#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 129 of 1
nice 😎
oh, btw, you want C to also be non-empty when defining \cal D
why do i feel like there is a proof of this using bundles
But they are because they are finite intersection of elements of \cal C
Any hint?
empty set is finite
What are bundles?
so f(C) = empty causes a problem if C = emptyset: \bigcap \cal D would be empty!
Take C \subset \cal C, such that C is non-empty
yes, exactly
C is non-empty, finite set
they are like generalizations of product spaces and covering spaces. in the most general form, a bundle can be just a continuous surjection
Maybe it will help to think that
"connectedness" is purely a topological notion (expressed purely with the language of topology) but
"path connected" uses the reals to describe what's going on. It is saying "not only is this connected, but it is connected in a close way to how R is connected" which is quite a lot because R is a pretty ideal space. Another problem is that path connectedness charts a 1d path through your space, which might be huge. So it's a magnifying glass for discontinuities in your space.
For example R is complete, so it has no jumps or skips in it. When you take a 1d path in 2d space, you may encounter these jumps, while an open set (which may be 2d) will not be able to use those jumps to seperate because infitisimally close there is a section that is denser.
So If you take a space like the infinite broom, where everything is path connected but most of the paths are forced to go through a specific point, you can delete that point and no longer be path-connected.
But the connectedness persists because there is still "density" around the point you remove, in a sense that every two open sets containing the point has more than that point as intersection. There might be a term for this, I just made it up.
K. Conrad has an expository paper on connectedness vs. path connectedness which might also be of help, look for it here: https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/ .
interesting, maybe that's what I was thinking about.
I didn't test this analogy(ies) out in practice, so it might not be really useful... hope it helps
The Stone-Čech compactification takes X a Tychonoff space as homeomorphic to a dense subset of a compact Hausdorff space which induces unique commuting extensions to continuous maps X into K compact Hausdorff. If we relax the conditions on this map to just be a continuous bijection into a compact Hausdorff space or into a dense subset of one, do we still get something interesting (also would it work for non-Tychonoff spaces)?
I'm pretty sure the SC compactification still would satisfy the universal property in the second case, so necessarily the closure of its image would be homeomorphic to the SC compactification, but would you get anything about the map itself? I also can't really think of any examples of continuous bijections between (non-compact) Tychonoff spaces and CH spaces (pretty sure they should exist, though maybe not generally?)
(not entirely sure how much this is pointset or functional lol)
hey, I am pretty new to toplogy and in general I am not the most adv in abstract math but I am making very solid progres imo(im studying basic toplogy for the soul mostly, and to adv my mathematical skill)
I wanted to ask a pretty creative question which I feel like can clarify the core of the definition of toplogy
basically I imagined a field which changes. imagine an xy graph and you stick a rotating circle in the middle, which will change rotate inside it. I wonder if it fits into the axioms of a topology
if I imagine the sets as connected, i.e not dispersed no holes, then this will break the topology open set intersection and union axioms. but I wonder, can it possibly work in some topology? actually if we are on that can an open set in the axioms of a topology be dispersed or get dispersed i.e get holes?
I assume it fits into discrete topology, but looking more deeply at the wikipedia definitions I might be wrong. I wonder if you guys can add some depth to this question
Can you try to be clearer? What do you mean by "field which changes"?
I mean it in the literal sense. similar to how a linear transformation changes a field, I imagine it being localized, for example just pick a circle in a euclidean space and rotate it while the rest of the field is static
or any general topology
actually now that I reflect a bit, that isnt too special, functions can do it hypothetically with a bit of tweaking
so I assume it will fall under the study of another field not topology which is concerned with shapes that dont have holes or sharp corners
my question came from thinking of the definition of a topology in the broadest sense as a field you can define a geometry in, and I wondered what if I rotate the field itself, and now I wonder if there is any mathematical difference between the field itself rotating and simply a function causing an equivalent change in a shape
there must be some difference, but I wonder on the specifics
What do you mean by field here
Part e, I am taking X = (0,1) and closed set {1/n | n in N{1} }
And, U_n such that U_n = B(1/n, r_n), where r_n = 1/(6×2^n).
U = \bigcup U_n, n runs over N\ {1}.
I am claiming that there is no such eps>0 such that B(1/n, eps ) \subset U for all n in N \ {1}.
I tried with some eps, but I don't how do I write it ?
It is in (0,1)
Do you mean that the circle has the property of "being rotated", or do you mean the the points on the circle are rotated in regards to how they were before?
The first option is something you'll have to cook your own definition for, the second one depends on how you want to remember the the circle was rotated.
Hey guys, im quite confused by this answer to the difference between Sequential space and Frechet-urysohn space, how could we prove that cl(A) will be reached after some iteration?( my own attempt go like: if the space is sequential , first suppose A is not closed,( otherwise the result hold directly) , then there exist a sequence in A that converge to a point not in A ( in boundary of A tho), then suppose after first iteration cl1(A ) is still not closed, we may continue to reach additional boundary points of A, but how could we say that we could reach all boundary points and iteration ends. does this require some sort of transfinite induction ? (https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/269032/understanding-two-similar-definitions-fréchet-urysohn-space-and-sequential-spac)
yea it requires transfinite induction
Frechet-urysohn spaces are the ones where this induction will end after one step
we will reach all points in cl(A) / A due to cardinality, we add at least new point at each step
so after less than |X|^+ (the successor cardinal of |X|, where |X| is the cardinality of the space) steps we will be done
or after \chi(|X|) (hartogs of |X|) if you want a choiceless argument
heres my general idea, and I kinda figured it out on my own in a way that I feel was educational for the ideas in topology
my topology I meant a geometry, in the simplest example a euclidean space. now, imagine a circle in the space independently rotates. the analogy would be a table that is the xy graph, with a circle that rotates for whatever reason, maybe a fancy cup holder
then I thought how this would apply to the logic of topology. I realized that you can assign some value for the circles rotation, lets say t for time, and you can represent it in the power set. so lets say a shape is partially in the cup holder, and it spins independently so it just spins without any effect on the overall shape
I wondered how it would be considered a geometry, but I realized it can be considered as part of a power set of the geometry(if you represent the geometry as a set of course which shouldnt be an issue)
why is it that the product topology is generated by the basis of products of open sets where only finitely many are not the whole space?
i dont see why this is equivalent to the canonical projections being continuous
you want p_i^{-1}(U_i) = \prod_{j != i} X_j \times U_i open in the product for each i and U_i open in X_i.
the product topology is generated by the subbasis of all of these, so unions of finite intersections of things that look like the above
this is the smallest topology on the product that makes all the projections continuous
i see
cool
you can probably pass it to a tychonoff space using a tychonoff reflection and work there
Well it’s not quite equivalent since any finer topology also makes the projections continuous
for me the universal property gives a good motivation for the def of the product topology
Is it true that if X is locally compact and Hausdorff then for each x in X has compact open set?
what do you mean by each x in X has compact open set
every compact open subset of a hausdorff space is also closed, so if you take X=R then the only compact open set is the emptyset
what is your definition of $\partial A$?
L
this result is what I would take as the definition of \partial A, i.e. $\partial A = A \setminus (int(A) \cup ext(A))$
L
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the def is what u wrote \partial A = A \setminus (int(A) \cup ext(A))
I keep hearing about universal properties but idk what they are
untrue unless your space is like very disconnected?
or X is compact i guess
everything looks fine as written. however, you can simplify things a lot.
by (the negation of the) definition of Int A, for every nbhd U of p, U is not a subset of A, and so contains a point of X \ A.
similarly, by (the negation of the) definition of Ext A, for every nbhd of a point U of p, U is not a subset of X \ A, and so contains a point of A.
since you are defining bd A = X \ (Int A U Ext A), the reverse direction trivial: any open nbhd of p can't be a subset of A or X \ A, so p can't be in Int A or Ext A.
this proof could be done in one line if you just expand definitions
p in bd A <=>
p in X \ (Int A U Ext A) <=>
∀ U open nbhd of p, U ⊈ A and U ⊈ X \ A <=>
∀ U open nbhd of p, ∃ q in U ∩ A and ∃ q' in U ∩ (X \ A)
universal properties tell you what something "does", how it relates to other things, what it can be used for
the universal property of the product says that continuous maps $Z \to \prod_i X_i$ correspond to families of continuous maps $Z \to X_i$, in that you can interconvert between the two
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I recommend checking out https://topology.mitpress.mit.edu/, in particular chapter 1.4 to learn about how the product topology is characterized by the universal property
wdym negation of the definition of Int A
I got X \ Int A = ∩ {B superset X \ A : B closed} and how does it. follow
Lee's ITM also mentions the universal property of various constructions (but he calls them characteristic properties)
Yeah, I prefer that term
At least in the contexts in which I've seen it used.
(I've mostly seen them used for uniquely characterizing a construction in terms of how it behaves under some operation)
i don't quite understand the term "characteristic property"
all the ones i've seen are instances of universal properties anyway
and for me i find having a consistent name easier
Int A = {x in X : \exists U open nbhd of x such that U subset A} (this is the same as the union of all open nbhds contained in A), so its complement is {x in X : \forall U open nbhd of x, U is not a subset of A}
Yeah, I wasn't proposing "characteristic property" as a distinct term with a different definition, I was just saying that I've only ever seen universal properties used to characterize certain objects, so "characteristic property" is a synonym that better conveys their role for me
Hm what do you mean by characterising certain objects
i think that the way it is being used here is this:
- the characteristic property of the product topology says that functions into the product are continuous if and only if their component projections are
- the universal property says that given continuous maps into each factor, there is a unique set theoretic function into the product that is continuous because of the characteristic property of the product topology
here is an mse post which explains in more detail. i was also curious about the distinction and usually kind of lumped them into being the same thing.
I see
I thought it was called the characteristic property because the product topology is the only topology on the cartesian product with that property
At least with riehl’s definition these are both universal properties
its not the only one, its the coarsest one; any finer topology will also satisfy the characteristic property.
so in the poset category of topologies on the product (arrows going from finer to coarser), the product topology is terminal, or universal, with respect to this property
i wonder if you can separate this more formally, characteristic prop vs universal prop. i guess like, a characteristic property is a universal property in the right category
For the product topology, the best definition for me is that it is the smallest topology making all the projection maps continuous. This is to ensure that a sequence (or net) converges in the product space if and only if each component converges.
yea ok you're right
but then I wonder what lee is talking about here
yea
okay, maybe this is wrong then...
the "any finer part"
I think it's the coarsest topology such that each projection pi_i : X -> X_i is continuous
but that's different from saying that a function f : Z -> X is continuous if and only if its projections f_i : Z -> X_i are
okay yes
lot of subtle properties here that i usually of identify as the same, but they are not
like this one
Yeah, the uniqueness is why I referred to it as characterizing the structure: the product topology is the unique topology on the product space satisfying that composition thing.
I don't know much, but it is an initial topology with X = Π X_i, where functions are projections, right?
And initial topology has this given characterization
ok I have a question
let's define two topologies on X x Y based on the topologies on X and Y
one is just the usual product topology
the other is a topology of all subsets S of X x Y so that all "slices" along X and Y ({(x,y) in S: y = y_1| and {(x,y) in S: x = x_1} are open when respectively projected to X and Y
but it's just taking (x,y_1) to x with a constant y_1 and (x_1, y) to y with a constant x
so it's whatever
what I said was a mouthful but what I basically mean is that they are open if all the "sections" along the X x {y_1} and {x_1} x Y planes are themselves respectively open in X and Y
my question is whether the two are the same
I know that the second is neccessarily finer or equal to the first
it's relatively simple, of course the products of the open sets satisfy the rule for the second, and the finite intersections and unrestricted unions transfer over to the planes
so all the members of the first topology are members of the second
It's possible for all the sections to be open but for the set not to be open in the product topology
You can find a counterexample even when X = Y = [0,1] with the standard topology.
I've been using Gemini AI to check my work and it's been doing an okay job (I think?), but it's giving me an answer for Munkres Topology 2nd edition that does not seem correct. For Chapter 1, Section 3, Exercise 5 c) it's saying that T = S' whereas I concluded that T contains just pairs from 4 line segments and all pairs from y=x and is not equal to S'. Any insight into this exercise would be appreciated. Anyone else using AI to check proofs? I've found that sometimes it changes its answer when I push it when something seems off.
Whenever something produced by generative "AI" looks like it's mistaken, it probably is.
Whenever it looks right, it might well also be mistaken
Considering LLMs are trained to produce output that appears correct.
I gotta give it credit though, it does a great job reading my handwritting!
whenever something produced by generative "AI" it mistaken
anti robot blackout poetry
Does this proof make sense
If F is a topology on a set X consisting of open sets I denote the dual family consisting of all the complements of the open sets (the closed sets) by F*
bro this is great handwriting wdym "bad handwriting"
it looks almost typeset
can you give me an example.... or I guess a counterexample
Consider $([0,1] \times [0,1]) \setminus {(t,t): t>0}$, i.e. the square with almost the entire diagonal removed, but with the bottom-left corner kept. The sections of this are either all of $[0,1]$, or sets of the form $[0,t)\cup (t,1]$, or $[0,1)$; in each case they're open in $[0,1]$. However, the set as a whole isn't open in the product topology, because $(0,0)$ has no neighborhood that would be entirely in the set (we are of course considering $[0,1]$ with the Euclidean topology).
Outsider
This put me in mind of a harder problem; suppose A is a subset of [0,1]x[0,1] such that the intersection of A with every line on the plane is open (in the relative topology on said line). Does A need to be open? My gut tells me the answer is negative, but the counterexample will probably be trickier to construct.
Unless something like just messing up along a spiral or a parabola would suffice.
Yeah, never mind, the counterexample will be very similar in nature, just remove a circle somewhere within the square, but keep one point of that circle.
What if the intersection with every rectifiable curve is open? Intersection with every curve without qualification wouldn't work because of the space-filling curves.
sorry for the ghost ping
I said something, who's main promise might or might not be correct but whose argument was bullshit
(the product topology on two copies of the cofinite topology of Z being different from the section topology, it's true still I'm pretty sure but my previous argument was bullshit)
Cofinite topology is not Hausdorff so I have no intuitions
Although having so few open sets probably makes it fairly reasonable to analyze in this context
Let X and Y be two linearly ordered sets. Any strictly monotone surjection f: X -> Y is homeomorphism.
Let f is increasing map.
First I will show f is an open map, so take the basis set (a,b), yes there can be a basis set of type [a,b), but first consider (a,b).
Then f( (a,b) ) = (f(a), f(b) ) because of strictly monotone of f. Similarly we can show for other basis open sets, hence open sets maps to open sets.
Similarly f^-1 is strictly monotone shows that f^-1 maps open sets to open sets.
Is it correct?
yes. note that showing f(a,b) = (f(a),f(b)) also uses the fact that X and Y are linearly ordered and that f is surjective
Yes
And we can find strictly monotone surjection from Q to Q_≥ 0( positive)
So Q and Q_≥0 are homeomorphic
yeah in this case you can just take the codiagonal
????
how?
that would mean there's an element q such that f(q) = 0
but that would imply that for every r < q, f(r) < 0 while also beng inside Q>=0?
I'm pretty sure for total orders atleast strictly monotone surjections are just bijections, or more specifically, isomorphisms
Yeah, there is a general theorem that says the two spaces in question are homemorphic, but I don't think the monotonicity argument works.
In general I'm not sure how to find an explicit homeomorphism, although it probably can be done.
because they're isomorphic any structure created out of their order properties should also naturally be isomorphic
including the topologies
What do you mean by "isomorphic" here?
c squared made an explicit one
it was a little bit lower
oh wait
uhh
it's kind of a vague notion but what I kind of mean is that there's a bijection f:A->B, that preserves the properties of the structures of A and B (which are the same kind of structure here btw) across f
for orders it's the strictly monotone thing (a < b <-> f(a) < f(b))
well is it positive or nonnegative
I don't get it, in particular the set of rationals and the set of nonnegative rationals aren't order-isomorphic
for topologies it's just homeomorphism
So you can't carry over the order topology
In general both of them have preexisting topologies, and you want to show that these two topologies are homeomorphic
look the set of non-negative rationals is equivalent to the rational + {-infinity}
basically the rationals plus a "minimum point" corresponding to 0
Sure, why not
To be clear, the thing I'm pondering is finding an explicit homeomorphism between the rationals and the nonnegative rationals (with their standard topologies)
Any two countable metric spaces without isolated points are homeomorphic, so we know homeomorphisms exist
But how about an explicit example?
there is one above
fuck no
ok sorry I'm not the most experienced myself what is an explicit homeomorphism and how is it different to a normal homeomorphism
i keep reading nonnegative as positive
I mean actually constructing a function in a way that tells you what its value is at a point
The same way arctan is an explicit homeomorphism between the reals and (-pi/2, pi/2)
Explicit because you have a formula: f(x) = arctan x
oh ok look the two aren't homeomorphic
They are
Q is homemorphic to Q>0 but not Q>=0
This is a general theorem
Both Q and Q >=0 are countable metric spaces without isolated points.
There is no doubt at all that they are homeomorphic.
Can someone clarify this passage for me? I can’t quite understand how the family of open rays given here satisfy the completeness definition given in Definition 1.12.
Note that in the second picture, X is any ordered set
yea hmm i think you just need to repeat the construction from that proof, because you need to turn a "one sided" nbhd of 0 into a "two sided" nbhd of f(0)
which requires nudging the disconnected structure of Q around
Yeah, something is weird here because the intersection of two rays doesn't have to be a ray
If you threw in intervals, you would have a complete family
Yeah, that's what I was thinking, map 0 to 0, and then partition Q using some intervals with irrational endpoints, and "shuffle" those around
The endpoints probably have to get dense around 0 but not elsewhere
Reference to the theorem I mentioned: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sierpiński's_theorem_on_metric_spaces
yes, i gave an example of such a map a while ago
Oh, you did?
no its nonnegative this time
they specify that they meant positive
or are we just considering
They're probably French
the case when its non-negative
I'll admit I just read the symbol and didn't read the "positive"
Either way, a homeomorphism exists in both scenarios.
It's just that in one case it's given by a simple formula.
yea, separate (-inf, 0) into omega clopen copies of Q, (-inf, -r1), (-r1, -r2), ..., do the same thing on the right, and you insert the left bits inbetween the right bits
okay, yea, you can't find an order preserving one when 0 is included in the codomain
Would be mildly fiddly to write down in full precision but ultimately I was worried it would be worse
yea you would need to find nice r_i so that the stretching and bijections are nice
r_(n+1) is put right after (r_n, r_(n+1)) right?
Not sure what you mean
where do the r_n and l_n go
I assume 0 just goes to 0
Take r_n = sqrt(2)/n
oh hmmm
we shuffle whole segments around
Meanwhile I do go to the shops, so good luck if you intend to continue
I don't think you need an infinite amount in that case
can't you just biject (-inf, 0) to (irr, inf) then biject (0, inf) to (0, irr) and get 0 to 0 of course
no because then continuity breaks
(-inf, 0) used to have 0 in its closure
and now it doesnt
yea they need to continue to tend to 0
but they do it from the "other side" now
ok wait I don't understand
you basically split an infinite amount of adjacent open sets from both sides and make them adjacent to each other one one side
right?
so
ok
yeah that works wtf
yea and also importantly they are clopen
so you can just shuffle them around
only point you need to care about the continuity is 0, because we fixed its image separately
ok I understand why the clopenness of the interval is important, it makes it so that any open set can be separated into an open set completely inside the interval and one completely outside it
which in this case means it can be that, when not touching 0 at least, any open set can first be cleanly divided into parts inside the intervals, then it can be shown that for every part f[part] is an open set, then you can unite the f[part]'s back together to get that f[theWholeThing] is open
you could make a nice animation of this construction, first you separate the Q line into these parts, then you stretch the line so gaps appear and you fold it in half at 0 so it fits back together
Q ~ 2Q but also Q + {a} + Q, incredibly weird
first one is not true, the way you write it is Q * 2
instead of 2 * Q
ok fair enough
2 * Q is inserting 2 instead of every point of Q
and you would have successors and predecessors
I know I was just being dumb
is the general proof of sierpenski's theorem something similar to this
actually nah probably not
Sort of, here's the relevant section from Engelking (where it's an exercise):
Here's the referenced 4.3.H:
I quite like Engelking, but it's such an incredibly dense book (no pun intended), for better and worse.
By the way, "dense in itself" means "without isolated points"
Interesting that the argument goes by way of exploiting the irrational numbers
Or maybe not so surprising since the irrationals are a Baire space whereas the rationals are not
there was a ludicrous multidimensional analog
or was it a plane one?
lemme find it
the main observation the proof makes if you fix a point x, then there are only countable amount of possible values of d(x,y)
so there are lot of radii for which a closed ball around x is equal to an open ball
so the space is very disconnected (i.e. zero-dimensional)
then its just technique to assemble a homeomorphism from that information and the fact the space is countable and has no isolated points
Can anyone help me? I don't understand why z1 is not an element of E in 2.47.
because z < z_1 and z is the sup of (A intersect [x, y]) this means that z_1 is not in A
and also z is not in the closure of B so there is a point between z and the closure of B by completeness
Thanks!
Okay I think i have a pretty big misunderstanding of something
A basis for the product topology is where I have the product of basis elements from each factor space up until a certain point and then its just the entire space for each factor after that
Well, generally products where only finitely many of the components are not the entire respective space
For countable products you can indeed phrase it the way you did
thats what im confused about though
Via unions how do I get the open set (X, R, X, R, R, R, ...) in R omega where X is some proper nonempty subset of R
I mean, R is an open subset of R; they don't have to be proper subsets.
That set is already in the product topology basis
Oh of course
maybe it would be easier to think about the sub basis?
That’s kind of a more natural formulation imo
Man I overthought that like crazy
It can be weirdly tricky to have proper intuitions early on
I do tend to think about that more but I had to prove in class today that the product of countably many second countable spaces is second countable
And it happened to be pretty direct from the basis i gave
Which is what made me be confused about the basis
On this note, if I had a set where the first collection of factors did have to be proper, it wouldn't be a basis for the product topology right
Eh, it probably would, since each factor space still has to be the union of its basis elements.
It just would be more annoying to work with
wdym by first collection
The basis elements of the product topology are products of arbitrary basis elements in each factor up until the k-th factor for some k, and then products of all of the space in each factor from then on
Here's the proof that I did btw
ic, if you enforce the proper subset property then this should be a basis unless one of the factors has a point whose only neighborhood is the entire space
Makes sense
your proof looks good, and there’s a more general fact that the number of finite subsets of a countable set is countable, so you can immediately get a countable collection of countable sets by just picking finite sets of indices
I see
Man im scared for my topology midterm
This is the first math course thats giving me hell and idk what to do besides just internalize definitions and try to gain as much intuition as I can
i'm in the same spot don't even fret. i think the path forwards is just immersion and spamming exercises until the concepts become second-nature
what concepts specifically? i never properly took a topology course
just like, the basic ones?
or like, something like the separation axioms or something
i'm also interested
Honestly for me topology was a subject that examples were incredibly useful for, to precisely illustrate which properties are compatible and aren’t and how counter examples manifest
-# and counterexamples!
I really like how munkres presents its theorems with examples
oh i didn't know munkres went by it/its
the more you know
I wanted to send munkres a cookie for writing a math textbook that didn’t feel homicidal towards its readers
but I didn’t see a mailing address 💔
Its the book we use but I mostly get info from class
I should probably read it tho
def read it if only for examples
I like most the exercises too
lol my class last year used Janich
terrible book
wait janich doesn't have any exercises tho 
My prof just made his own homework
i see my mistake
I didn't know about it
terrible mistake
okay, i have to show if X is an ordered set in which every closed interval is compact then X has least upper bound property.
To show this, i am trying by contradiction.
Assuming there is a set A such that A is bounded above but it has not least upper bound, i.e., for each upper bound s there exists upper bound s1 such that s1 < s.
so here i have to use closed interval is compact, so i am trying to make closed interval [s1,s], [s2, s],... but i don't see how it will help me. and also i have to use compactness.
any hint?
how about this? construct a union of open sets that are upper bounds of the given set, by taking each subsequent smaller upper bound as the left of an open interval to infinity. Then the complement of this is a closed interval containing our set
you can prove that this closed interval does not contain its maximum, and then you can construct an infinite open cover that has no finite sub cover, giving us a closed interval that isn’t compact
nice idea
I don't really know what the correct channel for this is but this should be the closest thing i think...
Is it true that if two (real or complex) normed vector spaces on the same vector space (V, ||*||) and (V, ||*||') are topologically isomorphic (ie there's a linear isomorphism from V to V that is also a homeomorphism from (V,||*||) to (V,||*||') ) then the norms ||*|| and ||*||' are equivalent?
I think that it's true but i cant find a way to prove it (mind that im also starting out on functional analysis and stuff so i may not have some more advanced tricks required); i dont even know where to start if i were to search for a counterexample of this...
it is true, the key is the fact that continuous linear maps between normed spaces are bounded
i.e. if you have T:V -> W linear continuous map then |Tv| <= C|v| for some constant C that does not depend on v
Fairly early on in a functional analysis course you learn that for linear maps on normed spaces that continuity at 0 <=> continuity <=> uniform continuity <=> lipschitz <=> bounded
Yeah yeah i can see how the homeomorphism's boundedness is crucial to making it follow but how do i translate the ||Tv||' <= C||v|| property to the ||v||' <= C||v|| one i need for norm equivalence?
yep we did do that theorem btw
what does "dense in itself" mean
two msgs down from that one
ah, makes sense
also what is the definition of zero-dimensional here?
T1 and a base of clopen sets
(and therefore tychonoff)
So the countable product of second countable spaces is second countable with product topology.
What if it is an uncountable product of second countable spaces? Then I think it is not second countable, because in case of countable say index is N, then if I count the number of singleton subset of N, it is N and that's why it countable, i.e., number of subsets( of finite size) of countable set is countable so their countable union also countable
But it is not true if I take index, uncountable, the number of subsets of size 1 is uncountable
Here’s a proof that a non-trivial uncountable product of second countable spaces called X_a (ie one with uncountably many non-indiscrete spaces) is not second countable
Take opens U_i. By considering the usual basis of the product topology, each of these is not the whole space in only finitely many indices. Label the union of all such indices as K. K is countable
Let a be an index which is not in K, let U be a proper non-empty open in X_a and let u \in U. Then there is no open among the U_i inside U x {product of every other space} containing u, so the product isn’t second countable
yea, indiscrete is a good counter example that i was going to say
What if I take uncountably many indiscrete space?
then there are only two bases. the set containing the product, or the set containing the product and the empty set
Here, are we proving with the help of contradiction? Are we assuming U_i are open basis elements?
Not really
This is proving “no countable set of opens can form a basis”
Therefore any basis is uncountable
U_i are any countable set of opens
We’re proving they can’t form a basis
Yes I got it, thank you
I need a separable space which has subset which is not separable space. i need hint
Take your favourite non-separable space
Add a point, which we define to be in every non-empty open subset
The resulting space is separable (the new point is a countable set with closure the whole space), but the original space is a subspace of it
I think this (very stupid) example works
(If I can find a non-stupid example, I’ll hint it)
Thanks, I am stupid
lol, most books prefer those pronouns
I guess you can take any non-compact space and consider its one point compactification
This logic works with everything but the empty topology right?
Actually
Nahhh
Hmmm
No
the empty topology?
Indiscrete = only opens are empty and whole space
Ok I see what you mean
this is discussed right below the proof lmao
Indiscrete is essentially the minimal topology on the space
Yeah, even if they are not the same, having only the empty set and the whole set causes problems for the proof, so yeah
as the empty set has no element to differentiate it from the base sets
The problem with the indiscrete topology is that one of the opens will give you the empty set when used in the defn of the basis of the product topology, and the other gives you something indistinguishable from if you hadn’t chosen to take an open from that space
in the sorgenfrey plane, Q x Q is countable dense but the anti-diagonal, {(x,-x)} is not separable
The truth is, the product of the indiscrete topology with however many copies of itself is just the indiscrete topology
So yeah
Is that R^2 with the order topology from the “lexical” ordering
If so yeah that’s a nice example
Why the anti-diagonal instead of just the diagonal 
Huh wait
What's the sorgenfrey plane?
it is the product of two copies of R topologized by the basis of [a,b). i don’t think it’s the same as the lexicographical ordering…
Yeah kinda similar to what I was imagining
It fails for similar reasoning aa what I was imagining
This is a supertopology of the one created by (a,b) right?
yes
yea, you need the anti-diagonal because of the way that [a,b) x [c,d) looks.
it can clip the anti-diagonal at exactly one point
any line with negative slope would have worked the same
Ok I see what you're saying
This means that the topology on the anti-diag is just the discrete topology
yea
Wait is that even separable?
You mean the one on the lexicorgraphic ordering right?
yea, Q x Q is still dense there
the open sets with that topology look like vertical (or horizontal, depending on how you topologies it) slices, semi-slices, and intervals
where a slice is {x} x R
and a semi slice is like {x} x (-oo,a)
yes
My understanding is, ((a,b),c) is an open set for any combination of a,b and c, and all the other lexicographic intervals can be created from unifying these sets, so, the lexicographic ordering in this case is just Q copies of Q or R copies of R depending on which one you use
No need to delete your reply ((a,b),c) is a confusing as fuck way of writing something
Using the notation as both an interval and a pair plus having the evaluation of a function on a set tossed in
i parsed it eventually lol
I could have just written (a,b) x {c} now that I think about it
i think ((a,b),(c,d)) is best
like an interval lol
or (x,y) where x,y in R^2. this one is slightly worse, but still good
so your claim is that R^2 with the dictionary topology is just R x R?
Not exactly
More like
Yes
Because (a,b) x {c} is an open set for the lexicographic ordering
there is a bijection
And any other base set in the ordering can be described as the union of (a, inf) × {c}, (-inf,inf) x {r} for c < r < d, and (-inf, b) x {d}
are countable product of second countable topology with box topology, second countable?
i don't think so, take {0,1}^N. Each with discrete topology
wow. that’s weird to me.
i think that showing they are homeomorphic is more illuminating tho, or maybe just showing that a set in the order topology is open iff it’s intersection with each slice is open in R. is that what u were saying?
Yeah I think
Also I don't think such a principle works for every lexicographic ordering
Notably, this requires that (a, inf) and (-inf, b) are open in the lower dimensional order topology
Which isn't true in for example 1 + R + 1
Um wait
not sure i understand. [0,1] x R with the order topology is the same
I'm wrong
I misunderstood how it was defined
It was defined with {x<a} and {b<x}
Not (a,b)
Yeah in that case it should just be slices for any combination of two orders
Honestly, the (standard?) proof that a compact subset of a Hausdorff space is closed is like, idk how to describe it, one of the most elegant proofs I’ve seen I guess?
it has a very intuitive visual
idk if its the most elegant proof i have seen
I was moreso thinking the proof itself but I guess that counts too yeah
I also haven’t ever taken an advanced math class tho so not speaking of many examples
When I think of elegant proofs in topology my mind jumps to Urysohn’s lemma
I don’t recall the proof of that
I’ll look rq
Let X have a countable basis; let A be an uncountable subset of X. Show that uncountably many points of A is a limit point of A.
say S is the set of all limit points of A in A. If S is countable then A \ S needs to be uncountable. Since X have countable basis, so A has too. Now A has countable dense set.
A\ S is uncountable implies there are uncountably disjoint open sets in A i.e., singletons, but A has countable dense set therefore it can't be happen.
any mistake?
yea this is good
can the neighbourhoods around a specific point be themselves be considered open sets in another topology? (I know it can logically I'm asking if there is any reason to actually do this)
like if U is an open nbhd of x in topology \tau and \tau’ is finer than \tau?
i don't know, if X is countable then is it necessary that topology on X is always second countable? I am trying to find an counter example for it
There is an example of a countable space that isn't even first countable, but it's not something I'd expect a normal person to come up with as an exercise.
I lowkey love the fact that the Arens-Fort space is perfectly normal.
Imagine looking at this and going "yep, a perfectly normal space"
I was about to ponder whether your question might be slightly easier because it asks for second countability, but then I realized that if X is countable, then first countability and second countability are equivalent.
thanks, what is the origin of this topology?
10 imaginary internet points say its main purpose is to be a counterexample.
its main purposed is to be fucking cool
but the wikipedia like omits stuff? arens fort is a subspace of another space that is sequential but not frechet
engelking has the construction of that one
(and therefore not first countable or second countable)
Which proof do you mean
For any arbitrary point x in X\C, take disjoint neighborhoods U_c of c and V_c of x for all c in C. U_c cover C, so we can pick finitely many which still cover c, hence the intersection of the corresponding V_c’s is a finite intersection of neighborhoods of x, and is disjoint from C, so x is not a point of closure of C.
Yep, it's a neat proof
I'm not sure "elegant" is the word that springs to my mind, but it is a very good illustration of how to use compactness, since this kind of argument is used very often (find a neighborhood of every point in your compact set, use compactness to get finitely many of them, profit from the finiteness)
It can also be (very slightly) rephrased, by an equivalent formulation of compactness that someone here showed me.
Namely, a space is compact iff. for an property P of sets, P holding locally(holds for a neighborhood of each point) and P being preserved under finite union imply P holds for the space itself.
So we can rephrase the proof as:
Let C be a compact subset of X, and x in X\C.
Then, let P be the property such that P(A) iff x does not belong the closure of A. This is preserved under finite unions because the closure of the union is the union of the closures. So all that’s left to do to prove this holds locally is Hausdorffness! Since, for every point c in C, there is a closed neighborhood of c not containing x, then we have that P(C) holds.
ah yes this is
i've also been investigating whether it makes sense to try to frame continuity in terms of predicates and preserving locality
Wdym?
ok so i can try and sketch the ideas
this was actually inspired by understanding filters as providing a notion of truth
first, you want to use the correspondence between subsets and predicates - the ideas i'm talking about make most sense in predicate-world
say we're working on the real line, and have some predicate $p : \mathbb{R} \to {0, 1}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
we can use "p holds at x" as an alias for "p(x) = 1"
then i think it makes sense to define "p holds $\textit{near}$ x" iff there's some $\epsilon > 0$ such that $p$ holds on $(x - \epsilon, x + \epsilon)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
in subset-world, this is essentially the definition of a neighbourhood of x
open subsets can be defined as those which are a neighbourhood of all their points (they "surround" every point within them, there's wiggle-room in an open subset, etc etc)
in predicate world, you could say that a predicate p is "local" iff whenever p holds at some x_0, it necessarily holds near x_0
e.g. the predicate "x < 3" is local - if some x_0 is less than 3, then values near x_0 are also less than 3
Trivial observation, probably not relevant to your discussion:a predicate is continuous iff it is constant on connected components
mhm
you can then translate the properties of open sets to local predicates
if p(x) and q(x) are local, then the predicate "p(x) and q(x)" should be local as well, which corresponds to binary/finite intersections of open sets being open
if $(p_i(x))_{i \in I}$ are a family of local predicates, then the predicate $\exists i \in I, p_i(x)$ should be local as well, which corresponds to arbitrary unions of open sets being open
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
the constant-1 predicate is trivially local, and the constant-0 predicate is vacuously local
finally, continuous functions are interpreted as "locality-preserving", in that their behaviour is determined locally
so if $f : X \to Y$ is continuous and $p(y)$ is a local predicate on $Y$, then $p(f(x))$ should be a local predicate on $X$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Wow this is some genuine cooking
p(y) being local means that if it's true at y_0, it'll be true near y_0
First like cool original idea in topology I’ve seen in a long time
p(f(x)) being local means that if it's true at x_0, it'll be true near x_0
but so long as f is continuous, values near x_0 get mapped (under f) to values near y_0
you then just define f to be continuous iff this holds for every local predicate
so in summary, the main idea is that:
- try to view things in predicate-world as opposed to subset-world
- a topology on a set X tells you which predicates are "local" and which aren't, subject to some consistency conditions
- continuous functions are precisely those that "preserve locality", or are otherwise "determined by local behaviour", meaning they map local predicates to local predicates
does that make sense?
Yep!

the main reason this works is that, in predicate-world, preimage is by far the most obvious operation
since it just corresponds to substitution of y = f(x)
I wonder if there’s a neat way to view the closure of a set(predicate?) or closed sets in general as predicates, like maybe a way of viewing Kuratowski closure axioms(equivalent to a topology) in a predicate way?
yeah i haven't tried that, but potentially!
i was just trying to make precise the way in which open sets capture the notion of "locality"
and this feels like a neat way to do that
by viewing them as predicates, not as subsets
Yeah to me this is more like a nonelegant thing lol
Maybe you could define the closure of a predicate by saying it holds locally like, very strongly? E.g. it holds of some point in any small area around x? You could probably reformulate the kuratowksi closure axioms fast
R\times... countable copies of R, with box and product topology is regular in both cases, correct?
Oh cool, I didn't know anyone actually still cared about these posts of mine. 😅
holy shit you're the original guy
thanks so much for your post
Very welcome!
i did one recently about connectedness as an induction principle, actually
it's interesting how both of these concepts fall into the same "local to global" idea
How does the connectedness one work?
oh it might be easier if i just link my post :P
Please do!
Oh, cute. Yeah, that's a nice way to look at it.

so induction on R is equivalent to infinite transitive induction?
well induction on R is an instance of "topological induction" in this sense
so which one is more generalized version, topological induction or transfinite induction
i feel like they're different generalisations?
transfinite induction is really "well-founded induction"
but topological induction as i laid out in that post isn't really about that
you don't need any kind of order on your topological space for it to work
hence why i called it "diffusive" induction
i see
i have a question related to second countability of R^{\omega} with box topology
hey! chain connectedness made an appearance
oh damn hi
I also loved your article on compactness
continuity method goes brrr
continuity method?
Let $X, Y$ be Banach spaces, $L_t : X \to Y$ be (smooth) maps for $t \in [0, 1]$. Say we want to find $x_1 \in X$ such that $L_1(x_1) = 0$. Say we have $x_0$ such that $L_0(x_0) = 0$. We can show such an $x_1$ exists by considering the set
$$I = {t \in [0, 1] \mid \exists x_t \text{ s.t. } L_t(x_t) = 0}.$$
We have that $0 \in I$. Thus, it suffices to prove that $I$ is open and closed.
shingtaklam1324
this is a common technique in PDE theory
Openness usually follows from the set-up
Closedness is what you need to work hard for
ooooh
that's quite interesting
i guess that's an application of topological induction?
Transfinite induction typically applies when you're inducting over a set which is in some natural way well-ordered, which the reals are not.
in this step, you need some form of compactness
i see
but I guess you could encapsulate all of this into "the inductive step"?
In the mathematics of Banach spaces, the method of continuity provides sufficient conditions for deducing the invertibility of one bounded linear operator from that of another, related operator.
in the linear case, what you need is a uniform in t bound
makes sense
Thanks!
can we construct compact Hausdroff topology on any non empty set?
well order it by the successor of a limit ordinal and then order topology maybe
I guess given a set X you can take the discrete topology on X \ {x} and one point compactify it
Does anyone have an example of a situation where the most "natural" characterization of a topology is via the Kuratowski closure operator?
I.e. one where it's the easiest to work with it via that perspective rather than some characterization of open sets or continuous functions.
work hmm idk
I like the definition of uniform topology on the space of continuous functions where you just say the closure is adding all uniform limits
and then you prove that its metrizable
it looks a little more motivated because open balls in that topology are a little tricky
from toy examples hmm particular point topology and variations thereof are much nicer if you think about the closure operator
like the Fort space
Yeah, spaces where the natural starting point is defining convergence were what I was thinking of, although that will only work in situations where closure is the same as sequential closure.
With the weak topology on operators you do start with convergence, but "add all limits in the sense of weak convergence" won't give you weak closure
Good point, but I was hoping to motivate the closure axioms somehow, by pointing out a scenario where it's actually a good starting point for your topology
As in an actual scenario in some area of mathematics where that's done
maybe topologies related to convex structures? they love closure systems
idk i didnt get far into the book about convex structures lol
Yeah, my mathematical work involved spaces which were either compact metric (so easymode, topologically), or some kind of weak topology induced by a family of functions, so those are my natural points of reference.
Heck, even the weak topology was often metrizable, although that was one of the situations where working directly with the metric wasn't really that useful a lot of the time.
I know I am wrong here, but I don't why it seems true to me, a well ordered set with ordered topology is discrete topology because in well ordered set for any x( if x is not smallest and largest ) se can find y < x < z such that (y, z) = {x}.
And for the smallest element and largest element we can do the same just replace y of z accordingly with x
Why can we find such y and z?
What if your uncountable set is omega*2 (i.e. {0,1,2,3,..., omega, omega+1, ....}) and x = omega? What are those y and z then?
ah, in that case we can only find z = omega
I see
So that's true in well ordered we can find a successor not a predecessor
omega isn't greater than omega, but I suppose you could take z = omega+1
Yeah, typo
Yes, every ordinal has a successor, but not every ordinal has a predecessor
Thanks Outsider
(also for easier intuitions it might be worth keeping in mind that every well-ordered set is order-isomorphic to an initial segment of the ordinal numbers, so it suffices to think in terms of ordinals as such)
What is the initial segment of the ordinal numbers?
I know construction of omega
Similarly to how cardinal numbers describe cardinality; ordinal numbers define the order structure of well-ordered set; the key observation is that given any two well-ordered sets, one is always order-isomorphic to an initial segment of the other. As a result ordinals are a sort of "reference" family of well-ordered sets, on which you even have well-defined operations like addition, and also any transfinite construction can be indexed by the ordinals in the standard way.
It sort of is what you refered to as the construction of omega, except extended indefinitely
(and you lose being able to visualize what's going on fairly quickly)
(also you can define cardinals in terms of ordinals, as the least ordinal number of a given cardinality)
And how can I show every well ordered set is order isomorphic to one of ordinal numbers?
This is the proof (from Jech's book) that given any two well-ordered sets, one is order-isomorphic to an initial segment of another, surprisingly short:
Then you do this:
Okay i am going to read this book
Just that chapter, really
(which is a very short chapter, and you don't really need much ordinal theory for learning topology)
No that's not the case, I am getting interest in set theory since the last few days, but I don't know how to start it from scratch
dont read jech first
well you can read small jech first
which i dont remember the name of
but big jech is a subpar introduction to the subject
Some days ago, I went to the college library and found a book on lattice theory and i don't know but I wanted to read it 
Okay
i cant find it can u reply later if u find out name of book ?
i wanna look at it
its called introduction to set theory
(as opposed to "set theory")
oh got it i assume 300 paged one then thanks !
are these notes any good for self teaching some topology https://www.math.toronto.edu/ivan/mat327/?resources
all this nonsense before compactness and connectedness
😂
im going to say no
should i just stick w munkres then
sure im sure you can find just looking on youtube
do you already know what metric spaces are
if not it might be worth first studying that from eg rudin
connectedness in chapter 18 out of 19 is crazy
can you really cover all first 17 chapters without mentioning connectedness once?
yeah guessing the prof is a set theorist
with no interest in math beyond set theory
yes i covered abbotts book recently
yep
it’s enough for topology right
ts so challenging lowk i havent encountered this much abstraction in school
yes
😢 "nonsense"
(though I agree that for self teaching topology they're not good)
wait does this do metric spaces
looks a bit sparse on examples
anyway it's probably fine
metric spaces arent really a prerequisite they just form a central example providing a lot of intuition
but just doing analysis on R might convey the same intuition
i think i suck at analysis probably need to go over ideas or do more exercises
a lot of it isnt nonsense but it's like wildly out of order
its too demotivating im in highschool rn and doing quite well w highschool maths but if its abstract stuff its so over
theres no reason to learn about 100000 separation axioms and urysohn lemma before compactness and connectedness
they dont even do quotient topology
this is precisely why I say this is bad for self teaching topology
it actually is a reasonable order for a course that focuses only on analytic topology
in fact it's pretty similar to my fourth year course on it
what is analytic topology
Yeah, I don't find this order particularly alarming either
(whereas just topology was 2nd)
focus more on just the set theory parts ig? will think of a better definition
the metrization theorems in particular
But also I work with Cantor spaces so connectedness is entirely irrelevant to me
i think it's also a matter of building mathematical maturity in the students
the metrization stuff is significantly harder
than elementary connectedness/compactness arguments
watch some videos on youtube to supplement and focus on the basics, no need to burn out over this abstract nonsense 🙂
I learned topology in highschool aswell, it took a few months to get the hang of it, make sure you do as many exercises as you can, if you need more exercises look in other books if you must
Can someone explain why in an indexed family of sets we can have two set A_1 and A_2 be in the set but A_1 and A_2 be the same set even though elements of a set are distinct?
This essentially comes down to what the definition of “indexed family” is
Are you considering indexed families of open sets, for example?
An indexed family is just a function from J to curly-A. Functions aren't always injective.
Are you asking why indexed family is defined this way?
I think I was just thinking of the definition incorrectly. Reading it again I think I understand better. I was thinking the an indexed family would look like this:
{A_1, A_2, A_3, …} but it’s just a collection curly A with the function J. J isn’t injective so J can map say 2 and 3 to the same set
function f:J->C, where J is the index set and C is a collection of sets
The function f is not required to be injective (one-to-one). The terms A1 and A2
are simply outputs of this function, f(1) and f(2). Since the function is not injective, it is perfectly allowed to have two distinct indices (1 and 2) map to the identical set
Thank you! Your explanation makes sense to me!
np , notjagr said same thing esentially
Yeah that makes sense
i mean what do you need it for
it has one important application which is IVT
which is not very relevant to pointset
Connectedness is a very nice property outside of IVT as well (e.g. domains are important in complex analysis) especially because of the equivalent formulation with clopen sets, and there's probably quite a bit of pointset flavoured stuff you can do regarding a) components b) the various (locally) ____-connected properties and c) a and b together
?
guy who just passed calculus 1: getting a lot of intermediate value theorem vibes from this
what do you need it for in the intro to pointset
the point of the intro is to learn it…
intro to point set is not research level math
it’s prerequisite collecting
lmao
if anything disconnectedness is much more important to pointset
nice bait
what topic in intro pointset relies on connectedness?
it’s called “connectedness”
that is the topic
and it should occupy a significant fraction of any reasonable intro point set topology course
what interesting theorems do you know about connectedness that are appropriate for an intro course?
that are not specifically about like zero dimensionality or whatever
idfk everything in intro point set topology is utterly trivial
nothing is a “theorem”
but it’s important to learn fundamental definitions and get a feel for how to reason about them
sure, what i mean is that it is a separate topic that is not particularly connected to the rest of the course
and you can slot it at the end if you so desire
unless you are doing dimension theory which you probably aren't
the only connected subsets of $\mathbb{R}$ are intervals, defined as the convex subsets of $\mathbb{R}$.
L
cmon thats a best a note, not even a proposition
is there a generalization of path connectedness where the domain isn’t I?
maybe this isn’t interesting since I is initial somehow
I think there was something done similar in an MSE post with the long line(with endpoints) instead
There’s probably plenty of generalizations with other domains they just might not be super interesting
@quartz horizon mentioned something about I being a universal space
what, like (\omega_1 + 1) x I?
yea. this is what i was referencing
i think to the long ray with endpoint you do one-point compactification instead?
distance to the cantor set?
all closed subsets of a metric space are zero-sets
which precludes metric spaces from being funny
I don't think it's that obvious
wdym
suppose A is connected and not an interval. find x,y in A and z not in A such that x<z<y
and use (-infty,z) and (z,infty) to disconnect A
it’s the other direction that is non-trivial
you have to use some properties about R like sup and inf
unless u use the fact that interval implies path connected
the proof that path connected implies connected relies on the fact that [0, 1] is connected
true, that is a bit circular
what
well yes
but i wouldnt really call this nontrivial
Why is this theorem proved using induction? I am getting confused because in the theorem it states for some n in the positive integers. I’m not sure where we are proving a proposition for all n in the positive integers.
this looks better suited for #proofs-and-logic but you can read the theorem as, let n be a positive integer and suppose A has cardinality n; then ...
So in order topology with least upper bound property we can say every order topology is locally compact, right? Because for any x, we can find x in (a,b) \subset [a, b], and using the least upper bound we can conclude [a,b] is compact
What is a universal space?
if w_1 is the first uncountable ordinal number, then i can write the topology on w_1 + 1 as [a, \omega], where a is the smallest elemenet of w_1, right?
for ref, w_1 + 1 defined as w_1 cup {\omega}, x < \omega for all x in w_1
then w_1 + 1 is compact because it is order topology and it has lub property and it can be written as closed interval
You can write it as [0, w_1] yeah
yes that’s very true thank u
i should just cope lowk and get on w it
Okay
I read about real induction and topology induction, and it seems interesting that we can prove some introductory proof of real analysis by real induction so why is it not mentioned in most books?
oh yeah real induction is quite neat
I think often there are alternative ways to do proofs that can be done with real induction, using suprema/infima or sometimes with a bisection argument
Yes, and most textbooks employ those alternatiwe ways which is why real induction isn't often covered as such
Even if the argument (which is basically a compactness argument, really) is used in proofs, it's not labelled as a specific thing
That's probably why it's not covered, the framing of "real induction" requires a linearly ordered set, so an argument phrased in those terms doesn't generalize to R^n or to general metric/topological spaces.
As for “topological induction”, I think it’s more common but usually just not named as such
Instead you’re just appealing to connectedness
Is that also basically compactness; the kind of thing we talked a while ago?
Compactness is a slightly different induction principle
We talked about that recently, that's what brought it to mind
Ye
Yeah, that's what I thought of when you mentioned connectedness
Linking points via a chain of intersecting open sets
Yeah that’s chain-connectedness
I don't get much use out of that, working as I do mostly in Cantor spaces
Very compact, very not connected
totally not connected, in fact
The way I think of connectedness as an induction principle is to show a set is the whole thing, you show it’s nonempty, open and closed
Hm, given how much you work in compact spaces, how would you explain compactness to a student
Or maybe, what does compactness “feel like” to you
Points can (edit: can't) really "run away" in a compact set, is my intuition; in practical terms the three consequences of compactness I use the most is the attainment of maxima/minima by continuous functions; uniform continuity of continuous functions; and existence of convergent subsequences for all sequences.
For purposes of coming up with proofs I basically conceptualize my space as [0,1], the closed unit square or the Cantor set, and think of how I'd do things there
And then try to adapt my proof so that it wouldn't use anything specific to those spaces, of course.
I've often heard the intuition that a compact set is "almost" finite, but I never really grokked that.
-# Side note, I hate that Musk ruined the word for the rest of us
Interesting
What do you mean by run away?
Do you ever work with compact but not sequentially compact spaces?
Literally never outside of teaching, since all the spaces that occur in my work are compact metrizable (either Cantor spaces, or unit balls in the dual of a separable space, with weak* topology).
I'm mostly thinking of the property that every sequence in a compact metric space has a convergent subsequence, but also the fact that if every point of your space has a neigborhood where something happens, you can pick finitely many of those neighborhoods which will cover the whole space (so every other point will be "covered" by those finitely many points)
In metric terms compactness implies total boundedness
I think of it as "topologically finite"
Hmm, I would have phrased that as "points can't really run away"...
I assume that was a typo
Oh duh, yeah, that was a typo
I see - it seems like the properties you mean apply more to sequential compactness
Yep
Hm
The extreme value theorem works for both compact and sequentially compact spaces, right?
By which I mean - suppose X is compact or sequentially compact, and f : X -> R is continuous. Then f has and attains its maxima/minima
Yes, because continuous maps preserve both compactness and sequential compactness.
So the image of X will be a compact subset of R either way
Interesting
Uniform continuity only really makes sense when X is metrizable, I assume, and then compactness and sequential compactness are the same
Well, there's a slightly broader class called uniform spaces: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uniform_space
In the mathematical field of topology, a uniform space is a set with additional structure that is used to define uniform properties, such as completeness, uniform continuity and uniform convergence. Uniform spaces generalize metric spaces and topological groups, but the concept is designed to formulate the weakest axioms needed for most proofs i...
Ah I see
I don't think I've ever seen them mentioned "in the wild" (i.e. outside topology textbooks), but of course there's many areas of mathematics I'm not familiar with.
I guess I’m trying to understand the extent to which compactness and sequential compactness are different concepts
Yeah, since for metric spaces they're equivalent, I admit I also find the distinction tricky to intuit abot.
I know that compactness is equivalent to “every net has a convergent subnet”, maybe that helps
Similarly for closure and sequential closure.
Hm, is it always true that the sequential closure is contained in the closure?
Yes (if x is the limit of a sequence of elements of A, then every neighborhood of x contains points from A, and that's one of the equivalent criteria for being in the closure)
But I meant that since in metric spaces closure is equal to the sequential closure, I find it easy to forget that an element of the closure might not be the limit of any sequence from your original set.
For example in l^1 the weak closure of the unit sphere is the unit ball (as it is in every infinitely-dimensional normed vector space), but since in l^1 weak convergence is equivalent to norm convergence, you won't find a sequence of unit sphere vectors which would converge to 0 in the weak topology.
You will find a net, of course, although I have no idea what it would look like.
Ah, of course someone has already asked and answered this: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3710172/construct-a-net-on-the-unit-ball-in-ell1-mathbb-n-weakly-converging-to-ze?noredirect=1&lq=1
Interesting
Yes
I mean, that wasn't really a question
Yes, if space is first countable then it holds
You don't really need to reply to my messages just to state that you know that.
I'm here right now so it doesn't really matter, but if I wasn't I'd get annoyed at the unnecessary pings
Okay
I am thinking, which is non-metrizable space which holds sequentially compactness
You mean a space which is sequentially compact and not compact (and obviously nonmetrizable, since if it was metrizable it would be both or neither)?
Yes, a non-metrizable space which is sequentially compact but not compact
Serendipituously, ordinals provide the example.
Specifically, the set of ||all countable ordinals|| with the order topology
I see
Yeah now i remember that Munkres mentioned it in the limit point compact section
Got it, thank you
I think I've proven (i) but I don't understand the statement of (ii)
(X,d) is a metric space. it's saying that X' is the same set as X, but with a different topology?
Any topology
but such that the metric is continuous
and then you want to show it has more (or equal) open sets
ok right I see. I'll think for a minute
I think the question is phrased pretty awkwardly
I probably would've said something like "let tau be a topology on X such that the metric is continuous wrt tau, show that tau is finer than the metric topology"
yeah I was confused by the wording but I think I fully understand the statement now so I'll give it a good try before asking for a hint if I'm stuck. thanks for reiterating it though 🙂
This theorem is from Munkres topology. I understand the proof but I’m not understanding the technique they used. I’m still not understanding why induction was used here. The theorem says for some n in the positive integers which I’m interpreting as “there exists n in the positive integers”. I would expect induction to be used on a statement that is saying something about “all positive integers”. Can someone explain why induction is being used here when the theorem says “for some n”.
It’s for some n, so he’s just proving that if the n is 1, then it holds, or 2, etc, I think?
Yeah that makes sense. It’s just not clicking why we can used induction here. It seems like the author is proving a different statement since he is proving something for all the positive integers
if X = {0} U {1/n : n in N1} how do you create a filter for p = 0
in the subspace topology on (R, Teucl)
X is not Hausdroff means there exists two point such that any open set containing them must intersect to each other, not there exists open set U and V which intersects
The line Every neighborhood of (x,y) has form (U x V) has problems too sets of the form U×V (where U,V are open in X) are a basis for the product topology, not the only open sets. a general open set is a union of these basis elements. while you can correctly use basis elements in a proof, you prolly should must state it properly "Any neighborhood of (x,y) must contain a basic open set of the form U×V" or something
Ok
the main idea is to prove the contrapositive If ( X) is not Hausdorff, there exist two distinct points ( x \neq y ) in ( X ) such that for any open neighborhood U of ( x ) and any open neighborhood ( V ) of ( y ), we have ( U \cap V \neq \emptyset )
welll to prove that the diagonal ( \Delta = {(z,z) \in X \times X} \subseteq X \times X ) is not closed we can show that its complement ( (X \times X) \setminus \Delta ) contains a point that is not an interior point
We pick the point ( (x, y) ), which lies in the complement of ( \Delta ) because x \neq y and any open neighborhood of ( (x, y)) in the product topology must contain a basic open set of the form ( U \times V ), where ( U) is an open neighborhood of ( x ) and ( V ) is an open neighborhood of ( y ).
Since X is not Hausdorff we know that ( U \cap V \neq \emptyset ). let ( z \in U \cap V). Then ( (z, z) \in U \times V ), and ( (z, z) \in \Delta ). this means that every neighborhood of ( (x, y)) intersects ( \Delta )
Therefore, (x, y) is a limit point of ( \Delta ), but it is not in Delta. Hence, \Delta is not closed in ( X \times X )
Thanks
Do you know a counterexample that disproves continuous image of hausdorff space is hausdorff
consider the codiscrete (or indiscrete) topology on a set Y with more than two elements
when is a function f : X -> Y between top spaces continuous?
Thanks
Show that the subspace (a,b) of R is homeomorphic with (0,1) and [a,b] of R is homeomorphic with [0,1]
so use map from (a,b) to (0,1)?
Yes use a map between the two that is a homeomorphism. If you can’t think of any, think of linear interpolation
Prove that (a, b) is homeomorphic to (ca, cb) and (a+c, b+c) for c>0
hi, i want to construct a topological space X such that there is some subset B with the property that B is not closed and if x_n is a convergent sequence with terms in B, then x_n converges to some element x in B. ive seen the arens-fort space as the standard example but i want to intuitively construct one on my own. my prof said that we can make one by making a topology based on what sequences we want to converge to but im not really sure what that means or what to do with that
If M is a topological n-manifold, is every element of the basis of the topology homeomorphic to an open subset of R^n?
Based on the definition of locally euclidean I have in front of me, it just states that "some" open neighborhood of every point is homeomorphic to a subset of R^n, and Im not assuming the basis elements have to be those particular subset that do this...
do you have a specific basis in mind that you are asking this about? because it definitely won't hold generally
any topology is a basis of itself, and it definitely doesn't hold for every open set
You can construct such a space by taking an uncountable set like ( X = \mathbb{R} ),
choosing a special point ( p = 0 ), and letting your subset be B = \mathbb{R} \setminus {0}).
Define a topology where a set ( U \subseteq X ) is open if either it does not contain ( 0 )
or it does contain ( 0 ) and its complement ( X \setminus U ) is a countable set.
With this topology, ( B ) is not closed because any open neighborhood of ( 0 )
must be very large (co-countable) and is forced to intersect the uncountable set ( B ),
making ( 0 ) a limit point.
however, any sequence (x_n) ) within ( B ) is just a countable set of points, so you can always construct an open neighborhood of ( 0 ) that specifically excludes every point in that sequence, proving that no sequence from ( B ) can converge to ( 0 ), any convergent sequence from ( B ) must converge to a point within ( B )
on the other hand, for any manifold the set of all open subsets that are homeomorphic to R^n is a basis, so that gives you an example of a basis for which the property holds
Ah interesting. I was trying to show that every open set of the n-manifold contains a "coordinate ball" (an open set that is homeomorphic to an open subset of R^n) where n is greater than 0... and I think your last statement (which isnt immediately obvious to me) would give me said conclusion.
I would say it's the other way around, that what I said follows from what you are trying to prove
I don't want to spoil too much, but it can be proven relatively directly. you basically need to pick coordinates once, transport your open set across the homeomorphism, and then pick a second smaller ball inside that set
Ohhh I see what you are getting at 👀
That makes sense to me! I guess when a set is specifically homeomorphic to R^n, since R^n is a metric space, there is always a smaller ball... so its open subsets all the way down.
Apart from Yuxuan Wang's example of the cocountable topology, another example would be space of all countable ordinals together with the least uncountable ordinal, with the order topology. The set of countable ordinals is sequentially closed in this space, but not closed (the remaining point is in its closure but can't be reached using any sequence).
cool characterization of $\RR$ that i found in an MSE post:$\newline$
The real line is characterized up to homeomorphism as a connected, locally connected, separable, regular space $X$ such that for any $x \in X$ the subspace $X-{x}$ has exactly two connected components.
c squared
@rancid umbra sure its hausdorf
sorry egg o my face, R^2\0 is connected haus but onky 1 component
ya you need separability, hausdorff, regular
oh is there a counter example without the hausdorff assumption?
yes
the space needs to be hausdorff
ya you need hausdorf
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/5099920/is-ℝ-uniquely-determined-by-the-point-removal-splits-it-into-two-copies-of-itse
the MO link that Mosher references has a paper which says that this characterization assumes X is Hausdorff. it also gives a counter example:
https://mathoverflow.net/a/76139/167473
i meam i guess we talk about cofinite topologies, or something
lemme think about the hausdorf assumption
yea, i haven't seen the counter example yet
wait so thats connected, locally connected, separable, regular, and removing any point creates 2 connected components?
the first 4 make sense but im confused why removing one of the 0s result in 2 connected components
wait i dont understand what that means 😭 as in the statement only applies to frechet spaces?
no the q was to find a counter for non-hausdorf, now regular on t1 is frechet
so the assumption of regular on frechet and haus are redundant
basically hausdorff implies frechet but not vice-versa
this statement is only true on hausdorff
ohh
That is really neat
right!
so you get locally compact and normal for free somewhere in this description?
normal is probably regular + separable or something
The Sorgenfrey plane is T_3, Separable, and not T_4
oh shoot
It feels like I will never know this stuff. My eyeballs looked at these properties before
how do you get from separable to second countable here
also, i want to use a metrization theorem some how
will think on this later
generally you cannot
am tired
I think...
huh
A community database of topological theorems and spaces, with powerful search and automated proof deduction.
But I only know it’s LOTS because it’s R so
Not sure how you go from some of those properties to LOTS without already knowing it is R
i imagine you would be able to get the order relation of the points by comparing the components they split the space into
how do you get orientation i wonder
hmm
yea
like
you could try x < y if one of x's components contains one of y's
but even if you show that its well-defined
select two points, set one to be lower than the other
you have an issue with orientation
then the others can be oriented around those two
oh hmm
i feel like that's legit
I’m too tired to put thought into it but that seems true
yea same
now you only need to prove that components are Dedekind-cut-like
i.e. any two cuts are actually comparable
It’s always crazy cool to see how a bunch of properties that don’t look like they should imply an additional property(in this case, being homeomorphic to R) in fact do
baking a cake from scratch is cool lol
yea the characterizations of Q and the cantor set are pretty cool too
Yeah
Irrationals being omega^omega is not exactly what I’m talking about but I’m bringing it up cause it’s cool too
obviously R is simply a 1-manifold that isn't a circle
Yeah and the cantor set is 2^omega
It was always weirdly cool to me that an infinite product of discrete sets is not discrete, even though it’s trivial from the definition of the product topology
there is a proof of the classification of 1-manifolds that i really like
it needs nothing else more than the definition of a 1-manifold
so its super elementary
and you don’t need any differentiability or CW complexes or simplicial complexes
well the simplicial complexes are there for the 2 maniflds and higher it feels
the proof for 1 looks like pure meaningless formalism imo
you take the line, and then you cut it into balls, and then each balls you cut into a graph...
just going off memory from the toc of ITM
I stared at it yesterday trying to understand what the big ide awas
huh that's cool
yea. i remember this was basically the first homework question in my diff top class.
our prof didn't have a solution written up and eventually put it as a bonus question instead because of how difficult it was
it was technical and opaque for sure
yea
but like, ig the main idea is that, in the non-boundary case, any two intervals overlap in either a single connected component or two connected components
this is the classification in ITM?
not sure what ITM is, it's how Lee does it if that's what you mean
ah introduction to topological manifolds?
@rancid umbra i am aalso curious about the next paper in the attachment ; error analysis in complex variables, whhaaa
ye lol
oh ha!
-# this is at the end of the take home exam
-# the next paper
that does seem interesting actually
@umbral hamlet wanted to ask, how's topology going?
the reason i ask is because i remember about a week or so ago we expressed similar sentiments about the class being a bit of a learning curve
since then i've done a lot more practice and i certainly feel less adversarial towards the topic
damn it took me more than a semester to attain the same attitude
Still about the same
Haven't had much time to sit on it, im more busy this semester than id like to be
Im about to do my topology homework though so we will see
having a bit of trouble showing that $\bar{A} -\bar{B} \subset \overline{A - B}$
hiidostuff
what do you have so far?
well i know that if x is an interior point then it follows pretty immediately
but the limit point case is whats giving me some problems
wait actually there are four cases arent there
you dont really need cases
x is an interior in both, x is an interior in one but a limit of the other, and x is a limit of both
ah im seeing what you did there
that took me a while to figure out tbh lol
i just dont work with setminus enough i guess
same
its weird juggling around the quantifiers in this one
thats what was causing me to be so uncertain about what i was doing
i drew a few simple examples when i was doing it and that made it a lot more obvious
