to an ambient set so everything works
you can make everything relative to U {your family of sets} 
okay i asked a precursor to my question about fibrations in the cat theory channel to make sure i phrase the actual question correctly
ok grothendieck fibration questioned asked lol
is the msg from 24 days ago just like
markov babbler vibes lol
@cosmic mirage you probably got answered this earlier but no every universal property is just initial/terminal object in some category. Since a limit is a terminal object in category of cones over the diagram, and a colimit is an initial object in category of cocones
Is "cocones" really a term?
yea its a type of pastry
I guess we should be calling then nes instead
this footnote goes crazy
Subgroups of F_2 correspond to 4 valent graphs
My favourite fact in maths :3
F_2 being… the free group on two elements?
Yes
lovely
didnt know math had chemistry in it
wait until bro learns about the look and say sequence
when i first heard the term Balmer spectrum, I thought the person was talking about the Balmer series in the light spectrum for hydrogen lol

does the pasting lemma also work for open subsets?
yes
iirc, this was one of the exercises in Munkres' book.
I have this in my book, it seems like a same version
In fact it is much simpler for open sets
beautiful
sheaf property detected!
for this, could we use the local characterisation of continuity using neighbourhood bases?
u mean for the proof of pasting lemma for open sets?
yes
if we define continuity as a local property
using neighbourhood bases
and show thats equivalent to the standard definition
it should just fall out instantly
yeah. Actually, the proof follows immediately from the definition of continuity (preimage of open sets)
oh ofc, that would be way easier
if you havent done this already
I want a hint, so I know that in metric space if f: X -> Y is a function such that if x_n converges to x then f(x_n) converges to f(x), then f is continuous.
Now in topological space, it is not true, I want an example, hint?
I got it
go through the proof of why, in a metric space, sequential continuity implies continuity, and see what assumptions you are using
So here we need first countability right?
What's the relation between nets and continuity?
The statement becomes true in general if you replace sequences with nets
I.e. f is continuous iff whenever you have a net xn converging to x, then f(xn) converges to f(x)
yes
So what's the statement if for each nets (x_\alpha) converges to x implies f(x_\alpha) converges to f(x) then f is continuous
Let me prove this
R with the ||cocountable|| topology is not first countable. the ||identity function (R, cocountable) —> (R,euclidean)|| is not continuous, but is sequentially continuous
Yes
Btw how do we define subnet?
IIRC there are several different definitions, not all equivalent. (!)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subnet_(mathematics) has some discussion.
Is it true that every function with the indiscrete topology on its codomain is continuous
I feel like it is
Yes, that follows immediately from the definition of "continuous" in general topological spaces.
yes
the only open sets in indiscrete are empty and whole space
preimage of empty is empty is open
preimage of codomain is the entire domain which is open
Okay thank you
Weirdly enough that page doesn't even state they Kelley definition, but it can be found at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Filters_in_topology#Non-equivalence_of_subnets_and_subordinate_filters
Yes
is the intersection of two connected subspaces connected?
Not necesarily.
for example consider a line cutting through a circle in R^2
but for example intervals are connected in R
Yeah, that's a pretty specific property of R.
is every interval in [0,1] connected too?
alright but why?
well it's a way i am proving [0,1] to be locally connected
An interval in [0,1] is also an interval in R, which you might know already is connected.
yes
but does it mean that all interval in [0,1] will be connected as well
?
How couldn't it?
Wouldnt that mean that intersections of intervals in R are connected
It's true that intersections of intervals in R are either empty or connected.
That's just not the case for all topological spaces.
Alright but how would I justify it to prove that [0,1] is locally connected, is the intersection of an interval in R with [0,1] connected in the subspace [0,1] then?
i mean where are you having difficulties proving that?
pick an x in [0,1], produce a connected neighborhood
"Connected" is independent of any larger space. It's just a matter of how the set itself looks like with the subspace topology -- and that is the same whether you view the interval as a subspace of R or as a subspace of [0,1].
(Beware that for "locally connected" it's not enough to produce one connected neighborhood for each point -- you need a whole neighborhood basis of them).
i want a neighbourhood U around an x in [0,1] to contain an element of the base {(a,b) \cap [0,1] : a,b in Q}. And since all intervals are connected in R i hoped that element in the base would be connected
with what i am hearing here it is the case but i have no real result in my textbook to justify the last conclusion
did your class not prove intervals are connected?
yes we did
The justfification is that the intersection of two intervals is either an interval or empty.
then what is the issue
you can describe exactly what the intersection of two intervals in R is
Yeah but wouldnt that mean that intersection is connected in the space itself and not the subspace (i know this will be the case)
As I already wrote, it doesn't make sense to talk about "connected in the space itself".
i am getting what you're saying
A set with a given topology -- such as your interval -- is either connected or not. it doens't matter what you consider it to be a subset of.
Then what is your problem? As long as (a,b) cap [0,1] is not empty, it will be an interval and intervals of R are connected.
Okay right then its trivial really
Since not being connected in X will continu to be in subspaces if that subspace contains that set
and since the intersection of intervals in R is always connected that intersection being in [0,1] will keep that property
whats the reason for this definition?
This is a bit of an annoying issue but usually when you say something is locally X you should be able to check this after shrinking to smaller neighbourhoods / on arbtirarily small neighbourhoods
i encountered it in my point set class but forgot it required a whole neighborhood basis, but i cant see why other than potentially that its the right definition for doing things down the line
(though there will be uses of locally that also conflict with this probably lol)
It it just meant that every point has a connected neighborhood, then every connected space would be locally connected -- but the concept is intended to capture pathological behavior that can happen even within a connected set.
The standard example would be something like Q×[0,1] cup [0,1]×{0}.
The whole space is connected, but all sufficiently small neighborhoods of (0,1) are disconnected.
Good example
If X is locally connected at x, but a neighborhood U of x is not, then it wouldn't be very local, but instead pretty global
So which one do I have to prefer?
My personal conclusion would be to use filters whenever sequences are not enough. 
connectedness and compactness are intrinsic properties. Meaning: A subseteq B subseteq C then A is connected relative to B iff it is relative to C
Hi, can anyone give me a hint about how to proceed with this proof?
“ Prove that a space (X,T) is Hausdorff if and only if the diagonal
Δ={(x,x)∈X×X}
is a closed subset of X×X endowed with the product topology."
Open sets in the product topology of two spaces are generated by open boxes U x V.
||What does that mean if an open box is disjoint from the diagonal?||
Well, geometrically speaking , it means it's separated like two triangles
right?
I just looked at your name xD, nice metric
||the box U x V around (x,y) disjoint from the diagonal is the box formed by the open sets separating x and y||
Another problem using the “box” topology idea is to show that if A x B is a box formed by compact A and B then it is enclosed in an open box U x V
Hint: ||start with covering singleton {a} x B with open boxes||
I haven't reached the "compact" definition
You can Google it and get the idea
Well, I knew this was like a triangle, but I don't know how to proof it with words xD
I drawed this
Draw a box around a point away from the diagonal, then draw it’s “shadow” on the axes
Those are your open sets separating the points
In a very drafting-centric pov
why the ghosting😔
which direction r u struggling with?
both xD
so for the forward direction, try to show that the complement is open instead. That would be easier
^
Yeah
Im trying to do that
but um
Im currently in
What can u say about the pair (x,y) in X^2 \ Δ
Do you mean XxX \ A is open
Is it possible to have x = y?
yes
Nope
so for every (x,y) in X^2 \ Δ, x and y must be distinct. Now apply Hausdorffness.
The goal is that we want to find a neighborhood of (x,y) contained in X^2 \ Δ. This is essentially the same as finding a basis element (which has the form UxV) that cannot intersect the diagonal. Here under which condition do we need for U and V such that UxV cannot intersect the diagonal? Think about this.
What does Hausdorffness say?
Im thinking about what you said
but
given x,y in U,V respectively, the intersection U, V is empty
yes. Then is it possible for UxV to have a point of the form (z,z)?
nope
mmm
give me a sec I write it down formally
btw, how do you see this proofs so quickly
like
in 10 seconds you know how to do it
mmm it's like a standard trick u see for Hausdorffness.
what trick?
like
like u can see the immediate connection b/w distinct pair (x,y) not contained in the diagonal and the hypothesis "Haudorffness"
yes
I was missing the fact that if it is open then x != y
even though is obviously
Also, I've done this exercise from Munkres book Chp 2 tho it has been like a yr ago.
Im writing it down
and I have a question
like
even though the points are like x!=y
Why cannot there be a intersection that is non empty
You can also prove this idea visually
they r closed.
finite sets are always closed in Haudorff spaces
they are not open in R^2 with the standard topology
why not?
It's a good exercise to show that every singleton set is closed in a Hausdorff (or even just T1) space.
Can u form a neighborhood of (1,2) (such as an open ball) contained in {(1,2),(2,3)}?
oh
Okay
im totally misunderstanding
because this is R^2 the set {(x,y)} is considered to be a singleton?
Yes, "singleton" means a set with one element.
okay
yeah
It's late and I was thinking about {n}
or something like that
yeah, I have that in my book and I have the proof😅
Note that if we're in R², then the notation "(1,2)" must mean the point with coordinates 1,2 rather than the interval of R that has endpoints 1 and 2.
yes
that was my problem
I was thinking about the interval
It's rather pesky that the two notations look exactly alike, but we seem to be stuck with them.
In French notation, the interval would be ]1,2[, which cannot be confused with a point.
what is that notation lol
French interval notation uses inwards-pointing square brackets for endpoints that are included and outwards-pointing ones for endpoints that are excluded from the interval.
I see your point, in order to be open it has to be infinite, because if not you cannot find a neighborhoud, right?
I like it (it's what I was taught in school), but many people here absolutely loathe it.
yes
It seems a bit massive tbh
xDDDD
I mean
You find it useful because you have been seeing it all your life
but first time seeing it it's a bit strange
Its main benefit is exactly that open intervals cannot be mistaken for points/pairs.
Some authors use <x,y> for pairs instead of (x,y), which also solves the problem -- except that <x,y> clashes with other notations, so there's no easy win.
there exists so many things that finding a notation for it is hard
is my point valid?
like the concept of being open or closed, that in a first glance it may seem like a "door" in the way that a set can only be closed or open, but no, it can be both
so it's strange because we usually think about things being closed or open not both
yeah lmao
we call such sets “clopen”
open and closed
I’m at the beach lmfao
But here
,r
The disjointness can be seen by reflecting it about the diagonal and projecting
.
The married 80 y/o couple seeing a grown man drawing triangles and lines in the sand: 
Yes, at least if we're speaking about R^n with the usual topology.
(Except the empty set is pretty finite and always open).
Yes.
In a general topological space, that is explicitly required by the definition of "topology".
maybe one interesting thing to think about is that a space is connected iff there is no nonempty proper subset that is both open and closed
so if you find a nontrivial subset that is open and closed then your space is not connected
I think I finished the exercise
I don't know yet what connectedness is😅
ooh okay nvm then
but thanks for the information 🙂
It's always good
$Let \space (G,V \in \mathcal{T}) be such that (G \cap V = \varnothing). The open sets in (X^2) are of the form ((x,y)), but since the open sets are disjoint, we must have (x \neq y). Hence, the open sets in (X^2) with the product topology (\mathcal{T}_2) are of the form
[
X^2 \setminus {(x,x)},
]
therefore the set
[
\Delta={(x,x)\in X\times X}
]
is closed, besides being a subset since it only contains the cases ((x,x)).$
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what do you think
You seem to be confusing "the open sets in X×X are" ... and "these are a basis for the open sets in X×X".
And even so, the basic open sets in X×X are not of the form {(x,y)} -- that would be singletons, which are not open! -- but of the form A×B where each of A and B is open in X.
X²\{(x,x)} is definitely open, but those are by far not the only open sets in X×X.
yeah
I see
I am always confusing the notation
I'm so used to think about (x,y) as interval
and working in the usual topology
😅
I'm not sure if this has been covered in the conversation already, but you should really be clearer about whether you're proving "Hausdorff => diagonal is closed" or "diagonal is closed => Hausdorff".
I can't immediately tell whether the above attempt was supposed to be one of the other.
What's the difference between being open in X and being open in the topology?
I'm going for <= because I finded =>
None, that's just wording variants.
So "diagonal is closed in X×X => X is Hausdorff"?
"X is hausdorff => diagonal is closed in XxX"
I see.
So in other words you need to prove that { (p,q) in X×X | p != q } is open in X×X.
Okay, I can sort of see which way you're going with the first sentence.
You're looking at an arbitrary (x,y) in X×X in X×X-D and want to show that (x,y) has a neighborhood in X×X-D.
So you're using the Hausdorff property of X to select disjoint open G and V in X, such that x in G and y in V, right?
If that's the case then you need to explcitly state that
- you're looking at arbitrary x != y,
- you're using the Hausdorff property of X,
- you get x in G and y in V.
Right, I'm trying to help you clean it up.
yes
I appreciate it
I'm back
I'm so bad proving
and it's my first class in where I really have to proof things
You didn't get any proof experience in real analysis? That's too bad.
more or less yeah
Point-set in first year is a bit unconventional, but alright.
Like, my idea was saying that, in a product topology for X^2, the open sets are of the form: AxB where A and B are open in X. But, because of the space being hausdorff, the intersection of open sets is empty, Therefore the elements of the open sets cannot be equal (i.e x != y)
Because they cannot be equal, then, the open sets in T_2 are of the form X^2 - {(x,x)}, so, the set A = {(x,x) \in XxX} is closed
And, A is a subset of X^2, because it only covers one specific situation where x = y
Yeah, it's f*cking my life xD
And I think is not the best approach, because I miss so much base concepts that I'm missing lot of things
And I'm loving it, but It's being so hard to follow
Uh, let me pick that apart piece for piece.
in a product topology for X^2, the open sets are of the form: AxB where A and B are open in X.
All of the sets of that form are open, but they are not the only open sets. An open set in X×X is generally a union of (possibly infinitely many) sets of the form A×B.
because of the space being hausdorff, the intersection of open sets is empty
That's not what Hausdorff says.
The Hausdorff property is that given two different points a and b, there exist some open sets A and B such that A contains a, and B contains b, and A cap B = Ø.
But that doesn't mean that any two random open sets have empty intersection.
So, it can be like AxBxAxB?
What wouldn't be a set of the right kind of things, but it can be A×B \cup C×D \cup E×F, for example.
It's usually convenient to think of X×X as if X is R, in which case X×X is R^2 which we hopefully have some intuition for already.
Little intuition for R^2 but some more than for the general case xD
(And in that case it turns out that the product topology on R×R is just the "ordinary" topology on R² which we know fr- you would have seen in real analysis).
it's crazy for a noob like me to be having topology xD
and in september I have algebraic topology
my uni plan is crazy
This changed all my proof
because now i cannot say that the open sets are of the form X^2-{(x,x)}
mmm
I think I managed to do it
$Let ( U, V \in \tau ), with ( U \cap V = \varnothing ). The open sets in ( X^2 ) are of the form ( A \times B ), where ( A ) and ( B ) are open in ( X ).
Since we are in a ( T_2 ) space, given two points ( (x_0,y_0) ) and ( (x_1,y_1) ), there exist two open sets ( A,B ) such that
[
(x_0,y_0) \in A, \qquad (x_1,y_1) \in B,
]
and
[
A \cap B = \varnothing.
]
For this to hold, the open sets must be of the form
[
X^2 \setminus {(x,x)}.
]
Let
[
\Delta = {(x,x)\in X\times X}.
]$
Then $\Delta$ is closed, since its complement is open.
Moreover, it is a subset containing only the cases ((x,x)).
The bot is complaining because you seem to be enclosing the post both in dollar signs and \(...\)/\[...\].
It exploted so whatever xD
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The open sets in ( X^2 ) are of the form ( A \times B ), where ( A ) and ( B ) are open in ( X ).
This is still only the basic open sets, not all the open sets.
Since we are in a ( T_2 ) space, given two points ( (x_0,y_0) ) and ( (x_1,y_1) ),
Um, we haven't been promised that X×X is Hausdorff, only that X is. But something of the form (x0,y0) is a point in X×X, not a point in X.
For this to hold, the open sets must be of the form X^2 \setminus {(x,x)}.
And that's not true either -- there are many open sets that don't have that form, including most of the A×B ones.

(Most recently the bot is complaining that you said \Delta outside math mode -- you can see in the output that isclosed,sinceits... gets typeset with math lettershapes, because TeX thinks you had just forgotten the opening math marker).
but the math mode is there
like
at the beggining and at the end
I'll finish this tomorrow because I need to sleep because tomorrow I work
But you shouldn't put all the non-math text (that is non-formula text) in math mode ...
And how can I do so the text is shown as text and the math as math xD
but it doesn't explote?
Do not put dollar signs around everything. Only either dollar signs or \(...\) around each piece that should be typeset as math.
Okay
But isn't there like a generic way so I do not have to put $$ around each math piece?
if there's going to be a mix of math mode and non-math mode, all the math mode has to be specified
That would go against the point if delineating text and math mode lowk
@limber wyvern an easy follow up exercise is to show that for a continuous function $f\colon X \rightarrow Y$ where $Y$ is Hausdorff, then the graph,
[\Gamma (f) = {(x, f(x)) \in X \times Y}]
is closed.
Tits metric
Which book are you studying from?
what does $$f(\alpha_j)$$ mean here? and shouldn't it be "neighbourhood in $$X_{\alpha_j}$$"?
CrazyCuber217
X^A can be identified (or really, is defined as) the set of functions A -> X. and so given f in X^A you can evaluate it as alpha_j to get some point in X
Idk what you mean by X_{alpha_j} other than as notation for a copy of X
oh yeah, myb, X is used as notation for each copy, they dont need to be reindexed
so just the projection map, right?
Ye
why do we require continuity to declare that these spaces are vector spaces? Is this solely to have a "nicer" structure on them?
We don't need continuity to get vector spaces, no. But vector spaces of arbitrary functions tend to have too little structure to be very interesting -- for one thing, the topology of X would become irrelevant.
moreover we are very interested in continuous, differentiable, smooth, lipschitz etc. functions and the fact that they form nice vector spaces is like the foundational fact of functional analysis
ofc, that makes sense, ty
(The topology of X is already irrelevant for B(X), but at least B(X) can become interesting because it has a norm, namely the sup-norm, no matter what X is).
Its a uni custom one, but I'm also following munkres, and topology manifolds
Ill try to do It today
i like squares
Let $(X,T)$ be a topological space that is first countable with the T1 property. The only compact subsets of $X$ are the finite subsets. Prove that $T$ has to be the discrete topology on $X$.
you_are_me
this is the T1 property idk if the name is used everywhere
so anyway i have been staring at a blank page for a while now
i think i should do a proof by contradiction where i say that it isnt the discrete topology and then iuse that it has the T1 property and is first countable and then conclude that there is a non finite compact subset
but i dont rlly see a way to get there
Wouldn't the rational numbers be a counterexample to this?
No, I guess it has other compact subsets, nvm
dw, this is quite standard terminology
Alright, pick a point such that {x} is not open.
Find a sequence converging to x (using first countable assumption) observe this to be compact
alright will try
Hi, I'm working with this proof again, and I see that second comment:
"Um, we haven't been promised that X×X is Hausdorff, only that X is. But something of the form (x0,y0) is a point in X×X, not a point in X."
But, because T2 is a multiplicative property, XxX is Hausdorff is X is Hausdorff, which is the case, right?
Well, it is true that X×X is Hausdorff iff X is but (a) you then need to refer to that result explicitly, and (b) needing to rely on it is definitely not the straightest way to what you need to prove.
So, proving that XxX is T2 if X is T2 it's going to help with this proof
Not really.
And okay, I'll recall that is because it's a multiplicative property
it's given as a proposition in my book
like
We consider a product space non empty $X_1 \times X_2$. Then $X_1 \times X_2$ is a Hausdorff space iff the spaces of both factors are Hausdorff spaces
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Yes, as I said it's true. But it's not something you ought to need here.
oh
Okay, sorry, I wasn't understanding you right
mmm
You recommend me start again
and erase what I've got?
Because I see a mess if I don't have to apply the fact that XxX is T2
In general the last attempt you posted was something of a jumble, so I'd recommend starting over and perhaps deliberately make it informal and not attempt to "make it sound like a proof" before you have a clear idea of how to get through.
(Most importantly, wait until we have the structure before you do battle with LaTeX).
So if I'm recalling correctly, we're assuming that X is Hausdorff, and we want to prove that Delta is closed.
Yeah, my problem Is that I write it down in my native language, then ask AI to translate it using latex 😅
and it all explotes
It may even help with focusing to write it directly in English, if that means you have to break things down into smaller parts mentally.
Proof that a space $(X,\mathcal{T})$ is Hausdorff if and only if, the diagonal $\Delta={(x,x) \in X\times X }$ is a closed subset of $X \times X$ with the product topology
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I'll do it in english for you
Okay
So
My idea is
This is Hausdorff, because, making the diagonal closed, will mean that the open sets surrounding the points at both sides of the diagonal have empty intersection
Something like this
So, by making the diagonal close, it forces it to be T2
Okay, lets stop here.
First you really should start by making it explicitly clear which direction of the "if and only if" it is you're proving.
okay
so
The right implication (=>) is proved
So I'm going with the same direction as yesterday (<=)
When I said "explicitly clear" I mean you ought to write it down explicitly. "We assume [such and such], and we then want to prove [this and that]".
Okay, but, before that, Is my mental image going in the right direction
or is that also wrong
Next, when you say
the open sets surrounding the points at both sides of the diagonal have empty intersection
that sounds very weird. There's no "the" open sets surrounding points around the diagonal -- there are many possible open sets; some of them have empty intersections, others don't. It won't be true to say that they have empty intersections until you have selected some particular open sets to speak about.
Yes, good.
By the way, how do you so that the text is like this?
Start the line with >.
Ah, but perhaps I'm misunderstanding what you say about those open sets.
What I wanted to express is that, for the nearest points to the diagonal in left and right. There exists two open sets containing that points whose intersection is empty
Yeah, okay, I can see that knowing X×X is Hausdorff makes you think in those terms -- but it doesn't actually seem to help you here.
In particular, knowing that G and U are disjoint from each other is not what you need to know. You need to find open sets that are each disjoint from Delta.
mmm
And for that what you need is not that X×X is Hausdorff, but just that X is.
because knowing they are disjoint to Delta,makes G and U disjoint?
No. It's that we don't care whether G and U are disjoint. (At least I don't see why we should).
Your goal is to prove that X×X\Delta is open, right?
And it most be open in the product topology, and the product topology is defined by something like
- A subset of X×X is open iff it is a union of sets of the form A×B where A and B are open in X.
So we want to prove that X×X\Delta is such a union.
So the natural strategy would be to say, okay let p be an arbitrary point of X×X\Delta, and then find an A×B, such that (a) A×B contains x, and (b) A×B is a subset of X×X\Delta.
If we can find such an A×B for every point in X×X\Delta, the union of all of them will be X×X\Delta, and then we have proved that X×X\Delta is open.
I think I'm cooking
What does that mean?
Ah, good.
Let's hear where you're getting.
Do you follow as far as this?
I do not find any AxB that satisfies:
A×B for every point in X×X\Delta, the union of all of them will be X×X\Delta, and then we have proved that X×X\Delta is open
Well, of course you'll need a different A×B for each point.
I see
Recall that a point p in X×X\Delta is really a pair of point (x,y) with x and y both in X, and x!=y because the point is not on the diagonal.
because every open only has one point in it?
This is where i am xD
pretty sad tbh
No, I'd say just because we can. We're allowed to use as many A×B as we want to cover X×X\Delta, and it doesn't matter if some of the points are covered by more than one of them. So it simplifies the task if we just pick a new A×B for each p, so that p is the only one we need to think about when we pick A and B.
I need to study more on product spaces😅
Now you have x and y in X and x != y, and we have also (back at the beginning) assumed that X is Hausdorff. Does this remind you of anything?
That's what you're doing -- the exercise is in part to get some experience with working with the product topology.
Well, if the space is T2 and x !=y then, there exists atleast one open set containing x and one containg y that they must be disjoint
Yes.
(When you said you were translating, is your native language one that doesn't have a word like "the"?)
no
Im just stupid
and my brain goes faster than my fingers
So I may think about a full phrase, but then write it missing parts, and I do think that I write them down, but most of the time I just imagined that I writed them down xD
So this is the right direction. Can you see where it's going from there?
Yes.
Prove that every path connected hausdorff space is also arc connected. You may use the following theorem without proof:
Every compact, connected, locally connected, regular, C2 space is arc connected
well so the obvious way to start here is to prove all the requirements of the theorem but it appears to be quite hard lol like i get so little information about the space that idk what to do
I think suspect the strategy here is to pick a path, and then look at the image of that path with the subspace topology.
alright thanks, I will give it a shot
Okay, so I think you've gotten the right idea, but we need to work some on the presentation.
What I had in mind was something like for each $p = (x,y)$ in $X\times X\setminus\Delta$, choose open disjoint $A_p$ and $B_p$ with $x\in A$ and $y\in B$, and then see that $X\times X\setminus\Delta$ is $\bigcup_p A_p\times B_p$.
The $p$ subscript shows the reader that there are different $A$ and $B$ for each $p$.
However, the way you wrote it makes me think we can also write it first saying, look at the set
$$\bigcup_{\substack{A\in\tau\B\in\tau\A\cap B=\varnothing}} A\times B$$
(which is obviously open in $X\times X$) and then show this set equals $X\times X\setminus\Delta$.
That might be neater, but I think we had probably better continue the way we started, to avoid further confusion.
Troposphere
Okay, we'll continue the first way.
You're writing
Let A,B be open sets in ...
but that is not the right phrasing, because "let ... be" is used when we want to prove something for every possible choice of A and B, and that's not what's going on here.
Instead once we have picked p (and for that "let ... be" is the right wording), we want to use the Hausdorff property to pick just one set of A and B that will work for that p.
So the way to phrase that would be
Because X is Hausdorff (or T2), we can pick A_p and B_p such that x is in A and y is in B and A cap B = Ø.
Yes, good.
You'll probably want to add some more lines to justify that X×X\Delta is that union, but each of the points you need to make are straightforward.
Then explicitly state that X×X\Delta is open because we have written it in the form open sets have, and therefore Delta is closed.
Ah, you lost the detail that p is (x,y).
I don't see why you need a big union at all
a set is open if and only if each point in the set has an open neighborhood contained in the set
I guess you basically proved that inside the proof
but if you know that fact already, its cleaner and faster to just focus on a single point and end the proof there
That's true (and I agree it would be valid to phrase it that way), but I wanted to tie more directly up to how the product topology is defined.
I would want to say explicitly somewhere that because Ap and Bp are disjoint, Ap×Bp doesn't contain any points on the diagonal.
Yeah, then just remove "by definition" since you now have a better argument.
And yeah, that's what I would do myself if I was not focused on not confusing SOS4 after we had already discussed what the open sets of X×X are in those terms.
ok so i defined a path between x and y and i have proven that the image of the path is compact, connected and regular but i am stuck on the locally connected and the second countable proof once i got that i can say that the image is arc connected and then that means that the two randomly chosen points are arc connected thus the entire space is arc connected
cuz can be done with any random points
anyway so the second countable and the locally connected proof is what i am stuck on
any hint?
for the second countable im think that maybe i can construct a basis for the unit interval and then transfer that over in some way to the image
It seems to be true that images of paths in a Hausdorff space are locally path connected, but I haven't found a proof yet.
i got the C2 property proof i had to use a result from 2 questions ago
so only locally connected remains
ok its time for a break
imma be back at it in like 90 min
alrighty tieme to roll again
trivia: what is this surface homeomorphic to
RP^2
Reminds me of Boy's surface
is it the sphere
(I'm guessing)
fidget spinner
if my brain is working right, this is a torus?
new nickname :3
Looks like it's a Klein bottle.
(Three Klein bottles joined end-to-end, but two of the orientation flips cancel out, so up to homeomorphism it's just Klein).
is this too handwavy
looks good.
awesome
This is how I wrote in my tex notes for point-set topology 

||This is a triple cover of a klein bottle, so it’s just a Klein bottle, no?||
Yes I agree
Ok I haven’t proved this rigorously
But I can definitely see that this triple cover is a Klein bottle
As far as I can see it's even smoothly homotopic to the usual immersion of the Klein bottle.
Yep
I think homotopic through immersions too
That's what I was trying to say.
Like the sphere eversion, but much simpler. Done with PovRay.
Re-rendered for the colorblind on: https://youtu.be/INdOWVFb8fk
Cut-open version of the video in https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jA86M6fdm_Q
Just do this shit to it
Which shows that two Klein bottles end-to-end is just a torus.
Yeah, but I mean rather play it backwards from slightly after the beginning
Since EG the situation right after this frame
Is basically analogous to what we have
Oh, I got the point.
With the gluing out of frame different but that doesn’t matter
they're calling it the most enlightening proof ever discovered
nah it's second to this
honestly why isn't that how every analysis proof is presented
jk epsilon delta chasing can be a bit fun
I see.
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/5137002/803927
this was fun/annoying to think about…
i learned about a curious definition of closed maps today from this
but one of the key points is cauchys mean value theorem
cauchys mvt is also used for lhopital 0/0
(i) duh and (ii) obviously qed
you can still see the light in this user's eyes
Hi! I'm trying to imagine geometrically the following proposition:
In (X,T), A c X is closed iff A = \overline{A}
If I think of A as an interval in R is easy to see that, if it's closed (e.g [0,1]) it does not have any point infinitely close to it such that a neighborhood of the point intersects with the set, but the point is not in the set, therefore the adherence is equal to A.
But trying to see this as a closed set in more general topologies, and thinking of closed set as the complementary of an open, I'm finding it hard to visualize it.
I usually like to think of this as saying that A must contain all of its boundary points. Here boundary points of A are points that can't be "separated" from A via neighborhoods. You can clearly picture this by imagining a bunch of open balls in R^2, which is what I usually do to build some intuition for arbitrary topological spaces.
Think of closure this way:
[
\overline A={x\in X:\text{ every open neighborhood of }x\text{ intersects }A}
]
So (x\in \overline A) means: the topology cannot separate (x) from (A) by an open neighborhood
Now use the complement definition of closed
,tex
[
\overline A
{x\in X:\text{ every open neighbourhood of }x\text{ meets }A}.
]
[
A\text{ is closed}
\iff
X\setminus A\text{ is open}.
]
If (A) is closed and (x\notin A), then (x\in X\setminus A).
Since (X\setminus A) is open, it is an open neighbourhood of (x) which does not meet (A). Hence
[
x\notin\overline A.
]
So no outside point is in (\overline A), and therefore
[
\overline A=A.
]
Conversely, suppose
[
\overline A=A.
]
If (x\notin A), then (x\notin\overline A).
So there exists an open neighbourhood (U) of (x) such that
[
U\cap A=\varnothing.
]
Thus (U\subseteq X\setminus A).
Every point of (X\setminus A) has an open neighbourhood contained in (X\setminus A), so
[
X\setminus A\text{ is open}.
]
Hence
[
A\text{ is closed}.
]
[
\boxed{A\text{ is closed}\iff A=\overline A}
]
Dex
If (A) is closed, then (X\setminus A) is open. So if (x\notin A), then (x\in X\setminus A), and this open set is a neighborhood of (x) that completely avoids (A).
Therefore (x\notin\overline A). So no outside point belongs to the closure, hence (\overline A=A)
If (\overline A=A), then every point outside (A) is outside (\overline A)
Every outside point has an open neighborhood contained in (X\setminus A). That exactly says (X\setminus A) is open. Therefore (A) is closed
A point is close to (A) if every open set around it is forced to touch (A)
Yeah, I imagine it as R2 balls, but, what relation does it has so that if its closed, is the same as his adherence?
@limber wyvern I think Dex's explanation answers it quite well. Like if A is closed and a point x is not in A, then u can make sufficiently small room around x such that it is completely isolated from A. This is basically the opposite of the notion of adherence.
let me write down what I think of
This is a vague drawing
but you can get the idea
like
The green drawing are the closed
how tf that is adherent to a point
can u clarify a bit more?
So
let A = X\T (The green lines), how is any point on the topology adherent to A?
I may be misunderstanding everything😅
So A is the green region with the black-line boundary in ur drawing?
affirmative
What is T?
so X\T means the X setminus T? or u meant X \setminus (union of all the open sets in X)
T is a collection of subsets of X, so it doesn't make sense to take a complement with X. So I guess u meant X \ (union of all open sets in X), which is just empty.
You can also think of closure in terms of sequences. That is, if there exists a sequence in A that converges to x, then x must be in the closure of A. I think this also captures the notion of closeness/adherence well and very intuitive cuz the notion of convergence matches well with the notion of closeness/nearby.
Unfortunately, the converse does not hold in general (counterexample: cocountable topology on R). But the converse holds in metric spaces (which we usually intuit on). More generally, the converse holds in first-countable spaces.
Sorry I didn't read your messages, pls ping me in every message xD
So
Forget about the drawing
But
Sometime the closed sets can be sets that are not in the topology, and so, they are in the space
like, freely
why are those sets adherent to some point in the open sets?
@limber wyvern oh so u mean u want to know the proof why the following is true?
Let $X$ be a topological space, and let $A \subseteq X$. Then $x \in \overline{A}$ if and only if for every neighborhood $U$ of $x$ in $X$, we have $U \cap A \neq \varnothing$.
Euiseok (Class of 1929 + 200)
I mean, I read the proof like 9 times
and yeah
I understand it
but i cannot picture it
what points are added in the closure of (0,1) as a subset of R for example
[0,1]
thats the closure, which points did you add in
the geometric intuition i have for closures is that they are encasings, or shells, around your set.
0 and 1
So you cannot find any neighborhood around that points and so, the set closed
What do you mean
hey guyss you mind helping me with topology
yeah
Thats what i was referring, you cannot introduce any neighborhooud in [0,1] because every neighborhood you add, stays out of the set, therefore it's closed
then yes, 1 is in the closure of (0,1) according to this result
First of all, amazing drawing.
So, I can see that because it's closed it has all the points in the frontier and in the interior and so thats why his adherence is all the set, because all the points intersect the open sets in A
I think my problem is that I was thinking about random open sets inside a topology and the rest of the space
something like
this isnt really a relevant condition
you dont talk about adding in neighborhoods when talking about closures
and its not true that every point of closure has every neighborhood intersect the complement
Exercise 18Given 10 points generated from two concentric (nested) circles:Inner circle: radius 2, consisting of 5 equally spaced points.Outer circle: radius 5, consisting of 5 equally spaced points.The distance between an inner point and its nearest outer point is 3.a) Describe the critical epsilon ($\varepsilon$) thresholds.b) At $\varepsilon = 3.0$, has each circle closed into a loop yet? What is the value of $\beta_1$?c) At $\varepsilon = 4.0$, have the two circles connected with each other? What is the value of $\beta_1$ at this point?d) At $\varepsilon = 6.0$, what happens to the holes? Explain.
can yu helpp me with this problem
minnhtri45
Exercise 18Given 10 points generated from two concentric (nested) circles:Inner circle: radius 2, consisting of 5 equally spaced points.Outer circle: radius 5, consisting of 5 equally spaced points.The distance between an inner point and its nearest outer point is 3.a) Describe the critical epsilon ($\varepsilon$) thresholds.b) At $\varepsilon = 3.0$, has each circle closed into a loop yet? What is the value of $\beta_1$?c) At $\varepsilon = 4.0$, have the two circles connected with each other? What is the value of $\beta_1$ at this point?d) At $\varepsilon = 6.0$, what happens to the holes? Explain.
can yu helpp me with this problem
Thats why its closed, right?
no
So, that point in red has no neighborhood that can be fully inside of the set
therefore that point has to be adherent and closed
Where the red are closed sets
you dont say a single point is closed
a singleton set {a}, sure
but it makes no sense to say that elements are closed
the set is closed if it contains all its limit points
that would mean its a point belonging to the boundary
Okay, I meaned a singleton, in my language there is no distinction
well no i dont think you meant that
because we werent talking about the singleton set being closed
Like, the singleton red has no neighborhood around it such that the whole neighborhood is inside the topology
well, but in (R,T_u) singletons are closed
we arent talking about whether the singleton is closed or not
a singleton set being closed has no bearing on whether the point it contains belongs to the closure of another set
every neighborhood intersecting the exterior and interior is not the condition for belonging to the closure
its sufficient but not necessary
so
lets start from the beggining
If a set has no neighborhood that is fully contained in an open set
it's closed
?
so what is your definition for closed set
it contains all its limit points
Okay, and could you do one that involves neighborhoods?
every neighborhood of every point intersects the set
mmm
is {1/n : n = 1,2,…} closed?
actually this isnt precise enough
this is still what you want
nope

well
because is not in the set, but the intersection of the neighborhood around it with the space is not empty
limit points can be in the set
the condition youre alluding to is that every neighborhood of 0 intersects the set
its not enough that only a single, specific neighborhood intersects the set
I see
Yeah x is a limit point of a set X if every open neighborhood about x intersects X at a point other than x
Then X is closed if it contains all its limit points
epsilon neighbourhood?
\textbf{Theorem.} Suppose $\mathcal{A}$ is the basis for some topology on $X$. Show that the topology $\mathcal{A}$ generates is the intersection of all topologies on $X$ that contain $\mathcal{A}$.
\begin{proof}
Suppose $\mathcal{A}$ generates a topology $T$. Let $\{\mathcal{T}_\alpha\}_{\alpha \in A}$ be the family of topologies on $X$ such that $\mathcal{A} \subseteq \mathcal{T}_\alpha$ for each $\alpha \in A$. Let $T' = \bigcap_{\alpha \in A} \mathcal{T}_\alpha$---we show $T = T'$. Of course, $T \in \{\mathcal{T}_\alpha\}_{\alpha \in A}$, and so $T' \subseteq T$. Now we seek to show $T \subseteq T'$. Equivalently, we show that for any open set in $T$, it follows that aforementioned open set is also in $\mathcal{T}_\alpha$ for every $\alpha \in A$. Fix $\alpha \in A$ and $O \subseteq T$. Note $\mathcal{A}$ is a basis for $T$, and so for each $x \in O$, there is some $B_x \in \mathcal{A}$ such that $x \in B_x \subseteq O$. Thus $O = \bigcup_{x \in O} B_x$. But note $B_x \in \mathcal{A} \subseteq \mathcal{T}_\alpha$ for every $x \in O$, and so the arbitrary union of each $B_x$ is in $\mathcal{T}_\alpha$. Thus $O \in \mathcal{T}_\alpha$, which completes the proof.
\end{proof}
is this proof OK?
0DIMENSIONAL LOVE FEELINGS
you need O \in T, not O \subset T
looks good then
note that a very similar proof works if you replace basis with subbasis
indeed, that's the next exercise
that i'm not doing because the proof is analogous 
there is some intersection business that goes on, but otherwise, yes, it is analogous
you can even break it into two steps
subbasis —> basis —> topology
yes i've realized this already
(This is amusing because I would define the topology a basis generates as being the intersection of all topologies containing it)
same tbh
top-down vs bottom-up approaches
guessing you define the subgroup generated by a subset to be the intersection of all subgroups containing it?
i think this is a good definition yes
though for subgroups it is sort of trivial to show that this coincides with the other more concrete one
yea. my thoughts are that it depends on what u r using it for
well, this should surely be the definition of "the coarsest topology making some collection of sets open," as it doesnt use anything of the structure of a basis
i am so gay right now
same
wdym 💀
point-set just does that to you
It encourages openness
Hell yeah, same
topology is the study of holes 🤤
Sure, my perspective is to just say that any collection subsets generates a topology (the coarsest one containing it) and then show that if your original thing is a basis then you have an easier description of this generated ting
is the easier description you're referring to the intersection of all topologies containing it? isn't that equivalent to the coarsest topology containing it (for any collection, including non-bases)
or are you referring to something else (i.e. the topology generated by a basis is the collection of all possible unions of sets in the basis)
the latter I would think
right yeah that makes sense
Later in Lemma 2, Tverberg restricts closeness in param space S^1 to max √3
Why that? Anything less than 2 should work right for ensuring uniqueness (?)
Is it just because √3 is nice
Why not √2 or 1.99?
Hello. I can't figure out why $\mathbb{R}^{\omega}$ with the uniform topology is not separable.
Gol D Roger
Can anyone give me an intuitive approach?
A dense subset will need to contain something close to every element of {0,1}^omega in particular.
Yeah try to find an uncountable collection of pairwise disjoint open sets
🎉
So I know ${0,1}^{\omega}$ is a discrete uncountable subset of $\mathbb{R}^{\omega}$, so I can take the uncountable set of balls of radius $\frac{1}{2}$ over all points in A, all of them which are disjoint .
Gol D Roger
I don't know what density plays there
Yeah then you're done
remember that if a subset is dense, it must intersect every open set
Hello guys
I believe that i can ask this here
How much problematic is the axiom of choice?
Like is fundamentall for maths or not much?
axiom of choice is TOO GOOD.
Yeah i saw that is very important but. Why are people who are so scandalized with it?
I don't think many people particularly are but it is largely hangovers from like 50+ years ago
mmm I don't really know about set theory, but I guess it's bcuz there are some results that are equivalent to AC and sounds very counterintuitive such as well-ordering thm.
it leads to some highly counterintuitive results
Yep
and it's somewhat not obvious what it means to make uncountably many choices or if that's in fact possible
I didn't understood the order thing. But i know has a relation with ac
well-ordeing means that every nonempty subset has a minimal element. Now well-ordeing thm states that every set has a well-order. Now think about this for R.
And what we have to do? The critics i saw were about a function that cannot be constructed or something like that. Am i wrong?
perhaps you saw something about the existence of non-measurable functions relying on the axiom of choice? And the banach-tarski paradox?
Yes but that talks about nor usual orders right? What is a not usual order?
not the usual order
Yes but the thing wasn't about consequences but about the statement itself. A rule i believe.
also, AC implies the existence of basis for every vecto space. Now this means the vector space R over Q has a basis. Now can u imagine it?
to get a well-ordering of R using the axiom of choice, you basically go "Choose a real number r1 to be the smallest real number. Now choose any r2 to be the next real number after r1. Then choose an r3, and r4, and so on, until you have chosen all real numbers"
Well,idk what "imagine" means but i think it has sense,and is importante for linear algebra. Right?
For the most part, not problematic at all, and in most of everyday mathematics argument that require it are mainstream and accepted without even noting explicitly that it's being used.
There were some doubt about it in the earlier part of the 1900s, but after Gödel proved that it doesn't introduce any new inconsistencies, and doesn't allow one to prove false things about finite computations that can actually be carried out, this has mostly faded away.
"Constructive" mathematics, which is a bit of a niche topic, avoids appeals to choice, but there's much more that it also avoids.
(I thought this was more Cohen than Gödel?)
Oh sure different things were proven by each towards this lol, and you are right in referring to Gödel here
Gödel proved that the axiom of choice and the continuum hypothesis are both consistent with ZF. Cohen later proved that their negations are, too.
There is something that constructive mathematicians don't accept that mainstream yes? Like without the axiom of choice what things you don't have?
Sorry for the questions i'm not an expert in this jsjaja
Constructive mathematics uses intuitionistic logic, which rejects proof by case analysis, that is, the schema
Consider the claim P which I'm hereby pulling out of a hat.
If P is true then (bla bla bla) and therefore Q.
If P is false, then (bla bla bla) and therefore also Q.
Therefore Q always holds.
unless the proof also shows a procedure for determining whether P is true or false.
In order to reject this, intuitionsistic logic also has to deny that "P or not P" is provable in general, or that "not not P" is the same as P, and a number of similar reasoning principles that are otherwise mainstream.
It also rejects some but not all applications of indirect proof. It is okay to prove ¬P by showing that assuming P leads to a contradiction, but it is not intuitionistically valid to prove P by showing that ¬P leads to a contradiction.
Ok i didn't understood but is for me you know jsjsja
Intuitionistic logic has relation with type thory or not necessary? Because is a different way to found matjamtics without set theory right?
Yes, type theory is also usually done with intuitionistic logic, and is the most common formalization framework for constructive mathematics.
what kind of existence proofs do constructivists/intuitionists accept? Or something exists only when an explicit example is given and proven?
Is true that type theory doesn't have axioms? How start if don't?
Yes, essentially.
Not quite -- but in some formulations of type theory there are only very few and simple axioms (at the level of "you can conclude anything you have assumed" or "the input to the function you're currently defining exists") and all the interesting stuff happens in the rules of inference.
(This style of presentation discards the otherwise common distinction between "logic for pure reasoning" and "axioms to define what it is you're reasoning about").
But sometimes it can be proven that a set of objects exist but for which no particular concrete example can be proven to be in. Eg. #foundations message what would intuitionists/constructivists think in this example?
I think btw Brouwer rejected formalization (via axioms I mean), but not all intuitionists/constructivists
If no example can be given (and one cannot even describe a procedure that would produce one, assuming unbounded resources and patience), then the existence would not be considered constructively proved.
For the particular post you point to, I think I have too little context to say anything intelligent (and it's only showing a claim not a proof anyway).
Yeah, that matches what I've learned. I think most who do constructive mathematics nowadays don't do it because they're followers of Brouwer. My sense is that for the most part they don't seriously doubt the mainstream results are true, just that having a constructive proof of something is "extra good" and in itself an interesting property that is worth investigating, for example, for the computational connections, or because such proofs can often be translated to "internal" statements in categories that don't accept full classical logic.
The proof is: construct an algorithm that enumerates all theorems and proofs of that given axiomatic system (which we should assume it's finite or recursive or something like that). It's in this wikipedia article https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kolmogorov_complexity#
In algorithmic information theory (a subfield of computer science and mathematics), the Kolmogorov complexity of an object, such as a piece of text, is the length of a shortest computer program (in a predetermined programming language) that produces the object as output. It is a measure of the computational resources needed to specify the object...
What I meant is, I'm not even sure what all the notation in the claim is.
kind of a brainrot question but is there an easier way to fully convince someone of what the product/quotient/etc topologies ought to be than
- the forgetful functor Top --> Set has a left and right adjoint (discrete and codiscrete topology)
- that means you can compute the underlying set of a lim/colim of spaces using the same lim/colim in sets
- stare at the poset of topologies on a set and work out which one is the finest/coarsest so that the appropriate maps are continuous, to get the correct universal property
when i was learning pointset stuff a lot of these constructions seemed a bit arbitrary and i didn't understand why they had to be that way (stuff like why the box topology is the "correct" one on products) until embarassingly much later
What
(But the box topology isn't the correct one on (infinitary) products).
ah sorry, i meant to say why it isnt the correct one 💀
I mean first you need to understand how different families of set are courser or finer (i.e contain more or less data about how points are related by neighborhoods) then the idea of the “least amount of data” or the “most amount of data” arise naturally
The motivation of this for me was how you can pullback a topology via a preimage since the preimage is super well behaved in respect to intersections and unions, and how that is the “least amount of data” needed for the map to be continuous
Same shit for sigma algebras too or really set algebras generally
Limits and colimits follow that same principle especially with the cone intuition as almost an inf or sup of a diagram
Quotients are just removing data by lumping it into clusters specified by a relation and only dealing with those
Or just disregarding it
yeah i think this is a good way to think about it, I'm just not sure how to motivate that this is what we should want to have in the first place (at least, without the motivation of it working in other contexts, like sigma algebras like you said / what is forced by category theory if you accept the definitions from there are correct)
Well it’s what a topology is.
Relating points by nicely compatible families of neighborhoods
Like how we relate people by their street and towns and such
How much data or neighborhoods we consider is more data and gives a finer topology
Like viewing townships instead of counties
hmm i see, yeah i think that's a good way to think about it
That’s how I try to intuit topologies as a point set idea to people who aren’t too abstract math brained
Same with quotients as getting rid of “redundancies” by grouping things together and only dealing with those collections, like how we can gather all cars into “make and model” and only compare that without caring about the details of what day it was made and where
Unfortunately topologies are not as well behaved as algebraic things. E.g. equalizer is not necessarily closed unless Hausdorff
The box topology on like a countable product is a good example of the fact that you don’t have enough data
makes sense, yeah. when i was learning these definitions it was sort of just arbitrarily given to us and then as homework we proved they were the finest/coarsest topologies such that the relevant functions were continuous. these days i have no problem accepting that its kind of backwards (we want the most efficient topology such that ..., and those are the topologies which realize that) but still unclear about how i would explain that philosophy to someone still learning the subject
Like 90% of my math background is self study so I have spent a lot of time trying to build intuition instead of just trying to remember rote definitions lol
good strategy lol
Are you teaching a course or tutoring or smth
Also your approach is super categorical lol
im mentoring an undergrad in a directed reading program about pointset topology yeah
yeah I mean the first two steps arent really doing anything relevant to the question i'm asking, I now realize. I don't think anyone is complaining that products and quotients of spaces are just the products and quotients of the underlying sets, with some topology
I’m doing this next sem for classical mechanics :3
This is a great introduction to category theory ideas though
but its worth thinking about at some point in one's life why that is true in topology. coproducts and cokernels in groups are much more interesting than the respective colimits in sets, for example. limits are well-behaved which is clear from the free group adjunction
nice! they are great programs
The idea of data and limits and colimits easily lead to the categorical ideas
yeah agreed. i mean category theory was basically developed for algtop lol
The most or least amount of data needed to “cap” the top and bottom of the diagram
anyways yeah i should've just excluded the first 2 bullet points lmao, like i said no one is confused about why the product of spaces is a product. just want to make sure i have better answers than some unclear philosophy about efficiency / the definitions in topology have proven to be useful / the definitions of category theory have proven to be useful and they force the definitions in topology to be what they are
but yeah i like the way you explained it, thanks!
it is definitely important to have intuition that extends beyond "it is forced by category theory"... i once saw someone define homotopy equivalence of spaces by defining a category, defining isomorphisms, defining the homotopy category of spaces, and then just saying those are the isomorphisms in that category. its efficient but completely unhelpful
I mean sure, and it provides a framework to describe it in but it just adds more overhead to communicate
What’s cokernel in grp is it the same as in Ab
Probably take normal closure
i agree with @stuck geyser. this was my bad but this specific type of coequalizer should probably not be called coker unless you work in Ab
well
idk i wouldnt call something coker unless your category is preadditive, which Grp is not
as a sanity check: abelianization will preserve colimits, being left adjoint to the inclusion Ab --> Grp (Ab is a localization of Grp). so abelianization of coker is coker of abelianization. if everything is already abelian then you just get G/im(f) which will be abelian, so everything agres
this is kind of weird, coproducts of abelian groups computed in Grp will still be annoying free-group-type things but i guess coequalizers are well behaved. a priori you only know limits (in Grp) of abelian groups will be abelian, again by being a localization
They’re more well behaved but still different
wait are they not the same
its kind of late here so i'd definitely believe i said something false lol
also @robust drum lets move to #groups-rings-fields probably
R's topology is the order topology, and its basis is just open intervals in R
then Z's subspace topology has a basis of all open intervals of R, intersected with Z
so
isnt the subspace topology of Z the discrete topology (as a subspace of R)?
and thus every f: Z --> R is continuous
i havent gotten to a def of subspace topology or continuity but i would imagine:
- subspace topology is just the set of all open sets intersected with the subset
- continuity is every inverse image of an open set is open
yep, that's all correct
if you haven't seen subspace topology before you might want to quickly check that that definition does give you a well-defined topology
awesome thx
its in the section of my book haha
i verified it in my head though
emptyset and original set are obviously in the subspace topology
then finite intersection and arbitrary union you just use set rules
wait a minute
if f: Z-->R is always continuous, then wouldn't a sequence a: Z+ -> R+ always be continuous too
depends on what you mean by a sequence being continuous
like the function generating the sequence
a function mapping Z+ to R+ (in this case i am specifying entirely nonnegative sequences)
any implications from this
we don't typically talk about sequences being continuous
because as the way you've defined it there's no reason why I wouldn't just look at the original function instead
if you have a sequence x : N U { ∞ } —> X where X is a top space and N U { ∞ } has the order topology, then x is continuous if and only if x converges to x_{∞}
🤔
ok
is there a formal name for the theorem saying that if a cover locally refines every point in a topological space, then it is a basis for that topology
the content of this lemma is that subspace topologies are subsets of parent topology yeah?
im not reading the proof cuz i like to prove theorems without seeing proof occasionally
only if Y is open. otherwise, this may not be true
but, suppose O in topology on Y. then O is the arbitrary union of basis elements of form Y cup U lambda. rewriting yields Y cap (arbitrary union of sets open in X), which is a finite intersection of open sets in X. then O is in the topololgy of X
yes
that part is used in my last sentence
ah wait so this is um
it means
tau_X is finer than tau_Y right
for an open subspace Y \subseteq X
ok wait scratch this im just tired LEL
Is there a self-homeomorphism of closed disc minus 2 disjoint closed discs that has no fixed points?
the answer is pretty easy for n≠2 holes and if the holes are open. but i have no idea how could this be proved for n=2 and closed holes.
Wiseguy answer: let one of the disks you subtract touch the boundary of the outer disk.
I suppose you mean a closed disk minus two disjoint open disks, so the resulting space is closed in R².
Nope, that one is easy
Ah right, I just found a solution for that too.
Hi. For Proposition 8.14, can anyone explain why A being contained in B being contained in closure(A) implies f^-1[{k}] = B?
it's bcuz the closure of A in the subspace topology on B is B.
Can't the closure of A be bigger than B though?
That would mean closure(A) wouldn't be in the subspace topology of B (on that note, is the subspace topology the same as the relative topology of B?)
oh I'm talking about the closure of A with respect to the subspace topology on B.
we take the closure in B, not in X
Yeah wait that's what I'm saying
How can the closure of A be part of the subspace topology of B
so it can't be bigger
The largest element of the subspace topology of B is B
since the ambient space is B, not cl(A) or X.
I'm still confused sorry. Taking what you said to be true, how does that imply that f^-1[{k}] = B?
f^-1[k] is a closed (in B) set containing A and so is cl(A), the smallest closed (in X) set containing A (when restricted to B, it's still closed)
this is another theorem saying the closure of a set A can't be that much bigger than A, in this nice case that A is connected
Ohh wait I think I get it
So f^-1[k] is a closed set in B that contains A, closure(A) is a closed set that contains A.
If you restrict closure(A) to be in B, that restriction should still be closed (by definition of closure(A)), but more so we have that B = restriction of closure(A) under the topology of B [since closure(A) is bigger than or equal to B in X]
Which means that B has to be closed in B
Thank you both!
I'm wondering about the differences between compactness and sequential compactness. I have not formally learned topology, so I'm not going to delve very deep and I'm just asking out of curiosity. I read https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sequentially_compact_space which says the two notions are equivalent for metric spaces, which I can understand, but apparently
there exist sequentially compact topological spaces that are not compact, and compact topological spaces that are not sequentially compact.
There are examples of both, but I fail to understand them.
First, for sequentially compact but not compact, the example is:
The first uncountable ordinal with the order topology
Now, I think I understand what the first uncountable ordinal is, and I can kind of process what an order topology is, but I don't understand what the result of putting the two together is.
Second, for compact but not sequentially compact, the example is:
The topological product of 2^ℵ_0 copies of the closed unit interval
Here I think I just don't understand why this is not sequentially compact.
Can someone give me some intuition?
The usual compactness and sequential compactness are non comparable notions in general topological spaces, but they coincide in metrizable spaces
Yes I got that, I'm specifically asking about the examples
So in the order topology you can check a sequence for convergences by doing the liminf and limsup, just like you would with a sequence of real numbers for example.
In in the first uncountable ordinal every countable set has a supremum
For counterexample, {0,1}^P(N) is compact by Tychonoff thm, but u can easily show that it is not sequentially compact
Consider e_i to be the element that is 1 in degree i and 0 otherwise
Then look at the sequence {e_i}
Conversely, the minimal uncountable well-ordered set is sequentially compact, but not compact.
Wait is that for the first or second example?
For 2^N
Actually, there might be a mistake in that example. Hold on
Oh ok so that's compact because it's a product of compact spaces but not sequentially compact because of that sequence
This sequence converges to 0
Ok that left me more confused
Sorry, I just gave a bad example
2^ℵ_0, where ℵ_0 is the cardinality of the natural numbers, is definitely not finite, right?
No, it has the same cardinality as the real numbers
So you might as well use the real numbers as indexing
Right yes it's the mathfrak c thing
oh nvm, u already gave the specifc counterexample. sorry, didn't ready the question properly
So with that many copies of the closed unit interval, how would your sequence ever converge?
Convergence of sequence in the product topology is the same as pointwise convergence.
So the idea here is that since you have 2^N factors you have enough room to go crazy in each factor that you can't tame all of them at once by going to a subsequence
Alright, here's what you can do:
We think of 2^N as subsets of N (the natural numbers).
Define a sequence xn to be 1 at those indecies where n belongs to the set and 0 otherwise.
Now for any subsequence we pick, we can make a subset of N containing about half of those elements and there the sequence will fail to converge pointwise as it will flip flop between 1 and 0
Ok I think I understand that but I'm missing why the simpler example fails
The other example was actually about 2^N and not
[0, 1]^(2^N)
Not sure what you mean... 2^N is just a number, what space are we talking about?