#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 44 of 1
Sure!
Right, the Whitney trick
The signs take values in the group ring of the fundamental group, or something. You have a path in S between intersection points and a path in S’. If you can find a Whitney disk you can form an isotopy to remove the intersections. In dimension > 4 you just use general position. In dimension 4 it’s false in the smooth category. It might be true in the topological category, but it’s very difficult for good fundamental groups and open for general ones
This is not about Whitney
Theres no reason you can find a topological disk in the first place, in the complement of the pair of surfaces
Let me think of an example
Just imagine the following scenario.
Take S^4
Take two intersecting spheres S1, S2 which intersect at exactly two points, one with oriented # 1 and other with -1
In the complement, perform a surgery so that these are no longer compressible
(This is how you produce 2D examples)
Ah yeah you'll have \pi_2 but you can make sure you don't have \pi_1
Yes
I need to run but I can cook up an example for you later if yall dont figure it out by the time
I mean you just gave me an example!
Well, I can believe that it's a working one for now
I haven’t exactly told you explicitly what you need to do in the complement. But this should do the trick. One has to attach 2 handles in the complementary regions
Working in analogy in 2D where you attach 1 handles in the complement
Thinking of what you described as a stabilized Heegaard splitting, it makes me wonder if S²xS² could be a (simpler) counter-example
But anyway, thank you!

Most likely (S^2 x S^2) # (S^2 x S^2) will work
Why #s ugh twitter has ruined gen z's minds

when $\operatorname{O}(n)$ acts on $V_k(\bR^n)$ transitively, why is its isotropy group $\operatorname{O}(n-k)$?
anamono
where V_k(R^n) denotes the stiefel manifold
The isotropy subgroup in this case is just the space of orthogonal matrices which fix the k-frame and act however they want on the orthogonal complement of the subspace spanned by the k-frame
In particular, the isotropy subgroup of the frame given by, say, the first k vectors of the standard basis would consist of the matrices whose upper left k x k minor is the identity and whose lower right (n-k) x (n-k) minor is whatever orthogonal matrix
oh gotcha
so an element of O(n-k), an (n-k) x (n-k) matrix, acts on a k-frame of R^n, an n x 1 matrix, by "extending" the element of O(n - k) to an n x n matrix?
@feral copper I have a nonoptimal example, if you still want one.
oh wait sorry k-frame is set of vectors
Sure do!
Take the following Kirby diagram, all links with 0 framing
well an element of O(n-k) is an (n-k) x (n-k) matrix
right
No, all are 2 handles. Colors are meant for exposition, for the following claim: boundary of this handlebody is S^3
Oh okay!
i guess im just wondering what the group action looks like, bc in my head it's matrix multiplication
Proof: Boundary of a handlebody given by Kirby diagram doesnt change if you flip a 0 framed handle unknot to a circle-with-dot ie a make it a 1-handle.
and im not sure how we can multiply an (n-k) x (n-k) matrix by an element of the k-frame
Yeah, the group action of O(n) on V_n, k is matrix multiplication, but you look at the image of each vector in your k-frame under multiplication by the matrix
Flip all the red ones, then theyre 1 handles which cancel with the green 2-handles
Yup
It's like, where does a matrix A send the standard basis of of R^n? To the frame consisting of the vectors Ae_1, ..., Ae_n
So cap off the whole handlebody by D^4 to get your 4 manifold. Now the sphere given by the white 2-handle has intersection number 0 with the sphere given by any of the green ones
But they cannot be isotoped to be disjoint
ohhhh gotcha
Any of the green? Not just the right one? But yeah this does work!
Ah no, both indeed
Yup
Thank you for this great example!
In general the intersection form matrix is just the linking matrix for a Kirby diagram
np
How did you come up with that so quickly? xD
So now I kinda want to ask the weaker question:
If Q(S,S')=n, are there surfaces F and F' respectively homologous to S and S' such that F intersects F' in exactly |n| points?
Which actually is terrible in my case, because I need that F and F' have the same genus as S and S'...
Ought to be true.
And actually, now that I think about it, being able to control the genus is equivalent to the Thom conjecture, and that's definitely not an easy thing x')
Effectively
Who had that 60 page "All you will ever need" general topology pdf?
If it fits the description, probably yeah
@tiny ridge
just search ibsen bookworms in the search bar
Thanks, now I can start to convert interested people form other fields into our cult mathematicians
Hatcher's notes are 40ish pages, Chapter 1 of Bredon is 60ish pages
Bredon covers alot alot more though, Hatcher's notes are relatively gentle
Very much appreciated
https://pi.math.cornell.edu/~hatcher/Top/Topdownloads.html
For example Urysohn's Lemma and the Tietze Extension Theorem are notable omissions.

A downloadable textbook in algebraic topology
Oh, I already found it sorry if I didn't make it clear
Ah
Glen Brendon’s Topology & geometry ?
indeed
Anywhere good to look for p-adic / p-completed topological complex K theory
I can't find much on it specifically beyond it being a special case of Morava E-Theory
What do you want to know?
What more could you want than an integral model? It tells you everything
What is an integral model 
I am new to this stuffs, I know about complex K-theory but not the p-adic variant basically
p-adic K-theory is the p-completion of K-theory. You destroy information when you pass from K-theory to p-adic K-theory. By integral model, I just mean something that’s leads to it by completion
Sure yes
Are you basically just saying like all I need to know is that you p complete KU?
and then work w that lol using properties of p completion and so forth
Or am I misinterpreting
Pretty much. That’s why you won’t find people talking about it
Sure
(It is useful tho right?)
Idk I am doing a summer project w some computations w this and cohomology lol gonna talk more to supervisor ig
Thank u
There are Morava type things you can say about it. Morava says things should not 2-periodic, but 2(p-1)-periodic. You can build an idempotent that splits off the part with the larger period. That’s a reason to isolate the p-part
Sometimes you run across a spectrum that isn’t K-theory, but whose p-completion is. The algebraic K-theory of the algebraic closure of a finite field of different characteristic has p-completion equal to the p-completion of connective K-theory. Quillen talks about this in his ICM address, cohomology of groups
Thanks interesting
snoozefest; aka i try to learn category theory
Tfw category theory thread in topology
going to educate myself on infinity topos crap because you all gave me a hard time about it
at least until i get bored
yo, I need to see to which covering of S^1xS^1 the subgroupe 0xZ sub ZxZ corresponds. I know that this subgroup corresponds to the covering R^2/0xZ iso RxS^1. Now I have to see what is the map RxS^1 -> S^1 xS^1 and I have no clue how to get it. Intuitively it hsould be the map (s,e^it)->(e^is, e^it) but how to get it without "guessing"?
you can try to prove your guess is correct
finite product of covering maps is a covering
Ye I can prove my guess but I'd like to know how to find this map without guessing
If you have a space X with universal cover U and fundamental group G, then X is homeomorphic to U/G. The cover corresponding to H < G is homeomorphic to U/H. The map from this cover to X is the same as the natural map from U/H to U/G.
This is either the definition of "cover corresponding to the subgroup H" or a theorem depending on how you have defined things
alright thank you
Hey, I'm struggling with this basic fact, why is $\pi_H$ closed if $H$ is compact?
digiterate
Second question, I see why the example 3.6 is true if X is Hausdorff, but not without that hypothesis... Is it true in the general setting or not?
Good question - I've a feeling it's not true but trying to find an example lol
How do you remember which ones are face maps and which ones are degeneracy maps in a simplicial set?
The mnemonic "inclusion of a face is a face map, collapse onto a face is a degeneracy map" works well but for the simplex category. In a simplicial set everything gets contravariant'ed
In fact, the standard notation is also backwards. d_i denotes face maps, s_i denotes degeneracy map.
Hm, not really. d_i is like "part of the boundary", from the contravariant POV
It’s not backwards d_i:X[n] -> X[n-1] assigns to an n-simplex which n-1 simplex that lives on the boundary omitting it ‘i’th vertex
I wouldn't call that a face map, I would call that the ith boundary map
But yeah I guess I should really imagine d_i as the ith boundary face of a simplex, and s_i as the (n+1) simplex given by fudgifying the ith vertex
What would be the difference between ith boundary and ith face?
I mean that’s just terminology what does ith boundary mean
Yeah it was a terminology question 😛
"How do you remember X"?
I think of it as asking the question what is the ‘ith’ face of this simplex?
So you interpret the ith face as the inclusion of the ith boundary?
As in one is an object and one is a map
Yeah.
When I think of a stratum, it is always an inclusion of the stratum in the big space
Boundary goes the other way
In that case why don't you think of boundary as inclusion of the boundary rather than the boundary space itself?
No, because I write dX = Y
Boundary of X is Y
X -> Y
Language has directionality for topologists who cannot use diagrams

Sorry if it's difficult for you 😛
No but I think in this case we do regard ith face as the object rather than the map
So it is assigning to a simplex in X its ith face
Which makes perfect sense from the POV that it's called d_i
"ith component of the d map"
d_i : (n-simplex) -> (n-1 simplex)
So that does answer my question 🙂

When you write this, do you mean set of n-simplices and set of n-1-simplexes?
It’s probably helpful to just draw out a random simplicial complex and right down the simplicial set that has it as the geometric realization
I have done this exercise before, bigraded. The question was one of terminology
That's the best part to me 
Because of the nerve realization adjunction
presheaf perspective IMO is useful because it encapsulates all the coherences you need very simply
For example what is the set of maps $\Delta^n \rightarrow X$
bigradedSphere
It’s not obvious to me without yoneda
You should have clarified that these are both simplicial sets 
Yeah that took me a minute
A simplex is a simplex
What is the big deal
It can be degenerate but those are all in X[n]
How would you formally prove this though
Yes, Yoneda. But it is obvious without it

Do you guys seriously formally machine verify everything everytime
I do math by having a network of intuitive understanding
I think of Δ^n as the free sset generated by one n-simplex
lol ok
Which is equivalent to Yoneda ofc 
I think of simplicial sets as basically their geometric realization
I am going to call simplicial set a hobuffed simplicial complex from now on
How to think of sSets?
presented without my perspective
Well, yes, but I don't try to hide it behind poetic ornamentations
I think I go back and forth between perspectives for what is useful
That's what the homotopy theorists do
Not my fault if the notions at its core are actually all very simple
They're not I need to feel proud for understanding them 
No one said they aren’t simple. That’s probably why they are useful
Inner horn fillability is just saying that the composable morphisms (homotopies) can be hocomposed
If Thurston wrote this, he'd have just written "Composables can be hocomposed"
But instead we have linguists
Let C be a quasicategory. For any two objects x, y in C, Hom(x, y) also admits the structure of a quasicategory. Namely, its a simplicial set whose vertices are 1-cells [x, y] of C, edges are degenerate 2-cells [x, y, y] of C, etc. Inner horn fillability of Hom(x, y) follows from (1 dim higher) inner horn fillability of C, yes?
I guess alternatively its the simplicial set Hom_x,y(Delta^1, C)
simplicial Hom (with boundary conditions)
If C is Kan, this is clearly Kan in analogy with fibrant objects in topology. I can't entirely check the inner horn condition in my head though
When are simplicial Hom's of quasicats a quasicat, in general?
Wait. Hom_x,y(Delta^1, C) feels like it is actually Kan for any quasicat C
The usual one or the Hom_x,y?
Yes it needs to be
Ye
I guess this is what people mean by (infty, 1) categories

No?
Ye lol
Ok
Another way to think about it is that a category enriched over (n,r)-Cat is an (n+1, r+1)-category
So (infty, 1) should be those enriched over Kan complexes
Makes sense
Thats not a "way to think about it"
That's just an elaborate language rigamarole
That is so way to think about it
You should focus on studying instead of focusing on starting another half hour argument with me
? This is how topologists study

Not gonna start another argument smh
So higher category theory is just a bunch of blind men trying to visualize high-dimensional horns of simplices
Makes sense
Visualize?

Take the real numbers since they form a topological group. Take a discrete subgroup, so just a set of numbers. Left translate the real numbers by this discrete subgroup. Can you find an element in the real numbers that isn’t in the translation? Or in other words, take an open set U in R and a the left translated U and look at the intersection. Is this action properly discontinuous?
I can see why it's properly discontinuous: take $U$ a neighbourhood of $e$, such that $U\cap \Gamma = {e}$, then $m^{-1}(U) \subseteq G\times G$ contains $(e, e)$ and so there exists an open set $V$ such that $e$ is in $V$ and $V \times V \subseteq m^{-1}(U)$. Up to replacing $V$ by $V \cap V^{-1}$ we may suppose $V = V^{-1}$, so we have $VV^{-1} \subseteq U$. For any $x \in G$, $V_x = xV$ is a neighbourhood of $x$ and $V_x \cap hV_x = \emptyset$ if $h \neq e$, since otherwise we have $h \in V_x^{-1}V_x \cap \Gamma \subseteq U \cap \Gamma = {e}$ which contradicts $h \neq e$
digiterate
what's your definition of proper action then?
That the preimage of a compact set via the map $G\times \Gamma \to G\times G, (g, h) \mapsto (g, hg)$ is compact
digiterate
O don't think that's what they mean by a proper action
also, G acts by homeomorphism so your properness is obvious
I'm not sure why?
by a proper action, it means that for all x, there is a nbd N of x s.t. gN ∩ N is empty for all but finitely many g ∈G
compactness is preserved by homeomorphisms
is this equivalent?
no it's not equivalent but it what means for an group action to be proper
but this map is not a homeo?
it's not surjective for example
completely different terminology, it's unfortunate
ok wait, what you sent contradicts the definition I know
where did you get that?
from my course on adelic number theory
it also is the same definition in General Topology by Bourbaki
Only if the group is discrete
yeah just looked up
Is there a way one can deduce properness in the above sense from being properly discontinuous in this context?
If G is discrete and X is locally compact, properness follows from proper discontinuous
local compactness includes Hausdorff in your def?
Because for context, the goal is to show local compactness is preserved when taking the quotient under this action
Hausdorff is preserved because a discrete subgroup is closed
Then local compactness I guess because the projection map is open...
I guess properness is not really needed then... Out of curiosity, what's the argument you had in mind?
Properness is local on the target
To prove properness near x,y, if they are not in the same orbit, take a neighborhood whose pre image is empty. If they are in the same orbit, reduce to x,x. Take the neighborhood N given by the hypothesis of proper discontinuity. Shrink so that it is preconpact. The pre image of the closure of NxN is finitely many copies of the closure of N, which is compact
Btw where does the name "proper" come from? as in a map where inverse images of compact sets are compact
Is it just a random name
Probably they wanted it to be close to projective
was the geometric or topological notion first 🙂
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2434982/why-is-the-definition-of-a-proper-group-action-the-way-it-is#2437237
somewhat relevant
I just meant the same first letter.
But, no, I was not serious
I feel like it's probably the same type of terminology as normal
I think properly discontinuous is older. I doubt it influenced proper map, though
I.e could just as well be called "good"
I'm a bit confused on the last part, won't the preimage of NxN be just Nx{e}?
since for any h != e, we have hN disjoint from N
I mean the end result is the same
The definition given of proper discontinuous of that there finitely many. You could shrink N to get rid of them. So why isn’t the definition just one? I don’t know. Maybe to prepare us for groups that aren’t discrete? Or maybe two versions of the definition got mixed up? One is about there exists N. The other is about all pre compact N
Ahh I thought there was just one in proper discontinuous
If I have a continuous map between CW complexes f: X to Y, is there a well-defined notion of an induced map between some vector bundles over them?
I don't imagine there would be anything that would particularly preserve a lot of information
Like given a map between the zero sections as subspaces I dont see a natural extension to the entire bundles
Yeah I was just wondering abt this due to a question on a math competition I saw
The original question was as follows
“Let X be a CW complex whose second integral Cohomology is 0, let V be a real vector bundle on S^2 and f: X to S^2 be a continuous map, show that f^*(V) is a trivial bundle.”
Any idea what f^* means here?
How can I show that xH open implies xH dense in the closure of H, as the op describes?
Given bundles E -> X, E' -> Y and a continuous map f: X -> Y
there is no natural notion of an induced map f*: E -> E'
Given a bundle E -> Y and a continuous map f: X -> Y, there is a well defined bundle f^*(E) -> X over X with a natural map f^*(E) -> E making the natural diagram commute
(there is a sort of notion of pushforward, taking bundles over X and yielding spaces over Y, as well but it doesnt yield bundles in general so i would not recommend thinking about it rn)
mothemotics
Does that make sense
nlab seems to say that Bourbaki invented the term “proper map” and “proper action” in the same book. So maybe proper map is named after properly discontinuous. Except that nlab cites different editions. If proper action were added in 1960, proper map in 1951 was not named after it
Bourbaki defines proper action as an action for which the map (g, x) -> (gx, x) is proper, not much about properly discontinuous
I mean if the book is called General Topology
Oh that's interesting
I beg to differ
Proper actions are a generalization of properly discontinuous actions, which only makes sense for discrete groups. I’m pretty sure this use of proper is named after properly discontinuous
but properly discontinuous actions are proper if X is locally compact, is it true in general though?
is it really a generalization?
Also if Bourbaki came up with this nomenclature, he did not mention properly discontinuous anywhere in the book
Yes, if the group is discrete, the action is proper iff properly discontinuous, regardless of hypotheses on X
Britannica 1902 defines properly discontinuous as a property of groups, not actions. It seems to mean discrete, and improperly discontinuous as, I dunno, maybe not connected, such as the group of rational numbers. In fact, it says that PGL2(R) is improperly discontinuous, so it really just means disconnected
Not that I trust Britannica as an authority on mathematics. But it’s surprising that it’s a very early example of the use in English. The earliest use I see in google books is 1899. Maybe Britannica is translating a usage popular in another language?
Would the closure in (iii) be any different in X+ than in X?
You yourself have already argued this
in (i)
If Y is a subset of X with noncompact closure then it will have a different closure in X^+
Part (iii) wants you to use parts (i) and (ii) to break the possibilities into cases
Ok, but if x is in the closure of Y in X but not in X+, then there must some compact set C of X containing Y but not x, right?
Or am I missing smth?
Oh? But doesn't C have to be compact of X?
The closed sets in the definition of a closure are taken from the ambient space
Any new open set in X+ is of the form X+ - C
if you're talking about closure in X, then C is a subset of X
if in X^+, then C is a subset of X^+
I'm not sure what you're trying to write here
When we topologize X+ from X, don't we define all the open sets to be all open sets in X and all sets X+ - C where C is compact in X?
themaxj
Yes
Well, then any point which is in the closure of Y in X but not in X^+, must have some neighborhood in our new space which is disjoint from Y, right?
This new set must be of the form X^+ - C for a compact C in X
Sure
But then since X is Hausdorff, C is closed
And doesn't contain x
So we can take a neighborhood disjoint from C in X of x
and hence it is not a limit point of Y in X either
seems reasonable to me
But then the closure of Y in the new space cannot contain fewer points, right?
yep
But the reverse direction: if x is a limit point of Y in X^+, then all normal open sets in X of x intersect Y
Hence x is also a limit point of Y in X
That doesn't quite work
(although its close to working)
you're making an implicit assumption that isn't true
Hmm
Think about whether what you just said is compatible with parts (i) and (ii)
You'll get a contradiction
(Hint, part (iii) follows extremely formally from (i) and (ii))
(Hint 2, you can basically see everything that could happen here in the example of X=(0,1) with compactification the circle)
Just to be understand
Could you tell me what about the statement is wrong cause I'm having a hard time figuring it out
You are assuming that x is in X
your proof does work for any x in X though
So, we would then get that the closure is the same if the set is compact, and if not compact it is its closure in X adjoined with the point at infinity?
yep
np
What is a nice way of thinking about the simplicial set corresponding to a chain complex under Dold-Kan? You can of course define X[n] = Hom_Ch(S_*(Delta^n), C_*). This is a bit unappetising to me
I want to say that there should be some correspondence between simplicial homotopy groups and homology of the resulting complex
but i forget the precise statement
oh its literally just the same according to nlab
idk if thats satisfying but at least its pretty concrete?
I like that
Nah, that’s a homotopy statement, not a concrete statement. The Dold Kan equivalence is of categories, not just up to equivalence
huh?
I'm not trying to say its the full strength of dold kan I am just saying its one way to interpret it. Notice that a priori its not obvious that an equivalence of categories would respect this (of course in general equivalences of categories can completely ignore model structures)
You might as well with work with topological abelian groups
?
Anyhow, compare the Dold-Kan theorem to the Dold-Thom theorem
DT is a good one
The Dold Kan simplicial realization of the hom complex Hom(C, D) is much easier for me. A map from the 1-simplex into this is the same information as a chain homotopy.
By definition
higher simplices are evidently higher homotopies etc
I suppose now understanding the derived category of an abcat as a \infty category is walking distance from here
the Hom sets are clearly simplicially enriched
Well, this simplicially enriches Ch(A). One has to do a simplicial localization next
“Of course” that should be possible but I don’t know how to actually do it
Yesterday there was the discussion of face maps and degeneracy maps. d stands for boundary. s stands for stupid. Because you don’t need degeneracy maps.
You don’t need degeneracies for semi simplicial sets to model spaces and you don’t need degeneracies for semi simplicial abelian groups to model chain complexes. Where by model I mean an equivalence of infinity categories
The reason to do full fledged simplicial sets is more precise statements, like that simplicial abelian groups are the same as chain complexes, before inverting equivalences
This is explained in HTT ch1 if you’re interested
Well how you get an infinity category anyway
Thanks, Ill read that
Good remark
Now you’re talking like a topologist
I remember the other technical application of degeneracies. They make the nerve a product persevering functor. This allows you to iterate the clarifying space functor and build K(pi,n). This sounds close to DK, so this is the more general principle of what degeneracies are for
I remember degeneracies being essential for products being correct
But I don’t remember anything other than that. I think one runs into trouble with I x I
Oh this is what you said, nerve isnt product preserving otherwise
Its not hard to see, I dont need to remember. You’ll always have degenerate simplices like [0, 1, 1] in the product
A single triangle has three edges, which is odd, so you can’t pair them off for identification
A point inside a triangle is a manifold point. A point on the inside of paired edge is part of two triangles and so is a manifold point. The only problem is vertices, which may be part of many triangles
ahh ok
this might sound really dumb but is there an easy to see then that the closed disk is not locally homeomorphic to R^2?
for points on the boundary u can only draw like part of an open disk around them
If you delete a point from the boundary, it doesn’t change the fundamental group, even the fundamental group of a small neighborhood
Btw what are the prerequisites for that?
For ch1? Probably just category theory and knowing what simplicial sets are
The issue with HTT and HA isn’t really that there’s a ton of prereqs, more so it requires absurd mathematical maturity (there are no exercises for example) as well as being really hard to motivate if you aren’t familiar w homotopy theory already
Like in context HTT is clearly just reformulating lots of old ideas with better machinery
But out of context it’s like “what the fuck”
Higher algebra
👍
I was first lol
(some people very much don't like HTT but personally to me it's one of the best texts on the subject out there)
im looking at bit sof HTT and HA; its fairly natural, but boring
Yeah it’s also dry as hell
ill force myself to learn tho
i think i understand what Max meant when he said you should only begin to read this stuff if you encounter it
It’s like the pilot fish meme w higher categories as the light and quasicstegories as the scary fish
lmao
I will say tho, with every pass of HTT and HA content I pay more attention to details and start to find them beautiful
Maybe this is Stockholm syndrome
thats probably also because youre much more naturally inclined
I think my brain is just irreparably broken
lol now if you roast yourself i wont have a purpose for doing this
Lmao dw knowing I’m a lost cause doesn’t stop me from posting homotopy brained takes
Here’s a good one
From a paper of my advisors
(Sorry for shit quality it’s a phone pic of an e-ink tablet)
i like that notation
You like Ab for the derived infinity category of Z?
(Altho this is the unbounded guy)
Oh maybe
oh youre reading the BHS paper nice
its a bit like how a perverse sheaf is just called a perverse sheaf instead of a perverse complex of sheaves
or constructible sheaves for the matter
Right yeah that’s fair
do you know why its a good question to ask which homotopy spheres are stein fillable; i know some results in this direction but do not know the origin story of this particular q
if Yasha asked it there must be a reason to it
theres some results of Abouzaid which indicates that the symplectic topology of T*S^n detects smooth structure of S^n
Ohy eah lol
The heart of the category or smth right lol
heart of the t-structure rather
I remember finding that funny seeing someone write it heh
A simplicial abelian group ought to automatically be a Kan complex, yes?
I believe so
Ok, just rememered I needed Ch(A) to be not just simplicially enriched but Homs to be Kan
for \infty cat
its because we have inverses
Yeah
I remember yes this was really nice cause you can like define homotopy groups relatively painlessly for Kan complexes and this shows we have a nice class of objects for which the def works ig lol
i vaguely remember this was useful at some point for me but i am not sure how
its been a long time since i learnt simplicial sets
I actually think you don't need "abelian" for this. Any simplicial group is a Kan complex.
All you need is inverses
Ya, this is OK
If you have a 2-horn, worst case an outer one, define the missing edge as e_0^-1 e_1. But that doesn't have the right boundaries, so scale it by an appropriate degenerate 1-simplex
The filling 2-simplex is the degenerate guy dropping down to this
I think this is useful for something obviously important, but I can't remember what lol
I mean Kan complexes are the fibrant objects in the usual model structure on sSet
So it comes in handy if you get them for free
Instead of having to do replacement games
Yes, I think what I had in mind was some sort of an application eg, Diff(N) -> Emb(M, N) is a Serre fibration without having to check a bunch of things
Make simplicial models of everything, apply the above and get fibrant
(That's isotopy extension theorem, btw)
Sorry yes groups is en7ff
I think a small modification of the above proves that a morphism of simplicial groups G -> H which is levelwise surjective is a Kan fibration (of the underlying simplicial sets)
This shows, for instance, BH -> BG is a fibration (with fibers G/H) with relatively little effort, in the simplicial model of everything
@marsh forge @umbral panther I feel a little scammed. I looked at HTT and the way Lurie defines the derived \infty category of an abcat A is by looking at the nerve of the full subcategory of injective objects in Kom(A). In #1119853874749128764 I suggested dg enriching D(A) by simply taking Kom(Injectives of A) and using Hom-complexes for as the dg hom sets, but apparently that is "noncanonical". I thought there was a more intuitive way to localize \infty-categories that you guys had in mind 😉
Because, if you're going to take injective resolutions anyway, why bother with the infty nuttiness?
He uses a dg/simplicial nerve right?
Should I read how to do simplicial localization or is there a better ref
That’s what I was intending to showcase
Ah. Is that not essentially equivalent to simplicially enriching Ch(Injectives)?
I thought there'd be a way to avoid talking about injectives at all
It should be I think. The point is more so about how you change the naive nerve functor to get it to care about the simplicial enrichment
I thought you could too
Oh I misspoke, this is not HTT but HA (Ch 1.3.2)
Hm
Most likely I'm lost in the maze that's all
No I often over simply this construction
I might’ve done so again
Oh
Okay here’s a slightly slicker thing
You can construct D(R) as localization of the infinity category of complexes at the complexes with homology 0
One way to express this formally is to form the cofiber in Cat^ex which is known as the Verdier localization
This probably the most “natural” construction
Aha.
OK, thanks, I will learn this POV
I need to know how to glue or coglue infty cats anyway
The theory of (Bousfield) localization at a system of objects you want to force to be 0 is somewhere in HTT as well
Eventually I'll deal with sheaves of them
Lurie doesn’t use the name bousfield tho
Gotcha
It suffices for it to be a group. This is a theorem of moore.
Actually it suffices for it to be a monoid satisfying some weird technical conditions
Interesting, ibsens sketch relied pretty substantially on the existence of inverses
yeah im surprised by that
Max I learned this by following up on something you told me.
If (X,x) is a pointed topological space then there's a (strict) monoid whose objects are loops from x to x defined on some real interval [0, t]; if you have loops [0, t] -> (X,x) and [0, s] -> (X,x) then their composition is a map [0, t+s] -> X.
Moore figured out some way to construct a simplicial set out of this which had a true monoid structure and proved it was a Kan complex by appeal to some weird technical condition on the monoid.
Ag
Ah*
Interesting
I wonder if the condition is related to the grouplike condition on a loop space
I might be misremembering this. I'm re-reading the paper one sec
Ah, ok, yes, I am misremembering.
Instead, what Moore proved is that if X is a simplicial monoid satisfying a weird technical condition, and is a Kan complex, you can compute its homotopy groups by taking its Moore normalization and computing the homology.
Moore proved that if (X,x) is a pointed space, and (X,x)^R is its Moore path space, then the singular simplicial set of this space is a simplicial monoid satisfying the weird technical condition, and thus its homotopy groups agree with the homology groups of the Moore normalization.
😵💫
Basically this just means it's pretty easy to compute the homotopy groups from a combinatorial point of view, as the Moore normalization is a relatively simple object.
What’s the technical condition
There is an involution isomorphism M \cong M^op
which is an isomorphism of (simplicial) monoids
Oh this is actually kinda neat, this is a weird way of noting that the fundamental group of a loop space is abelian
This makes sense because groups are obviously equipped with an isomorphism G\cong G^op, namely the inverse map
and so is Moore's path space, you just reverse the direction of the paths.
so this proves that simplicial groups have homotopy equal to their homology as a corollary.
I wonder if this is equivalent to grouplike somehow
If a simplicial monoid has such an involution will it’s pi_0 be a group?
I don't see that theorem in the paper. He does note what you just said tho, which is that the fundamental group of any simplicial monoid satisfying this hypothesis will be Abelian
I think that the technical hypothesis is necessary for the homology groups to be well-defined
Moore was in the Cartan seminar for a couple years and talked to them about Kan complexes.
Wait that’s slightly different
Oh wait nvm
You were talking about the loop space thing
Well it was already known (not too hard to see directly)
But this says that a Moore space (which is a loop space) has Kan homotopy groups (iso to normal homotopy groups) given by homology of normalized chains, which in particular is abelian in all degrees
ok, nice
there's so much good stuff in the cartan seminar papers
and they're all free online
I learned all about computing the homology of K(pi,n) spaces there
Do you know of Manuel Rivera
It doesn't ring a bell.
I saw him give a talk about some of his work I feel like you’d find it interesting
oh is this the guy you were mentioning the other day
yeah i think you sent me his paper.
Oh did I
I saved it
Wow I have no memory of this
It was about projective lifting of model structures along adjunctions under general hypotjeses
right?
No no no
oh ok.
That was Maru
Manuel does like algebraic models for topological categories
Like generalizations of that Sullivan model for rational stuff
i see
I think Lie groups are pretty important, right? And so it stands to reason that if you think of like, simplicial complexes as a basic combinatorial prototype for spaces, then simplicial groups are potentially very important, maybe almost as important as Lie groups!
But you cannot have a sensible notion of a "simplicial group" unless you have a sensible notion of Cartesian product, and the geometric realization functor doesn't preserve products for semisimplicial sets. Yes it has a product in the presheaf category but imo it is not geometrically meaningful, so semisimplicial group theory is a really inadequate proxy for topological group theory.
I’m confused what you’re saying. Semsimplicial groups are sensible. Yeah, the geometric realization preserves products only up to homotopy equivalence, but that’s a very fine grained technical condition. Ultimately you want it, but for most purposes it doesn’t matter
I dunno. Most abelian categories don’t have enough injectives. Finitely generated abelian groups don’t have enough. I thought one of Lurie’s big things was working with small categories without enough fibrant objects, just like the original version of Quillen model categories. Except he wanted even smaller than Quillen.
Worse, the opposite of the category of sheaves doesn’t have enough injectives
hey guys, I am reviewing the topology notes and by going through the proof of this lemma, I don't get why they argue in such a complicated way to show transitivity (the continuity part of the proof))
You can show continuity using the pasting lemma. The screenshot is proving the pasting lemma itself instead of just citing it.
The pasting lemma is equivalent to saying that if a space Z is a union of A and B, both open (or both closed), then Z is the pushout of A and B along their intersection.
Here,
Z = X × [0, 2],
A = X × [0, 1],
B = X × [1, 2]
I assume that you were asking why we can't just use this
yes exacctly, I thought it was elaborated much more complicated than it really is
Thanks a lot
Does somebody have a nice proof on why the fundamental group of Sn is trivial? I do not fully get the concept
Which proof are you looking at? There are multiple
Another way to phrase this is that S^n minus a point is contractible
All the things being said about pushing the loop towards the North pole are about how you can contract S^n - South pole to the North pole
So if your loop misses the South pole, it is homotopic to the trivial loop by horizontal composition of homotopies (compose the identity homotopy on the loop with the contracting homotopy of S^n - South pole)
The rest is arguing that any loop is homotopic to one that misses the South pole
Ah okay, that explains it a lot better, thank you for elaborating it
The english kinda confused me, but it makes sense now!

is there an easy way to see that S^n - a pt is contractible for n > 2?
It is homeomorphic to ℝ^n
should be homeomorph to Rn, which is contractible because it is convex
Works for any n btw lol
S^(-1): 
Lol
You know how when localizing a category at a multiplicative set, you define the morphisms as (equivalence classes of) roofs X <- Y -> Z where X -> Y is in the multiplicative set? Compositions of zig-zags can be replaced by a big zig-zag upto equivalence, by "completing the house of cards".
Yeah a big-zag
I love left roofs 
The Dwyer-Kan idea is to not forget the chain of zig-zags. Let M be a model category, and W be the weak equivalences. For any pair of objects X, Y in Ob(M), define a simplicial set whose n-simplices are length n zig-zags from X to Y
The left arrows always lying in W
The face and degeneracy maps are given by factorizing the identity and inserting it in the diagram
This is the Dwyer-Kan localization M[W^-1]
Which is a simplicially enriched category
This isn't exactly it though is it?
Aren't the n-simplices the hammocks of length n
Or width n I think
Oh you're right
Though I guess its like hozigzags
Because the connections in the hammocks are wequivalences
hozigizigizagzag
Yeah OK
I guess my description is fundamentally wrong because these aren't n-simplices.

Is a neat way to think of it though
I can now see much more clearly why hodwyerkan is the usual thing
I like the hozigzag comment
I am unhappy though because I cannot see what the hom SSets are anymore
It's a weird coproduct of various chunks
Ye I find it not so intuitive
Hammocks are not how I would guess higher homotopies would be defined
Have you seen Hirschhorn's version of the simplicial localization for a model category?
To be fair, hammocks in and of of themselves is a natural idea because even in the derived category you mod out roofs by equivalence of roofs
These words are insane
Hirschhorn's book
It's even less intuitive and I don't yet understand it
He constructs cofibrant and fibrant resolutions of objects
Which are (co)simplicial objects
So that the Hom from the cofibrant resolution to the fibrant resolution is a bisimplicial set
And the diagonal on that is somehow the correct Hom
Tell me if you figure out some nice intuitive explanation 
This is the Bousfield localization?
Nope
Let me check
He calls them homotopy function complexes
Chapter 17 in his book
It is very systematic with citing past results
But It's hard to jump into a random later chapter because it's a whole tree of citations you have to backtrack through
Part 2 is the appendix btw 
The main content is in part 1, which is up to chapter 6
fucking hell
BTW what is "Reedy"? I asked someone a long time back the following question: suppose you have two diagrams of spaces P -> Spaces and a natural transformation between them which is a pointwise weak equivalence, when can I invert it? They said idk man look up Reedy fibrant diagrams
I still dont know the answer to this question
I ended up avoiding it altogether
Suppose you want to put a projective model structure on a category of diagrams
In my situation there was a concrete inverse lol
Projective meaning that fibrations and weaquivalences are pointwise
Ok
If you target category is not cofibrantly generated this is difficult in general
But works out when you domain category is Reedy, which is the condition you need to give a nice characterization of the cofibrations inductively
Like if you take your domain category to be . → . → . → ...
You can work out the projective model structure inductively
Yeah, makes sense
Reedy is the most general kind of category in which this inductive argument will work
And the simplex cat is Reedy which is why it is often used from computing homotopy (co)limits
So in paricular if P is Reedy, this does answer my question?
Say if all the arrows are fibrations
Can inductively construct an inverse, maybe
By inverse I mean homotopy-inverse
I didn't bother reading the part of the message after "what is Reedy?" 
You should tell me the answer to that one, sounds like something homotopy theorists should know
Homotopy inverse as in inverse with respect to the left and right homotopy relations?
Yes
I want a natural transformation in the inverse direction which is a homotopy-inverse, pointwise, for all original diagram
Commutation should be on the nose
Since the weaquivs and fibrations in the projective model structure are levelwise, I reckon right homotopies are levelwise right homotopies
So between bifibrant diagrams, the levelwise weak equivalences should be homotopy equivalences
Since fibrations are levelwise, fibrant diagrams are levelwise fibrant
Cofibrant diagrams are also in particular levelwise cofibrant
Ok, interesting
So this is from the usual model cat whitehead
Same whatever I said now is almost all I know about them 
One should encounter this all the time, no? Suppose you have two simplicial sheaves F, G on a space X, and a pointwise weak heq F -> G. When can I say it's an actual heq? I guess the question is what is the model structure on simplicial sheaves
This sounds like something Goerss would know
Yeah no clue lmao
I did a brief literature survey when I wanted to understand this and I concluded "fuck this" after a day or two

Looking it up again because of low attention span
Ah yes, "Simplicial presheaves - j.f. jardine" by S. Presheaves

One theory is where the weak equivalences are "combinatorial weak equivalences", which is just a stalkwise weak equivalence
This is severely underwhelming for me so I'm looking at a better one
It sounds good though
Given that exactness can be checked at the level of stalks for sheaves valued in abcats
Seems like the right analogue for simplicial stuff

Suppose F, G are two simplicial sheaves on X whose stalks are Kan fibrant. Say F -> G is a local weak equivalence, i.e., on stalks it is a weak equivalence. If X is sufficiently nice and the restriction maps of F, G are Kan fibrations, then F -> G should be a global weak equivalence ie on every open set F(U) -> G(U) is a weak equivalence
This is essentially a theorem of Gromov
But this doesn't give me an insight into when I can invert F -> G
You also only need the restriction maps from a compact to a compact to be a Kan fibration IIRC
Gromov doesn't use this language so some hypothesis might get lost in translation
I cant be bothered
What do you mean “can I invert“?
You can invert whatever you want.
It might be hard to work with. You could follow up with if this is what I want to invert, is there a model category?
Usually with diagram categories that’s exactly what you want to invert. There are several model categories with those equivalences. Projective, injective, and sometimes Reedy
I dont mean formal beef brained invert
Is there no way to stitch a locally defined map into a global map of sheaves?
Thats why I asked the question for a diagram
That's like a constructible simplicial sheaf version of the same q
Maps of sheaves form a sheaf. If you have actual maps of sheaves, they glue
But if you only have homotopy coherent maps of sheaves, you have to have a lot of coherence
Suppose you have two diagrams P -> SSet, and a natural transform which is pointwise weak eq. Can I invert every arrow to make a natural transform in the reverse direction?
No hocobolobotomy sheaf
Just a sheaf
Res res = res on the nose
But maybe this is why later on in manifold calculus people started using hosheaves
I dunno
Where should I learn sheaf theory from if I don't want to be pipelined into AG?
Is there sheaf theory in homtopi
Yes
Yes
Nice
Thank
Can't hurt to read relatively self-contained sections on sheaves in AG books, unless you already know sheaves well and need some more specialized results
I am familiar with the basics, a bit more than is needed for schemes.
No, you can’t. If you invert locally, the inverses aren’t coherent, but only homotopy coherent, so they don’t glue
The question is more "when can you?"
Suppose all the maps in the two respective diagrams are fibrations
Even then I don't know.
Sounds like a model category question
If you have cycles in the diagram you run into issues
Yeah I have a feeling this is what homotopy theorists say when they dont know a concrete answer
Reedy is a concrete answer, it’s just a long answer
I'll read about them
Soon
If the two diagrams are a tree of SSets, there should be no issue for sure. You use the fact that if A -> A', B -> B', C -> C' are weak equivalences, then A x_C B -> A' x_C' B' is a weak equivalence if all the maps A -> C <- B etc are fibrations
Inductively
Cycles I dunno
For general diagrams, even with cycles, there is a way of making the maps sufficiently fibrant. And a dual way of making them sufficiently cofibrant. These are two different model structures. The Reedy structure, for only special diagrams, does both at once
EG is a contractible space and so is a singleton. But we don't identify them, because one has a well behaved group action and the other doesn't. So to me it's a meaningful distinction between preserving the terminal object and preserving it up to homotopy. It's subjective, but i don't think of it as a fine grained distinction.
At the end of the day I basically believe the constant map from the unit interval to a point is geometrically meaningful and should be regarded as a simplicial map, and it's a weakness of the formalism if you can't express non-injective maps.
I think we understand that the concept of remembering collapse of homotopically irrelevant info is useful
Mapping cylinders!
yeah, in HTT 
or read something on six functors
Math will completely run out of names for mathematical objects by 2031. "Six functors"?
i mean that one goes back to grothendieck though afaik
its just gained more traction recently
Happily there are people who do not care about terminology and linguistics
since now there is a formal definition and what not
scholze gave a lecture on it last term in bonn, he has notes on his page
Yeah, but we need Scholze-English dictionary first
its genuinely quite tame, at least the start
he starts with the topology version
oh i guess it makes more sense if one knows about sym mon infty cats
Lol
but those are just like normal sym mon cats
Should I read HTT 
You can just read something obviously more concrete and useful if you want to learn about the six functor formalism
I also want to learn infty cat theory
Like Kashiwara-Schapira
not form start to finish
but chapter 5 is really good
like for practical stuff
adjoint functor theorem etc
Requires ordinary topoi as a prereq though right?
no
topoi only starts in ch6
topoi?
Ah
Ch 5 is what I'm reading now lol
I know we have topos, but wtf is topoi?
Plural
same thing different name
Toposeses
And I thought I spoke English
so what I did is read lands book and do all the exercises, and then I started with some really nice notes on algebraic k theory from fabian hebestreit, and read a bit of HTT and HA on the side
in hindsight, I think lands book wasnt really that necessary
its mostly pointset stuff with simplicial sets that you don't care too much about when you actually wanna use the theory, like in stable homotopy theory
lmao, but topos comes from Greek, not Latin
the notes in algebraic k theory start with a 60 page recap of the most important stuff you need from infty cats, and there its done like you would in practice, can recommend a lot
τόπος, means place
like for example in lands book you kind of see straightening unstraightening and its used for a few things, but I didnt really get a feel for it until I saw it used "in practice" in these notes
maybe you can just start reading this and then look up stuff in kerodon or something if you need to
This is exactly the kind of thing I have been looking for
Thank you
you will have to get used to the scholze-school of calling spaces anima though xd
I'm already past the point of no return

Conventions of the clinically insane
I think its important to distinguish though, you should definitely not call them spaces, since then ppl might confuse them with topological spaces etc
its like objects in the derived category D(R) technically arent chain complexes since its not well-defined to look at the n-th level
only n-th (co)homology
I will continue to call a space "a space" and not know what an anima is
Thanks very much
its an object in the infty cat of spaces
Are they actually a cult? Trying to summon the great old ones for knowledge
But people also call simplicial sets spaces sometimes
This would be in the same spirit I suppose
Since the hocats are the same
I guess you also have the name infinity groupoid but this you usually only use when you realy wanna view it as an infty cat
Believe it or not there are people who still care about spaces upto homeomorphism.
yeah I know there are even quite a few here in bonn
They should speak of topological spaces then 
they usually just speak of manifolds anyway
Simplicial sets aren’t spaces. They’re Spaces
and then you know
Right
Simplicial paces
Spaces means manifolds upto homeomorphism to us
on that note, moldi, I think I remember you asking stuff about the HHR paper
did you read that
I'm still super annoyed that ppl call polytopes the space bounded by simplices. It makes sense, but super weird
Ye I wrote my masters thesis on the slice spectral sequence
But didn't read their full solution
man
I've been learning about the spectral mackey functor picture of G-spectra and wondering how norms fit into that
That is for constructing their C_8 spectrum
and ive only been getting more and more confused
oki
yeah the other n<=2 are easier to visualize though haha
Take an \infty-category C, treat is as a quasicategory. A fibrant replacement is like C[C^-1], yes?
You have inverted all the arrows
So I suppose that given a set of edges W of C, the pushout Ex^infty(D) <- D -> C is the localization C[W^-1], where D is the faithful subcategory generated by W?
OK, this is exactly what Lurie does in HTT 5.2.7. The point is fibrant replacement has a fully faithful right adjoint, given by assigning to a quasicategory its core
So Maps(C[W^-1], X) = Maps(Ex^infty(D), X) x_Maps(C, X) Maps(C, X) = Maps(D, Core(X)) x_Maps(C, X) Maps(C, X). A map C[W^-1] -> X is a map C -> X which sends all the arrows in W to the invertible morphisms
I think this is the construction of localization I like the best
And I think the reason this is exactly the same as Dwyer-Kan is as follows. Ex^infty is adjoint to the infinite barycentric subdivision
So a 1-cell in Ex^n(X) is a n-zigzag in X between vertices of X, factoring through various barycenters
2-cells are clearly hammocks between zigzags
@empty grove
What's Ex^n and Ex^infty? 
Ex^infty(X) is a model of a fibrant replacement of X. Define sd^k(Delta^n) to be the k-fold barycentric subdivision of Delta^n
Then define Ex^k(X)[n] = Hom(sd^k(Delta^n), X)
Ex^infty is limit of Ex^k's
Fibrant replacement in the Kan model structure?
Yeah
X -> Ex^infty(X) is a weak equivalence, and Ex^infty(X) is Kan
Nearly by definition
Right yes
Once again, it seems like a blind man trying to understand the geometry of barycentric subdiv
The way people write this stuff I mean
I wasn't directing it at you lol
And can't be bothered rn 
Now I learn how to glue \infty-categories
Oh but that should be dumb, just colimits in SSet
Doubt it, I think you will have to take colimit in SSet and then quasicategorify
Limits should be just limits in SSet
Is Sato's AT book a good introduction to the subject? I don't mind having to fill in details or maybe complementing with other books
never heard of it
Hey, from what I can see one can't do the equivalent for normal spaces, right?
What the actual fuck is paracompactness
😭
most of this proof is gibberish to me
Hold on lemme get more specific
spamakin
I understand the statement of the theorem (I think) but is there a better proof out there?
or can someone explain at least a couple of the points above (pick your favorite)
This is a theorem I have always blackboxed
Paracompactness is only important for this theorem. I would say to not worry about it too much until you actually need to know this proof.
okee
Just remember paracompactness = have partition of unity
paracompactness is pretty much defined in such a way as to make partitions of unity work, for instance in your point 5) note that the function g is defined by a possibly infinite sum, however since the subcovering is locally finite, when you evaluate g(x) at any x you are actually summing the finitely many g_\alpha's that are supported in a nhood containing x.
the reason why one cares about paracompactness is because e.g. topological manifolds are paracompact
actually there might be a better explained proof of that result you posted on Lee's ITM
or ISM for the smooth mfold. case
and cw complexes
and about this sure -- one often defines "regular" as T_0+T_3, and "normal" as T_1+T_4. You can find spaces that are T_0 and T_4 but not T_1
I'll look at this
On a nonhausdorff topology, what do I need to have something like relative position of two points in a plane? e.g., x is above, below, to the side, to the left of y, etc.
how is this a corollary from just this:
and what does it mean for the fundamental group to be a homotopy invariant of pointed spaces (in the first photo)
it means that homotopy equivalent spaces have the same fundamental group
with gusto
gusto?
this is a good exercise
oh wow, i just figured out its on the exercise sheet, i thought it was an immediate corollary
I find 1 a bit weirdly worded
like in corollary 9.19?
"Is a homotopy invariant of pointed spaces" when usually homotopy equivalences of pointed spaces would be... pointed
like this is stronger
yeh, i find the wording a bit misleading too
But eh it says "hence" so nvm but still subtly different
Doesn't this need path connectedness anyway?
truly one should only ever work with pointed spaces
Wait I need to check lol
pi_1(X,x) only depends on the path component of x
Yeah this is true and any htpy equivalence would restrict to one of the corresponding path components of the poitns ig
Why did we always assume path connectedness in what I saw
Oh okay I guess it's so that they can justify omitting basepoints from notation (though the change of basepoint isomorphisms aren't canonical so eh)
taps sign
what if i have a space and i don't know whether it's empty or not
bad space
Freely adjoin one
theres a reason a pointed space is called a based space
Every space has trivial homotopy groups.
so im currently wrestling with the difference between simplicial and singular homology rn (following hatcher's book)
my understanding currently is that in simplicial homology, you form the chain groups by first defining a triangulation on ur space that follows a bunch of rules
on the other hand in singular homology, any sort of simplex in your space is fair game
You got it ✓
thanks
i'm also trying to understand the precise definition of a delta-complex structure that hatcher defines
i've done a bunch of exercises already so i have an intuitive understanding of what rules they need to follow; for example you can't just identify all edges to a point or smth like that
what would be some examples of delta-complex-like-but-not-quite structures on a topological space
that violate each of these rules?
It might make it easier if I give another equivalent definition of a delta complex
It is like a CW complex, except that instead of disks, you attach simplices, and instead of arbitrary continuous maps as attaching maps, the attaching maps must map every face of the simplex that you are attaching "homeomorphically" onto one of the lower dimensional simplex
I put homeomorphically in quotes because it is not exactly it, let me come back to that
But basically the additional thing that you are allowed to do with CW complexes is that you don't need the attaching maps to respect the cells at all, only the skeleton. So your attaching maps can wind around a cell any number of times, can go halfway across the cell and come back etc (think of RP^2, where the attaching map for the 2-cell winds around the unique 1-cell twice).
So the precise condition on the attaching map from the boundary of Delta^n to the (n-1)-skeleton is as follows. Of course, it should be continuous. Then if you restrict this attaching map to a face of Delta^n, which is homeomorphic to Delta^(n-1), this should give you the "inclusion" of one of the (n-1)-simplices into the (n-1)-skeleton.
Again, inclusion is in quotes because an (n-1)-simplex need not inject into the simplicial complex. For example, a circle can be constructed from a single 0-cell (a point) and then attaching a 1-cell to it by mapping both of its end points to this 0-cell. Then there is a natural map from the 1-cell into the circle, which I am calling the inclusion, but it is not injective.
So basically any CW complex lol
hmmmmm ok
still trying to wrap my head around what exactly this inclusion is
ill draw an example
Sure
Its boundary is not attaching to the 1-skeleton
That is a requirement for both Delta complexes and CW complexes
There should be an attaching map from the boundary of the simplex that you are attaching to the 1-skeleton to begin with
i see
By attaching a simplex along an attaching map, I mean that you take the disjoint union of the complex you have till that point with this new simplex, and identify the points on the boundary of this new simplex with their images under the attaching map.
So there is always a natural map from a simplex in a Delta complex to the Delta complex: include the simplex into the above disjoint union and then apply the quotient map.
Note that this natural map will always be a homeomorphism on the interior - the only quotienting happened at the boundary of the simplex, and the interior of the simplex just includes into the Delta complex
Any point in the interior of this simplex will not appear in the interior of any other simplex - the only gluing that could happen for a point in the interior is a higher dimensional simplex gluing to it, but in that case, that point would be on the boundary of the higher dimensional simplex rather than in the interior.
This tells you how this definition and the given one are related. What I just said in the last message is (i) in the given definition. (ii) is part of the definition I gave anyway, and (iii) is saying that the Delta complex has the quotient topology after you glue each new simplex.
hmm ok, so (i) is going to be violated if u attach two k-simplices to a (k-1)-skeleton in a way where their interiors intersect each other
Yep
for (ii), what im thinking about in particular
is the CW complex on S2
where u take a point (the 0-skeleton)
and then u immediately attach a 2-cell to it
by identifying the boundary of that 2-cell to that point
Yes


