#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 80 of 1
Every subject has details 
Maybe the simplex category and then use Dold-Kan
At least for complexes that vanish in negative degrees (connective? I forget)
Its not that hard if youve seen simplicial sets before
To go from chain complexes to simplicial abelian groups you do basically the same thing as with singular simplicial sets. The other way is a little more difficult, but this "reduced Moore complex" is quasi-isomorphic to the usual alternating chain map complex
you want to work in the setting of enriched category theory probably and consider additive functors.
Is there a connection here?
- A monoid is a lax monoidal functor from the terminal monoidal category 1 but also a strong monoidal functor from the augmented simplex category \Delta_a. That is, 1 is the "laxification" of \Delta_a.
- A chain complex is a functor from Delta to Ab but also an additive functor from the "walking chain complex"
Can you explain what you mean by "a functor from Delta to Ab"
Do you mean up to equivalence of categories
Oh that shouldve been Delta^op
Yeah, I mean, that wasn't my concern lol
Yeah, with Dold Kan, but thats not a problem I dont think?
Like a simplicial abelian group
Because the question is conceptual, it makes a difference because imo the answer is best understood in terms of Dold-Kan; and so if you make certain identifications already based on Dold-Kan it can obscure it.
Here is an interesting reformulation of Dold-Kan that you may find helpful in understanding this -
Dold-Kan can be understood as stating that, working in the bicategory of Ab-enriched categories and Ab-valued profunctors, there is an equivalence between Z[\Delta] and the (opposite) of the walking chain complex. As an immediate corollary, there is an equivalence of categories between their associated presheaf categories, i.e., SAb \cong Ch(Ab)
So I think one way of rephrasing the question is:
How does the relationship between Z[\Delta] and the walking chain complex compare to the relationship between Delta and the one-object 2-category (or bicategory)
Here by Z[\Delta] I mean the free Ab-enriched category on Delta, given by taking free Abelian groups of homsets and extending composition to be bilinear in the obvious way.
(And by the way, the Moore normalization definition can easily be adapted to work on presheaves on \Delta_a, there is an equivalence of categories between augmented simplicial Abelian groups and chain complexes as well, so let us just forget about Delta and focus on Delta_a)
This is not the time to get into this but the standard formulation of Dold-Kan is morally wrong and it should be presented as an equivalence between augmented simplicial Abelian groups and chain complexes
Btw I see what you're getting at by "laxification" but it seems more easy to formalize this by saying that to say that Delta is constructed from 1 by "strictification" in some sense than to say that 1 is constructed from Delta by laxification. It is like looping/delooping, it is clear what is meant by the loop space, some homotopy theory is required to establish that delooping is a coherent concept, or that the delooping is well defined.
Im always willing to go on a detour: do we get a different chain complex if we take the left vs. the right Kan extension along the inclusion Delta -> Delta_a (i.e. either add a single (-1)-point or add a (-1)-point for every connected component)?
Right, but I just like the word laxification 
But certainly not every monoidal category has a laxification, so strictification is better ye
Maybe "strongification"
Yes, the difference is a shift in degree, a suspension or desuspension in chain complexes. In my subjective opinion, there is a suspension "buried" or "hidden" in the usual definition of Dold-Kan which is removed by modifying the definition to use the augmented simplex category
The usual textbook definition of Dold-Kan is not a strong monoidal functor. The definition I would propose to replace it with is a strong monoidal functor. The usual textbook definition of Dold-Kan asserts the weaker statement that it is "monoidal up to homotopy equivalence" - I claim that this is a red herring and this is really a statement about the relationship between the Cartesian product of spaces and the join of spaces - the smash product of spaces agrees with the join of spaces up to a suspension, up to homotopy.
I can be more formal about this if necessary (and desirable) lol
If I understand correctly, the textbook Dold-Kan would be a Quillen equivalence (on the usual model structures)? While your version already works for the 1-categories?
And that the only reason the textbook version doesnt work for 1-categories is not an "interesting" fact but only the relationship you mentioned?
Yes, I'm talking about 1-category theory here, I personally find a lot of mathematical value and content at the 1-categorical level, for example there are more or less computationally practical resolutions, even if they are all the same up to weak equivalence. Or for example, you might want to talk about a "cofibrancy structure" on an object, working constructively, rather than just saying an object is cofibrant as in the model category language.
Ofc the lower dimensional a fact works the easier it is
Dold-Kan in the standard presentation is already a true equivalence
but it is not an equivalence of monoidal categories
Right thats what I meant ye
Funny that model categories are themselves already a 1-category approximation of infty-cats
Dold-Kan is an equivariant of 1-categories
But there is a very serious issue about the monoidal structures. The categories of algebras are Quillen equivalent, but the categories of symmetric algebras are not Quillen equivalent, so they are substantially different
Interesting, ok. I see
In fact, commutative dgas (over a field of positive characteristic) have no known model structure and the forgetful functor to chain complexes does not admit a left adjoint in the infinite sense
yikes good thing I dont need them
For concreteness here's the definition I would propose.
- We know that presheaf categories are a "free cocompletion"
- We know that the augmented simplex category is the free monoidal category with distinguished monoid
It is possible to combine 1 and 2 into a single universal property of the category of (augmented) simplicial sets : every cocomplete monoidal category C with a distinguished monoid M, whose tensor product is cocontinuous in both arguments, determines in a canonical way a functor SSet -> C
One then checks that this works in the Ab-enriched setting, that is, simplicial Abelian groups are the free Ab-enriched, "cocomplete-monoidal" category (where here by "cocomplete-monoidal" I mean to imply that the cocompleteness structure and monoidal structure are appropriately compatible, i..e, the tensor product is cocontinuous in both arguments)
Cocomplete should be understood in the sense of enriched category theory here, using weighted colimits
The category of chain complexes has the usual tensor product, and we take as distinguished monoid the complex
0 -> Z -> Z -> 0
which is concentrated in degrees 0 and 1.
Intuitively here the degrees are counting the number of points in the simplex for that dimension, so 0 = the empty simplex, 1 = the simplex at a point.
So this complex represents the space with one point (using the reduced homology convention, I guess, where each space has a single canonical instance of the empty singular simplex)
Geometrically, the tensor product represents the join of simplicial complexes, you can check that the chain complex functor from simplicial complexes to Ab sends the join to the tensor product up to isomorphism
There is then a unique functor SAb -> Ch(Ab) which is cocontinuous, sends the one point space to the one-point space, and sends Day convolution of presheaves to the tensor product of chain complexes
and this is a monoidal equivalence.
Very cool!
I remember that the usual tensor product of chain complexes is itself already a Day convolution https://mathoverflow.net/questions/359306/is-the-tensor-product-of-chain-complexes-a-day-convolution
Just to be clear, cdga sits between two good categories, simplicial commutative rings and E_infinity rings. In characteristic zero, they’re all the same. If you’re in positive characteristic and you find a natural cdga, it actually has the extra structure of a simplicial commutative ring. If you want a cdga, you should settle for an E_infinity ring
I am guessing this story is basically the same one, translated via Dold-Kan
Yeah. I would say it's not just a matter of "after translating via Dold-Kan, you can see that these stories actually agree", the answerer is literally saying "Well, if you translate via Dold-Kan, then the answer is yes."
What I said earlier about Z[\Delta] being equivalent in the bicategory of profunctors to the walking chain complex, you cannot transfer monoidal structures along profunctors because they're not functors.
I regard this answer as saying
"the walking chain complex is not a monoidal category, but Z[\Delta] is, and it's equivalent to the walking chain complex in the bicategory of profunctors, so here's a definition which is precisely engineered to let us transfer monoidal structure along profunctors, at which point the answer becomes yes, because you can transfer the monoidal structure from Z[\Delta.]"
Society if it were lol
Yeah but the point of my post is that it can be and it should be!
I don't mean to be dismissive but Moore just fucked it up and was off by a dimension shift of one like. Sometimes definitions are wrong
Like more seriously the existing alignment is based on the "geometric" intuition that degree 0 of chain complexes should correspond to 0-simplices, degree 1 should correspond to line segments, degree 2 should correspond to points and so on.
If you just change your intuition so that the object in degree n corresponds to the convex hull of n points it is fine
it just means we have to reindex our homology theories by one which people working with homology theories based on monads already do
ok i'm going to get some work done lmao
What about working class cats tho 🥺
Okay I heard that you can define compactness in R^n in terms of sequences, I.e every sequence in the A (compact) has a converging sub-sequence with a limit in A.
Isn't this just rephrasing heine borel
If you use this to prove heine-borel isn't this a circular argument
This is the post that prompted this question.
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4529598/proof-on-the-heine-borel-theorem
It is not the same thing, it just so happens so in metric spaces sequential compactness (which is the property you stated) is equivalent to compactness
No but if you are specifically talking about R^n then?
You do need to prove either sequential compactenss or compatness somehow though
Sequential compactness is a pretty easy consequence of Bolzano-Weierstrass
That they are equivalent here?
Or we can take it for granted here since it's a metric space
If we are using the result
You do need to prove the equivalency too of course
If you want to use compactness that is, most theorems use compactness rather than sequential compactness
Yea fair
So say we prove the equivalence, then this argument is fine?
yeah
Cool, thanks. 
what's a codisc bundle?
It must mean the unit disk bundle in the vector bundle that is the cotangent bundle. That was my guess just from the word codisk, but the fact that is a symplectic manifold clinches it. Why codisk, rather than disk? Maybe for some sufficiently exotic Finsler structure, you need to use the fact that it is dual to a metric space, rather than is a metric space in its own right?
i think codisk is used instead of disk because the symplectic structure is quite important there
idk about the finsler setting
but my impression is that symplecticness of the space of oriented lines is central to making geometric optics work
There phrasing implies that there is a general notion of a codisk bundle, which is false
It would made more sense to say the disk of the cometric
not sure i see the difference
how is "codisk bundle" not the same thing as "bundle of disks of the cometric"
This is a bit of a silly question, but
Take a closed disk, x^2 + y^2 <= 1
Remove an open rectangle from it so that it looks like this
How would you show, explicitly, that this is homeomorphic to the original disk?
how explicitly are we talking about lol
it's kind of painful to write down an explicit map but it's obvious that you can do this
Writing down an explicit map :)
Like, I think it’s common to just say “it’s obvious” and move on, but it’d be nice to actually prove
sure okay you can write down a piecewise map that stretches the middle part back into the disk you want
What do you mean?

When you are talking about R^n a compact set can just be defined by being closed and bounded, but when we talk about more general topologies it makes more sense to say that a set is compact if there always exists a finite subcover
So Heine borel becomes the definition and not a theorem
Lol
But yeah, a closed and bounded set is not necessarily compact in a non-complete metric space for instance
Wait
Compact subspaces of Hausdorff spaces are always closed
And the metric is continuous, so a compact subspace will be bounded too
In any metric space
Jordan curve theorem 
I feel like this is too much machinery!
Like, don’t you think this would be a reasonable problem on a first problem sheet?
Hmmm... I don't really know what is a Hausdorff space? Lol
In particular, a compact subset of a metric space is always closed and bounded
But I'm just saying that bcs the Heine borel proof (the general idea behind it) ceases to work when you eliminate completeness
The point of heine-borel is to prove the reverse implication for R^n with the Euclidean metric
no, it's rather cumbersome
with little to be gained from it
That’s surprising to me
I feel like being good at topology means that you should be able to work with shapes like this
it would be more illustrative to ask them to draw the homeomorphism
not in the way you're insisting on no
Animate Bad Apple by finding a parametrization for the boundary (3 points)
insisting on writing down explicit maps like this kind of a waste of time
Still, people are suggesting quite complicated pieces of machinery to solve it..
my class introduced deformation retractions on the first day
I mean yes because it's something you should be able to solve with a general method instead of writing down explicit maps in every example
That’s for homotopy equivalence, not homeomorphism, right?
No yeah
You are totally right
Let me change the order real quick
like if you understand topology you should be able to quickly convince yourself of how you might write this down, and then not continue to waste time actually writing this down
yes, but that would be the intuition for how to produce the homeomorphism, since it will be the same map in this case
I’m not actually sure how you get from the homotopy to the homeomorphism
because the homotopy is a homeomorphism in this case
Hmm
Is the homotopy always a homeomorphism though Missed context
I don’t think that types well though
no nothing about this is unique
A homeomorphism doesn’t use [0, 1]
It only uses the two topological spaces X and Y
Now it's correct
There’s no “time” parameter involved
@quartz horizon thanks for giving me the heads up
you can think of this as writing down a 1-parameter family of homeomorphisms
No problem! These things can be tricky
where at one endpoint you have the identity and at the other endpoint you have the map you're asking for
I just wasn't thinking that much when I wrote it lol
But this is from the space to itself, right?
Like, the homotopy is between two maps X -> X
I don’t see how it gives a map X -> Y
At least, that’s how a homotopy equivalence works
anyways if you were forced to write down an explicit map it's not that hard
write it as some composition of easier to understand/write down maps
That’s… kinda what I’m asking lol
well you should think about it if you're so curious
you won't gain anything by having someone else explain this to you
just as you won't really gain much by thinking about this problem
although you should probably think about it if it's not so obvious
Note that S^1 x [0, 1] quotiented by S^1 x {1} is a disk, so if you have an appropriate homotopy S^1 x [0, 1] -> X such that S^1 x {1} gets mapped to one point, then you induce a bijective map from the disk to X, and you can apply "compact -> Hausdorff"
But imho the point of elementary alg top is to make intuitive things easy to prove
So for something intuitive like JCT one would just apply it without hesitation
looks at the test
"yeah, I know how to solve this"
leaves
this but unironically
apart from being a bit against the spirit of why we do topology, writing an explicit map for this is also not a useful skill for later topology ventures
in general you care about showing/using existence of homeomorphisms or homotopy equivalences, so the experience of painstakingly writing this map out wont be very useful
I've done topology and read topology papers for close to a decade now and I can count the number of times writing down an explicit map like this was actually useful on one hand
I remember watching a 3b1b video and thinking that space filling curves were necessarily bijective and continuous so I just spent a week trying to prove that such a curve was possible for R^2 💀
oh man we had a small discussion about this and also continuous bijections between R and L2[0,1] in this server not too long ago
Lol
This seems very non standard to me at least
I've never seen someone write like this, no sure what the [ means or why they are using curly brackets to indicate intervals
You don’t do low dim top though
I thought low dim top people were even less likely to write smth out lol
I am thinking those are just typos
This is quite interesting to me
I guess I’m a physicist, so I care about concreteness
So I feel like if I couldn’t write down a map, or an algorithm for producing such a map, I’m not sure if I understand the concepts well enough..
well they’re not saying they can’t write down such a map, just that they don’t need to
though, there certainly is very often in mathematics, theorems establishing the existence of maps without any means to actually construct them
Riemann mapping theorem comes to mind, but there are dozens
Mhm I’m aware of them
But I don’t think you need such heavy machinery for this
i admit i did not read more than a couple messages up and don’t actually know the context

Oh so
The problem is simply to show this shape is homeomorphic to a closed disk
just wanted to stress the difference between knowing a map exists, and knowing you could explicitly give it
Mhm
there is a tradition for constructivism at my uni
admittedly very weak, but certainly present
Guys I am confused about something (nothing new haha), if I have a path connected space and I know that for example (1,0) is a strong deformation retract of X with given homotopy H. I thus know that I have a path gamma between every point y in X and (1,0). How can I now connect the given homotopy with gamma such that I get that y is also a deformation retract?
I get the concept behind it but I don't know how to formly define the homotopy
if i’m getting your question right, for $0\leq t \leq\frac{1}{2}$ then define $H_2(x,t)=H(x,2t)$, then for $\frac{1}{2}\leq t \leq 1$ we let $H_2(x,t) = \gamma(2(t-\frac{1}{2}))$
kahler smaynifold
if f:X -> Y and g:Y-> Z are maps such that f and “g compose f” are continuous then is g continuous as well?
Not necessarily!
Sad
True for homeomorphisms at least lol
Uh
So here then how do they establish the forward direction
No yes this is right
This is cause of the universal property of the quotient
why is that property true
It seems to be a statement of the form I described above (which is false in general), but ofc there’s more structure here
Essentially by how the quotient topology is defined
It’s defined such that this statement is true
Hatcher describes CW complexes as (pic). Two questions about this, can we have any number of n-cells attachments phi? E.g. an uncountable number of attachments. Second, we only admit a countable number Xn? Maybe we could start attaching cells again to X^omega and continue the process all again so that we have X^alpha for each ordinal. (it's not immediately clear to me that attaching a cell to a X^omega space is in X^omega, this latter question is silly if this is the case)
2 out of 3 my beloved
We can have arbitrarily many cells of each n yes
It's only for finite n though
countable n
Ah, this brings back memories
I remember wondering how you’d prove that the order in which you attach cells doesn’t matter
Countably many finite n
And this is what got me into category theory
sorry yeah whenever i talk about algebraic topology i am super unrigorous and imprecise (i learned from hatcher)
But then it is sort of redundant lol
Hatcher is mostly rigorous
ohhh seems I could prove this to solve my second question
yeah i am just mad at hatcher
As you should be
It turns out there’s an abstract nonsense proof
But do transfinite CW complexes exist 
Namely that “colimits commute”
please no
Transfinite ∞-groupoids
yeah it's that easy
Mhm!
But trying to do this hands-on
In terms of constructing an explicit homeo
Is horrible
You have to consider equivalence relations on top of equivalence relations on…
tbf the proof of colimits commute give an explicit morphism
so just compute that (;p
It does!
i bet countably many X^i are just equivalent to a “true” CW complex no matter what order type
Cell complexes my beloved
In fact, at any stage, you can partition the cells you attach any way you like, and add them in any order
Eh you can add uncountably many cells of each dimension
Transfinite composites of pushouts of coproducts of sphere inclusions
Should be able to add as many as you want
oh wait what would like e^omega be
Wdym
nvm
hmm okay
i learned nothing in topology apparently
Guys, how difficult is measure theory?
Wrong channel but uh
idk but topology is pretty cool
Oh ok
Oh mb no worries
like 3
3?
Lol
+- 1
for a second i forgot that you had to attach e^n when making X^n, so i thought something like “uh X^omega would just be something like attaching a 2-cell somewhere” idk (don’t think about it it doesn’t make sense)
Lol ok
sorry
UwU
Is Ryx be UwUer now
uwu
UwU
Wait is UwUer an adjective or a noun
Noun
Edit sniped
Me, subtly changing the question on the finals when your head is buried in the paper 
it suffices to show that we can deform a piece x^2 + y^2 \leq 1, y \geq mx + b, y \geq c, where b, c are small enough, into the shape x^2 + y^2 \leq 1, y \geq c. then perform horizontal stretching; i.e. if y = mx + b intersects the semicircle at p, then for everything below p draw a horizontal line, and stretch them uniformly to the right
oh that was really easy, I oversaw it, thank you very much for answering!
Uh, I can’t really visualise what you’re saying..
if C is a closed set in R^n, and we have continuous functions f, g: C -> R with f = g on the boundary, then given a continuous function h that is below f, g we have a homeomorphism between the volumes {(v, y) \in R^n+1 : v \in R^n, h(v) \leq y \leq f(v)}, {(v, y) \in R^n+1 : v \in R^n, h(v) \leq y \leq g(v)} that is realized by a homotopy relative to the "boundary"
$V_f := {(v, y) \in \bb{R}^{n+1} : v \in \bb{R}^n, h(v) \leq y \leq f(v)}$, $V_g := {(v, y) \in \bb{R}^{n+1} : v \in \bb{R}^n, h(v) \leq y \leq g(v)}$
where the boundary is the graph of h, and the "cylinder" in ∂C × R; i.e. points (v, y) such that v ∈ ∂C, h(v) ≤ y ≤ f(v) = g(v)
Hi, I have a question. Let $f\colon X\to R$ a real valued continuous function and suppose that $f$ cannot be continously extended over $\beta X$ (Cech compactification). Can I conclude that $f$ is not bounded? If yes how?
Milo
is X nice
If f was bounded, you could consider it as a function X --> [-M, M] for some M>0, for which there would be an extension to βX by its universal property.
X is not compact obv
Shouldn't need any assumptions on X for this.
oh yeah
I didn't get it, what do you mean with "universal property"?
That maps X --> C for a compact Hausdorff space C extend to maps βX --> C
Ohh okay thank you a lot
But I need X Tychonoff to use that property right? (Which anyway is my case I forgot to mention sorry)
Nope, you can define Stone-Cech compactification of non-Tychonoff spaces as well, which still have this property (not sure of an exact construction, but they exist)
Okok, didn't know about that. Thank you again
its author dependent whether they call Stone-Cech-like compactifications of non-Tychonoff spaces a Stone-Cech-compactification
we want the space to be Tychonoff so that the inclusion morphism is an embedding
I just tried to use this to prove that the order of attachment does not matter but you could attach an n-cell to an m-CW complex at a point that doesn't existed at the (n-1)-skeleton stage; so commutativity of colimits doesn't help
Yeah, so it does matter what stage you’re at
particular example: take a point, attach a loop at it, then attach another loop at some point different than the initial one
we get a figure 8, which is a CW complex
Mhm
for T1 spaces you can take Wallman extension, but it wont be nice, in fact it wont even be hausdorff if the starting space is not normal
I'm not sure the problem can be solved using pure category theory
I am of the opinion that special objects like this should be defined via their properties, from which it becomes a theorem that they exist. So here, to me the defining property of the Stone-Cech compactification of any space is this extension property, and one can prove (using, say, the Special Adjoint Functor Theorem) that this exists for any space.
And then, using this universal property, one can still show that the inclusion morphism is infact injecting and an embedding.
So I was told once that all cell complexes (cells attached without regard to the dimension at a specifica attaching step) can be realized as CW complexes, but I'm not 100% confident that's actually true lol, and idk if there's a proof written anywhere (looking on MSE or MO might be good).
As you've noted, it's not as simple as colimits commuting with colimits, so it's not purely categorical.
The result is false! https://mathoverflow.net/questions/23415/cw-structure-on-spaces-obtained-by-attaching-cells-wildly
(at the very least, it is true that any cellular complex is homotopy equivalent to a cw complex, by Whitehead's theorem)
(up to homeo, true up to homotopy)
Interesting, I'll keep this in mind, thanks. I guess I should take handwavy comments from profs with a grain of salt lol
I am trying to solve this exercise, but I do not understand what they request me to do(?)
oh wait the mean the sphere with S3 right?
Why did I think about singular 3-simplex

yh
You don't even need infinitely many cells, just glue a disk to another disk via Hawaiian earring
Idk how to prove it but it doesn't look like a CW complex
I'm not sure what do you mean, attach D2 into D2 by S1->Hawaiian? Not sure if this latter map exists
Well we got rid of the condition that it glues to the 1-skeleton
If gluing to the right skeleton is required it should be a CW complex since order of quotienting shouldn't matter?
I think you could probably do "assume CW structure exists → earring is in X¹ → X¹ is not locally contractible"
(Maybe that was what your Prof was alluding to?)
Whitehead gives you this up to weak equivalence, but in fact this is true up to homotopy equivalence
Because of cellular approximation, the attaching maps might as well always go to the lower skeleton
And a homotopy between attaching maps gives a homotopy equivalence between the complexes in question
Needs a bit more work if there are infinitely many cells, then you gotta play with colimits a bit
Well you have that there's a weak homotopy equivalence from a CW complex to your cell complex, which by Whitehead's theorem (the general version about cofibrant objects in Top_Quillen) we know this is a homotopy equivalence
That's what I had in mind, at least
Ah sure
what is the homology group $H_0(\phi)$ for empty set? Also, what about reduced homology group?
contrapositive
Its unreduced homology is trivial in all degrees (the chain complex is 0). Its reduced homology, if you do bother to define it, is ℤ in degree -1, 0 elsewhere.
Usually reduced homology is only defined for pointed spaces (its the homology relative to the basepoint) so you wouldn't care about the empty space when you use reduced homology. It's the only space which has negative homologies.
okay got it
It's not hard to see that (coprod Ai) x B = coprod (Ai x B), this is not true in any category, but can I still get a "high level" proof of this for Top?
In the category of all spaces I'm not sure there's a general way to see this. It really relies on how the product & coproduct topologies are formed.
Cartesian closed subcategories ofc admit the usual "left adjoints preserve colimits proof"
To be pedantic, there are two.
Trefoil knot is chiral, so yeah. 😌
lovely
Oh I just read the original question. The answer is no. Any prime non-alternating knot must have 8 or more crossings.
If I want to analyze $S^2$, where the north and south poles are identified, why does there exist a neighborhood U in S2/~, such that ${N} \sqcup {S}$ is a strong deformation retract of U?
damn_guuurl
That seems quite false
I rewrote it
maybe that makes a bit more sense
Oh lol that's very different
sorry, it didn't change the TeXit
Try doing it for S^2 i.e. find open set deformation retracting onto {N} u {S}
this should be clear with a picture
then the same proof will work for S^2/~
Okay that makes sense, so it should be enough to take once the upper hemisphere and the hemisphere down without the equator, then it would automatically retract right?
That makes sense, thank you, I have another question though. I saw in Hatcher that the above quotient space is homotopy equivalent to S^2 v S^1 and I completely don't see how
They are both a quotient of S² ∨ arc
Yeah one way I would visualise it is like
you consider S^2 an attach an arc from N to S
That arc is a contractible subcomplex, so quotienting out by it is a homotopy equivalence and gives you S^2/~
But then you can also move that arc so that both ends at the same position
and then you get S^2 v S^1
If f, g: A ⊂ X → Y are homotopic then X ∪f Y, X ∪g Y should be homotopy equivalent (?)
In the case that the relevant things are cofibrations yes
So for CW complexes yes that works well
that is much easier than I thought
that's crazy haha, thank you very much
Well it's sort of tricky on the point set level i guess
Ig you just need to show cofibrationness 
I am not that advanced yet

Well that should be the easy bit since we have cw complexes etc
You mean proving this?
Oh no I meant proving they're cofibs
I meant this
Actually this is reminding me how poitnset toplogy with unpointed stuff can be a pain lol
How does having a point help 
Unpointset topology
Hatcher has some weird variant of cofibration
Called a "good pair"
I think he defines cofibration (actually "HEP pair") in ch.0 and proceeds to forget about it
Those are not quite equivalent
Oh ig you didn't claim that they are
This is exactly what I wanted to show
So you read my mind
We've had this conversation about the relationship between good pairs and cofibrations before. Somebody on Stackexchange posted a nice answer explaining some of the distinctions between them.
I can link it (both the conversation in this channel and the stackexchange links) if anybody wants to see the gory details
just would take me like 180 seconds
and i'm lazy 😄
Yeah this has just made me think about cofibrations etc again lol
Iirc for closed A ⊂ X, cofibration is equivalent to:
- Open neighbourhood N of A
- Homotopy N × I → X with A fixed from id into A
- A and X\N precisely separated
While "good pair" is: - Open neighbourhood N of A
- Homotopy N × I → N with A fixed from id into A
i guess it depends on what you mean by cofibration
:^)
Actually lol this has made me wonder like is there a model category of spaces where Hurewicz cofibrations are the cofibrations
For Strøm you restrict to closed ones
I guess it's just that it seems like the cofibrations in model structures aren't quite in line with what people mean by cofibration etc in Hatcher-level texts
But I suppose the former is an abstraction of the latter so like fair
Eh okay if you use Strøm for CGWH then Hurewicz cofibrations are closed already
But still, not quite Top
The naive guess is that you might try to restrict your fibrations then to be "strong" fibrations: maps with the right lifting property against all acyclic cofibrations. Unsure if the proofs dualize well enough for this to actually work.
But also CGWH or a variation thereof is the correct category of spaces lol
Why is it nicer than say, CW complexes 
It has an internal hom. The space of maps from one cw complex to another is not a cw complex, although it is homotopy equivalent to one
Is is naturally homotopy equivalent to one?
Every space has a natural weak equivalence from a cw complex, namely the realization of the simplicial set of singular simplicies
Yeah you could also do spaces which are homotopic to CW complexes, iirc Milnor has a paper showing this is convenient
Split into two 2-cells probably
Using a line tangent to both disks
I don't see why that is needed
As a first question, how many 0 cells would you take?
so one for each disc
then you attach 1 1-cell to every point right? plus the two tangen lines you were talking about
so you get five 1-cells (?)
I still kind of not see why the two tangent lines are needed
?
This is the space I cited right?
Yea
Why not a single point with a loop a and a 2-cell with boundary aaa
hey guys, so sorry to interrupt, but i'm taking algebraic topology for the first time this semester and i have literally no idea what's going on. my teacher isn't great and this pset is due pretty soon, so i'd appreciate if anyone could help 😭 if not, that is okay as well
Ah rip I misread
Just ask!
ok awesome, didn't want to interrupt but thank you so much
i feel like i just need hints to push me in the right direction for all of the problems
i have a vague idea for some of them but i'm really not sure what i'm doing lmaoo
- Take two arbitrary paths and induce f, g: π1 → π1'. When is (f^-1)g the identity?
- For the backwards direction, there is a trick to turn any homotopy S¹ × I → X into a homotopy relative to any finite number of points
- You just check where each path maps to ig
- Find a map Klein bottle → S¹ that induces a surjection on π1
hey i'll take anything at this point im not complaining 😭
- Be inspired by (4)
which equivalence relation is needed to identify the k-tori with the genus g?
Euler characteristic determines compact orientable surface up to homeomorphism
didn't do euler characteristic yet
I see the homeomerphism actually, but I wanted the equivalence relation to compute the homology groups
Wait what's your definition of genus
😄
we literally only did it in one exercise, but I know that by identifying the edges one gets a torus
Wait what do you mean identify k-tori with genus
I wanted to find an equivalence relation such that k-tori is isomorphic to $\Sigma_k / \sim$
You mean given any k-fold torus, determine g?
damn_guuurl
I wanted to find an homotopic space to the connected sum of a k tori, and I thought about a quotient space
does this result have a name?
Classification of compact surfaces
thank you
The second section of Munkres point set has it
Rip I'm still not sure what you mean
A connected sum of k tori is Sigma_k
hahaha it's okay, I ask in reverse than, maybe that could give me an hint. If you were asked to compute the homology groups of the conencted sum of k-tori, what would you do? I can use singular and cellular homology
This gives a CW complex
okay wait a sec, do we have equality?
Yes
it is this construction right?
This problem doesn't ask about the fundamental polygon, but about an inductive proof.
You need to find an appropriate decomposition for MV such that $U^\circ \cup V^\circ = \Sigma_g$ and you could do it by letting $U = \Sigma_{g-1}$ and $V =\Sigma_1$ with some intersecion at the handle.
tracy
basic question, I often see U\inTau and then other times I see U\in(X,Tau)
Are these the same thing with the first being a bit of sloppy notation?
Theyre the same, but the second is much more sloppy
I've never seen the second
It seems to be almost intentionally misleading
Since you could be in X or in tau
And (X, tau) is a set in its own right
Just don't write the second one
It's also more standard to say U is open in X unless you are explicitly working with different topologies on the same set or smth
x is in cl(A) iff there exists a sequence a_n such that a_n is in A and a_n converges to x. This is true in metric spaces, but is it true in a topological space in general?
Not in general, no
Not even in Hausdorff spaces?
It's true if the space is first-countable
Maybe a crank question but is it possible to use homology/cohomology tools to work with non-topological objects? Just by having some abelian group and some function that acts like the boundary function giving you dd=0 as usual
The closed long line is compact Hausdorff but there's no sequence converging to ω1
Except those that are eventually ω1
I know cohomology is a contravariant functor from Top to Ab iirc so I guess it's just pure crankery 
In general you use nets instead of sequences
There are many cohomologies
Not just on Top and not just Ab-valued
There are Hausdorff spaces where this is false, I think
So really you can use it as a purely algebraic method to do other stuff outside topology?
Mhm, you can
This is a list of some of the ordinary and generalized (or extraordinary) homology and cohomology theories in algebraic topology that are defined on the categories of CW complexes or spectra. For other sorts of homology theories see the links at the end of this article.
I've seen it before but the terminology looks foreign to me
At least the non-ordinary ones
But thanks though 🌸
Perhaps easier ones might be de Rham or Dolbeault cohomology
Which come from differential geometry
Isn't de Rham kind of topological?
Yes
Hochschild cohomology is really easy to understand for a newcomer!
At least, the definition, and the low-level meaning of it. You really only gotta understand algebras and modules
I'm reading a paper regarding Cech cohomology but I'm having a hard time understanding it
HOO BOY i love cech cohomology
Computational Cech cohomology
do you wanna share the paper?
I can send the paper
Now I'm also not a pro on cech cohomology (if there is someone on earth that is?)
I'm stuck on page 25 where the author essentially starts defining the matrices
I don't understand how they got them really
Gotta say after reading the abstract, I'm not sure what the value of that paper is b/c all of what he's saying sounds like it is well-known since the 1950s at least
but let's go
ooh big matrix
Let's see, which example are you stuck at?
Is it clear to you that the matrix is just the matrix representation of the linear map \delta^0 that he defines at the end of page 24?
Hm yeah but it takes a while to understand how you translate that linear map into the bases that he chooses
and why the bases even make sense
It's kind of analogous to simplicial/cell cohomology
Once you get the hang of Cech cohomology, the ideas are really clear, but it's really annoying to write down
if you have a-b then for a you denote 1 and -1 otherwise. That's the way you go about it at least
Okay aha yeah I see what oyu mean, the bases simply come from the fact that we have the constraint i < j
Yeah, sounds like you get the idea!
What are you struggling with then? Making it rigorous?
Because that is then exactly how you define the matrix elements
No I just don't understand how they got the first column for example
I'll abuse notation a bit, but: e.g. $\delta^0((1,0,0,0)) = (-1,-1,0,0)$, because $f_1$ contributes with $-1$ to the $f_{12}$ component and with -1 to the $f_{13}$ component
Lartomato
And the vector $(1,0,0,0)$ in the domain of $\delta^0$ represents the $f_1$ element
Lartomato
does somebody know a good "way" or algorithm on how to find the functions in meyer vietoris sequences?
Like here, how do you know how the generators behave(?) Take for example phi
b/c on $U_{12}$ you have $\delta^0(f_1,0,0,0) = -f_1$ and on $U_{13}$ you have $\delta^0(f_1,0,0,0) = -f_1$ and on all other $U_{ij}$, we have $\delta^0(f_1,0,0,0) = 0$ because $U_1$ does not contribute
Lartomato
You could draw the generators
fair, but how do you recognize afterwards?
you just see the way it changes in the other space?
It should follow from the definition of the maps
I mean phi in this case would be the direct sum of the inclusion
so we take the generator and send it in the other space to see what it does right?
Yea
this thing
It's at least true that there's no super easy way, you have to understand how the generators of the cohomology classes act when included into the image space
you really have to do some topological work, there's no algebraic trick that's guaranteed to work
The inclusion into Möbius strip is ×2 and the inclusion into torus maps a generator to a generator
Which you can see from drawing the maps
Ohhh I finally get it! Thank you very much 🌸
Happy to hear 🙂 If you've already made it through the rest of the theory, I think you've understood the most important parts of Cech cohomology!
Yep I really like Cech cohomology
The calculations are annoying to do explicitly but it's good to understand how it can work
"
The formal proof for Theorem 5.7 is currently beyond the author’s understanding" oh my god what a cute baby
i wish him well
Is this correct/satisfactory?
I mean I would just use the fact that (f^-1)^-1 = f more directly ig
I don't think the way you've phrased it is ideal though, like
My intuition was that it was true, but I was uncertain I had actually bothered to prove it before
You've said like, homeomorphism => bijective => has an inverse
and then said the inverse is continuous
But the definition of homeomorphism just says "there is a continuous inverse"
So you should just appeal to that
(especially since inverses of continuous bijections needn't be continuous, and the way you've written it makes it sound like that is the case (to me))
But yeah, this is basically why homeomorphism is one of the "right" notions to study
Since open sets correspond to one another
in this way
so stuff you can say about the topology of one carries over
You can just say "f has a continuous inverse f^-1"
This was my thought, I just wanted to be sure. I actually need this property in another proof, but my topo book never explicitly mentioned this property of homeomorphisms (maybe it assumed it was obvious?)
I was stuck on some stupid problem for a few days and I just now realized homeomorphism can probably save me.
By the way if you see the same matrix again. Don't you think the last column is kind of wrong? Following the logic the last column should be (0,0,0,1) because f_4 contributes 1 to f_34
Okay so to show that [-inf, inf] with order topology is compact, is it sufficient to show that all open covers contain a set of the form [-inf, a) and (b, inf] and since the give space inherits hausdorfness due to the order topology the rest can be written as [a, b] so it has a finite subcover. It seems like I have something here but honestly idk how to go about it or what I have is even right, for starters, sure [a, b] is compact, sure. But it's not going to be contained in any of the open covers. Can I please get a hint?
Yeah true I think. wonder if that changes the rank of the matrix?
Ah no the matrix still has rank 3. It's all good
I guess it's just a typo then
Lmao yeah I think the guy didn't notice he got it wrong because both matrices have the correct rank

You don't even need to do anything smart, if you add all the columns of the correct matrix, they add up to zero
So automatically non-full rank
I wonder if that's a general feature of these matrices
Oh lmao of course! Because on every component U_{ij}, you have one +1 for inserting f_i, and one -1 for inserting f_j; since the columns of the matrix correspond to these f_i and f_j, every +1 is counterbalanced by a -1
Nice. Not useful but nice
Is this even compact?
Is [-inf, inf] with order topology compact? No right?
it is
Yeah I guess you just need to think about what open sets in the set can even contain +inf or -inf
Wait it is?
If you can prove that a set [a,b] is compact for real numbers a and b, I'd guess the same proof should work here as well?
You can even exploit that fact
This is mostly right
Your open cover of [-inf,inf] can be adapted to give an open cover of [a,b]
Which has a finite subcover
Take that, throw in those two "halflines" and there's your finite subcover of [-inf,inf]
ah sorry your commentary is way more useful than mine, i failed at reading comprehension lmao
So should I try showing that every open cover would contain a set of the form [-inf, a) that's the right approach?
Won't that just be sth like [-inf, a) union (a, b) or sth like that?
Or is there some other possibility here?
Well, the basis for the order topology are open intervals, so any open set containing -inf has to contain some open interval around -inf
I.e. some set of the form [-inf,a)
Actually those are called rays, but the point still stands
Oh yea gotcha, got it, bingo, hallelujah. Thanks.
It just hit me.
Thanks
Okay small question here, is it fine if I just use basis elements
Or is it a good idea to just use arbitrary open sets?
Would choosing a basis here cause some loss in generality?
hey guys. taking a course in algebraic topology for the first time here. I'm dont intuitively understand the concepts of "quotient topology" and "product topology" yet. Its not well explain in the course textbook either. could someone suggest a good source video/book/lecture notes etc to understand this topic
This is covered in basically any point set topology book
i also found the quotient topology rather hard to wrap my head around, but these digital lectures were very helpful with lots of examples giving intuition for the topic: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=P7mTDR8FRMc&list=PLd8NbPjkXPliJunBhtDNMuFsnZPeHpm-0&index=15
After defining the quotient topology, we look at three ways of interpreting surjective functions. Then we consider many examples of quotient spaces.
00:00 Introduction
00:32 Definition: Quotient Topology
04:02 The quotient topology is indeed a topology
08:50 Surjective functions as partitions
17:20 Partitions as equivalence relations
25:44 Exam...
thanks!
Well, the standard definition of compactness says that any open cover has a finte subcover. Whether or not that's equivalent to "any open cover using basis sets has a finite subcover" is a nice exercise
Is there such a thing as a combined covering-packing number? I mean a subset (x_i) in e.g. a hilbert space that is covering with B(x_i, epsilon_c) and Packing with B(x_i, epsilon_p)
epsilon_c > epsilon_p ?
Whereby epsilon_c assumes an upper bound, and epsilon_p assumes a lower bound. (Or maybe a bounded ratio epsilon_c/epsilon_p < ∞ or something.)
l2 space has packing number omega and covering number omega, but can we cover it without resorting to e.g. all finite support rational functions?
Maybe a weaker statement would be: There is a covering B(x_i, epsilon_c), so that {x_i} is not dense (?)
Thoughts?
For an extra challenge, prove that it suffices to check this on a subbasis, or find an example of a subbasis for a topology where every open cover in the subbasis has a finite subcover, but the topology generated is not compact 🙃
Let (X,d) be metric space and I want to show that the open ball is open set.
let for any x_0(belong to X) and r>0 , B= B(x_0, r)={ y | d(x_0, y) < r).
Now i take for any y belong to B, there exists an r_0 > 0 such that such that for any element of B(y,r_0) also belong to B
So I want to show that let any x belong to B(y, r_0) , x will be an element of B .
I am stuck at these inequalities
i have d(x,y)< r_0 and d(y,x_0) < r and want to show that d(x,x_0) < r holds
Any hint ?
So what I take r_0 such that it will be holds
You need to utilize the forall qualifier
In what definition, for all y belong B there exists r_0> 0 such that B(y,r_0) is a subset of B?
Surely that is not the only one
Can you please explain more ?
Ah wait, is that the only qualifiet that is involved
Yeah, my bad
Then you need to use the existential(exists qualifier) properly
What is this?
Basically, you need to show the existence of a ball at x contained in the bigger ball, right
May be
"May"?
At x means x be center, right
Yep
Existence of a ball at y is contained in the bigger ball which at x_0 ?
So how we proceed?
For existence, you can take the radius quite arbitrarily.
But I cannot find the way to show that inequality holds
Got it thank you
Good job!
Can someone explain the connection between the different model structures on the category of simplicial sets? There's one where the weak equivalences are maps that induce isomorphisms on all homotopy groups, one where X --> Y is a weak equivalence if [X, K] --> [Y, K] is a bijection for all Kan complexes K, and one where we require the bijection to hold for all weak Kan complexes. Are all of these somehow equivalent? Are the infinity categories associated to the different model structures equivalent?
It's not written here, but X must also be a vector space, yes?
To have W being a subspace
I think you got confused here
My idea was trying to create an isometry with some vector space W, and then expand from there to create X~? I don't know
if a proper subset of X becomes a metric space when equipped with the same metric then we call this proper subset a subspace of X
So X doesn't have to be a vector space?
No, this is just completing a metric space.
Maybe you got confused by the word "subspace"
Yeah because like
here is a definition
Oh
Wait...
I seriously thought that a subspace was a subset with addition and scalar multiplication
Yeah, I figured.
Damn
The book didn't really explain it so I thought it used the same definition
Why is it called the same thing? 😔
I think it would be vague to assume X is a vector space given this context.
What field is this vector space over? What is the addition operation? etc
I guess it's an honest mistake :D.
I was thinking of, like, the way to tackle this problem. I was thinking about creating a function that takes points from X to some set X~ and then make W be the image of the function?
That's my first attempt of tackling the problem at least
Try to think about what this "some set" should look like first.
Well, we're using completeness here so it should probably involve Cauchy sequences of X
Yes
I think you can do it.
Think out loud, and for every approach work out it's details.
Then we have the image of the function also be a metric space, so that'll be the W
And then we have to prove that X~ is complete
And then show that it is unique
In my opinion, knowing what X~ should look like should be your first concern
Once you know what X~ should look like, this function you are talking about will come naturally
Okay then let's see how X~ should look like
I have to artificially create a complete metric space, given only a random metric space
Yes, you have to someway brute force this.
So the Cauchy sequences of X~ have to converge...
Let's think about that for a minute
The cool idea is that YOU get to define what it means for the cauchy sequence to converge
convergence is defined in terms of the distance which you get to define
with distance i mean metric.
a distance in which any cauchy sequence of your new metric space should converge
I have an idea
So W has to be dense in X~, yeah?
Since I'm gonna try to make W be the image of the isometry, I could define the distance function d~ to be about the distance function d and then relate to it with arbitrary points of X~ by using the triangle inequality
d~(w1,w2) <= d~(w1, x~1) + d~(x~1, x~2) + d~(x~2, w2)
Something like that
I think I'll use ' instead of ~ to make it easier to type
So your elements X~ are the same?
What?
What isometry are you talking about?
The isometry condition is a more general condition of the case that X itself should be a subspace of it's completion
or nvm
So what does your X~ look like tho?
A Quillen equivalence is the right notion of equivalence for model categories: it induces an equivalence on the associated infinity categories. The first two model structures are Quillen equivalence, see https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/model+structure+on+simplicial+sets#characterisations_of_weak_homotopy_equivalences . The second model structure is the one for quasicategories (infinity categories defined as weak Kan complexes) and it is certainly not equivalent to the first, but it is related of course, see https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/model+structure+on+simplicial+sets#comparison
I'm thinking of, like, the set of all Cauchy sequences of X that converge
Wait, that's just the set of all convergent sequences
You also might have metric spaces that do not have ANY convergent sequences at all and still cauchy ones.
Take x in X. x = x1 = x2 = x3 = ...
Yeah my bad
But you might have spaces that are so incomplete , like for example {1/n} with the usual R metric
this has cauchy sequences but no convergent sequences ( other than the ones you mentioned )
so by your construction the completion would be the empty set ( or just the set itself )
Ahhhhh
You are very close.
How about just the set of all Cauchy sequences?
Okay. What metric would you define on this set?
If (xn) and (yn) are in X~, I could maybe set the distance to be the standard distance definition of sets of points?
Lets call this X~ , Y.
That is, the inf of {d(x,y); x in (xn) and y in (yn)}
so an element , x , of Y would be a cauchy sequence of elements of X , x = {x1,x2,....}
d ,being the metric on X, is defined over XxX.
I guess I have to use d when making d', huh
So you are suggesting to define d_bar ( the new metric ) as the infimum of d(x_n,y_n) as n varies?
or maybe the limit?
Um, we can try both
as in d(x,y) = lim d(x_n,y_n)?
Must this even always exist?
Uhh
I don't think so
Because Cauchy Sequences might not always converge
Wait
Hold on
hint: d:XxX ---> R
I don't know how that's supposed to help.. I mean, R is complete, I guess
Yes
No. That wouldn't make sense
To recap , we have a very good candidate choice for the set of our completion
and we are trying to define a metric on this set such that all cauchy sequences of this set converge.
The set of all Cauchy sequences
so we know that this new metric , call it d' must be a function from YxY --> R such that some conditions we will verify later
that means
if x and y are elements of Y then d'(x,y) must be some element of R
we are trying to see if d'(x,y) = lim d(x_n,y_n) makes sense
as in does this lim always exist
given that x_n and y_n are cauchy
so now
the question is: if x_n and y_n are cauchy sequences that may not converge , does the lim_n d(x_n,y_n) exist?
We know R is complete , so we must show that { d(x_n,y_n) | n is in N } is bounded
correct? @radiant walrus
If we do so, then by completeness we have our limit.
given x_n and y_n are cauchy, ofc.
Okay
You will not believe this
So, last time I studied this was like 2 months ago or so
And I was still doing homework
I accidentally skipped it now that I think about it. I should probably go back to it
But
The question I stopped on
Which I only wrote the statement, not the proof
If (xn) and (yn) are Cauchy sequences in a metric space (X, d), show that (an), where an = d(xn, yn), converges. Give illustrative examples.
I'll try to work on this
Yes, if you prove this then you have proven that your metric indeed always exists.
Well, we can't call it a metric untill we have verified all 3 conditions, so that's later
candidate metric, i should say.
Given e > 0, we have that there are N' and N" such that n,m > N' => d(xn, xm) < e/4, and n,m > N" => d(yn, ym) < e/4. Let N = max{N', N"}. We then have that d(xn,yn) <= d(xn,xm) + d(xm,yn) <= d(xn,xm) + d(xm,ym) + d(ym,yn) => an - am <= e/2 < e. Using the same logic, we have that am - an < e, so |an - am| < e, for all n,m > N, therefore (an) is a Cauchy sequence and, since (an) is a sequence in the real numbers and that R is complete, (an) converges.
Does that work?
d(xn,xm) + d(xm,ym) + d(ym,yn) => an - am <= e/2
why is that
why does d(xm,ym) not blow
I may have skipped steps there
So an = d(xn, yn), correct?
So am = d(xm, ym)
We have
d(xn,yn) <= d(xn,xm) + d(xm, ym) + d(ym, yn)
an <= e/4 + am + e/4
an - am <= e/2
an - am < e
It implies that the distance function makes sense
Okay
It always outputs a non-negative finite real value
So we have four things to verify
- positivity
- d'(x,y) = 0 <--> x=y
- triangle inequality
- completeness
for this to be a complete metric space
Positivity comes free
Well yeah
d'( (xn), (yn) ) = lim d(xn, yn) <= lim (d(xn,zn) + d(zn, yn)) = lim d(xn, zn) + lim d(zn, yn) = d'( (xn), (zn) ) + d'( (zn), (yn) )
Wait
It's not
Am I doing okay so far >.<
You are doing great
Um
So I was thinking like
We just go with it, like
If the Cauchy sequences (xn) and (yn) are such that lim d(xn, yn) = 0, then we just say that they're the same sequence in Y. They're the same point
Exactly.
We just get rid of unnecessary points that were in Y anyway
We prove that x ~ y iff d(x_n,y_n) = 0 is an equivalence relation
partition our Y into the equivalence classes of our relation
Sorry you lost me there
and then define our metric over the equivalence classes
I don't know what an equivalence relation or equivalence class is
Okay.
Thats very smart considering you do not know equivalence relations , imo.
I have to salute you
okay so
a relation of on a set is just any subset of the cartesian product of the set with itself
Rightt, that
so for example if our set is Z then a relation would be the subset {(1,2),(2,3)}
another notation for (1,2) is 1R2
or 1 ~ 2
okay?
okay
an equivalence relation is a special kind of relation
an equivalence relation is a relation such that it is reflexive , transitive and symmetric
a relation is reflexive iff a ~ a for all a in your set.
a relation is symmetric iff a ~ b implies b~a for all a,b in your set
a relation is transitive iff (a~b and b~c) implies a ~c for all a,b,c in your set.
if you have all three conditions then you call your relation an equivalence relation
cool?
lim d(xn, xn) = 0, so (xn) ~ (xn). That works
lim d(xn, yn) = 0, so lim d(yn, xn) = 0, which means (yn) ~ (xn). That works
lim d(xn, yn) = 0 and lim d(yn, zn) = 0, so lim d(xn, zn) <= lim (d(xn, yn) + d(yn, zn)) = 0 + 0 = 0, so lim d(xn, zn) = 0, so (xn) ~ (zn). That works
Okay
The main point of defining equivalence relations in such a way is that in this way a~b is the same as saying a is equivalent to b
now
let X be a set and ~ be an equivalence relation on it
let a be an element
define [a] to be the set { b | a ~ b }
this is called the equivalence class of a
now the main point is this, you can partition X into the set of all equivalence classes
Ahhh
So an equivalent class of x are all the points y in X that are equivalent to x
yes
and now as sets X can be thought of as just the set of all equivalence classes
did you ever study group theory?
Nope
I think so?
yeah lets consider Z
we define an equivalence relation on Z by a~b iff 12 divides (a-b)
Woah, you're very active now
yeah
now
what do the equivalence classes look like?
what does 1 get identified too?
u look at ur clock and it says 13
13:00
yeah
And 25
I see I see
so you have partitioned Z into these equivalence classes
you have somehow "glued" these points together
so this is what you did above.
you glued the sequences that have distance 0
You turned Z into just {1, 2, 3, ... , 12}
not quite
into {[1],[2],...,[12]}
equivalence classes.
I guess you need that []
I feel like it's a bit of an abuse of notation but I get it
so [1] = {1,13,25,...}
it is
this is properly written this way:
if X is our set and ~ is our relation
It'd be more like [1] U [2] U [3] U ... U [12]
we define the quotient as X/~
as the set of all equivalence classes
so our set would be called Z/~ which is now {[1],[2],...,[12]}
so back to our original problem
Ahh oki
you proved that x ~ y iff d(x_n,y_n) = 0 is an equivalence relation
so lets consider the new set now Y/~
once we are over Y/~
we have "glued" the sequences that have distance 0 now
and now they are effectively the same point
so d(x,y) = 0 <--> x=y works
and now we have a metric space.
Can't we take X~ to be Y/~
this is exactly what we are doing
Oki :3
regular Y wouldnt work , as there are diff sequences that have distance 0
but now that we have literally glued them together
that is
we have literally put out the word that "sqeuences that have distance 0 are now the same"
then , well, they are the same! :D.
Reality can be whatever I want
give or take yeah
equivalence relations are everywhere
i just learnt about some kind of equivalence relation yesterday
they are everywhere
so now
our completion is Y/~
We gotta prove that Y/~ is complete now
I got this
yeah
Lemme see
it might be a bit hairy
try to draw stuff
introduce new notation
etc
good luck
Almost the same thing
yeah.
I'm sorry, I'm really tired right now
I'll go sleep and try to think about this later
Does somebody have an hint on how to compute the homology group of the torus without a discrete set of points?
The first point is the hardest
I mean by removing one point I just get S1 v S1 right?
mmh but what happens if I remove more?
you could probably adapt the method you used for the first point
there is like a line in the middle right?

