#point-set-topology
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We Weinstein bisect 4-manifolds!
If you've got a non-symplectic 4-fold, it won't have a Weinstein trisection
But then it's not induced by any structure on the 4-fold
Nope. But the two pieces have a Weinstein structure and the contact form on the boundary can be made to agree along the intersection
Essentially it's equivalent to an R-invariant contact structure on (4-manifold) x R
But yeah in that case the contact structures obviously agree along the boundary
Ah!
Very fishy that Weinstein bisections and Weinstein trisections serve sort of orthogonal purposes
So here's a question. Let M be a 4-manifold. Suppose you have a symplectic structure w on M and an R-invariant contact structure a on M x R. What's an interesting way to couple the two?
Can we do like C w + da where C is so massive that this is still symplectic
Or maybe C should be a dynamic parameter
In IR, C -> 0 and you recover a Weinstein bisection
In UV, C -> infty and you get a Weinstein trisection of the symplectic manifold
Can we make these structures talk to each other
I've never seen this stuff before! I know someone I can ask, but I myself am clueless (don't overestimate the teeny tiny bit of reading and conference attending I had related to contact/symplec geometry)
It was just a kind of funny thought
I don't know what one would do with this kind of coupling
But since the above gives an interpolation between w and da, there may be a natural way to do handlemoves on a Weinstein trisection to get a bisection
One should try on CP^2
i don't really understand why we consider S to carry P onto R^n x 0, if we're sending the basis to the standard basis of R^n. where's the embedding? why do we even consider the embedding?
But CP(2) is kind of a bad toy example, because everything always works so well; at least, take some number of blow-ups of CP(2), and if you're brave enough, take a K3 surface (recall that a minimal genus trisection has genus 22)
An even less trivial example than blow-ups of CP(2) could be an algebraic surface in CP(3), like CP(1)xCP(1)
Good call
Isn't there an algorithm to turn a toric manifold into a trisected one
Take the Delzant polytope and cut it appropriately
Not an algorithm per say, but yes of course take the Delzant polygon and trisect it; if you're lucky, it gives you a trisection by pre-imaging everuything. However (and the case of CP(1)xCP(1) is actually such an example), the pieces of the trisection of the polygon need not be connected!
X2 is the union of X2a and X2b
Fair, I don't mind disconnected pieces. How do you decide how to cut?
That's the fun part: there is no algorithm per say (none that I'm aware of), and you've gotta try a few cuttings until one works
Huh
Because here the obvious choice of cutting the square into three wedges doesn't work for CP(1)xCP(1)
The case of CP(1)xCP(1) has a 4-fold symmetry however, so it's more suited for a quadrisection
You might wanna read this: https://arxiv.org/pdf/2206.04161.pdf
Just to get a flavour of why this is a difficult question to answer in all generality
Suppose you find a trisection using the toric picture. It needn't be Weinstein, yes?
For that you need additional handle moves unrelated to the toric action to make all the 2-handles have the correct framings, I'm guessing
Yeah that's the thing: it needs not be Weinstein indeed. Lambert-Cole had this issue originally, but it happens that you can approximate each sector of the toric trisection by Weinstein domains (iirc, I hope I'm not missing something crucial)
I think he discusses it in §3.3 of https://arxiv.org/pdf/1807.10131.pdf (page 15)
It makes sense. The only obstruction for a 2-dimensional handlebody to be Weinstein is that the 2-handles have framing tb-1 where tb is Thurston Bennequin number of some Legendrian realization of the attaching curve
This is a theorem of Eliashberg. The moment you have this it's Weinstein
I see
Meh, it's easier than Eliashberg's theorem, who proved this is also equivalent to Stein-ness
Also, I suspect you mean 4-dim 2-hb?
No biggie, just making sure I'm following! 
i'm going to attempt to prove that a 3-simplex is a tetrahedron; for this, would it suffice to show that any point in the 3-simplex can be represented as a point of the line segment joining one vertex to some point in the face opposite it (a 2-simplex), and conversely, any point on a line segment joining a point on the face to a vertex is a member of the simplex?
@feral copper So, in some sense, if all your 2-handles have highly negative framing you'd be done: one can keep adding zigzags to the attaching Legendrian knot to balance f = tb - 1 from f <<< tb - 1
Zigzag decreases tb by 1
Now I suppose one has to fuck around with a triple of these Legendrian attaching curves because trisection...
Yeah you'd have to deal with all three at once
Tweaking one might screw up even more the other two, like a Rubik's cube basically
But wait, the sectors of the trisection are 1-hb, not 2-hb
Oh, funny. All 1-handlebodies are almost canonically Weinstein, maybe the point is to get union of two sectors right at a time.
I don't understand what's happening anymore very well
There's sort of 0 effort needed to get a 1-handlebody to be Weinstein.
Yeah, but for a Weinstein trisection, what you want is that the Weinstein structure is induced by the ambient symplectic structure; equivalently, everything should glue nicely into a symp. structure on the 4-fold
What's confusing me is that in a 1-handlebody, there cannot be too many different Weinstein structures. Start with D^4, you attach a Weinstein 1-handle. The symplectic structure is totally determined by how you attach it. But all possible ways of attaching a 1-handle are isotopic, because a 1-handle attaches along a pair of contactly embedded Darboux balls in S^3
And all such pairs are contact isotopic
It seems to me that there's no effort in making a single one out of three of those Weinstein sectors with the induced \omega as the symplectic form. Where exactly is the fuckup in trying to make all three at once?
After making one we must focus on the contact boundary #^k(S^1 x S^2), divide it into two #^k(S^1 x D^2)'s intersecting along a fixed #^k(S^1 x S^1)
And then fix all this data
Really? There's only one symp struct on a 1-hb of genus 1? That seems so wrong 
I mean, regardless of this, I'm sure there something very much non-trivial, because showing that any symp 4-fold has a W trisection relies on the fact that such a 4-fold is a branched cover of CP(2), and you put the locus in bridge position wrt to the W trisection of CP(2), and then you lift, and you've gotta carefully check it's all good, which took Lambert-Cole quite some effort
I know this proof but why do we do it this way
What goes wrong in the pedestrian approach
I suppose PLC could answer that
I'm just a kid playing with legos, this is beyond my pay-grade
In a subcritical (strictly less than half dimensional handles) Weinstein handlebody, the symplectic structure is only dependent on the algebraic topology
You could always send him an email, he's a very cool and chill dude, he'd be glad to answer I'm sure
Interesting!
Essentially because of h-principle for subcritical isotropics
Any two subcritical isotropic embeddings are isotopic iff formally isotopic
Formal isotopy: just a smooth homotopy of the maps and a homotopy of the plane field and stuff
But in the 4D case it's just pedestrian. There's a unique Weinstein D^4, a unique Weinstein 1-handle (upto isotopy)
That's quite a strong statement
You attach along a pair of balls
And that holds in 4d too?
Yes but kind of trivially
Coz boundary of 4d is 3d and subcritical for 4d means 1d whose boundary is 0d
So bunch of points in a contact manifold
Of course, the contactomorphism group acts k-transitively for any k
Just move around the points
Do you agree that once we construct a single Weinstein sector, the problem boils down to constructing a bisection for the leftover symplectic 4-fold with boundary
A bisection that bisects the boundary in a very specific way
Like this
The leftover symplectic 4-manifold (the "2/3rds") should really be thought as a sutured manifold
The boundary breaks into two pieces, one is convex the other is concave
They meet along the surface of genus g (k in my notation above)
In any case, I don't understand why the fact that there's essentially one way to give any sector of a given trisection a Weinstein structure imply that we're done. Because this 'proof' seems like you can give any 4-fold a symp struct by just taking a trisection of it. Something has to happen when you glue the sectors together (stating the obvious here, but still)
I'm not saying we're done!
I'm saying we can construct a candidate 1 out of 3 of the sectors, symplectically embedded inside the symplectic 4-manifold
By hand
And then remove it and reduce it to a relative bisection problem for the rest of the sutured 2/3rds
Ah
I didn't quite catch that
Okay, so you bisect relatively this remaining bit, and you want to glue it back to the X1 you removed
Once you bisect relatively, we can definitely glue back. The problem must be finding this relative bisection, no?
Maybe this isn't always possible or something unless your by-hand 1/3rds was nice enough (stabilized enough?)
You said it's always possible, didn't you?
What is even the difference between a 3-simplex and a tetrahedron? A 3-simplex is the convex hull of 4 points in general position so both of those statements certainly hold
Any closed smooth 4-fold can be Weinstein bisected. I haven't thought about relative bisection
Ah I see, yeah existence of this depends on the contact struct you have on the bdry of the removed bit, and that's in general not true you can extend it
(?)
Yeah
There's some boundary conditions one has to sweat over
@feral copper There has to be a proof of Weinstein trisectability this way
It's nice to apply Donaldson's theorem but it completely obfuscates the problem
PLC's proof relies on Donaldson at some point?
That symplectic 4-folds branch over CP^2 is essentially Donaldson
Auroux's work uses that? Really?
Here's the idea. If you have a symplectic 4-manifold, you can produce approximately holomorphic sections to large powers of the line bundle corresponding to the symplectic form
Construct 3 linearly independent onces (need a huge power of the line bundle)
Call them s0, s1, s2
Ah, when you mean Donaldson, you mean his work, not the diag theorem
Cuz I didn't see the link
(reading you now)
Define M -> CP^2, x -> [s0(x) : s1(x) : s2(x)]
Oh yeah I meant the Donaldson divisor theorem
"Approximately holomorphic geometry and symplectic submanifolds" is I think the paper name
Yeah yeah of course then, and yeah Auroux's thing is indeed a convenient black-box that hides some of the tricky details
I read Donaldson's divisor theorem quite carefully, it's a fantastic theorem but one can soften it up at places
It's a shitload of analysis which is not geometric in any way
But there are alternate methods to prove certain results (like his symplectic Lefschetz hyperplane theorem) which are geometric
Then you got yourself something to write down 
I don't care enough to, I want to understand
Pro gamer's move
Topology cannot be done by a hammer analysis blackbox!
Modern 4d topology can, unfortunately...
I mean, things like Thom and Seiberg--Witten invariants' corollaries are inevitably going to have to use the smooth structure somewhere. But it's really disgusting that it does it in such a convoluted analytic way...
Same goes with Heegaard--Floer homologies: if you've gotta use Atiyah--Singer, then it's clearly that you're doing something not geometric enough to my taste
For Thom, for instance, we know it is necessary to use the smoothness of embeddings, because the locally flat Thom conjecture is entirely different
Also, you know you have to use smoothness when you have an exotic pair for instance
Yes but doubt that finding Weinstein trisection is as hard a problem.
Yup definitely
Here's a philosophical comment, though. What good is having a bunch of hard analysis smoothness detection invariants if you run out of manifolds to use them on?
In some sense this is why Akbulut corks are famous. An exotic pair of smooth 4-manifolds always differ by a very specific Stein piece, carved out and glued back in differently.
You know what to look for
Because you're never gonna run out of 4-manifolds, there are at least an many as there are finitely presented groups
(because handle decompositions)
Knowing they exist isn't enough to construct them. I can draw a random Kirby diagram and can claim I know the 4-manifold. But I in fact do not
You mean that all exotic pairs are twisted pairs? No, this is wrong in 4d
Ah, a Stein piece, not necessarily a ball
It's not an algorithmic problem to look for an exotic S^4.
Then maybe, idk
Indeed
A contractible Stein 4-manifold
One can always dream 
oh well i guess my book defined it differently
What I meant is it has become easier to detect if two things are homeomorphic but not diffeomorphic, but "which two?" is still a topological problem and not an analytic one
You have to have a gut feel to be able to guess exotic pairs
Checking ensues afterwards
I don't see how people get any intuition at all on these
For the life of me, what is an exotic S^7 I wish I knew
I wish I could visualize the standard S^4
Before Akbulut, there wasn't many good strategies!
There's an operation called a Gluck twist
This existed
I don't know many more
Yup, and this produces... the standard S^4 x')
The most recent 'twisting' operation was (iirc) the Price twist, which is also standard
Funnily enough, all exotic spheres in dimensions >=5 are twisted spheres...
On S^4, but Gluck twist can produce exotic pairs elsewhere, no?
I doubt this is true for S^4, if there is an exotic S^4 that is
Akbulut's thing is called a cork twist, btw
In fact all exotica are produced by cork twists
It's a very easy to prove, topological theorem. It's in his book
I don't think that can be true for S^4, yes? Diff(S^3) deformation retracts to SO(4) by Hatcher's theorem
There's no nontrivial sphere twists in dim 4
No no no, people are actively looking for twisted exotic S^4's
Maybe I misunderstand by what you mean by a sphere twist
It's not just removing a ball and gluing it back in
Remove a ball and re-glue it
?
No then that cannot possibly be true. The boundary is an element of Diff(S^3)
Therefore homotopic to a linear diffeomorphism
Aaaah no sorry, I checked
Gluck twist spheres are constructed by cutting out a tubular neighborhood of a 2-sphere S in S4 and gluing it back in using a diffeomorphism of its boundary S2×S1. The result is always homeomorphic to S4.
Yeah I thought Gluck twists are still not known to be standard on S^4
I didn't know this result, but that should've rung a bell for me, sorry!
But yeah my point is: how can you stop believing that there has to be topology if you're doing topology?
That's like selling your soul to the devil lol
I'm not sure I get this right
It's a half joke but like, at the end of the day we want to understand manifolds. Moduli space of instantons won't tell me what the manifold looks like! That doesn't mean instantons are useless but we should always remember they're really secondary, and the analysis works because there's some deep topological reason it should work
Understanding topology of manifolds at the end of everything is still a pedestrian cut and paste problem
At least, that is my conviction
to show that (a, b) and (0, 1) are homeomorphic, would the function x |-> x/b suffice?
Ah! Yes okay, I see what you mean now! I entirely agree that what matters the most is the geometry and topology of the manifold
In all cases we can't get eg instanton Floer homology to do what we want it to do is because some surgery formula is lacking, yes?
Wdym?
like would it be a homeomorphism between the two
I don't know anything about instanton Floer, and I know a little about SW
No
Between the two what?
Ah intervals
I mean you are assuming a/b = 0 right lol
No, shift, then shrink
Also what if b =0
I don't know much either, but even in SW, the crucial point is we have all these nice surgery formulas and whatever we can compute we compute by using these
Just use a picture ig
$$x\in{}]a,b[{}\mapsto\frac{x-a}{b-a}$$
Matplotlib
European spotted
At the end of the day it's just a homology long exact sequence we need
wait how
Why else would it be bijective
Yeah, you only care about invariants that come from something geometric (like the pseudo-holomorphic SW invariants)
I was talking to an instanton guy a while back and he was talking my ears off about how he couldn't get his surgery exact sequence to do what he wants it to do
These you know don't vanish, because there's geometry at play
That's life, you know
Matplotlib you are very helpful
Thanks for being a good library
Nice bio btw lol
Ah, enshittification
Yeah well, it's not like you can force the manifold to be different; that's just how it *is, otherwise it's no longer the same 
Ye
This basically
Ok this is great
Funnier exercise: find a homeo between (a,b) and (c,d)
Shift, shrink, and shift again
Find a homeo between (a,b) and [a,b]
Fr though a fun exercise is to fun a bijection between (a,b) and [a,b)
Incidentally, pseudoholomorphic curves is to me the most conceptual of all the modern analytic technology. The details can get very hairy but the ideas are super robust and clear and intuitive
Am I missing something? One is compact, the other isn't?
Of course, it's because Misha Gromov discovered it and he cannot even write a single inequality correctly, much less a PDE
Yeah it's basically a flexible topological notion that encapsulates algebraic things
So of course it's difficult, because it's rich. But also it's good, because it's rich
And at the end of the day, you understand algebraic things the best, because that's what everything you think of is: algebraic
(saying algebraic as in defined by algebraic equations, not as in abstract algebra)
I personally think of a minimal surface when I think of a pseudoholomorphic curve, than an actual algebraic curve
I'm based, I acknowledge that 
bet
Btw, aren't you <&268886804013383681> Ibsen?
Dang, I don't remember how to link roles
Honourable
Anyway, I'm going to try to think about what goes wrong in the pedestrian approach to the Weinstein trisection business. It's not clear at all to me how to relatively bisect a sutured symplectic manifold
The yellow one
Nope!
I think there lies your obstruction: extending the contact structure on the boundary to a Weinstein in the whole thingy. Which makes me think: because there's not so many Weinstein structures on a 1-hb, and the relative thing is actually a gluing of two 1-hb's, it may be possible to find a basic obstruction in terms of just that, and that could be enough?
Idk if it's true or still open that a symp 4-fold has positive Euler char, but since the genera of everything are expressed in terms of that Euler char, that could at least give you a hint at what fails when this is violated?
Note that the boundary #^g(S^1 x S^2) should be thought as union of two contact manifolds-with-boundary #^g(S^1 x D^2), with the Liouville vector field pointing out of one and into the other
so a homeomorphism between $(a, b)$ and $(c, d)$ (assuming wlog $a < c$) would just be given by $x \mapsto \frac{(c - a) + x}{d - c}$
This is what I meant by the suturing
okeyokay
The theorem says it's possible to do this if g is sufficiently large so the obstruction, if exists, must vanish after sufficient stabilizations
The theorem being "Weinstein trisection exists"
Nein, but close enough: $$x\mapsto\frac{d-c}{b-a}(x-a+c)+c$$
Matplotlib
Using aposteriori knowledge
No need to assume a<c
Sure, we're interested in another proof, so why not also use the result to guide us!
We want to essentially find an embedded 3-dimensional handlebody bounding the suture (the surface #^g(S^1 x S^1)) which serves as the bisection
Can of course start by picking a smoothly embedded bounding handlebody.
But then, even if everything is Weinstein, it must still glue to a trisection, and that needs not be 100% obvious
If we find cuts which cut everything into Weinstein pieces, then of course they glue back in along the cutting regions.
We're sort of trying to construct the cutting region by hand
Yes OK, there's a topological obstruction. After deleting the embedded Weinstein 1-handlebody we constructed by hand, the remaining "2/3rds" need not have the topology of two copies of #^g(S^1 x B^3)'s glued along #^g(S^1 x D^2)
Wait, I just looked at it and it's wrong! @heady skiff It should be: $$x\mapsto\frac{d-c}{b-a}(x-a)+c$$
Matplotlib
Yeah exactly, the complement of a 1-hb is not nec a 1-hb
No
That's not the reason I'm reading you wrong
Because they are, you start with a trisection...
,ti
The current time for matplotlib is 11:20 PM (CET) on Wed, 22/11/2023.
However, you can always assume that the trisection is balanced and the three sectors have the same number of 1-handles
Then arrange one sector to be Weinstein (or rather, symplectically embedded, with the canonical Weinstein structure on a 1-handlebody)
So you get rid of even more issues with balancing it
Ok, let's do that
The complement needs not be symp embedded anymore though
Then all the three boundaries are topologically same
Right, the complement certainly has a symplectic structure, just restrict \omega. It doesn't agree with the canonical Weinstein for 1-handlebody and stuff
And the thing is: if you fix the trisection, you're killing all freedom you had in extending to a bisection of the 2/3rds
So you can only start with the (possibly not Weinstein) bissection that comes from the ambient trisection, and you're only allowed to perform inner stabilizations of it to make it Weinstein
That's not gonna work out I'm afraid 
Why exactly? Is there some monodromy issue with the contact structures on #^g(S^1 x D^2)?
The three prongs which separate the three sectors
Loopy around
Matplotlib
Right
Matplotlib
Yes, and delZ has a fixed suturing, ie the standard Heegaard decomp
Because delZ = delX_1
Matplotlib
Indeed
Matplotlib
Yep
Matplotlib
So the question is can we symplectically bisect the sutured synplectic cobordism (Z, w) between H_12 and H_23
So that the two pieces are Weinstein wrt w
Weinstein 1-handlebodies, in fact
Uhm, relative compression bodies (topologically it's the same), that is a punctured surface cross I
No, sorry
I'm confusing stuff here
(again)
I get you though 🙂
It's H_12 x I
Where you collapse the boundary delH_12 x I to delH_12
I mean it's not just 1-hb's, it's sticked to the boundary of Z in an annoying way
Yeah this
Yup, sutured cob, most annoying
But it has a totally wild symplectic structure w. No control on this
We nevertheless want to find a middle level set in this cobordism
So the question is: can you inner-stabilize the bisection of Z you already have to obtain what we want? (because if we build a rel bisection from scratch, there's no real hope, is it)
Cuz if we want it built from the ground up, we can manage one rel handlebody, but its complement need not be one too
I'm more open to the idea of building it from scratch, but maybe one should first try to stabilize the inner guy, and isotope it around
That's a more concrete idea
Do some kind of h-principle on the already existing topological bisection
Wiggly wiggly wiggly
And stabilize stabilize stabilize
We could want to perform boundary stabilizations though; then the entire trisection of X is stabilized, but we must ensure that X1 and Z remain symplectic in the process
I'd actually be surprised if boundary stabilizations were not needed in general
Cuz that means that basically, any trisection of X can be made Weinstein by only stabilizing in one sector
🙂
I'm sure there must be stabilizations everywhere, it has to be global
Sure 
Isnt it open that two Weinstein bisections are related by stabilizations
Or is it solved now
Maybe?
Basically if we understand this concretely we'd prove it
Because topologically it's true
Yes indeed
However, that hides under the rug why you need to stabilize, and how and how many times
And you wanted a pedestrian construction
And we're trying to prove "Weinstein trisections are obtained from topological ones by stabilizing and wiggly h-principle on the facets separating the sectors"
Correct, the need for stabilization is something I want to understand. I'm certain this is some h-principle man
We'll prove it. Let's think about it
You're actively doing it, I'm only throwing random ideas but I'm no geometer, don't get me wrong 
I'm going to head to bed now but I'll think more in the morning
Nah, I don't know anything about trisections, you're helping a bunch
Was very nice talking again!
I'm sure h-principle for Weinsteinizing trisections is true
Someone just has to prove it
I think it's an interesting research topic that could indeed work
Here's the point: The Donaldson-Auroux divisor theorem is an h-principle
It's a very analytic one but it is an h-principle
One takes an almost symplectic divisor then wiggles it a lot until it becomes symplectic
Morally
Good night!
Good night 
Gn
Step 1: equip discrete topology
Not enough if a=b
edge cases don't exist
Then (a,b) and [a,b] are the same set. 🤓
@feral copper Is the "binding surface" X1 \cap X2 \cap X3 a symplectic submanifold of the ambient symplectic 4-fold?
I think not necessarily
I don't see anything non-trivial which you can say about this surface in general even (like: what is its self intersection, is it lagrangian/symplectic, etc)
But maybe I'm missing the obvious
In the case of the toric trisection of CP(2) and CP(1)×CP(1), can't you say something precisely because it's the preimage of an interior point in the moment polygon? What do you get?
@feral copper Yes, good point. Actually the torus is Lagrangian in the standard toric trisection of CP2
The binding surface cannot be symplectic in fact
It's nullhomologous
It's going to be very rarely Lagrangian as well, because Lagrangian surfaces have highly specific normal neighborhoods
Kind of mysterious
Of course, it bounds something... 
So that also tells me that the self-intersection vanishes
You even have a global section of the normal bundle, by using the fact that it bounds a 3d 1-hb and taking the inwards pointing normals
@feral copper so the only way it can be Lagrangian is if Euler char is 0 ie it's a genus 1 trisection
Hyper rare
Might interest you: https://arxiv.org/abs/2212.13576
Previously work of the author with Meier and Starkston showed that every closed symplectic manifold $(X,ω)$ with a rational symplectic form admits a trisection compatible with the symplectic topology. In this paper, we describe the converse direction and give explicit criteria on a trisection of a closed, smooth 4-manifold $X$ that allows one to...
Those are entirely classified: it's either one of the genus one trisections of S^4, or the standard one of CP(2) or -CP(2)
Oh interesting
Makes sense
This looks like an ugly mess
Genus two trisections are classified as well, but it's far from easy. Genus three is open, and most likely more difficult than genus one Heegaard splittings
Like what on earth do those criteria mean
Probably something to a geometer? 
Yeah this is not at all meaningful topologically
I have a question
You could potentially define a generalized Weinstein trisection where you have a sutured Weinstein 4-manifold W with boundary dW = Y+ U Y- having a fixed Heegaard splitting, and define a trisection as union of three copies of W cyclically pasted, yes?
The Weinstein sectors now have a bit more topology
The thing is: for a relative trisection of a 4-fold with boundary, you don't get a HS on the boundary but an open book
I'm talking about trisection of a closed 4-fold, but with three sectors being more topologically involved
But what is a relative trisection?
you have a sutured Weinstein 4-manifold W with boundary dW = Y+ U Y-
Am I missing something?
A trisection of a 4-fold with boundary
Yes but what happens at the boundary? Or rather, what's an example picture?
Sorry, I mean let M be a closed symplectic 4-fold. Define a W-trisection of M to be M = W U W U W
W = subcritical Weinstein handlebody returns usual notion
The 3d 1-hb's are relative compression bodies (surf with boundary x I u 2-handles), and the 4d things are glued in a way that is compatible
It's a mess I've never dived into, there's a ton of details and conventions...
Ah OK
Ah okay I see
Yes then it makes sense that there is an open book at the boundary
That surf with boundary is the trisection surface too
And the relative stuff works symplectically also?
Because that sounds interesting, the boundary contact structure is supported by some open book by Giroux correspondence. Maybe this one
I don't think anyone was brave enough to tackle the symplectic relative case, especially because you'd need a relative version of Auroux
Ah, people have looked at this and found no relation between Giroux's contact structure associated with the obd and the symp one
Infuriating
But also, people didn't look far enough
If you wanna read about relative trisections, gl, because there's pretty much only one reference (Nick Castro) and it's a mixture of hand-wavyness and over-detailing
The following is true along those lines: every Weinstein manifold admits a PALF.
Positive Achiral Lefschetz Fibration
But maybe manipulating Lefschetz fibrations to get a symplectic trisection isn't easy
Otherwise that's how they'd do it in the closed case
Rather than use Auroux
is there a theorem or a counterexample that if we have paths that start at x1 and end at x2 (x1 not equal to x2) then those paths are homotopic?
They are homotopic as maps from [0,1] but may not be path-homotopic
is there a counterexample?
Take two points on a circle
oh
understandable
I have another question
what if these paths "cross the same road"?
so if we look at the image they're the same set
there should be a path homotopy between them right?
This is obviously not true in general, contrary to what Arki said!
Take a map from the point (1,0) to the point (-1,0) on a circle, one going overpositive y-coords and the other negative y-coords
Those are not homotopic
yes
what about the second question?
we are interested in existence of a path homotopy between paths that have the same image
Still not true, take the same example with the wedge of two circles and you ask them to meet at the crossing point
Ah, again, still not true
Take a loop on the circle (a special kind of path), one +1 loop and one -1 loop
They both have the same image: the whole circle, and are not homotopic
one last question
if the starting point is x_1 for both paths, the ending point is x_2, but x_1 is not equal to x_2
and the image is the same for both paths
they are path homotopic right?
Take a +1 loop on the circle, and add either of these examples before or after, your choice. This defines surjective maps that are not homotopic
So again, no!
Basically: do a full turn, then do half-turn either from above or from below
These are not loops, but not path-homotopic
The circle is the best first example for homotopy xD
fundamental group of a circle 
The fact that it has pi1=Z is really incredible
You don't even know how much yet
(what's more interesting is that it has a contractible universal cover, but I digress)
This is also why the n-torus is amazing
Based
now what if we exclude self intersections? 
Mmmh not really
Don't even try, I will always find a counter-example. Maybe not in the circle, but somewhere-else for sure
again same starting point and same endpoint not equal to each other and same image
I think the torus is enough even
And injective in the interior?
Higher homotopy groups for weird spaces get weirder and weirder 
injective everywhere
Ah yeah different endpoints sorry
yes
Then I think that should be restrictive enough to say that one is a re-parametrization of the other, but I honestly doubt that it actually holds 
I believe there should be a proof somewhere, or a counterexample
Yeah one is gonna have to be a (continuous) re-param of the other
how do we perform the re-param
I believe not, because it's not very interesting, it kills all the fun in homotopy
Probably look at the lift in the universal cover
Not sure it's even needed
Stupid question but can you extend n homotopy groups to n being anything not just integers
What's a half-dimensional sphere?

(that's pretty much the same question)
For integer-dimensional things, there's only one choice: the unit sphere. For half-dimensions, you have all those fractal shenanigans
Definitely not unique
what about complex numbers
Wdym?
Complex dimensional spheres 
Yeah because dimension measures how you scale volume wrt to length scaling
However, one random thought. If you can somehow define \pi_n in terms of properties of a differential operator of order n, then using fractionnal calculus you might be able to interpolate between homotopy groups?
But I doubt it will carry anything meaningful geometrically
any idea how the reparam can be done or sources I can read?
No idea for a formula, but try the obvious and if that doesn't work then it's probably not true in general 
Also, no idea for a source, because I don't think anyone really cares, since, as I said, it kills all the homotopy fun
Obviously π3/2(X) is half abelian.
More like it should be... sesqui-abelian
If the space is Hausdorff, then an injective continous map is a homeomorphism on its image, so we have two homeomorphisms between [0,1] and the image (which are even "orientation preserving"?) Can we do something with that?
Yeah same, I know nothing about K-theory
I should probably learn something at some point
I'm not sure
I'm trying to do a reparam
Theres no way to do an explicit reparam if you know nothing else about the paths
Unless you know the actual functions of course
there seems to be a natural one that would work for any pair of functions
Yeah, so we have two paths $f,g : [0,1] \to X$ with are both equal to $x_0, x_1$ on the endpoints. We also know that $f$ and $g$ are injective and that $I \coloneqq \im(f) = \im(g)$. Assume that $X$ is Hausdorff, then $f$ and $g$ are both homeomorphisms\linebreak $[0,1] \iso I$. Hence we get a homeomorphism $g^{-1}\circ f : [0,1] \to [0,1]$ which is the identity on the endpoints. I think this is your reparametrization.
Semer
What it should have said is that there is a part of the homotopy groups of spheres, called the image of J, which are cyclic groups of order the denominators of Bernoulli numbers. These numbers are p-adically continuous, so you can interpolate them. The answer skips this motivation and goes to trying to promote these numbers into groups

Ah, this I understand
Thanks!
is this correct ?
Yep looks good
well can i ask a question
thats what this server is for
Say f(x0) is 1
then 2f(x0) is the interval (-1,3) right? But then the neighbourhood U we get might also map to points < 0
I guess it depends on the precise definition of continuity you use
do you want to tell you the definition we use?
I guess its: a function f : X -> R is continous at a point x_0 if for every epsilon, there exists a neighbourhood U of X such that f(U) is in the open range (f(x0)-epsilon, f(x0)+epsilon)
ye
it is like for every epsilon positive , there exist alpha such as , d(x,x0)<alpha implies d(f(x),f(x0))<epsilon
which i think is equivalent to what you said
the professor said it is the same
Yikers
like we can consider both metric and topological
Sure
The solution given here works for topological spaces. Topological spaces are more general than metric spaces
There are topological spaces which are not (induced by) a metric space
if in a metric space it doesn't work?
It does work regardless.
Then you'd get a neighborhood which doesn't necessarily get mapped entirely into the positive numers, but that's not an error in the proof.
The statement is that there will be some neighborhood that gets mapped entirely into the positive numbers.
Not that every neighborhood will
To get the correct neighborhood you need to pick a good epsilon (in this case, f(x0)/2)
isn't epsilon for the neighbourhood of f(x) , and alpha for the neighbourhood of x?
Yes
Continuity (in the metric version) says that for every epsilon.... there exists an alpha...
So to prove continuity you need an argument that will work for every epsilon
But to use continuity, this means you can pick any epsilon you want or need.
In this case you know that f is continuous at x_0, so you're free to pick the epsilon according to your needs.
And continuity will guarantee the existence of a neighborhood (or an alpha) with specific properties related to that epsilon
So what happens for some other epsilon is neither here nor there, you just need one epsilon that will give you what you need.
Well, take y = x (as a function from R to R)
It's continuous at x = 1, but for epsilon = 2 you'll get a neighborhood (-1,3) on which f is not always greater than 0
But that fact contradicts neither the statement nor the proof that you've posted here
The statement only requires you to find one neighborhood of x_0 that will have the desired property
okay got it
How do you compute for X = [0, 1] and A = {1/n : n int}, homology of H(X, A) and H(X/A)?
X/A seems like infinite wedge sum but I am not sure.
(Well I guess it is not considering open nbhd of 0)
For the first long exact sequence of a pair should tell you this
Can you do that?
yes
Why do you have C(A) -> C(X) as an injection?
long exact sequence of a pair always exists though
Don't you need
"0 -> C(A) -> C(X) -> C(X, A) -> 0"
to be a short exact sequence to obtain the long exact seq of homologies?
I guess failure of injection H(A) -> H(X) is measured by H(X, A) afterwards.
sorry i said smth silly
but i mean, A is a subpace of X
you always get a long exact sequence for a subspace inclusion
just think about what C(A) -> C(X) "is"
Hmmm
Idk why this felt wrong, but I see how this is possible.
Now, how do I compute H(X / A)?
Are you trying to compute it exactly or just show it’s not the same as H(X,A)
You can compute H1 pretty explicitly I think which is probably really what you want
Feels off
Oh one moment lemme think
You should do just A = {0,1} as a test example
Bc there this is a good pair and H_1(X, A) = H_1(X/A) = Z, so your computation of this must be incorrect
The idea should be you inherit something from H_0(A) bc this is not connected
:)
Where does H_0(A) come from?
Isn't H_1(A) -> H_1(X) -> H_1(X, A) -> H_1(A) --
no
Sorry, I suck at counting numbers.
I was like 1 - 1 = 1
lol dw
You should use the reduced version to simplify this computation
True
This will tell you H_1(X,A) = Z^{# of connected components of A - 1}
For your choice of A this just says you’re countably generated free abelian
This uses H_1(X) = 0 (reduced or not), right
Yes. And H_0(X) reduced is 0
Ah, makes sense! Thank you, I realized where I was wrangled into iffy computation.
page 40, proposition 4.6
i dont get what it means with it saying eta is an homotopy equivalence
eta goes from a complex to another
not topological spaces
so page 34
There is a notion of homotopy equivalence of complexes
often called "chain homotopy equivalence"
A chain homotopy between maps $f,g: C_* \to D_*$ of chain complexes is a collection of maps ${s_n: C_n \to D_{n+1}}$ such that like $ds + sd = f-g$ (where i'm kinda abusing notation slightly but this is in the degrees such that it makes sense lol
Potato E-Girl
Then you define chain homotopy equivalences in the same way as you would define homotopy equivalence of spaces, if that makes sense
like f:C* -> D* is a chain homotopy equivalence if there's a map g going the other way such that fg and gf are homotopic to idntity
ye
alright
ofc i've abused notation there like i guess rigorously i should say like
s_n : C_n -> D_(n+1)
followed by the differential D_{n+1} -> D_n
and similarly the differential D_n -> D_(n-1) followed by s_{n-1}
and f_n and g_n
wait think i got your definition
but doesnt eta apply to 2 different complexes
instead of chain maps
wdym
SP and (Z,0)
So this
oh didnt see that
sorry im used to skimming text a lot
thanks
i think i got past the wrong category problem
gonna keep rereading though
alright i got it formally now
not intuitively but something is something
thank you
What is the motivation for the homotopy s of "ds + sd = f - g"
It seems quite out of place to me.
well, you can view the proposition 4.6 as good motivation for that!
Like they correspond to homotopies in spaces via that
You can also create an "Interval" in the category of chain complexes and work out that this notion of homotopy is basically the same as in spaces when you translate between the different types of cylinders
sanity check: if X is a finite topological space, then the discrete topology and the cofinite topology coincide right
you are sane
good to know 👍
Boundary of (simplex x I) = top - bottom - (boundary of simplex) x I
ds = f - g - sd
s is the operator which crosses with I
sergeEmbedding
I know I already asked this
but I figured it had been a few days and ended up buried with no response
what is an example of a space that is regular but not normal?
Ugh {1, 2, 3} is not a collection of sets
oops
silly me
but then the intersection is still the empty set right?
if A={1,2,3}, and curlyA = power set
or is curly A not always the power set
ohh is this general notation for any set of sets, not necessarily the power set of a set
Long ray × closed long ray is LCH (thus completely regular) but not normal
Munkres p.204 has a nice proof
thanks! though i’m not familiar with this long ray space, and i can’t find where in the book it’s introduced
I dont really understand what this connecting segment is, arent the boundaries disconnected? Also, why are you taking the interior of a finite set?
Oh, sorry. The interior shouldn’t be there. It should be
$$C_{n-1}=\text{convex hull of }(S-\partial C_n)$$
sergeEmbedding
I still dont understand the connecting line segment part. This is what your question is about right? The rest clearly works in all dimensions
Question, and I'm too lazy to Google it so hoping someone can just tell me why: every 3-manifold is a branched cover over S^3 branched along a link (Heegaard decompose, Z/2 fold the two handlebodies, glue). Allegedly this can be improved to branching set being a knot ie connected
What's the easiest way to see this
Oriented closed blah blah is of course assumed
Bonus question for @feral copper: Surely a trisection tells you every 4-manifold is a branched triple cover of S^4 branched along a surface
right, that’s what I don’t know how to prove in general.
With any two convex hulls $C_i,C_{i+1}$ in the plane, the space $X$ bounded by $\partial C_i, \partial C_{i+1}$ has at least one line segment $xy$ from a vertex $x \in C_i$ to a vertex $y \in C_{i+1}$. The closest two vertices seem to give such a pair, but I don’t know how to prove that they do so.
sergeEmbedding
Oh I see, youre talking about the annulus bounded by those two boundaries
I dont think the closest two vertices will work
Is this a counterexample?
excuse the ms paint
You can prove that there must be a point in Cn to the left of x:
This would work for any convex subset of the region red to blue
containing one vertex from both
by definition
My original idea was to show at least one simplex does not intersect the interior of blue
with at least one vertex from both
Ha! I didn't know the proof using Heegaard splittings, so I don't know. Give the week-end and I'll think about it 
Also, for the knot thing in the 3d case, I don't think it's easy to prove you only need a knot...
Either you can prove there's a universal knot such that any 3fold is a branched cover of it (iirc the fig8 works)
Or you try from a link and tweak it to a knot, but it seems like it's not natural enough :\
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/4492029/259363
This is interesting, seems like you can get a knot from a HS
Actually, we know there are 4folds that cannot be branched over a connected surface, so there's something special to 3d (probably it uses standardness of splittings of the sphere, or Schoenflies or something like that)
Wait, if you can show that Schoenflies implies Hilden's knot result, then you actually disprove Schoenflies
(or another 4d result, that's just an example)
I'll read that carefully tomorrow evening! Thanks for the food for thought, and I'll free the channel again 
Sure, the whole annulus can be triangulated
Aha. I'll have to read Hilden's proof a little carefully
Is linear chains and barycentric subdivision stuff important?
Yes
Hmm, where will it be used after the excision proof?
ye I guess it's also used in simplicial approximation
Hmm
this is not a topology right
(union of an arbitrary number of open sets need not be open)
ye
if ${\mathcal{T}\alpha}$ is a collection of topologies on a space $X$, $\cup \mathcal{T}\alpha$ need not be a topology right
okeyokay
just consider the cofinite topology and the discrete topology, and take an intersection of their open sets
or wait hmmm
because then it wouldn't be open under the cofinite topology
but it would be open in the discrete topology...
well i guess it needs to only be an open set under one topology for it to be an open set in the union of the topologies
so never mind that argument doesn't work
in that case taking the discrete topology as a counterexample will never work lmfao
so true catboy!
oof alright
Bbbbbut point set..
im ngl i dont know what point set means
anyone here know a good introduction to fibrations and cofibrations? hatcher doesn't have a very good take on the subject
Mays concise course
Given a set X, a topology on it is a collection of neighbourhoods of all points in X and not union of it right? 'cause if it's a union then even though in two topologies the neighborhoods of a point x might be different their union can be the same. Am I right about this?
I'm not really sure what you mean
If you take the union of a topology on X then you just get the entire space
If you’re still wondering, I think you could take X = {1,2,3}, T_1 = {ø, {1}, X}, T_2 = {ø, {2}, X}, and the union of these is {ø, {1}, {2}, X} which is not closed under unions
Lol yea I literally did basically the same example
let $B=\stackrel{\circ}{A}$ , we have $B\subset A\implies \overline{B}\subset \overline{A}\implies \overline{B}\backslash B \subset\overline{A}\backslash B $. $B$ is open by definition so it is equal to its interior, then $\overline{B}\backslash \stackrel{\circ}{B}: \in \overline{A}\backslash \stackrel{\circ}{A}\implies \partial B \subset \partial A \implies \partial\stackrel{\circ}{A}\subset \partial A$ is it correct ?
is it correct ?
it looks like you meant to say B is open, not closed. this looks fine
No I meant the union of the family of neighbourhoods for all points in X.
john.
Isn't that the same thing
X is always a neighbourhood of any point
Wait I was thinking along the lines of this-
This example
If I take the union, both topologies here are the same
But the neighborhoods for different points are different
"Neighborhood" is a property which is determined at a single point
The point they are trying to make I guess is that you really need to know which sets are neighborhoods aat a given point, for each point in X. Rather than knowing which sets are neighborhoods of some point
need a sanity check: the graph of the absolute value function is homeomorphic to R. Is the subspace topology on the graph of the absolute value function the same as the topology induced by the induced homeomorphism?
The graph of any continuous function is homeomorphic to its domain.
Which other topology on the graph could we be considering?
you get a map from R to the graph which induces the same topology as R on the graph
there is also the topology coming from R^2, when we think of the graph as a subset of R^2
those should be the same i think
The map from R (i.e. the domain) to the graph (with the topology inherited from R^2) is the map I'm claiming is a homeomorphism!
okay neat. so, the inclusion map of the graph should be a topological embedding into R^2
Yes.
that map is also an immersion, correct?
Hmm, is "immersion" even used about non-smooth manifolds?
there is topological immersion (in Lee's) but im asking about smooth immersion
its... kinda tripping me up since I can't seem to prove using derivations that the graph of the absolute value is not an embedded submanifold of R^2
Right, so it doesn't even make sense to ask whether it's an immersion, because the range doesn't have a differentiable structure already.
i thought it was an immersed submanifold of R^2 when you think of it as being homeo to R
Alternatively, if we consider R^2 to be the codomain, the map isn't smooth at 0 (or in general at points where the function is not differentiable).
Yes, you can transfer the differentiable structure from the domain -- but then it is trivial that the function you transfer the structure along preserves it!
you can make it into a smooth manifold, but the inclusion map into R^2 won't be an immersion because of the singularity at the origin
the typical way to prove these kinds of statements is to look at tangent vectors
okay, thank you for clearing that up. i think curves would be the best way to show this then
Why was a diagonal morphism continuous?
Generally the diagonal map is the map A → A × A induced by identity maps A → A via universal property of products
Ah then I should rather ask about its existence.
The product of topological spaces is the product object in Top
And by construction the diagonal map sends x to (x, x)
See e.g. Munkres 19.6
this is for my real analysis hw, but what a suitable topological proof for G/F being open (in the case that G n F is nonempty) would be to just say that X - F is open in R so just view G as a subspace of X - since G/F = X - F n G then G/F is open by the def of the subspace top
How does this topology separate p from arbitrary closed sets? That would seemingly mean that any closed set in Y is bounded
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/975878
oh wait this proof simplifies immediately to the standard top on R lmao
If X is the original space G\F = G \cap X\F and similarly for the other set
yee i figured that out lmaoo
oh yea i didn't even need to involve balls and shit lmfao
unless you are interested in the completeness of the category Top, the answer is that you show that the diagonal map has pre-image the intersection of pre-images of the images of pi_1 and pi_2
potentially silly question, but what's the easiest way to see that the complement of an open set is closed? i understand that the definitions are iffs (in particular the definition of a closed set in a topological space) but the negation of closed is not open
containing all limit points is one alternative def, mind you not in every topological space can limit points be determined using just sequences
but in analysis they are good enough for the job
anyone 🥺
Oh hold on. If a closed set doesnt contain p then its complement must contain a neighbourhood of p already, hence said closed set is bounded
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/110595/minimal-number-of-cells-of-a-cw-complex-up-to-homotopy I have a question about the line "There is an epimorphism π1(X1)→π1(X) from the 1-skeleton which is a connected graph and whose fundamental group is a free group on a subset of the 1-cells of X [Hatcher, 1A.2]." I don't really know why this is an epimorphism. Intuitively it is clear what that homomorphism does, but i'm honestly not exactly sure about the precise definition and i don't understand why it's surjective? I would be glad if someone could help me :)
couldn't there be loops in pi1(X) that live outside the 1-skeleton of the complex?
i would think this map might be injective but not surjective
It follows from Seifert van Kampen theorem that pi_1(X) is a quotient of pi_1(X_1)
See Hatcher chapter 1
There can be loops which live outside the 1-skeleton, yes, but they're all homotopic to loops inside the 1-skeleton
Roughly speaking: one can take an arbitrary loop in X, homotope it a little so that it misses the center of each 2-cell, then delete the centers of the 2-cells to get something homotopy equivalent to the 1-skeleton, compose with the homotopy equivalence to homotope the loop into the 1-skeleton
The crucial fact here is that, given a 2-complex, deleting a point from the interior of each 2-cell gives something homotopy equivalent to the 1-skeleton
The higher cells do not matter (also a Seifert van Kampen exercise)
ok that makes sense, thank you :)
Have knots inside >3 dimensional foliated manifolds been studied much?
If so, is there a good reference?
Is this argument valid? I get that s is linear, but K and L are not vector spaces from what I can see, so can we use the dimension theorem from linear algebra to conclude that s is not onto?
Or does this perhaps not use the theorems from linear algebra...?
Could one use that the image of a simplex by s must be of equal or less dimension that the simplex to conclude that the image of the simplicial complex must be of equal or less dimension and thus not onto?
Yes
Oki, thanks
Hi ! I am struggling in my computation of the Frolisher Spectral sequence for a complex manifold.
More precisely the question is Which differentials can be non 0 at the second page of the Frolisher sequence.
First I have try to compute the term Ep,q2 and I find :
$E^{p,q}_2 = \frac{{(x,y)\in A^{p,q}+A^{p+1,q-1}/\overline{\partial}x=0,\overline{\partial}y=-\partial x }}{d({A^{p-1,q}+A^{p,q-1}+A^{p+1,q+2}/\overline{\partial}x=0})}$
Critotomatic
So the second differential must be something from $A^{p,q}+A^{p+1,q-1}$ to $A^{p+2,q-1}+A^{p-3,q-2}$
By a degree argument it seems clear that the first component of the differential must be 0 and the second one can only have the $\partial$ part.
But with this I cannot find another relation who imply that $d_2=0$ for some p,q
Critotomatic
is the additive group of (continuous) k-vector fields the double dual of the chain group?
since its dual, $\Omega^k$, is also the dual of $C_k$?
if so, what's that isomorphism look like? does it even canonically exist?
cosín™
The dual of differentials are called currents. They are like chains, but a lot bigger
These spaces are not usually reflexive, but maybe if you use the right topology
does anybody know if this is a definition, or something that I could (attempt) to prove
Is this correct? The topological space D that I have doesn't have 2 simplex so the ker of del 2 is 0
What remains is ker del 1
There should be /0 at the end but I forgot about it
is this a typo? should it be $A_{\sigma(0)}$ instead?
okeyokay
Probably should have a hat on the A_sigma(i-1) tbf
wdym, so it should be the hyperplane spanned by $\hat{A}{\sigma(0)}, \hat{A}{\sigma(1)}, \dots, \hat{A}_{\sigma(i - 1)}$?
okeyokay
i don't really know how to see this, can i have a hint please?
i'm assuming for contradiction that we can write it in the span of those points
ohh, it's just that it would contradict the uniqueness of expression of $\hat{A}_{\sigma(i)}$ as a vertex of the k-simplex spanned by $\hat{A_0}, \dots, \hat{A_k}$
cool
okeyokay
would the unique smallest topology just be the union of the collection T_a along with all unions of an arbitrary number of elements of T_a and all possible finite intersections of elements of T_a?
Close: arbitrary unions of finite intersections of elements of U T_a
I'd go cheeky and just take the intersection of all the topologies containing all the collections
This too
oh yeah lmfao
But for a more explicit description, this is the topology generated by the union U T_a, regarded as a subbasis.
i feel like the largest topology is going to be the trivial topology
DAMMIT
i thought of that but i went for my original answer
discrete you mean?
I like that one more than mine, more descriptive
I like yours more than mine. Easier.
cf the name “descriptive set theory”
As opposed to prescriptive set theory
wait, how would this not be equivalent to my original answer?
actually i imagine this is basically the etymology
you need to take unions
of finite intersections
you did not allow that
oh yea, i guess in my answer i implicitly assumed that we're just taking the arbitrary unions of open sets
You said that you take the union U T_a, let's call that T, and then took arbitrary unions of subsets of T along with finite intersections in T
That's not a topology
You need to close it under finite intersections first, then arbitrary unions.
ah, it's not a topology because we don't consider the union of two finite intersections to be open huh
if we're defining it in my original way
yes
This is the general process for generating a topology from a collection of subsets. So just check that this is a topology. The only special thing about this case is which collection we are generating from which is T
wait nvm, i don't think this is right - because, say working in a fixed topology T_ai, it doesn't have to be discrete, so T_ai doesn't have to contain every single subset of X
the trivial topology wouldn't work either, since it doesn't account for proper subsets...
ok wait this second part is confusing me. i don't really see how we can take a topology larger than T_a which is contained in T_a, the only one would have to be T_a itself
..maybe that's the point

nvm
i'm hella dumb
it's just the intersection isn't it
of the topologies
yes
cool 👍
This proof seems right, but the wording feels a little off. Would any of y'all change anything about it?
Algebraic topology book with basic stuff? Maybe next semester I have a seminar about it and I didnt remember anything of alg topology from my 2nd year of the degree
@hollow geyser Some proofs are meant to be done via induction
I'd rewrite it completely with induction because then I don't need to adjust every neighborhood simultaneously
Induction was my first guess, but does ignoring it make my above proof incorrect? Big interescrtion loosely is already induction, is it not?
Wouldn't induction just be extra work compared to big intersect?
Your proof is not incorrect. It lacks tedious detail like why is U_i and U_j disjoint
This detail is just not present in the inductive proof.
You're right
I wrote the reasoning earlier, then deleted it because I did not like the wording.
That was the bit that was sussing me
is A a basis for each topology on X which contains A?
i'm a little bit confused on the wording
Certainly not, since the discrete topology contains A
And A is definitely unlikely to be a basis for it
oh right, A would just have to be all one point sets then huh
But A is a basis for some topology (the one it generates)
ye, just trying to figure out the converse inclusion rn
Every collection of subsets is a subbasis for the topology it generates. Not every subbasis is a basis
True, but the statement starts with "if A is a basis for a topology" 😉
But you're right to point out that fact that not any family of sets is a basis
A set of subsets is a basis if every finite intersection is covered by its members
cool, thanks for the tips
what's a linear extension?
linear interpolation
oh so it's just the set of all straight lines joining the vi
for two edge paths ${v v_1 \dots v_{k - 1} v}$ and ${v w_1 \dots w_{l - 1} v}$, would you define $\alpha: I \to |K|$ to be the linear interpolation given by $\alpha(0) = \alpha(1) = v$ and $\alpha(\frac{i}{l + k}) = v_i$ for $1 \leq i \leq k - 1$ and $v$ for $i = k$, and $\alpha(\frac{i}{l + k}) = w_i$ for $k + 1 \leq i \leq l + k - 1$?
okeyokay
i feel like this is a case of it being intuitively clear, but at the same time tedious to verify so authors tend to say it's clear and not show it
wdym? Whats the relation between the screenshot and what you wrote?
oh yeah sorry that wasn't clear, i was just trying to figure out the image of {vv1...vk-1vw1...wl-1v} under alpha
and rigorize how it was homotopic to the product of the two respective loop classes
but it just seems like a total pain
Yeah that seems right, but it could always be off-by-one with these things idk
Isnt it exactly equal to the concatenation of two representatives?
i guess so?
for this question, what kind of indicators tell me how rigorous i have to be in my working
i didn't do real analysis (doing metric spaces rn), and i have a difficult time understanding how rigorous to be, what clues to look for about what they want, etc
becauseo bviously exams are time limited so i cant waste time
it depends of the professor, but in general it would be ideal if you are convinced that you would be able to write a formal proof if you had the time
TY,
if i were to decide to formally prove this
eg when proving b A = {a, b, c}, would i just assert that for e>0 (a-e, a+e) intersects both A and R \ A
and repeat for b and c
or is that sometimes not rigorous enough?
(generally I would write that as dA, if I had to say it without latex)
that's totally fine
ok, ty
as a grader, I would be convinced that you could write the whole formal proof
this is the only important step, the rest is bookkeeping
Ok, I see, so that's the standard to try hit 🙂
hi friends, this is going to be a strange question but i'm looking to figure out what the prof is asking me to do for his homework question LOL. i've been sick with covid and was absent from class for the last 2 weeks and i emailed him to ask for the homework in which the only question he assigned was to "identify the relationship between taking the interior and closure of a set", but is the relationship not just the contrast between definitions? unions vs intersections and open vs closed subsets? this is following the lecture of compactness and having the finite intersection property being equivalent so i have a feeling hes trying to point me somewhere in that direction but I'm lost and I would like to give this to him tomorrow when i return to class
as i’m sure you know, opennes and closedness are not logical opposites (you may have that a set is either, neither or both), but they are in fact dual concepts, which you make think of informally as that every statement about an open set U can be translated to a statement about the closed set X \ U, and vice versa
oh 😭 sometimes the brain tries way too hard haha. i think i can see where to go, thank you
No
Consider [0,2] \ [0,1] = (1, 2]
Now, if F is closed and U is open then F \ U will be closed again (b/c it's F n (X\U)) and vice versa
Of cours
Indeed if X is a metric space and C a closed subset, then the boundary D of C is closed and C \ D is the interior which is open (and so usually not closed)
e.g. [0,1] \ {0,1} = (0,1)
i want to show that a particular subset of R^2 is totally disconnected
would it suffice to show that it doesn't contain any open disks?
Counterexample: line
what would be a general strategy of showing that a subset of R^2 is totally disconnected then?
By showing the only connected subspaces are points
is there some more concrete way of showing that
that's literally just the base definition
every example ive seen so far are just subsets of R, where the only connected subspaces are intervals
so the proofs all revolve around not showing that the set contains an interval
By showing any connected subspace with more than 1 point has points in the complement?
Do you have a specific problem in mind
it's pretty advanced, i hardly understand the constructions being used
example 1.19 here defines the schottky group
and they mention in passing that one could show its limit set is a cantor set
it would suffice to show it's totally disconnected
but idk how to do that
im just looking for a general strategy though
like the standard argument for subspaces of R is: choose two points in ur subspace, then show that theres a point between them that isnt in your subspace


