#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 130 of 1
yeah 😭 theres a lot of confusing trains of thought
wait how do i know that U cap V will still intersect A
i mean i guess it intersects at the point x
right, so its a neighborhood of x
yeah
isnt there something about limit points having to be the neighborhood minus x intersecting
nah wait im just jumbling up definitions
ur right
i guess the only thing now is showing that all neighborhoods of x that intersect A - B can be given as some U \cap V?
maybe thats kind of obvious though
mmm reframe that
we just want to show that x is in the closure of A-B
so every neighorhood of x contains a point in A-B
yeah meaning that any neighborhood of x intersects A - B
we know U cap V contains a point in A - B, right
yes
ah dude im so overcomplicating it
i see it now
U and U cap V both share x
U cap V and A - B both share x
so
no nvm i dont know that A - B has x
ah right
idk why im thinking about this in terms of unions
ive been feeling as if my basic set theory is lacking
oh well im too deep into math now to go back to discrete math, eventually itll click
i took my discrete course at a college with barely any math before i transferred to my current college with pretty good math and it shows
to be honest i think this proof is just kind of hard (unless im just dumb)
for me a lot of the elements are used in ways that feel kind of indirect
we care about a point being in U, but we can't work with U, so we intersect with a set with a useful property to get a subset that is directly useful, but we only care about that subset because its a subset of our original set
yeah
its kind of sleight of handy
its just the fact that it took me that long to register that U cap V is a subset of U is a problem
thats fair
like im fully aware of that fact but for some reason it slipped my mind
honestly though i think i was just getting tied up with sets intersecting vs sets being subsets and that just scrambled my train of thought
so i wont worry too much about it
there is a way to symbol bash this with demorgan’s i think lol
i was thinking about doing that but my profs tend to hate symbol spamming so i decided against it
yes okay good my next problem is easy
i need to find the point(s) that 1/n converges to in R under the cofinite topology
its just all of R
okay my professor barely went over quotient topologies so i have like nothing to deal with these
i hardly even understand what its asking me to do
so i know i have to show that q is continuous both ways since thats the definition of a quotient map
its forward continuous since its the projection of a continuous function
continuous both ways isnt really accurate, its moreso that a set is open if and only if its preimage is open
@umbral hamlet some set theory comes in handy here. if g is the restriction of f to A, then g^{-1}(V) = f^{-1}(V) \cap A
yes i understand that
honestly the hardest part is showing that q inverse(U) open implies U open
U open implies preimage of U open is just showing that q is continuous
though i now understand why we cant say its exactly continuous both ways
idk if theres an easier way but i think you can kind of just do this directly
take an arbitrary set S in R, and consider the preimage S^-1. Suppose S^-1 is open. Then for any x in S, we want to show that we can form an interval around x that is contained in q(S^-1)
the main motivation is to find a preimage point of x in S^-1, and make an open neighborhood of the point that is contained in S^-1 and ideally maps to an open set in R, which will be contained in S and contains x. you just need to be careful with with preimage point you choose
i think i got it
frankly needed help from stack exchange but im not too sad bc im pretty clueless about this
continuous both ways makes sense for open maps
which is kind of cute
i'm confused, isn't the problem asking to show that q isn't open and also not closed?
yea
why would this be a goal then?
to show that its a quotient map i suppose
that is also part of the question ig
oo open maps seem really convenient
If a function is continuous, open, and bijective, it is a homeomorphism.
If a function is continuous, open, and injective, it is an embedding.
If a function is continuous, open, and surjective, it is a quotient map.
so homeomorphisms are quotient map embeddings 
open maps sound nice until you take a look at a few examples
whenever a question involves proving a map is open i assume its going to be annoying :(
ok now i gotta show this thing isnt open or closed
tho its just two counterexamples so its whatever
pretty sure its equivalent to finding sets U that are open in the non negative reals but not on all reals
same for closed
this is... confusing me, what makes R^n special
oo theres a wikipedia page
wait wouldnt (-1, 1) restricted to A be open in the subspace topology on A but then [0,1) isnt open in R
so q cant be open
oh wait this is like super clear im just brainrotted from weird topology spaces
oh this is a thing that feels obvious but is actually hard to prove
are you referring to (-1, 1) x R
yeah but i realized thats not even a subset of A so
pretty sure just the set (R^+, 0) is open
and its image is R^+ which isnt open in R
well that’s okay we can take the intersection after but that set anyway doesn’t result in a non open set after projecting
yeah
but im pretty sure any set with the non negative reals in the first coordinate is open
are you referring to basically the positive x axis right now
Also this is open that’s just (0, inf)
yeah i meant [0, inf)
how come
oh wait wait nvm
could i do like [0, inf) x U
where U is just some arbitrary open set
what open set in R^2 are you starting with to get these sets
(0, inf) x U
okay that’ll stay untouched in the A subspace topology, but that projects onto an open set so that’s no good
aiming for [0, inf) x U for some U is a good idea but you need to construct an R^2 set that’ll intersect to that, bc this isn’t an open set in R^2 by itself
no it wont
itll turn into [0, inf) x U
wait shit ur right
i would need like (-1, inf) x U
my bad
yeah but you also need to be a bit careful with U
how come
are we fine if U = (-1, 1)?
oh yeah ur right
could be that we take the negative chunk of the first coordinate and then all of U
and thats a subset of A
mm do you have an example im not sure what u mean
well like its either that the first coordinate is non negative or the other coordinate is 0
or both ig
so if we take the negative part of (-1, inf) then
oh the other part would have to be {0}
I still like this idea
i think U just has to not intersect 0
yup
dude this is terrible
ugh
anyways now i at least have my example
man idk why im struggling with this class so much though
i get its hard but i genuinely just have no idea whats going on
honestly I think some classes just click better than others for different people
yeah
algebra is what clicks best for me
i think im just completely unfamiliar with topology
and also the prof i have is apparently notoriously not good at teaching topology which isnt great
tbh i've come to terms that i need to seek out more examples and motivation
since like, ok product and quotient topology cool! yay! (why am i being taught this)
topology is like the first pure math class that clicked for me lowkey, compared to algebra and analysis 
same
ive also just like been completely unable to follow what my prof is doing in class
I feel like I would have had a much better time with my math major if I took topology first 😭
like these constructions rose from the math that people were doing but of course that doesnt get mentioned
my prof also says "its clear/obvious/trivial" for literally every step
and im like
why is the class being hosted then
yeah same
idk if you read the textbook and not to beat a dead horse but the textbook helps a lot :D I couldn’t really understand my prof’s lectures that much either but it made a lot more sense after reading through the relevant chapters
Flashback to us learning all of the algebraic topology chapters in 3 lectures 🥀
maybe learning is a strong word
and the backrests were so evil bc half of them were constructing coverings and stuff meanwhile half the class just learned what a group is 💔
what are backrests?
im excited for algtop
i hope ill understand that better
geometric intuitions for group theory really clicks for me
so im hoping thatll be what happens for algtop
okay at the very least im good with the countability axioms
i think thats because i got good practice with them
so
maybe once i take my time with everything else ill be fine
I think the issue is that a lot of early general topology does consist of proofs where the individual steps are very simple, even though not necessarily combined in a way that's immediately obvious to a beginner; and also as a result this starts feeling really easy fairly soon. A lot of teachers have a hard time distinguishing between what is obvious to them and what is obvious to their students who are seeing all this for the first time, and I think that's particularly exacerbated in topology because the "things becoming obvious" happens fairly quickly compared to other fields (but still not instantly, so you can't treat it as obvious in lectures)
Tangentially related, here's a passage from Munkres which I found interesting:
I'm lecturing on topology this semester and I did sort of observe that, in the sense that up until this point my personal lecture notes consist of just definitions and statements of theorems/lemmas, and I know I'll be able to prove them on the fly in lectures.
But obviously I wouldn't expect the students to be able to just see how the proofs would work, especially on the fly.
They probably would given some time, which is also why I'm relegating some proofs to the interactive problem-solving sessions.
There's also a risk of flying too close to the sun here, because I've attended some lectures by really great mathematicians (and overall fairly good teachers) who misjujdged how much they'd be able to prove on the fly and got really stuck in lectures
still haven't figured out how to pronounce Urysohn
The hardest part of that lemma, to be sure
A cursory google search resulted in me finding this
https://www.nku.edu/~longa/classes/2009fall/mat305/resources/pronunciation.html
oh god
What they give does jive with the Cyryllic spelling of his name (Урысо́н)
oh the stress is on the ry, that's probably why I confused my prof
Outsider, do you maintain your lecture's notes or problems sheets?
Yes, but in Polish
😕
yea good luck to english speakers to pronounce an ы
Well, what can you do, every language has its own phonemes
ok I have two questions
I'll ask my first
can you guys give me an example of a subset of R^n that is connected but not path-connected?
(I know that path-connectedness implies connectedness, but I just heard that it's not necessarily true the other way around)
ok I'll ask my second too
is there a specific name for a subset S of the underlying set of a topology T such that for all open sets X,Y, S ∩ X = S ∩ Y -> X = Y
basically meaning that the topology is the "same" (not necessarily homeomorphic but you get what I mean with the same structure and all so to speak) when restricted to the subset
In R^2, take the graph of sin(1/x), combined with the line {x = 0, -1 <= y <= 1}
ok fair enough I guess
I had the idea when looking at the infinite product topology from the perspective of X^Y and the perspective of the set of elements of X^Y that have a cofinite kernel
Such a subset has to be dense at least
You have an issue if singletons are closed
I noticed that too
it's admittedly a bit meaningless for R^n because of that
Yeah if singletons are closed you need S to be the whole space
and meaningless for metric spaces in general I think
If there is a closed point x not contained in S, then S will have the same intersection with X and X\{x}
So meaningless for any T1 space
Which should include product spaces for X T1, not sure what you had in mind here
I meant the non-(box topology) version of the product topology?
is the non-(box topology) version still T1?
Yeah, the usual product topology on a product of T1 spaces is T1
Let fi: Prod Xi -> Xi be the projection maps, then if {xi} in Xi is closed, so is the preimage.
Take the intersection of all those preimages and you get a singleton set
ok hmm yeah that works I guess
Or perhaps simpler, if two points aren't equal, then there is a coordinate where their different. Then just take the basic open set that's only nontrivial at that coordinate
No
Not sure what you mean by equivalent, but the answer should be no in either case
I mean homeomorphic
Still no
Yeah they’re not homeomorphic
what's the condition for an open subset of R^n being homeomorphic to it?
What's a counterexample?
Actually I'm not sure, there are open contractible manifolds that are not R^n. But I guess they probably don't embed as open subsets
Apparently Whitehead manifold still works
Like it embeds as an open subset of R^3
I see, yeah it's defined as an open subset of S^3 so that checks out
This is v cool though lol glad you brought this up
Til smth lol
ok another question
why directed sets?
the elements are supposed to correspond to open sets (around a point), and upper bounds supposed to correspond to the intersections of those open sets right? but why pre-ordered instead of just partial ordered sets?
I think it's just for generality sake
and yeah as you pointed out the main motivation is that the open neighborhoods of a point for a directed set
I don't think you actually need preorder to characterize all of the topological properties
Ah apparently it's useful to avoid the axiom of choice
since instead of choosing a net of open neighborhoods you can instead choose a net of pairs (y, U) where U is an open neighborhood of x and y is in U
(basically instead of choosing an element from every open neighborhood of a point which requires choice, you just consider all of the points)
They correspond quite well to the notions of “limit” you come across in calculus
For example, you can consider the reals “directed towards a point”, and this isn’t partially ordered
Essentially, the antisymmetry requirement turns out to not really be that relevant for formalising the notion of a “direction” on a set
I think they're asking why preorders rather than partial orders (i.e. why no antisymmetry requirement), especially considering that inclusion is a partial order.
Mhm, so I gave an example of a use case of directed sets where it’s not a partial order
Yeah, sorry, I didn't read the third message
Or the second one
Bad case of mansplaining, profound apologies

What do you mean by this, though?
Yeah, just found it; makes sense I suppose
I mean I can see how it's a preorder but not a partial order, and it's a fairly natural construction
wdym by the reals "directed towards a point"?
See the link I posted
Are you asking in the context of nets or something else?
Tbf I think it's just his teaching philosophy and it's growing on me tbh
It's like he says those things to provoke you into actually going back and proving it yourself
This implies the only open set containing S is the whole space(trivially), and that S is dense(because SnT=Sn\emptyset implies T=\emptyset) , not sure what else
it also implies that the space ain't T1
cause if it was T1 it'd have every singleton be closed, making, for some x in X/S, SnX = Sn(X/{x}) -> X = X/{x} which can't be of course
the original place the premise came from in the first place was wrong
so ignore it smh smh
Ah
Ok I have to show that R omega isnt separable in box
Wouldn't the set of all possible countable products of open sets of the form (n, n +1) for n in Z show that there are uncountably many disjoint open sets
Yeah it would bc diagonal argument
I think that proves it then
This is a problem i did on my last hw that I apparently got wrong
Idk what it is i did that was wrong tho
Did I not prove that each coordinate has to be unbounded?
"Some factor" doesn't quite make sense to me
Like firstly C needn't be of the form C1 x C2 x ...
And at the same time, the projection of C onto each coordinate could be all of R without C being all of R^oo - e.g. consider the set {(x, x, x,...)}
@umbral hamlet
Hmm
I mean i thought that I showed any coordinate being bounded in some direction causes a problem
Sure but that doesn't seem to imply the conclusion
Ah well i suppose that doesn't make it all of R
Well even if each coordinate were all of R you wouldn't be done
By stuff like this
I think I get why the first one is the way it is but why is the product topology on N^N and the irrationals equivalent?
oh hmm, I can kinda see it now I think
ok wait why can't it be ({0,1})^N too?
{0,1}^N is compact, the irrationals aren't
Tychonoff's theorem if you haven't heard about that in class yet
why are the irrationals homeomorphic to N^N?
I mean - your intuition for the Cantor set was probably that you can split it into two disjoint parts, then split each of those into two disjoint parts and so on forever, right?
it's a similar thing with the irrationals, just a little harder to see because they're not so spaced out
you can find a way to split them into countably many disjoint sets, each of those homeomorphic to the entire space of irrationals
the easiest way to see is continued fractions
oh, interesting. that one I did not see coming
irrational numbers correspond to infinite continued fractions
ok but like can't you also just constantly split the irrationals into two?
that is to say, to infinite sequences of natural numbers
well fine there's a problem with the splitting thing
hm, right. looks like the details are a bit more subtle
you can keep splitting the irrationals into two and embed them into the Cantor set that way, but you'll find that the embedding is not surjective
when you do the splitting thing the infinite tuples basically represent how you approach the number through the split open sets, but this kind of construction would probably allow you to approach a rational too which would be a problem
the main difference there is that a limit of irrational numbers need not be an irrational number
if you do the splitting carefully enough, I don't think so
i.e. you have "gaps" in the space, where the rationals would be
you can probably arrange it so that every single rational number occurs as a split point once
that is pretty much what happens with the continued fraction construction
every finite continued fraction is rational and a "split point"
or viewed in another way you would have to have one of the numbers "approach infinity" to get to a rational right?
idk at this point this is stretching the metaphor to a point its innacurate lol
ok imagine N^N
every member has initial segments, N^{n}
the whole set is a tree, and its elements are the infinite branches of the tree
the rationals are the initial segments of these branches, the finite paths from the root
this is the idea right?
yea
the blue points are the parents of all points to the right of them until the next blue point in line
the green points (direct children of blue ones) are parents of all points to the left (!) of them until the next green point
what my point was with "approaching infinity"
is that you don't touch a point by just getting closer and closer to it with intervals but never actually touching
and "the other side" gets "sealed" on the next iteration (the intervals approaching from 1/2 to 1 never "touch" 1)
such a process happens for every rational and so it's impossible to try to get to any rational by infinitely narrowing down the intervals
ok fine wait there's a bit of a mistake in what I'm saying
these open sets don't actually have that rational
by "approaching it through narrowing down the intervals infinitely" you technically just don't get anything as they technically "approach" a rational that isn't even inside them
What advantages are there in studying topology from the point of view of filters instead of open sets? It seems less natural to me. Is there any heuristic or practical reason to justify working with filters?
usually the debate is filters vs nets not filters vs open sets
Let me phrase this another way, why add the overhead of any of these two systems?
No, that’s not what I mean. I mean, why go through the effort of introducing filters in topology? They seem like quite abstract, complex objects
In other words, why would one take the step from phrasing things in terms of open sets to phrasing things in terms of filters (or nets)
And ideally, I’d like an answer that goes further than just “to define convergence in bizarre spaces”
the point of filters is to have a generalized the notion of limits
well nets are often easier to work with than open sets for a lot of notions
and filters have advantages over nets
just as a random example if you want to show that the closure of a subspace is again a subspace (say of a topological vector space) you can prove it in a really quick and easy way with nets
not that it's difficult without but with nets it's just basically obvious
so phrasing things in terms of convergence is just really convenient, and filters are another way to do convergence which can be helpful
ultrafilters have a lot of nice properties, such as every point having a canonical ultrafilter, ultrafilters corresponding to points in the stone cech compactification, images and preimages of ultrafilters being prime/ultra
and filters show up in other places yeah
they are the "right" abstraction when you think about what convergence is
the classical way to define an extension of a Hausdorff space is to define some lattice over certain subsets of the space and add all ultrafilters
stone-cech compactification, realcompactification, iliadis absolute all use this idea of generating a new space by taking all ultrafilters in a certain lattice associated with the space
dieudonne completion also? im unsure actually about that one, maybe not
a more palatable example is uhh
the duality between the ideals in the ring of continuous real-valued functions and ultrafilters on zero-sets of a space
(which is still stone-cech in disguise but w/e)
i think if you want to learn "why filters" then read "rings of continuous functiosn" by gillman
How about "to define limits and convergence in nice everyday spaces"? Even in plain old $\bN$ and $\bR$, you can use filters for a uniform meaning of things like $\lim_{x\to c}$ vs $\lim_{x\to-\infty}$ vs $\lim_{x\to c^+}$, or for that matter $\lim_{n\to\infty}$, as well as "diverges to $+\infty$" versus "diverges to $\pm\infty$" versus "keeps oscillating", all without adding new points to the space just to have something to hang this up on.
Troposphere
Yeah filters are very based for defining convergence
They’re also a good way to model statements that hold “eventually”, or “forall things sufficiently [X]”
They’re closely connected to nets, which can be seen as a good topological generalisation of sequences
Sequences are good for probing metric spaces, while nets are good for probing arbitrary topological spaces
And any net defines a corresponding “eventuality filter”
Another nice thing about filters is that they give “canonical representatives” to any point in a topological space - namely, the neighbourhood filter
not sure which topology chat this question belongs to, but ive had this problem about connectedness that ive been trying to understand for a while now (question is image).
I saw someone talking about two halfs of R^2 and then a bridge that connects them. This bridge is R x [n,infty) and then you increase n, etc.
what I do not get is how this ends up being disconnected as disconnected means a partition of two open sets if im not mistaken. these sets are both not open. any help would be appreciated!
realized my "closed" mistake
You can find two open disjoint subsets of R^2 which contain the respective halves; and also generally a disconnected set is one which is a union of two (nonempty) disjoint subsets open in relative topology
In fact those two subsets would be clopen, and existence of nontrivial clopen sets is equivalent to being disconnected
okay so they just have to be nonempty disjoint open in a "relative" topology. and by relative you mean like with the same "rule" but restricted to a space?
Yes, in the case of metric spaces that just means you consider the subset (with the same metric) as a space in its own right, without any regard from points from the original space which aren't in your set.
As an example, if we consider [0,1] union (2,3) (in R with the Euclidean metric); [0,1] is an open subset of the relative topology, and (2,3) is closed in the relative topology.
wait why is [0,1] open?
It’s the intersection of an “ambient” open subset with your subspace
For example you could take (-1, 1.5) as the ambient open subset
Another way of thinking about this is that - you want the inclusion map from your subspace to R to be continuous
So the preimage under this inclusion map of any open subset of R should be open in your subspace
Also you can directly verify openness from devinition definition.
So e.g. the preimage of (-1, 1.5) should be open
Every element of [0,1] is contained in [0,1] with an entire open neigbhorhood (remembering that points to the left side of 0 "don't exist" for us)
Mhm
By divination, this set is open.
Behold, an open crystal ball
In particular because points to the left of 0 don't exist in our space, a ball of radius 0.1 centered at 0 is the set [0,0.1)
Which is a subset of [0,1]
ahh okay so its a union of open balls because we can just go (-0.5,1.5) intersect our space and then we have it
Indeed.
so then the two halves in the original answer will be open in the subspace because we can intersect it with for example (-infty, 0.5) x R and get itself so its open (similarly for the other side)
so just to make sure i have understood this discussion correctly would this line of argument be correct? still feels a bit handwavy to me. especially the last part
Is each V_n containing V_{n+1}?
i see how i never actually checked that. id have to make sure of that yea thanks! is the last part right tho?
changed it to geq. should be good now
This Lemma is from Munkres Topology. The part of this proof that I’m not getting is where it says “First note that h(Z+) cannot be contained in the finite set {1, …, c}, because h(Z+) is infinite (since h is injective)”. I understand that this is saying that h(Z+) is not a subset of {1, …, c}. What I’m not understanding is “since h is injective”. Can someone help me fill in the details to understand how they are justifying h(Z+) is not a subset of {1, …, c}? Thank you!
If h(Z+) is finite we can restrict the codomain of h to h(Z+) to get a bijection from Z+ to a finite set, but this can't happen because Z+ is not finite ( this should've been proved earlier in munkres)
Ohhhh ok yeah I see it now. Thank you! Why was he using h is injective?
Otherwise the restriction won't be a bijection
Ohhhhhhh right right that makes sense now. Thank you for your explanation!
So I'm looking at the cocountable topology. We can include the set A = reals minus pi in that topology, since its complement is a Singleton, right? And the rationals are a subset of A. But the rationals aren't in the topology since its complement isn't countable. I thought all subsets of open sets are also open.
What am I missing?
Nevermind I got it lol
yea, not every subset of an open set is open.
if that were true, open sets would be kind of boring, since every set would be open in every top space
Yeah I got confused about the intersection rule. They have to be the intersection of open sets
can anyone please make sure im not tweaking the fuck out
Ross school of buisiness?
ross math program
💀
basically the idea of compactness for convergence is:
convergence in ultrafilters is the same as cluster points, which is the same as closures of elements of the filter, e.g \bar{F}, but the filter base property tells us the \bar{F} satisfy the finite intersection property
but a collection of closed sets w finite intersection property having something in all of them (e.g nontrivial intersection) is the same as compactness just by taking complements of the closed sets
and then tychonoff thm is like trivial as a result
just by how convergence in products works
tychonoff comes trivially from convergence in filters, it works for stuff where normal convergence doesn't work well.
you can make this as detailed as ya wnt @dawn frigate like t1 non hausdorf
what was yr prof proof @dawn frigate
if X is infinite set with co-countable topology then only finite susbets are compact, right?
In a co-countable topology on an infinite set every finite subset is compact because any open cover can always be reduced to finitely many sets covering all its points however any infinite subset is not compact since you can create an open cover using complements of single points and no finite subcollection of these opens can cover the whole infinite set
Finite sets are always compact!
Yeah in short 
Um, if you take complements of single points, then just two of those will cover everything.
Instead choose a countably infinite subset A and cover it with opens of the form (X\A) U {x}.
The other perspective would be to note that countable sets are closed in the co-countable topology, and consider the family of closed sets of the form A\{x} as x ranges over the elements of A.
It has the finite intersection property but its intersection is empty
(Which is exactly the complementary view of what I said, btw).
Yeah, it's a different perspective on the same argument
Ah i get it now, mixed some stuff up 
((By the way, in the absence of (countable) choice, I think the right result is that the compact subspaces under the cocountable topology are exactly the Dedekind-finite subsets.))
((That is, picking a countably infinite subset A in the above argument is essential.))
i am confused about exercise 8: prove that an uncountable complete metric space has at least the cardinality of the continuum. — isnt this equivalent to CH, considering that any set can be equiped with a discrete metric, turning it into a complete metric space.
or am i missing something
Hmm, perhaps they intended to assune connectedness?
connectedness hasnt been covered in the book yet. and the separable case is proven in that section as a theorem.
Hmm, beats me. Your counterexample looks good to me, unless there's some hidden assumption somewhere.
well, hopefully i am not missing something stupid then
Could it be something like "with no isolated points"?
No, that doesn't feel like it's enough.
i think it is? — take closed ball with diameter 1 around some point, find two points in the interior of that closed ball and take closed balls of diameter at most 1/2 around each of them. make the closed balls small enough to be disjoint. then repeat a similar procedure with each of the two balls and so on ad infinitum.
that way we can assign to each sequence in 2^ω a sequence of closed balls with diameters approaching zero and therefore a Cauchy sequence. and each of these Cauchy sequences should converge to a distinct point.
Ah, the counterexample I thought I had in mind is not actually complete. :-)
What is Dedekind finite subsets?
not in bijection with any of their subsets
(same thing) not having a countable subset
That's mean finite set?
in absence of choice this is not equivalent to finiteness
a particular case of infinite Dedekind-infinite sets is amorphous sets - sets where if you split it in two, one part will be finite and the other infinite
Okay
I want non Hausdorff, non compact, locally compact space, i tried but I don't get it, any hint?
it’s almost R, but with an additional point
Yes fixed point topology
Actually I have to show if X is locally compact then it is not necessarily that open subspace is locally compact
But in fixed point Topology it will be
And if X is Hausdorff then it will be true therefore I am taking non Hausdorff spaces
not the particular point topology. i was thinking the line with two origins
What is line with two origin?
Is your definition of locally compact just that every point has a compact neighborhood?
If so just take a space that isn't locally compact and take the one point compactification
Yes it is the definition which I am using
they want a non-compact space tho
Okay, then just take the disjoint union with whatever
it is the quotient of R x {-1,1} under the equivalence relation that identifies (x,1) with (x,-1) for all x != 0.
classic
doing topology from munkres makes me appreciate that the modern development of the subject is essentially handed to you on a silver platter
can't imagine how frustrating it must have been to fumble around until hitting upon the right definitions for stuff
So Q is not locally compact, and if I take one point compactification of Q it will be compact by definition and Q is open subspace in this new topological space, thanks jagr ❤️
Seems interesting topology
remember that you have to adjoin something non-hausdorff and non-compact
it is
@rancid umbra Actually this was my original question, so therefore I tried with non Hausdorff and non compact space
Now i want to replace open subspace with closed subspace
A closed subspace of a compact space is compact, so if A is closed and X is locally compact, then at any a in A you can just intersect a compact X-neighborhood of a with A.
The one-point compactification of Q is already itself non-Hausdorff, though.
But I think c squared addressed both non Hausdorff and non compact, but one point compactification of Q is compact, right?
Yes, so if you did want a non-compact space you would indeed need something like take the disjoint union with something non-compact.
I see, thanks i have to spend more time on problems, because that's one easy
(But "non-compact" is not half as weird as "non-Hausdorff").
One point compactification is a very good tool, if I want a Lindeolf space which has non Lindeolf subspace then if I take X with non Lindeolf space then its one point compactification will be Lindeolf, right?
Meanwhile in algebraic geometry
sure
i mean those are easy to come by
You react to your own message 
That sort of thing happens in algebraic geometry.
Algebraic geometry in my reading course, semester III
I don't know which one will be good for me?
(11) Is most useful. (13) and (14) are also good. A solid course in (2) requires (13) as a prerequisite anyway. The rest are useless.
Lie algebra required Riemann geometry?
And why 11 is most useful?
well that's a hot take
well, what areas of math are you interested in?
I don't know, I like abstract algebra, analysis ( topology, trying to learn alg top, measure theory)
hmm, if you're not sure/have broad interests, then it might be better to go with something that has more direct connections to different areas of math rather than something more specialized. if you're most interested in algebra and more topological flavors of analysis, then maybe intro to AG, lie algebras, riemann surfaces, fourier analysis, or rep theory?
Maybe sounds dumb, but I am trying to go in category theory because I found interesting
sick! category theory is its own area of math; although these courses probably won't directly help you as a category theorist, some of these areas (like AG and homological algebra) have rich applications of category theory that you might find interesting
I am thinking of adding a category theory in reading course
hell yeah
less go
Has the most broad applicability outside of pure mathematics, and also within pure mathematics. Look at the distribution of the areas math faculty in your university work in. Most likely, PDE is by far the field with the most faculty working in it.
I don't know where I have to ask this question,
Let L be a countably linearly ordered set. Show that there is a one to one, order preserving map f: L -> Q, where Q has usual order. Any hint? I don't know how to start
So this mapping does not need to be onto
Self-reacts are common in algebraic geometry?
well, the set is countable, so you could build the map element-by-element.
Since L is countable you have a bijection betwen N and L, so a natural place to start would be with element number 0 (or 1 depending on which naturals you like best).
so "one to one" here actually means "zero or one to one"?
that's why I like precise terms like bijective, injective and surjective better
one-to-one mapping usually means injective, one-to-one correspondence usually means bijection i think
that may be true but I'm still gonna skull-react it
especially because that convention means you can't use either term as an adjective (i.e. "f is one to one" meaning injective) but instead have to specify it like "f is a one to one mapping"
I've definitely seen people write "f is 1-1". I don't like that terminology, but it's not like they've asked me for permission.
I know N to Q there is a natural one to one, order isomorphic mapping, are you suggesting me to find the one to one, order isomorphic L to N?
But I think it is not true that we can always find L to N such function, so maybe you are suggesting different
"L is countable" means that there is a bijection betwen N and L. This bijection may not preserve order, but you don't need that. It just gives you a sequence in which you can pick images of each element of L in Q, one by one.
(There's no order isomorphism between N and Q. In the ordering of N, each element has an immediate successor, but no element of Q has an immediate successor under the usual orering).
Countable means there is an injection to N
Ah poop, that word also has two related-but-distinct meanings. Some people consider "countable" to include finite sets, others don't.
Yeah unfortunate, this exercise is true for finite sets too so including finite sets makes more sense
i like using countable to mean finite and countable and denumerable for with bijection to N
but ive seen it used the opposite way around lol
I like to imagine countable the following way. Let X be a set. If there’s an algorithm which “goes through X” that guarantees that you’ll eventually stumble on any given a\in X, then the set is countable (what you did was count up to a, for any a\in X)
It’s a matter of convention, sure, but this makes sense
I like the discussion in the book Logical Labyrinths about countability; it gives it that fun interpretation
Therefore finite counts as countable haha
Rip when they are synonyms though
i hate that enumerable and denumerable both meant countable
{countable} = {finite} u {countably infinite} gang
yeah i use countable to mean countably infinite when it is clear that i would know if it were finite, because if i knew it were finite i would just say finite 💀
technically no but if you want to learn it right then yes
lie algebras without the lie group/differential geometry stuff is really unmotivated
and the only real reason people care about lie algebras is because of the connections to lie groups
unless f is one-to-one means that f is injective, which i think it usually does
Maybe try by induction(or recursion? Not sure what would be the right term here)
Assuming it is infinite, pick some particular bijection to N. there is a 0-th element, say a_0, so pick idk 0 in Q and say P(a_0)=0. Then extend this map recursively by defining P(a_(n+1)) given P(a_n) in a way that is an embedding.
So to choose an image of a_1, if a_0 < a_1 then map a_1 to b > 0, otherwise map to b < 0.
To choose an image of a_2, if a_0 < a_1 < a_2 then map a_2 to c > b.
If a_0 < a_2 < a_1, then map a_2 to c, 0 < c < b.
Similarly for other possibilities.
Right? Thanks Eclipso, Troposphere
If there is one one order preserving mapping from A to B, and also from B to A, can we find order isomorphism mapping from A to B ?
does anyone have any idea what kaplansky means when he says that D(a, aₖ) can be made arbitrarily small? — i dont see how we would guarantee that aₖ ⟶ a.
means the whole tail can be made arbitrarily small
which is basically the definition of convergence to a point
thats not what i meant. i am asking how you would prove that convergence.
oh
he sort of implies that this is something relatively obvious
and i just cant think of any way to fill in that gap
a_n and b_n are sequeces in a compact metric (and therefore sequentially compact) space, therefore they have (simultaneously) convergent subsequences which you can choose to converge towards a and b respectively
how do you choose them?
you can do it because a and b are cluster points of a_n and b_n, otherwise (lets say we are talking about a) we can draw a circle of size epsilon around a where there are no points of the sequence, then every a_n has a circle of size epsilon where there are no other points of the sequence
and then a_n would have no convergent subsequence
but we already know that it does because the space is compact metric
why wouldnt it, it could have a subsequence that converges to some other limit right?
it can't
if it has any cluster points, then one of them has to be a, and we know it has cluster points because the space is compact
in fact, assuming that f(a) ≠ a, i dont think you can have a as the sole limit point.
(it can have other cluster points too, but we dont care about those)
yea, f(a) would be a cluster point too
in fact every a_n will be a cluster point
ah right, i get what you mean now.
stupid
since f will expand open balls in that sequence
yea also there is like an edge case if f(a) turns out to be periodic but thats easy to handle
thank you
i feel a bit stupid for failing to realize that for so long now, but that happens lol
i mean its not a trivial observation, i had to think for a bit
not true in general, for example constant maps are always order preserving. if they are order-preserving and injective, then this is definitely true for finite sets but i havent had enough caffeine today to think about infinite sets and make no claims there
Q + 1 and Q inject into each other but are not isomorphic
fantastic
yes
there is a following theorem though
if A is order isomorphic to an initial segment of B and B is isomorphic to a final segment of A, then A and B are isomorphic
Proposition 3.3,
I proved one direction so now I have to prove net converge at most one point implies X is Hausdorff
Let I denote the set of all open neighborhood of x, and J denote the set of all open neighborhood of y.
They both are directed set with reverse inclusion
Assume X is not Hausdorff, so there exists two points x and y such that every open neighborhood of x intersect with every open neighborhood of y.
So for all (i,j) \in I × J[ we can make I × J directed set, (i_0, j_0 ) ≤ ( i_1, j_1) iff i_0≤ i_1 and j_0 ≤ j_1 ] , we can associate (i,j) to z_{ij}, where z in intersection of i and j
We can verify that Z: I × J -> X, (i,j) maps to z_{ij}, and it converges to both x and y.
That's a contradiction.
Is it correct?
I think you should rename “Y” to “J”
Otherwise this seems fine to me?
Interesting that you’re working with nets
Thanks
So in this exercise I can show if that \phi is order homomorphism and its image is co final in I then it is cofinal function, but can we remove image is co final in I condition?
hey can someone help me pls ?
$\text{I took a sequence $(x_n)$ such that $x_n \in F_n$ for each $n$, and I showed that $(x_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence. \
Then I used the fact that $X$ is complete, and that the intersection of closed sets is closed, so the limit $x$ belongs to every $F_n$. \
Finally, I used the continuity of $f$.}$
Ashraf10
\textbf{For the reverse inclusion.}
Let us show that
[
\bigcap_{n \in \mathbb{N}} f(F_n) \subset f\left(\bigcap_{n \in \mathbb{N}} F_n\right).
]
Suppose that ( y \in \bigcap_{n \in \mathbb{N}} f(F_n) ).
Then, for each ( n \in \mathbb{N} ), there exists ( x_n \in F_n ) such that ( f(x_n) = y ).
Since the sequence ( (F_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}} ) is decreasing and the diameters of the ( F_n ) tend to ( 0 ),
the sequence ( (x_n) ) is Cauchy in ( X ).
Because ( X ) is complete, there exists ( x \in X ) such that ( x_n \to x ) as ( n \to \infty ).
Moreover, since each ( F_n ) is closed and ( x_n \in F_n ) for all ( n ),
we have ( x \in F_n ) for all ( n ).
Hence,
[
x \in \bigcap_{n \in \mathbb{N}} F_n.
]
Finally, by continuity of ( f ), we get
[
f(x_n) \to f(x).
]
But ( f(x_n) = y ) for all ( n ), so ( f(x) = y ).
Therefore,
[
y \in f\left(\bigcap_{n \in \mathbb{N}} F_n\right),
]
which proves the reverse inclusion.
Ashraf10
what do you need help with? that looks correct
Any hints for (i) => (ii)
I can only really get as far as the diagonal in (S/~)^2 being compact but then I get stuck since S/~ isn’t a priori Hausdorff
Funnily enough someone just asked this exact question like a month ago!
Wait no
Probably me because I took a hiatus for engineering
Then came back
Just similar
If ~ is closed in SxS, the complement is a union of sets of the form UxV where U, V are open in SxS. What can we know about U and V based on the fact ~ is an equivalence relation?
By ~ do you mean the graph
For any s in S the subspace
Sx{s} is homeomorphic to S
Yeah sorry
thank you
(I'm assuming your definition is that equivalence classes are closed in S)
The defn for a closed relation here is that the projection map is closed
Equivalence classes are closed if the quotient is Hausdorff which is later in the problem
I see, then I change my hint to SxF being closed for F closed. And that the projections SxS -> S are closed for compact S
Just to make sure is the latter part true when S isn’t Hausdorff
You don't need S to be hausdorff no
Thank you I just didn’t want to go in circles
I managed to prove it with an argument that was eerily similar to the proof that compact sets in hausdorff spaces are closed
is this related to the Tube Lemma
That method is in general very usefu!
The typical proofs that Hausdorff+Compact imply T_3 and T_4 respectively use practically the same method
I just proved that compact “boxes” in an open set are contained in a open “box” in that subset instead because that was WAY more visually obvious
i get that i probably shouldve known this before doing topology but theres some things i missed out on ig
can this be proven using induction?
im not convinced since its not stating that the union of finitely many subspaces satisfying the properties is connected
i mean i know this doesnt require induction at all but im just curious
induction would only prove for finite sequences
you could probably use finite cases to generalize to infinite sequences though, you just need additional reasoning
yeah
though what i have so far suggests it isnt necessary
at least i dont think it does
i just have U and V being some separation of $A = \bigcup A_n$ and then showing that for any $k \in \mathbb{N}$, we have that $ U_k = U \cap A_k, V_k = V \cap A_k$ is a separation of $A_k$ and so WLOG $U_k = \emptyset$
hiidostuff
actually wait im not sure WLOG U_k is empty
bc how can we be for sure that the chunk that comes from U isnt the entire A_k
How do I show a sequence which is universal net then it is eventually constant?
yeah, the argument kind of allows each Ak to belong to U or V, which doesn't help with showing one of them is empty
we already know that a connected subspace must belong to exactly one of two sets separating the space its contained it
we just need to show that all of our Ak sets must belong to the same one
ah but thats covered by the subsequent nonempty intersection thing im pretty sure
consider two subsequences of A_n that separate the sequence
there has to be at some point A j thats in U but then A {j + 1} is in V in that case
but those two elements arent disjoint
which contradicts that U and V are disjoint
mhm that works
i think that pretty much proves it
induction gives a neat contradictive proof too
by induction, any finite consecutive sequence of Ak must be connected. if we have a separation, then two Ai, Aj sets belong to the distinct separations. but Ai to Aj must be connected, which is a contradiction
its not that different but i kind of like it
oh i see
Anyone?
I want to know how nets idea comes, how Moore and Smith got intuition that if we develop this theory then it will help us in a complicated situation
And how do I continuously use them in my work?
Limit point compactness implies sequentially compactness, right? We don't need first countability here
I have filter F, say A is not in F.
Now I want to make ultrafilter F' such that F \subset F' and A not in F'.
So if I make F' = F u { X\B | B \subset A }.
Does it work?
No I have to add more elements
In my definition of filter they are taking collection of non empty subsets of X
Now i want to prove that every filter is intersection of all ultrafilter which contains that filter.
Say F is my filter such that A not in my F, then I have to make ultrafilter U containing F and not contain A.
i know for filter F there is ultrafilter U which contains F by Zorn's lemma, can we explicity describe that U?
By Zorn's lemma there is a maximal filter containing F and not A, so you would just need to show that that is an ultrafilter
Zorn is necessary to demonstrate that U exists, so there can't really be an explicit description.
As a hint though:
||You might be able to give an explicit description of a filter that lies between F and U, with the property that no filter containing it contains A||
yes i got it
Exercise 5.2.4, I don't think it is true when X = {a,b}
F1 = {{a}} and F2 = {{a}, X} works as long as X isn't just {a}
In any topological space, compact space implies sequentially compactness, right?
Nope
In metric spaces they are equivalent, but not in general topological spaces
One way I like to think about this is the following:
Compactness in general topological spaces is equivalent to “net-compactness”, which says every net has a convergent subnet
You can contrast this with every sequence having a convergent subsequence
But i think one way is true
Sequential compactness is not strong enough to imply net compactness, because there are far more nets than sequences
However, net compactness does not imply sequential compactness!
The logic would go:
- Every sequence is a net
- By net compactness, it has a convergent subnet
- Hence, every sequence has a convergent subsequence
But step 3 is actually false
A subnet of a sequence is not necessarily a subsequence!
Okay, but I think compactness implies sequentially compactness
It doesn’t
There exist compact topological spaces which are not sequentially compact
Provably so
Can you give me a counterexample?
There’s a nice construction you can do with [0,1]^{P(N)}
You use a kind of diagonal argument to construct a sequence with no convergent subsequence
However, by Tychonoff’s theorem, this space is compact
So the sequence you construct does have a convergent subnet, but no convergent subsequence
The way I like to think about this is that sequences are fundamentally limited by their “countability”
If you have a point that doesn’t have a countable neighbourhood basis, it’s a lot harder to get a sequence converging to it
What is wrong with this argument?
Let x_n be a sequence then take F_n = cl{ x_k | k≥n }.
This F_n are closed and they have finite intersection property so they have non empty intersection, say x.
My point is x will be the limit point of this sequence
But neighbourhoods always form a directed set, so it’s a lot more straightforward to get a net converging to it
So you’ve hit upon an important point
There is a distinction between “having a convergent subsequence” and “having a cluster point”
By a cluster point I mean the following
A point L such that, for every neighbourhood U of L, the sequence lands in U infinitely often
But if the sequence has limit point then it will have convergent subsequence, right? I am saying sequence has limit point not range of sequence has limit point
This is the key point
Yes so why can't we make subsequence from here
Wait
It is always true that, if a point is a limit of a subsequence, then it’s a limit point of the original sequence
But the reverse is not generally true
And it’s precisely because of this issue
In general, your limit point L might have uncountably many neighbourhoods
Yep, exactly
But you only have countably many terms of a subsequence to work with
Okay to say limit point compactness implies sequentially compactness we need first countability
If there’s not a way to choose a good countable basis of these neighbourhoods, you won’t be able to actually make a subsequence
Mhm
So, what is true is that for nets
Having a limit point is equivalent to having a convergent subnet
For sequences, you only have convergent subsequence => limit point
And you need first countability to get the other direction
I see
In this sense, “every sequence has a convergent subsequence” is strictly stronger than “every sequence has a limit point”
Whereas “every net has a convergent subnet” is equivalent to “every net has a limit point”
Metric spaces are always first-countable though, because you can take a basis of balls of rational radii
Yes
Yes
Thanks @quartz horizon 

I only learned about these characterisations of compactness recently, but I think they’re quite cool
Source?
Uh mostly Wikipedia and nlab 
Really?
Mhm!
Are you a graduate student or PhD scholar?
PhD student!
2nd year now
I wonder to what extent you need the full strength of sequential compactness, actually
I.e. when it is important to really have a convergent subsequence, as opposed to just a limit point?
And your research area?
condensed matter physics 
Really? You are doing your phd in physics and you are also doing mathematics
So why didn't you choose a PhD in mathematics?
i like physics more
also i don't think i would be good enough at maths for a phd
based on my track record in undergrad wrt pure math
Can I get an example of it?
so you could take any compact space that isn't sequentially compact, like $[0, 1]^{P(\mathbb{N})}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
in this case, by compactness, any sequence has a limit point
but you can explicitly construct a sequence that has no convergent subsequence by a diagonal argument
i think there's a MSE post that goes into the details, lemme find it
So here sequence has a limit point means there exists x such that any open set of x contains infinitely many terms of sequence x_n
yep
Why?
I know by compactness we have limit point compact
compactness is equivalent to every net having a limit point
and any sequence is a net
I see
in this sense compactness is a kind of "topological pigeonhole principle"
for finite sets, any infinite sequence must have a cluster point (meaning a point that the sequence hits infinitely often)
similarly, for compact topological spaces, any net must have a cluster point
i think this gels quite well with the everday meaning of "compact"
I am not sure about 5.7, i) => ii).
For refinement, can't I just take F' = F?
Oh ni
I got it
@quartz horizon sorry to ping, but I want to know how do you keep remember all theories, i think one way is working with them regularly
what do you mean by "keep all theories"?
oh remember
hm well anki definitely helped in the past
but yeah working with them regularly helps
And how do you use it regularly?
in part by talking on this server :P
nets and filters are quite cool 
How do I consistently use it? My professor has not introduced it, I am reading on my own so I want to keep it consistent
hm that i'm not sure 
maybe other people in this channel would have a better idea?
filters are one of the central tools of set theoretic topology
so you can just read books/solve exercises on the topic
"the stone-cech compactification" by walker, "the theory of ultrafilers" by comfort&negrepontis, "rings of continuous functions" by gillman, the handbook - these are all the more important texts concerning the topic, more niche texts are:
"universal spaces and mappings" by iliadis, "algebra in the stone-cech compactification" by hindman, "continuous pseudometrics" by comfort&negrepontis, "extensions and absolutes of hausdorff spaces" by porter
todorcevic has something im sure, in "topics in topology" maybe?
You can define connectedness in terms of chains in open covers, e.g. a space X is connected iff, for any points x, y, and for any open cover U_a of X, there is a sequence {U_1, …, U_n} of elements of the cover such that x is in U_1, y is in U_n, and U_i intersects U_(i+1) non-trivially.
This definition may give a better perspective for proving this(and proving this is equivalent to connectedness isn’t too hard, just prove the set of all points reachable by chains from x in arbitrary open covers is clopen)
fortunately i did manage to prove it, but ill keep this definition in mind
the proof turned out to be pretty cool
Alright, I might look back at it in a sec then!
here it is so u dont have to scroll through the convo
another useful equivalent definition is "connected iff the only continuous functions to {0,1} (discrete) are constant" which allows you to do an induction like thing here
That’s a pretty neat proof!
Yes this is great
-# generalised to “connected iff Hom(X, -) preserves coproducts”
But I am still mega stuck because I can't figure out how to connect this to H/~
I've been stuck on this for a pathetically long time
hm i think i came up with a solution to i -> ii but i feel like im redoing work that i shouldnt have to do
is there a clean way of simplifying the logic here
take a closed set A in S, and consider pi(A). we want to show pi(A) is closed. equivalently, pi(A)^c is open, and equivalently, the preimage of pi(A)^c under pi is open. that preimage is just the set of points P in S that don't relate to any point in A under ~, so we want to show that P is open.
Since the graph C is closed, the complement of C, containing ordered pairs of elements that don't relate to one another, is open, so for any two elements that don't relate under ~, we can find respective neighborhoods such that no pair of points belonging to the respective neighborhoods relate.
Take an arbitrary point p in P. For each point x in A, construct a neighborhood P_x of p and a neighborhood A_x of x such that no point in P_x relates to any point in A_x. The A_x sets are an open cover of A, and A is a closed subspace of a compact space, so A is compact, meaning we can find a finite subcover of the A_x sets. The intersection of the corresponding finite collection of P_x sets is an open neighborhood of p that doesn't relate to any point in A. -> P is open
specifically this feels super similar to the proof that a closed subspace of a compact space is compact, and i can't tell if there's redundant logic here
now I'm stuck on ii) => iii) lo
I can't find a way to find closure of some set without knowing S is hausdorff or knowing open sets a priori
and the product of closed maps is not necessarily closed.
take two points in the quotient, their preimages are closed and therefore can be separated therefore the points themselves can also be separated
(through the standard trick of taking an the complement of the image of the complement of an open set)
could you explain why the preimages of the points are closed?
because T1 is preserved under closed mappings
and quotient is continuous
oh we dont get that S is T1?
hmm
do we get it? does compact have T1 in it here
isnt the exercise wrong if S is indiscrete and the equivalencr is trivial or something
Let $(E,\mathcal{T})$ be a topological space and $F$ be a metric space (both non empty) and $f:E\to F$. How do I show that for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$ the following set is closed?
$$A_n={x\in E,\ \forall V\in\mathcal{V}(x),\ \exists y\in V,\ d(f(x),f(y))\geq\frac{1}{n+1}}$$
Dealersgrip
who is V and f please?
im reading this as:
A_n = all x such that there are points in every neighborhood for which d(f(x),f(y)) is larger than ...
If this reading is true, then I think you can show a non-closed example, with something with a lot of discontinuity points.
Is f continuous?
Because if it is I don’t see how A_n could be anything other than an empty set
Hey pseudo did you know that compact hausdorf topologies stop being so if you add/remove a open set
Which I guess is closed lol
made me think of you lol it sounds like a limit
Since if y tends to x, d(f(x), f(y)) should tend to 0
Yep! This is a consequence of the topological inverse function theorem
oh cmon it's already codified
Specifically, if T is a compact Hausdorff topology on a set X, then any coarser topology is non-Hausdorff, and any finer topology is non-compact
By this I mean - a continuous bijection from a compact space to a Hausdorff space is a homeomorphism
you know I know this one as the closed map theorem
but folland called it like you do
I see
Wdym
it's maximal in the Haus category in minimal in the Comp category in some way
or the othe way around
I tried to see if a set with the above property is compact hausdorff (if the converse is true )but I gave up
Well you have to be a little careful here
Because of the fact that there are topologies which are non-comparable
well sure you need to wrap it up with the right safeguards, but it's still a minimal\maximal item in the fine/coarse order
Like, there can be multiple compact Hausdorff topologies on the same set that are non-homeomorphic
yeah
still it's pretty cool
a maximal topology in Comp is not necessarily hausdorff I think and neither is a minimal Haus topology compact.
but both at once? interesting to think... probably not but still
Yeah it is cool
It also hints at how compact Hausdorff spaces are secretly “algebraic”
Because the first isomorphism theorem works for them
huh thats cool
Specifically, the category of compact Hausdorff spaces is monadic over Set
Indeed, you can view them as algebras for the ultrafilter monad, iirc
i am going to pretend a topological space is a CW complex. then a compact hausdorff space is a finite complex. this is a vague question but is there some way in which i should then view infinite complexes in this language?
Well if you try to run the first isomorphism theorem for general topological spaces, you get that
Every continuous map can be decomposed as a quotient map, followed by a continuous bijection, followed by a subspace inclusion
like I know simplicial complexes don't know CW yet. you may be looking for LCH which is locally compact hausdorff
But the issue is that continuous bijections need not be homeomorphisms
However if you do this for compact Hausdorff spaces, you’re fine
ah i see
This works cause a quotient of a compact space is compact
you sure you can break it down to a quotient? they are so damn fiddly in Top
And a subspace of a Hausdorff space is Hausdorff
i say pretend but as a homotopy theorist i actually mean "this is my definition of a space"
yeah checks out
yes this is it
and f isn' continuous
it;s driving me up th wall
try to find a function f:R->R with Q as it's set of discontinuities
yep, so the set is not closed
But I'm being told to show that it is...
hmm that doesn't work actually
must it be a mistake?
A_n would be R
I've shown that the set of points where f is continuous is the intersection of the complements of An
But I can't show it's closed
I've tried this but I can't seem to find a contradiction assuming it isn;t open
they have a neighborhood where all points are close under f. So all those points are also in the complement, so the complement is open.
not sufficient as the closeness is quite strict
take two points in the given neighbourhood
yeah the triangular inequality gives us a painful 2
yes
right but I've been trying for an hour now and I haven;t succeeded
keep in mind this is the first question on my exam paper...
Damn
try for a point in the closure?
oof
The Ans are getting smaller as n gets larger
in order to prove that A_n^c is open, look at A_2n. Then that should get rid of that painful 2
Ok I’m going to go back to trying to find a counterexample
you don't trust my idea 🙁
Alright I have an idea for a counterexample
Define a function from R to R as follows
At 0 it’s equal to 0
If x is rational and nonzero, it’s 0.1
If x is irrational, it’s -0.1
A_n would be R/empty depending on n
oh i see
However, I don’t think there’s any ball around 0 contained in the complement of A_8
So 0 isn’t an interior point of the complement of A_8, meaning A_8 cannot be closed
yes this works
In fact my suspicion is that A_8 is precisely the complement of {0}
maybe the theorem is true for all largen enough n
That I’m not sure of
but your idea extends for something for all n, you can do a sum of R's with each R engineered to be annoying for a specific n
Yeah a disjoint union of Rs should work
yippie we have destroyed this question
Thats what you get for innovating in exams 🤣
I think there is some result that like
The set of continuity points of a function is G_delta or smth
But you’d need to modify the definition of A_n a little
I think that’s what the question is going for
As stated, the intended result is false
I think the following adjustment might work, but I haven’t thought about this carefully:
$$A_n={x\in E,\ \forall V\in\mathcal{V}(x),\ \exists y, z \in V,\ d(f(y),f(z))\geq\frac{1}{n+1}}$$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I’ve seen something vaguely similar to this when proving Lebesgue’s criterion for Riemann integrability
Since part of the proof involves showing the set of discontinuities of any function is a F_sigma set, and then showing each of the closed sets in the union has measure 0 (meaning that the set of discontinuities has measure 0)
this is equivalent to saying that all compact Hausdorff topologies on a space are either equal or non comparable, right
I think that’s the very first exercise munkres gives for the compactness intro chapter
however interestingly there exist maximal-compact spaces that aren't Hausdorff and minimal-hausdorff spaces that aren't compact
i think that makes sense
What is maximal compact space?
I guess so?
it didnt come out of nowhere 😭 thats how the exercise was stated
the statements feel strange in my head though, it's straightforward to show that a finer/coarser compact Hausdorff space is equivalent via an identity map, but the statement that adding an open set to a compact Hausdorff topology makes it noncompact feels more difficult to directly show/construct
A subset of a compact hausdorff space is compact iff it is closed. So if you add a new open then it's complement won't be compact (as it wasn't closed before).
compact space such that any stronger topology on the same set is not compact
that makes sense
mm is there a nice way to interpret “removing” an open set from a topology that gives a similar conclusion for the Hausdorff end
I mean, basically the same argument works:
A coarser topology is still compact, so if it was hausdorff subspaces would be compact iff they are closed.
You've taken a set that was closed and made it not closed, but it's still compact
oh yeah that makes sense
i kind of stopped thinking about that lol, i was sort of wondering how you would construct a topology that's coarser, is there a process you can follow? adding a set feels clear since you can just make a subbasis and take finite intersections and arbitrary unions, but is there a way to construct a topology that is coarser than a given one, doesn't contain a specific set, and is finer than all other topologies that are coarser than the given and doesn't contain that set?
being finer than all others isnt really a requirement or anything but it sounds convenient
I mean, you can order the coarser topologies not containing the set, then pick a maximal one by Zorn, but I doubt there is a finest one.
Like take {x, y, z} with the discrete topology and say we want to make {x, y} not open.
We could take the topology generated by {{x}, {z}} or we could take the one generated by {{y}, {z}}.
If X is a set, a topology on X is a certain collection of subsets satisfying some axioms, so it’s a subset of P(X) (the discrete topology is all of P(X)). Thus it’s a point of P(P(X)). Put a topology on P(P(X)); what is the fundamental group of P(P(X)) based at the discrete topology of X? 
-# r u okay?
I’ve been feeling a little funny ever since I fell into a chronosynclastic infundibulum
i feel funny a little after reading chronosynclastic infundibulum
"put a topology" makes this an almost meaningless question
yea
Take any topology on the set and then transfer it along a bijection to transfer the discrete topology to any other point
a good topology 
"take a set of cardinality 2^2^|X| and put a topology on it. what is its fundamental group?"
^the question, basically
I'm not aware of any good topologies on the space of all topologies on a set, actually. maybe there are some with some nice properties, but I'm not aware of there being any canonical one
i want to do something with continuous functions
munkres has some strange writing at times
"here's a useful theorem"
"ok here's two non examples" (no examples of the theorem provided)
@unreal stratus technically the q asked is just underspecified but not totally meaningless, they just need to suggest topolising how, coarse, continuous, etc
it was definitely a half baked “wowee” shower thought kind of thing, but it would be super interesting if there’s actually something to it
Well, we do have a order on the set of topologies, although it's not a linear order.
we can have a topology generated by {x| a<x<b} for some comparable a,b
Hello everybody, I'm doing exercises on point set topology, im wondering whether this would be an acceptable proof for the closure of $A=(\sqrt{2},3)$ in the lower limit topology. I claim that the closure of A is $[\sqrt{2},3)$ bcs any basis B containing $\sqrt{2}$ would intersect A and $[3,4)$ is a basis element that contains 3 but doesnt intersect A. And any element less than $\sqrt{2}$ would not be in the closure of A for the same reason as 3.
How Smart?
Yep, that's pretty much it; as for elements other than sqrt(2) and 3 you can also just make the general observation that elements of A itself have to be in the closure, meanwhile (since the lower limit topology is finer than the standard topology), the closure has to be a subset of the standard closure (so can't contain any points outside [sqrt(2),3]), which basically only leaves you with two points to consider.
(and your arguments for those two points are correct, you might be a bit more detailed with explaining why sqrt(2) is in the closure, but also the argument as you posted might be enough, that's probably up for debate)
Oh ok, thank you very much
its a closure operator on P(S), right? that makes the poset of topologies on S a complete lattice at least
not sure about the properties - cant imagine it being algebraic lol
what is this demonic ahh sphere
round
one of my friends noticed "if you puncture a sphere it becomes a disk with 0 holes, so technically a sphere has -1 (1d) holes", is this something legit?
like is there some kind of formula/theorem thatd somehow make "negative" holes quantifiable and meaningful?
you can technically add a point p to R^2 such that every open set inside R^2 U {p} containing p must be a union of open sets in R^2 and sets of the form {d((x,y), (0,0)) > r} U {p} for some constant r
and get a topology on R^2 U {p} that is homeomorphic to the 2-sphere
thing is
there are multiple ways to add a point like this
this one corresponding to the missing point of the sphere isn't the only way
you mean ones that arent manifolds?
i think i figured out that its all about the euler characteristic,
χ(S^2) = 1 - 0 + 1
and puncturing turns it into R^2
χ(R^2) = 1 - 0 + 0
so χ goes down
and if you also define h = 1 - χ you get
h(S^2) = -1
h(R^2) = 0
h going up
and this h aligns with the more mainstream view of holes
manifold-ness is a topological invariant, so it’s still a manifold.
well im asking that to see if compactifications into other well-behaved spaces are a thing, or would we have to abandon it being hausdorff etc
in complex analysis there is 🙂
you can count zeros/poles
I think all of the compact 2-manifolds have that property you describe. You can poke a hole in a torus and the fundamental group would not change.
The fundamental group goes from Z^2 to the free group on two generators, no?
Do you know an example where the collection {A alpha} is countable and each set A alpha is closed but f is not continuous
What is f?
Is f like a function defined on the union and continuous on each Aalpha?
If so you can take for example Q and have Aalpha just be individual points
oh right
never mind then...
Thanks got it
today i was looking for an nlab reference for lindelof number property and got this instead
it is fascinating to me that people seem to think football is more popular than topology
hmm wouldnt that be regular holes anyway?
also yeah the fundamental group changes, but the 1st homology group does not (i think?), the 2nd group does change which is why the euler characteristic also goes down
havent checked this enough to be sure
@sturdy fox you're totally right a quantifyable measure would be the betti # or euler char
yeah that makes sense now
What is fascinating about this
That anyone enjoys football
Fascinating
wait no no I misread the message LOL
I read it as anyone likes football, and I do not
Let $p: X \to Y$ be a quotient map. Prove that if $p^{-1}(y)$ is connected for all $y \in Y$ and $Y$ is connected, then $X$ is connected
hiidostuff
-# there is a really nice proof of this using chain connectedness, not sure how helpful that is for you though
I think i did prove chain connectedness
oh, you know about it?
Like sequences of connected spaces that are sequentially intersecting has a connected union
Idk if thats what ur referring to
ah, that is not quite what i am referring to

