#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 21 of 1
yeah but i was confus
rather, the proof confused me
statement is easy enough to grasp but i dont fully see it
ok well really simple question first
nvm i answered it 
ok what does it mean for a restriction to have odd degree
It means that the map S^1 -> S^1 has odd degree
Oh okay
Well if you've done fundamental group of S^1, then you'll see that uh
so every (pointed) map S^1 -> S^1 is homotopic to (exactly) one of the maps z -> z^k
where k is the degree
So yes degree k <=> "going around" k times
mildly tangential but is the proof fundamental group of circle worth fully understanding or can i shelve it
It's very fundamental and I'd definitely recommend you understand it well
Which proof were you given - using covering spaces?
(was it the hatcher proof?)
not hatcher yes covering spaces
Ah okay
Well yes it sort of falls out fairly easily out of general covering space theory
So it might become more intuitive if/when you do more
Like, I remember finding the proof in Hatcher slightly ad hoc, but then eventually once you've done more covering spaces it seems more natural
why is he using i and apologising for it when he could just use another letter like anyone else would 
Anyway, so I think the proof is easier to comprehend if you kinda step back and think about the parts rather than getting bogged down in the proof
The point is that
- any path in S^1 can be lifted to a path in R. This is actually the easier bit, in a sense - you're just getting local parametrisations of the path (since S^1 locally just looks like R) and stitching them together. The intuition is that how far you travel in R corresponds to how much an angle you go through - though we'll need to prove this.
- any homotopy between paths can be lifted to a homotopy between the lifted paths
- paths are homotopic in S^1 iff the lifted paths end at the same place - this basically formalises what we talked about in 1)
- Note that every path must lift to a path ending at some integer, so 1-3 show that in fact we have a bijection between Z and π1(S^1), with the path "going round" n times (homotopy class of z -> z^n) corresponding to the integer n
- Then we just need to check the group structture, but this is straightforward
- there was actually the easy question i answered for myself lol
Ah ok
that's super helpful tho, thank you 
Phew lol
But yeah the point is that 1) - 4) are standard properties of covering spaces (well 3) needs a simply connected one) but computing the group structure can be a bit messy in general
i'll settle for the high level understanding for now
(Also like, actually telling whether a given covering space is simply connected can be tricky enough i guess)
Yeah I mean in S^1 it's nice cause the proofs boil down to cutting up stuff a lil
It's a lil harder in general because S^1 is compact which is nice
I'm trying to compute $H^*(\mathbb R P^{\infty}; \mathbb Z_{2k})$, but I am having a little bit of trouble
OmnipresentCoffee
I think I've shown that the three left hand vertical maps here are multiplication by k so the top right map is multiplication by k
with i = 1
but I dont see how to extract the cohomology ring structur from this commutative diagram now
old question at this point but - does it suffice then to consider a specific restriction and show the contradiction for that one?
✅
I understand the computation H*(RP^n; Z/2) but this is for coefficients in Z/2kZ for fixed k > 0. I feel like the argument shouldnt change much at all but I cant seem to make it work
this is an exercise from hatcher lol
is it trivially true that a restriction of an antipodal map is also antipodal
what is the intuition for E and C being homotopic
is it enough to consider the number of holes in each subspace of R2
what are E and C
literally just E and C
oh oh gotcha, just subsets of R^2

my question is bc "Squishing" is super vague
like to get E from C we have to pull the middle part out
and theyre not homeomorphic obv
Homotopic is more for maps - I'd say homotopy equivalent
potato you know this?
E and C are both just homotopy equivalent to a point (= contractible)
🥔
i see this my b
is it sufficient to say that B is in a homotopy (equivalence?) class of its own since it has two holes
Hi, guys, If Y\subset X is a subset, then closure(Y) = Y_1\cup Y_2, where Y_1, Y_2 are closed in X and non empty, then why Y_1\cap Y is not empty?
(edit: please ignore this comment, it's not correct)
I don't think that's true in general
consider X = R the real line, Y = [1, 2], Y_1 = [ -3, -1], Y_2 = [ 1, 3]
for this can i say that the difference is being retractable to a point, to a circle, and to two circles
that's correct
the union of Y_1 and Y_2 here is not Y
wait is it retractable or contractable?
you're right sorry, I misunderstood the equality by a containment
Thank you!
What if Y_1, Y_2\subset closure(Y)?
did you need Y_1 and Y_2 to be disjoint as well?
I'm thinking of X = R the real line, Y = (0, 1), Y_1 = {0}, Y_2 = [ 0, 1]
not necessarily disjoint
sorry, i did not say the statement completely
i wish to show that if closure(Y) is reducible, then Y is reducible
i can see that if cl(Y) = Y_1\cup Y_2, then Y = (Y_1\cap Y)\cup (Y_2\cap Y), but i have no idea how to show that these are non-empty
if Y were equal to Y_1 \cap Y, then Y would be contained in Y_1. it would follow that the closure of Y is contained in Y_1, but...
I see, Thank you!
and, for completeness, the same argument goes through with 2 in place of 1 to show that Y_2 intersects Y
why is B not homeomorphic to, say C
oh wait one sec
i know it's obvious from looking at it
i was gonna say that there was a point in B at which we could cut to get two line segments
but the middle part of B is a whole line, not a point, my B 
ok i wanted to say that B is in its own class bc it is the only letter where we can remove any point and still havea connected space
but this is also true for D and O
then i want to say it'd be only one with a closed loop after removing any point
but removing the middle left point of the B gives and E if im not mistaken
Yeah also uh (general fact about graphs actually) every letter is homotopy equivalent to a wedge of circles
i realized as much but havent learned wedge sums
yeah it just means you take two circles and attach them at a point
like figure 8
Anyway you can then just see which of thosee each is htpy equivalent to
and indeed B is a figure 8, in fact the only one i guess
yeah it is the only one
Hm I now have my own topology question lol
i think im just hesitating on how rigorous i should be to show that certain letters arent in the same equiv. class
cuz it's obvious B isn't to L
but maybe less obvious for like A and P
Well you won't be able to actually do it without invoking smth non-trivial, like the fundamental group of the circle
Well
i was trying to do a "removing a point means that...." kinda thing for all of them but it probably wont suffice
I'd honestly just use the graph thing I mentioned
Fit them into 3 boxes, then show those 3 boxes are distinct
:)
So like it boils down to showing *, O and 8 are not homotopy equivalent
... which is non-trivial
ive been trying to avoid that bc part b of the question is to show that theyre not homotopy equivalent
and i say exactly that
yeh
aylguakjygblakjhb sorry
all good 
Yes then do the remove a point argument
i have the classes down
Nice
Well, tbf, if they aren't homotopy equivalent then they aren't homeomorphic
so you might as well do that to save time
(also easier imo)
but it doesnt distinguish all of them
like A and O are in the same homotopy equivalence class but not homeomorphism
Yeah sure, then I guess I'd just deal with the remaining cases more individually hm
Okay nvm yeah sure there must be casework for quick a lot
okay I have my own q too if das okay oop
Reading this proof for Atiyah Duality - here X is a compact smooth mfd with boundary. How does it follow that X/bd X is homotopy equivalent to X u C(bd X)?
It's clear for nice examples from a picture, but I want to be more convinced lol
like up to homotopy it just seems to be like this (so X some mfd and then join up the boundaries and form a cone; X u C(δX) is homotopy equivalent to X/δX cause we can just "slide up" the edges, intuitively, or mod out the contractible space C(δX)?)
bourbakist spotted
Hmm no I dont think so
I'm okay w being geometric when it is clear why it is true aha
like R^2 minus n points and wedge of n circles or smty
Yeah
I mean I guess this is kinda clear, you’re like providing a pathway from the boundary to a single point. The homotopy equivalence should be given by the nullhomotopy of the cone, but since the cone is attached to the boundary, this is the same as collapsing the boundary
So you just move through the cone
Ye
But like for example uh
How should I map X/bd X to X u C(bd X)
Clearly I must take a map X -> X u Cbd X sending bd Z to the tip
but idk how to justify extending it in a nice way
Other than like playing around w collars or smth oof
Ye hmm
Pain.
Where max
I looked it up and three resources I found all just state this
lol
my friends keep telling me to just chatgpt my homework 
Man.
though tbh it just feels cool to be at a point in math where some questions just arent google-able
i think that feeling of "cool" will fade after another all nighter or two tho
That does not feel cool atm for me!
.
ye aha
it's like learning to drive, it's cool for the first few months you can do it but it quickly becomes annoying
I forget driving is a thing
same i tend to just instantly teleport whenever i wanna go somewhere
Just be somewhere where everything you need is < half hour walk
Tbh potato I’m extremely tired and can’t think right now, but maybe something along these lines will help: a map from a mapping cone, say f: C —> X where C is the mapping cone of g: C_1 —> C_0, corresponds to a map h:C_0 —> X and a nullhomotopy of the composite hg. I am too tired for this but it smells loke something of this form isk
No sebb it’s fine, just ask
Ye mapping cone was smth I considered but like
Hm
Idk
Pain!
My notation is horrible lol sorry I couldn’t fogure it anything better
Ye tbh I would’ve read that, drawn a picture, and moved on lmfao
you can say there's a choice you can make of two points of B so that the space remains connected after removing them, but if you remove two points of A or of O they would necessarily become disconnected
OK nvm I think I've fixed it
Like fixed your question or something lol?
Or an answer to a previous question you answered idk
repost from earlier but how can i use degree to show this
shouldn't the restriction to S¹ have degree 1?
does it depend on the actual map?
like should i pick a specific map, restrict it, and use that?
you can't find a map, that's the point
how would you "pick" a map?
at least that's how im starting
ok assuming there's a map lol
i guess first of all, why is the hint true
how does odd degree conflict with mapping over a disk
ok 1 is an odd number lol


contradiction is you found a retraction of S¹ in D²
idk how to get it tho
oh lol extend it through f
odd degree should imply degree is not 0 so image of S¹ is surjective
and f| upper hemisphere gives you a retraction
circle to disk cant be surjective right
agh
can't be bijective btw

try proving it🌚
The current time for stμ₂dying is 02:39 AM (EST) on Tue, 14/02/2023.
i just wanna get this and pass out
wdym by this th
i was starting the other way
like suppose such an f: S2 -> S1 exists
and restrict that to S1
okay then
Do someone know how i get from the first line to second ?
both of those integrals are integrals over subintervals of [0, 2] (after relevant change in variables) and the integrand is positive, so it is each less than the integral over the whole interval
Any hints on how to show that the whitehead product of $f\in \pi_1X,g \in \pi_n X$ is given by $f_* g - g$?
dadaurs
Its obvious for n=1 and I tried showing that [f,g]+ g coincides with f_* g but I get stuck because I dont have any nice description of the action of pi_1 on pi_n
Im tempted to just describe the attaching map S^n -> S^1v S^n but this feels very cumbersome
My idea was maybe to use the fact p is continuous and surjective to recover U as the image of the disjoint union of each V_alpha by the restriction of p, so we would maybe get a separation of U, that is connected.
But I saw something in M.Se about showing V_alpha are actually connected components of the pre-image so that "uniqueless" follow directly, but I can only see this argument working if the other partitions were contained in a maximal partition, because connected components are maximal subsets so that it is connected and their disjoint union is the entire set.
wdym by “the partition is unique”
there is only one
these slices can be thought as a stack of pancakes, as Munkres said
each of the same size as the set you're covering under p
so are you saying each slice is equivalent to every other slice?
Yeah, but I'm not sure if this was just an example or if it is a general definition for the slices
I'll find it in a minute and share
also, for the question, I don't think we actually need showing p is a covering map, in the sense that for every b in B, there is a neighborhood U of b that is evenly covered by p.
also I don't know if we can say something about the pre-images under each restriction are connected because even though connectedness is preserved under homeomorphisms, the other way is not clear for me.

Nvm I got it
each restriction of $p$ to a given $V_\alpha$ is a homeomorphism, so if U is connected, each of the $V_\alpha$ is also connected. so you can indeed say that the $V_\alpha$ are simply the connected components of the preimage of $U$ under $p$
notabohr

I thought doing this but I was not completely sure if it would be correct, thank you!
is an open cover itself an open set because the union of an arbitrary number of open sets is open?
An open cover is a set of open sets (satisfying a property), not an open set
so would the union of an open cover be open then?
I mean, by definition it'll be the entire space, which is always open in itself
is this sigma unique?
i.e. can each lift be the interior of a different surface?
I feel like it is?
well maybe not, lmao
but it does say the page
not an open set, an open cover is a collection of open sets with the property that the union of its elements is the entire space

Yes
if by fibration they mean a locally trivial fibration, then it would need to be unique, since the base of the fibration is connected.
now I think this is the most difficult exercise unless we just need to use the conditions of the theorem as given
I have to show that if X is Hausdorff, the general version of Ascoli's theorem implies the classical version
there is another theorem preceding this section that shows the uniform topology contains the compact convergence topology. If X is compact, then they are the same
this is interesting because being compact implies being locally compact, so having it together with Hausdorff implies the converse of the general version

Suppose $(X, \mathscr{T})$ is a top sp with basis $\mathscr{B}$, and $(Y, \mathscr{T}')$ is a top sp. If $B \in \mathscr{B} \implies B \in \mathscr{T}'$, then $\mathscr{T} \subseteq \mathscr{T}'$.
michαel
does this proof work?
Suppose U is in T. Then U = a union of basis elements is in T. Since each B in the basis is in T', then the union of basis elements is in T'.
Yes this works. I'm guessing you probably meant X = Y here.
In the definition of an open cover for compactness, is the union of the open cover a countable union?
i.e. is an open cover a countably family of sets?
oh okay, thanks
no, but if you have an open cover which have a countable subcover of your set, that is, the countable union over this countable subcover is still your entire space, then you call it a Lindelöf space
a special case of it is compactness, where the subcover is finite
every open cover has a countable subcover you mean
yeah, forgot to mention every
but yes

and there is countable compactness which says every countable cover has a finite subcover
you introduce this term just to say
a space is compact iff it is countably compact and lindelof
to flex on people 
lol
How should I approach showing that the set of bounded functions in $\b{R}^{\b{R}}$ is not closed in the compact convergence topology?
\bR
thanks
SubGui
anyways
my idea was to show there is a unbounded function f such that has a sequence of limited functions f_n that converges on a compact subspace of R^R, that is a complete metric space, to f
that is, these functions should be converging to a limit point in the set of bounded functions to a function that is outside that set, hence not closed
Take anything like f_n(x) = max(n, |x|)

I saw a hint in M.Se about taking f(x) = x² and f_n(x) = max{x², n}
so it may do it as well
I'll try doing it tomorrow, thanks
this is, in principle, the same example

hi i need some help with this problem. this is kinda like a rough idea of what i got so far and im not sure if its entirely right. any advice?
This would be more clear if you gave a more explicit description of W. I suspect your self doubt comes from the fact that you don't know exactly what W is or why it exists, maybe work on giving a clear description of it?
let $W = f(f_{1}^{-1}(U)){}$ $W \subset X \times Y{}$
rakki
would this work?
I don't know why that would be open.
A question is the line y=mx+b an open set?
never
Not in R^2 no
My interpretation is that given an open ball on the line y=mx+b in R^{2}, with center (x_{1},y_{2}) and radius r>0 with the usual (Euclidean) norm, the points or the elements of the ball are not contained in the line
weather it's open depends on the topology you're using yeah?
would the sequence a_n=(n) on N with the cofinite topology serve as a counterexample for T1 spaces that do not have unique limits?
as a_n would converge to literally every point
choose any n_0 then for all n>=n_0 a_n is in {n| n>=n0}
this would show that it converges to n_0
is this reasoning enough? tysm
yeah
if a quotient map is not injective, does that mean that all subsets of the codomain are open? because the quotient map doesnt have an inverse?
no?
I like how much of motivic homotopy seems to be "a similar result holds in topological homotopy theory, so we will cross our fingers and hope for the best"
are you saying a domain of a quotient map has discrete topology? as "all subsets of the codomain are open"?
Seems similar to going from vector spaces to modules
a subset of the codomain is defined to be open if the preimage is open, if the quotient map isnt injective, then it doesnt have an inverse therefore doesnt have preimages
no
the preimage can be defined without having an inverse function.
$$ f^{-1}(A) \coloneqq { x \in D(f) : f(x) \in A }$$
got it thanks
Can someone explain the two phenomena that the author is talking about here?
By drawing a picture or something
think of the x axis as manifold M and the section to be graph on M x Rⁿ
The one where two zeroes cancel each other out
imagine pulling out the curve out of there
Here combine and split are really the same (combine is the opposite of split)
Since the author says "they cancel each other out", I think he means something else
I.E. two zeroes becoming 0 zeroes
Actually I think it’s counting multiplicity as well
Then it’s just cancelling 2 zeros in that case the first pic I sent is wrong
Hmmm then why not consider multiplicity higher than two as well?
You can
Also, then how would one splitting into two zeroes work if we account for multiplicity?
Because the way we were doing it earlier, we were basically pulling down on a quadratic
Not sure
The way he talks about splitting makes me think that we are not counting multiplicity
Because there is no way for one zero to split into 2 zeroes that way
(using small homotopies)
Since it will locally look like a strictly decreasing/increasing curve
I think it's this and the quadratic being pulled down
Prolly
Though even then, he's ignoring 0 zeroes becoming one zero
Maybe read ahead. Might be clarified later
The last paragraph makes me think that there should be a way to cancel zeroes 2 zeroes without first reducing to 1 zero
The last paragraph suggests that even for sections traversal with the zero section, there is some possibility of zeroes cancelling each other out
Okay, I'm fairly certain its these two
For the second one, we lift the left bulge and lower the right bulge such that they both hit the 0 section "at the same time" (at this point, we'll have infinitely many 0 sections), but then they would cancel each other out
Hello, I'm trying to solve an exercise from Hatcher and getting stuck. Can I ask about it here?
So I'm trying to show that the homomorphisms $f_, g_ $ onto the reduced homology groups will be equal for two homotopic maps $f, g$. This result has an elaborate proof in the case of the 'usual' homology groups.
adi
I feel like I'm missing something, though. Isn't this totally obvious? For $n>0$, the reduced homology groups are exactly equal to the usual ones, so basically the same proof will follow. For $n=0$, we basically have the relation $H_0(X)=\widetilde{H}0(X) \bigoplus \mathbb{Z}$. Again, using the fact that $f, g_ $ agree on $H_0(X)$, doesn't it follow trivially that it must on the reduced zero homology group as well?
adi
i forgot how to do bigger tildes. anyway there's supposed to be one on the RHS hom group
\widetilde maybe
do someone know why i can say u_1 = x? i thought i have just need to normalize both function like u_1 = f(x_1)/||f(x_1)||; u_2 = f(x_2)/||f(x_2)||
This doesn't seem very topolog-y... so many numbers 
always wrong 
this is more like linear algebra
i guess its not clear that A oplus Z = B oplus Z implies A = B. also i don't think (maybe this is wrong) the reduced homology groups fit into a chain complex so the usual proof by constructing the prism operators won't work for the n=0 case
can I also suppose X is compact? so then it is locally compact, the converse holds and it is also in the condition for both theorems
Idk. What are you doing anyway
a x b is the point (a, b), and c x d is the point (c, d), so this interval is all the points between them satisfying either a < c or a = c and b < d, just as in the images
Want to show that the general version of Ascoli's theorem implies the classical version when X is Hausdorff, it is an exercise from Munkres as well
i still dont get how this is supposed to be an interval
what do you not understand?
the idea that you can construct an interval using (axb, cxd)
how do you define “greater” for a cartesian product
"consider the set R x R in the dictionary order"
to the right or up, in this case
oh i see now
the first diagram confused me because i thought it was discrete
thanks 
I'm trying to prove that the curve defined by y=1/x is closed in R². I got some help here on how to do it efficiently.
I was just hoping to verify that my reasoning was sufficient or if I was missing anything obvious
Sorry if referencing all those propositions are distracting btw. It's a habit to help me remember all the rules
Proving f(x, y)=xy was continuous everywhere was another chore. I was wondering if there's a handy way to do it other than epslion-delta proof in the L^inf metric. I mirrored the proof for product of limits of two functions R->R.
This is how I would do it tbh, seems good
As for multiplication being continuous, eh I'd just do the epsilontics - it shouldn't be bad and I kinda doubt you'd have to reprove this in a topology course right
this way was far too clever for me. Topological continuity still isn't intuitive to me
I should probable study real analysis first.
Oh lol
I mean some real analysis is good for providing motivation/context for stuff in topology sure though you don't really need much to actually do it technically
Could you just give this a skim and say "oof this is too long" or "That's about what the proof should look like"
fair
I'm more of a minimalist when it comes to this, since when I come back to proofs, I like to see what they are about
here the only real difficulty is to write a bound for |xy-tz|
but if you want to write a very precise, formal proof like this, then its okay of course
I'd just focus on the main points is all, but its more like a, style of writing things
Could I use this continuity of f(x, y)=yz to prove continuity of g(x)*h(x) for two real-valued functions?
yep, if g and h are continuous of course
you compose x to (x, x) with (x, y) to (g(x), h(y)) and then (x, y) to xy
It's wild. The concept of product topology is so simple, but there's so much you can do with it
so first we use the diagonal map is continuous, then we use that the map from (x, y) to (g(x), h(y)) is continuous, which essentially boils down to (x, y) to g(x) and (x, y) to h(y) being continuous, which are compositions of projections (x, y) to x and x to g(x), similarly for the other one
and then that multiplication is continuous
makes perfect sense. Exactly what I was thinking too, so I'm glad that's coming together finally.
I'm guessing I can easily do the same with other binary functions like x+y and x/y
Just need to finish up these exercises then I can finally move on to Hausdorff condition and connected spaces
huzzah
the best way to show a map is continuous, and the most satisfying one, is to just use that its composition of continuous maps and/or using properties of quotient maps
This was how I originally did continuity of f/g
Proved 1/x, was continuous, then composed to 1/g continuous, so product f*1/g is continuous (considering domain of course).
That's why I found this so interesting. Also why I wanted to show f(x, y)=xy is continuous, to get g(x)*h(x) continuous for free
The inequality for |xy-tz| is also important for another reason
the exact same inequality you'll be making when showing that in a Banach space, multiplication by scalars is continuous for example
ig its more like, an argument which can be replicated
what isd toplohu
toplohu isd teh sutdy off shaeps udnre cnotinous dfemortion
Unless it's differential toplohu. In which case it is the study of indices.
Am I having a stroke
wtf
the disjoint union of uncountably many of R, is this an infinite dimensional manifold?
no that's not a manifold (if your definition requires 2nd countability)
true
but is it locally euclidean, in which case to what dimensional space is it LE to?
lets say you have (1,7) and (2,7) in an open subsets and 1,2 are the indices, where does the chart map them to?
i guess i shouldve posted this in differential geometry
first of all do you know the topology of the disjoint union?
also what's your definition of LE? I think you are messing up the definition
LE means locally euclidean, also the topology of a disjoint union is just the disjoint union of open subsets of each component set
also locally euclidean means in this case that each open subset in the disjoint union is homeomorphic to an open subset in R
@coarse night
what did i get wrong
I mean define locally euclidean for me
what are the open sets
elements in the topology, which are subsets of the space, the space itself must be an open set, the empty set, and unions and intersections of open sets must be open sets
my earlier question was if you have 2 of the same points in a disjoint union with different indices, where would those points get mapped by the homeomorphism on a neighborhood that contains those points
Locally euclidean means each pt has a nbd that is homeomorphic to an open sunset of IRⁿ.
you are chasing after wrong def
got it
im currently struggling to prove that if $$A \subset cl(B)$$ is connected, then $$A \cap B$$ is connected
What if X is a circle, A the complement of a point, and B the complement of a different point
What have you tried?
damn, i guess the claim isn't true then
the specific case im working with is
suppose that A is a connected subspace of the closed half-plane cl(H)
then, i want to show that A \cap H is connected in H, where H is the open half plane
That's not true either, say A is the graph of y=|x|
nooooooo
If $A\subseteq B\subseteq \overline{A}$ and $A$ is connected, then $B$ is connected
Blitz
is what you can prove
right i have that result so far
but like
say im trying to
characterize all connected subsets of the closed half plane
i split it up into cases
say if A subset H (the open half-plane), this is easy
same with if A subset boundary(H)
but if A intersects both H and boundary(H)
and is connected
how do i characterize its form
only using the result that every set between a connected set and its closure is connected
this is like trying to characterize all connected subsets of R^2
which is pretty much impossible as far as I know
ok, so lets consider R instead
those are precisely intervals
thats true, but im stuck on how to prove that
in the case that the connected set intersects both the origin and the right half-line
If x < y are elements of this set, and x < z < y, then if z isn't in that set, {a < z} and {a > z} make it into two disjoint open parts
so x < z < y implies z is in that set
you can now try to see why this has to be an interval
(empty or degenerate interval counts too)
ahh ok
call this set A, then (infA, supA) is contained in A
and A is contained in [infA, supA]
so A must be an interval
in the standard sense
of being an interval in R
(some people define intervals by the property that x, y in A and x < z < y implies z in A, also called convex sets)
i see i see
Someone said I should name my HW exercises to better recall them (if they show up enough)
For example, I should calls this Exercise 5.1: Reverse Triangle Inequality
This one, surprisingly, shows up a few times
But I have no idea what to name it. I was wondering if this is some common property that you topologists have a name for
maybe reverse triangle inequality 🙂
notice what you are doing for the second is
d(x, z) + d(y, t)
which is bigger than
|d(x, y) - d(y, z)| + |d(y, z) - d(z, t)| by the previous exercise
which is bigger than the absolute value of the sum
|d(x, y) - d(z, t)|
Ah that's a cool way of proving it
But yeah I'm not a fan of calling it the same thing as 5.1
This was my proof before
And you made it this, @stark fog
I love it

hey so lets say i have a disjoint union between R twice, then the subset of the union that only contains the elements of the first R is an open subset and simultaneously a closed subset right?
yes
is it possible for an uncountable number of unions of disjoint sets with countable cardinality, to have a countable cardinality?
after further thought it seems that the answer is obviously no
take them all to be empty
How to prove precisely that a connected and locally path-connected space is path-connected?
show a path component is both open and closed
@soft stump
say M is the ambient space.
around each point x in M there is an open neighborhood Nx of x for which Nx is path-connected. this forms an open cover of your space M.
fix x,y in M. as M is connected, there is a finite chain of open sets Nx, N1, …, Nn, Ny linking x and y. now connect line segments and voila, your space is path connected.
Let (X, d) be a metric space and call f: X -> X a contraction if
d(f(x), f(y)) <= α * d(x, y) for some α < 1.
I want to show that if X is compact and f is a contraction, it has a unique fixed point.
The hint says to define f^1 = f and f^{n+1} = f ◦ f^n and consider the intersection of the sets A_n = f^n(X)
so if I let A be the intersection of all A_n, it should be true that f(A) = A, but I don't fully see this
like to show that f(A) ⊂ A, I let f(x), f(y) ∈ f(A) (for some x, y ∈ A) but then I am stuck
geometrically it makes sense (it's a "shrinking" map after all)
huh it's a problem straight out of munkres (28.7)
compact metric spaces are complete
...i'm fairly sure this is just a general thing that happens when you iterate a function like that
if something is in A, it's in each A_n, therefore in each A_(n+1) = f(A_n), therefore in f(A)
if something is in f(A), it's in each A_(n+1), and in A_0 because that's just the whole space (alternatively "in A_1 = f(X) because it's an output of f" if you want 1-based indexing), therefore in A
Ok that makes sense
I was trying to show that f(Y) ⊂ Y for any Y, which I think is true but is harder
doesn't seem true to me
if that is true for all singleton Y the map has to be the identity no?
why would there be finitely many nbd connecting x and y?
oh yea true
it can be shown that a space is connected if and only if for every open cover and any two points x and y there is a finite chain connecting x and y in that open cover

my fav def of connectedness
okay it's a consequence of connectedness
any idea how to show A is nonempty? Uniqueness is easy
x ~ y if there are finitely many elements of the open cover connecting them is an open eqv relation.
you need to use something about compactness
you need complete metric space for this to hold
I know if the A_n are compact then A must be too, but showing (for example) that A_1 = f(X) is compact is kinda hard
🤨
send the problem statement from the book
I hope you know continuous functions map compact sets to compact sets?
wait f might not be continuous
X is compact so it's image under cts map must also be _____
look at the definition for f
or are you talking about the identity map
yeah f shrinks stuff
for it to be continuous I gotta show the preimage of every open set is open
look
f is given as a contraction map, a definition that relates distances between two pts to their distance under f
work with epsilon deltas
really easy
literally what I thought when I searched this theorem 
metric space is compact iff it is complete and totally bounded
Oh open balls get smaller basically
image of an open ball is contained in that open ball
is that always true? a translated open ball, maybe
so given an x ∈ X and eps > 0, if I want an open ball centered at x whose image is contained in the open ball of radius eps centered at f(x), I can just choose the ball of radius delta = eps
yes you can do that
ok so f is continuous, then all the A_n are compact
yes
A is a subset of each A_i, so if I show that A is closed in any of them then I will have shown it is compact
oh I thought this part would be easy
uhh
why do you want to show A is compact again?
idk it seems helpful tho
wait I know that each A_i is nonempty (since its always the image of some set under f) so this means that A is nonempty at least
wait, isn't this + showing uniqueness enough then?
why does that mean A is nonempty?
because the A_n are decreasing subsets
so at worst the intersection is like A_{inf}
ah shit this feels shaky
oh wait
apparently in metric spaces compact implies closed
Yes, indeed that is a good thing to try to prove yourself
you only need hausdorffness in fact
it is like the 3rd result about compactness that is proven in munkres
ok I proved it I think
I am very curious why you are attempting a random problem from section 28 while not knowing about the fundamental results from the 2 chapters preceding it, but I guess it's up to taste
I read over it before, but it was a while back
Also lol p sure the stuff on contraction mappings in the exercises of munk are very inefficiently done for some reason
Let X be a connected, locally path connected, semi locally simply connected space. A connected n-sheeted covering of X yields a homomorphism pi_1(X, x) -> S_n whose image acts transitively on {1,...,n} via the monodromy action. Explicitly, the action is defined by lifting an element of the fundamental group to a path based at x_i and looking at the endpoint of the path. I'm having trouble going in the other direction.
More specifically, given a map pi_1(X) -> S_n whose image acts transitively on {1,...,n}, I want to construct a connected n-sheeted cover of X such that the monodromy action on the fibers over a point correspond to the given homomorphism. The idea I have in mind is to let H < pi_1(X) be the stabilizer of 1 under the induced action and consider the covering space corresponding to H. However, I'm not sure how to explicitly show that the action here recovers the homomorphism, or if this is even the right approach
Have you studied analysis or metric space theory? Do you have intuition for these theorems in the case of R^n or perhaps a function space
i did analysis
(some)
listened to dami and used schroder (up to 5.1 rn)
@plain raven i dont have intuition for what im reading in R^n or have an idea of what function spaces are though
schroder only did analysis in R so far
Do you know what it means for a sequence of functions {f_n} to converge uniformly to a function f
it is literally the same idea for a sequence of points, but now for every point x in your space, you show that your functions are as close as you wish (epsilon) from f after some term in the sequence (N)
This might be a dumb question
But in proving
A space is path connected if it has a deformation retract that is path connected say A is the def retract of X
Do I assume for sake of triviality that my two points I want to adjoin lie in X \ A right otherwise it’d be trivial
And am I using the homotpy between X and A to take a point in X send it to a point in A then path connect that with a point then map this end point back to X using the homotpy ?
Yeah that sounds reasonable
But there's no need to make that assumption anyway, since the homotopy will always give you a path into A
Yeah though I assume youd be allowed to use path components which eould give a faster proof
Like this can be written more concisely but if fine as is
Yeah I mean really it'd enough to show every point is connected to a point in A
maybe I'm having a brain fart here but why isn't every space compact?
the definitions I'm using:
like can't we choose A = { X }
by definition X is open in X
every open covering needs a finite subcover
not just one
for every open cover there is a finite subcover
so the second definition is a proper subset?
what?
what do you mean with finite subcover
a subset of the cover which is finite
"every open covering of X contains a finite subcollection that also covers X"
it would feel good
no it wouldn't
pick the indiscrete topology on any set
that's compact
pick the discrete topology on any set
that's not compact when the set is infinite
why?
why is { X } not an open cover
EVERY open cover is in the def
the only open covers of the trivial topology are { X } and { 0, X }
yes
{ X } is a finite subset of both
yes
so why is it not compact?
illuminator i think you need to read more carefully
.
actually like, take in what the words mean
indiscrete = trivial
Is the map S^n to a point a fibration
isn't the map X -> * always a fibration
how do I find an explicit homotopy from R2 \ two points to the figure 8 ?!?
I can surely visualize it but finding the explicit map is a bit tough
do i think of the figure 8 as S1 x x_0 U x_0 x S1 for this purpose?
I personally think the easiest way is to embed in the plane in the easiest way (like circles radius 1 around (0,1) and (0,-1) say)
is there an intuitive way to think about van Kampen thm
Yes, it's more or less how the proof works
oop am i interrupting
It probs OK lol
idk if yall were talking about van kampen i just got here
also wikipedia has a defn in terms of a diagram commuting, but in my notes i have something about the product of fundamental groups
im probably missing sumn stupid tho, i was about to doze off for this lecture and am now paying the price
Free product
is that a complete statement of the thm? that for sets w a path connected intersection, the fundamental group of the whole space = the free product of those sets' fundamental groups?
or sorry no
X = U \cup V
U \cap V path connected
wiki defn
so what im asking is if the following statement is equivalent to that picture : for a topological space X = U \cup V where U and V have a path connected intersection, pi(X) = pi(U) * pi(V)
also prof mentioned a universal property but no mention of it in wiki article
ok im just dumb and hadnt read properly, answered my own first question
potato probably gave me the biggest sigh when he read my question
@odd flame it's not a free product in general, you need this so called amalgamated free product
if all of the intersections U_i\cap U_j are simply connected then you're just getting a free product
I guess if your space is nice enough you should be able to find a cover by enough open subsets so that these intersections are all simply connected, it's just that you usually make your life harder by doing this
@elfin geyserb my class defined it in terms of group presentations which is quite useful and a lot clearer imo
you take the generators and relations from pi(U1) and pi(U2), and add a relation such that the induced homs. from the inclusions:
i : U1 \cap U2 -> U1 -> X, j : U1 \cap U2 -> U2 -> X
agree on their actions of generators of pi(U1 \cap U2), that is the relation such that i_*[c] = j*[c] for some generator [c] of pi(U1 \cap U2)
sorry for the wrong ping
you can express this as $$\pi_1(X) = \langle G_{\pi_1(U_1)} \cup G_{\pi_1(U_2)} | R_{\pi_1(U_1)} \cup R_{\pi_1(U_2)} \cup R\rangle$$ where $G_H$ is the generators of the group $H$, $R_H$ is the relations on group $H$, and $R$ is the set of relations as mentioned above
maximo
Ye so if you look at the diagram, this is a pushout (I’m saying this because you seemed to learn cat stuff before but didn’t recognize this maybe). The way I think about it (which is standard but nobody said this yet by the looks of it) is that there might be nontrivial loops in the intersection, which can be viewed as loops in both subspaces. Therefore you need to quotient that out so that you don’t overcount in the free product
Hello, I'm confused about a lemma (2.10) in Hatcher's K-theory book. It just says that if A, a subset of X, is contractible, then the map q collapsing A induces an isomorphism in Vect^n.
The proof is basically immediate if we use classifying spaces, which he had introduced. Am I missing something?
I don't think it is immediate from classifying spaces because q is not necessarily a homotopy equivalence
It is if A → X is a cofibration
Nope. X = closure of topologist's sine curve, and A = the vertical line part of it.
:(
X/A is path connected while X isn't
It will be true if A → X is a relative cell complex, so eg A is a subcomplex of a CW complex X
Because this is a special case of a cofibration
I see
Okay, that settles my question. Now the inclusion of A in X u CA is a cofibration, right?
Ah
Wait when working over hausdorff spaces, aren’t cofibrations closed inclusions?
Yes but the converse is not true
Here is a counterexample 
Oh sorry misread
A lazy question:
If we have i : A --> X a cofibration, then we get a Puppe sequence A --> X --> X/A --> SA --> SX --> ..., and we then get an exact sequence in Vect^n. Does this immediately give us the exact sequence in reduced K?
I think it should
Ye
BU is the colim of the BU(n)'s
And when X is compact, a map X → BU will factor through some BU(n)
Sensible, I guess the still-unintuitive part for me is how such a map gives us a vector bundle
It's beautiful that it does

By the way, if X is an infinite dimensional CW complex, is there an exact sequence or something relating K(lim X_n) with colim K(X_n)? I think there is for ordinary cohomology
nvm I get it
I don't think that will be true for ordinary cohomology. Maybe you mean sequential colimit? In that case it will be true for ordinary homology that
H_*(colim X_n) = colim(H_*(X_n)
It will be true for ordinary cohomology in specific cases that
H^*(colim X_n) = lim(H^*(X_n))
For example if the coefficients are from a field or when the cochain complexes satisfy the Mittag Leffler condition
Maybe there will be a sufficient condition on the spaces X_n that guarantees that the Mittag Leffler condition is satisfied by the tower of their cochain complexes
Yeah, I imagined there will be a lim1 thing
I confuse colimits/limits a lot! Yes, I meant sequential colimits
To drop the fancy terminology, I want to compute K(X) from K(X^n), the X^n being a filtration of X
One way to do that would be to use the Atiyah-Hirzebruch spectral sequence
Not sure otherwise, but depending on the filtration, you might be able to pull some clutching function magic
Let me look it up
Could you elaborate?
Like maybe you could use the filtration to come up with a cover of X by simpler spaces
I don't know how that could work
Like the cover of the sphere by 2 disks
Not sure how you could go from the filtration to that but maybe if the filtration is simple enough it might be possible
Aha
What about classifying spaces?
A map f : X --> BU can be thought of as a bunch of compatible maps f_n : X^n --> BU
what's the difference between quasicompact, compact, compact and hausdorff
quasi-compact = compact
but you're just emphasizing non-hausdorff-ness
earlier topological spaces were all defined to be hausdorff, and compact meant compact+hausdorff
which is why there is this weird definition clash
ah ok
this comm alg book is only using quasicompact and "compact and hausdorff" which got me confused
thanks det
This is only at the point set level - a sequential colimit at the point set level need not be one in the homotopy category.
weird
no wonder you were confused
Ohh, S^infinity!
Thanks again
By the way, do you have a reference for homotopy (co)limits?
Not sure why that is an example lol
I haven't thought it through, just the fact that it is contractible
Strom's modern classical homotopy theory gives a very good intuitive explanation. Riehl's categorical homotopy theory does a good job with the more abstract theory.
there's also dugger's "a primer on homotopy colimits"
True, nice visual intuition for what homotopy colimits look like

What are these emotes toki 
lmfao


im being asked to show that a retract of a contractible space is contractible
i can visualize this easily enough if the "contraction point" (idk if this is actual terminology but i hope it's obv what i mean) is in the retract, but what if it's not
or do we have the a contractible space is contractible to any point in the space
i dont think that's true, simply bc the defn i have says "for some x \in X, 1_x = C_x"
only a hint would be nice btw pls, no ans 
If A is a retract of X, then you know that id_X is homotopic to a constant map say c(x) = x_0. Say that this homotopy is given by H. Can you modify H in someway? There’s only one reasonable thing to do here and it will be the correct one.
restrict H : I x X -> X to only I x A?
A being a retract of X gives you a map r : X —> A. Could we do something with that?
oh, composition of those maps gives I x X -> A
possibly sill question: does a retract of a space always exist?
ok does a retract to a proper subset always exist
That would be equivalent to asking could you always find a subspace A of X and a continuous map r : X —> A such that the inclusion is a right-inverse for r.
Okay, for example, the inclusion of a non-compact subset into a compact space can never admit a retraction
For purely point-set-theoretic reasons
i can intuitively understand the defn of a contractible space (continuously deformed to a point)
but how does this translate to the formal defn of 1_x = C_x for some x
Well if you think about the definition it’s quite intuitive. You have a homotopy H : X \times I —> X such that H(x, 0) = x and H(x, 1) = x_0. So loosely speaking as time passes by you’re ”squishing” your space to x_0.
think about what "homotopy equivalent to a point" would mean instead
on the CW approximation section in Hatcher, the process Hatcher describes for constructing CW complex Z and a weak homotopy equivalence Z -> X is inductive. I'm a little confused on how you can get isomorphisms on all homotopy groups this way, as opposed to just finitely many?
okay, im guessing if you can do it for every finite case, then there is some categorical limiting argument to get the general case, but Hatcher doesn't explicitly mention it.
does anyone have a good motivation for chain complexes? i think once we get to singular homology i will understand it better but i'm trying to motivate it
The topological motivation will be clear from basically the first lecture on simplicial/singular homology (the singular n-simplices together with the boundary operators form a chain complex), but in general, chain complexes are themselves algebraic objects, and a lot of useful algebraic manipulations can be made with them.
For example, every chain complex has a sequence of homology groups. Also, you can make sense of homomorphisms between complexes, as well as kernel, image, and exact sequences of chain complexes, and every such short exact sequence gives you a long exact sequence in homology. The long exact sequence is basically the most basic computational tool in (co)homology.
i guess i’m just not getting why we want d^2 = 0
its equivalent to say that im d_{n+1} \subset ker d_n. This allows you to take the quotient ker(d_n)/im(d_{n+1}) =: H_n
you can't define homology without it
np
If you think of simplicial homology this also makes sense: the groups in your chain complex allow you to detect n-simplices. If you look at n= 1, then you’re looking at line segments. Chaining these line segments appropriately gives you cycles and you’d like these to allow you to detect holes. When does a cycle not contain a hole? When, if you “fill it up”, you get another chain of simplices, but this time 2-simplices (ie you get a triangulated polygon). This happens when your cycle is the boundary of a 2-chain. Thus on quotienting by the image of the boundary map you only consider 1-chains that contain holes. d^2=0 comes naturally for homology in topology then, and if we want to generalize the tools of chain complexes it is natural to include this condition since without our homology groups wouldn’t even be defined.
This is informal but it’s the motivation I think
Might be worth reading/skimming the first few pages in Hatcher in between 2 and 2.1. It’s basically what Narwhal said but with pictures etc
When can you assume that an open cover of an open subset of a space is exactly equal to the subset?
thats very vague
What's vague about it?
for one it doesn't make sense for an open cover to be "equal" to an open subset
I can't see an interpretation under which the answer would be yes - could you let us know what you have in mind?
Like, X is an open subset of the space X, so your question seems to ask "when can we assume an open cover of X is {X}"
To which the answer is, basically never
Clearly, I meant the union of the cover.
I think this holds if X is compact.
Maybe the issue is the different definitions of a cover of a subset?
Since you can take the finite subcover, intersect it with the desired set, and that should be an open cover whose union is equal to the subset.
Like whether the union contains the subset (potentially strictly) or whether it is equal to it?
Equal. Open covers, by definition, contain the covered set, right?
If you want X to be compact using the trivial open cover {X}, then X might be finite
but I really think this is not possible, like, the open cover should be subsets of X
not X entirely
Yeah, we can think of covers internally and externally I guess
For a subspace Y of X, we can think of an open cover of Y as any family of open sets in Y whose union is Y
or we can think of it as any family of open sets in X whose union contains Y
which in practice boils down to the same thing as, as by definition of subspace topology, any open set in Y is an intersection of open set in X and Y
I mean. If the topology isn't indiscrete, then there's always an open cover which is not {X}
You could ask what if we can take a subcover such that no two elements of the cover are contained in each other
and when is it always the trivial cover {X}
I mean you'd have to take unions of chains in such construction ig
maybe it holds when the lattice of the topology is a directed set
Is R^n \ {closed set} always connected?
I think not since in R we can take away a disjoint union of two closed intervals?
no - R^2 and R x [0, 1]
or remove a circle from it
Or, more generally, take two disjoint open balls in X= R^n, let U be their union and then X \ U is closed with U= X \ (X \ U) disconnected
helo brofib
helo
so with SW duality stuffs basically the ting I've been kinda stuck on is like
So there seem to be a few different ways to define duals and stuff, like the original notion had these n-duals D_n X for like X where you embed it as a polyhedron in S^n and consider S^n - X right
But then you can also use the Spanier-Whitehead category and like have duals in the like symmetric-monoidal sense, like
whats with all the people saying hello today
oh you did it first
dual of X being a space Y with maps like S^0 -> X \smash Y and X \smash Y -> S^0 and so forth right such that this composition ting is the change of factors map on X \smash Y
And what I'm finding bruh is like linking the two together
Hopkins does this stuff but then cites Hatcher as his source, lol, which evidently isn't correct right
what is the problem?
Oh so like
How does one link up duality in the "abstract" way like this
With the complements of spheres stuffs
the complements of spheres stuff is just a construction of a dual
Cause basically I am reading through Atiyah duality and it seems the easiest way to understand it for my purposes is just to give up on duality in this sense and just think in terms of lol hom(X,Y) = hom(DY,DX)
but ye
Yeahh hm
I guess perhaps my question really then becomes like, lol, is there any good place to see this done more properly thta you know of
hatcher does alexander duality
Ideally I suppose I'd work inside an actual stable homotopy category rather than the SW category, but rn I'm trying to do that
perhaps ig yee I mean alexander duality is ok
hm
Okay maybe my issue is too specific to my case (like wanting to work in the SW category but do it like Hopkins) ig lol
Like, one weird thing is that it seems originally people didn't care so much about keeping track of suspensions and stuffs
here there's the desuspension of A appearing in the formula whereas Atiyah etc don't use that lol
Yeah sorry I dont know a good source. There should be a desuspension somewhere if you try to use atiyah to recover SW or alexander
Yee dw hm
Just gonna email Hopkins jk
But thank you
I am basically trying to write up on this stuff for an expository article but might be easiest to just blackbox
I am still a bit confused by what exactly the question is
OK tbh now my question is just
Where can I find a proof of this lol
But ye dw if you don't know lol
a proof of the alexander step?
Can we make use of Alexander duality here, somehow, to get a general answer?
If X = our closed set is sitting in S^n instead, then S^n - X is connected iff reduced H_(n-1) of X vanishes
Naturally we should take the one-point compactification..
Well like just the details more generally - I'm fine blackboxing alexander anyway for these things as I've seen it before
every time i read a book where i struggle through a chapter or two on point set topology i feel like im learning it all for the first time again
why is it like this
Just takes time to get used to the subject; don't be afraid to keep rereading a particularly confusing section multiple times and look for examples before moving on
Point set topology can be really confusing
Let f : R^n --> R^n be an continuous open map and B ⊆ R^n an open ball and U a bounded component of f^{-1}(B). Show that f(U) = B.
How can we show this equality? For y in f(U) we have that y = f(x) for x in U. Now we need to show that y = f(x) in B which is equivalent to showing that x in f^{-1}(B), but it's not clear how to proceed from here. Also I'm not sure where I need to use that f is open and that U is a bounded component?
how do I show the complement of a compact contractible subspace of R^2 is connected?
i know under stereo proj this is the same as a compact subset of S^2
and I have the Borsuk lemma to use
Maybe show it’s path-connected? A compact contractible space would probably deform retract to a ball and I guess it wouldn’t be hard to show that R^n minus a ball is path-connected? Just an idea, I could be totally off here.
🤔
i know if X is compact and a,b \in S^2 amd f: X \to S^2 \ {a,b} is continuous and if a,b lie in same component of S^2 \ f(X) then f is nullhomotpic and conversely if f is 1-1 and nullhomotpic then a,b lie in the same component
of S^2 \ f(X)
so what i was thinking was could i define the identity map on my compact subset of S^2 then since its 1-1 and is nullhomotpic then...
a,b lie in same component and as they were arbitrary the complement is connected as it has a single component?
something like that
guys a little help here if A=int(A)
I already proved that int(A)CA, now I need to test the other containment and I did it like this
If $y$notin $A$, then there can be no $\epsilon>0$ such that $B(y,\epsilon)$ is contained in $A$. Otherwise, there would exist points in $A$ arbitrarily close to $y$, which would mean that $y$ is an accumulation point of $A$. But since $y$notin $A$, it cannot be an accumulation point of $A$, which implies that there is no ball $B(y,\epsilon)$ contained in $A$.
Awuita Fria
This is only true if A is open, so I’m not sure what’s happening here
yeah, A is open if and only if A = int(A)
I think
and I don't think you need accumulation points for showing this
So what would be a simpler way to demonstrate it?
would these two shapes be the same?
If $X$ is equal to the interior of $X$, then for every $x \in X$, there exists a positive real number $\epsilon$ such that the open ball $B(x,\epsilon)$ is completely contained in $X$. That is, every point in $X$ is an interior point of $X$. Then, $X$ satisfies the definition of being an open set.
Awuita Fria

X = int X = union (all opens sets contained in X)
but the union of arbitrarily many open sets is open thus X is open
all you have to show is that other inclusion given X is open
I mean X is a subset of Int X
oh
thank you for the answer
im confused by this first paragraph here (from the CW approximation section in hatcher)
how could injectivity fail on pi_{k-1} after attaching k-cells to A?
Suppose $f : A \to X$ induces an injective map $f_* : \pi_{k-1}(A) \to \pi_{k-1}(X)$. Attach $k$-cells to $A$ to get a space $B \supset A$ and an extension $\overline f : B \to X$ of $f$.
Let $\varphi \in \ker(\pi_{k-1}(B) \xrightarrow{\overline f_} \pi_{k-1}(X))$. Then by cellular approximation $\varphi(S^{k-1}) \subset B^{(k-1)} \subset A$, so $\varphi \in \ker f_ = 0$ and therefore $\varphi$ is null homotopic.
kxrider
this "proof" seems to contradict hatcher
Hello, I have a question about spheres in n dimensional euclidian space, it is known as S^(n-1)
My question is, why is the sphere one dimension lower?
Or in other words, could someone explain how you could describe a sphere in n-1 dimensional coordinates while in a n dimensional euclidian space?
the n in S^n refers to the dimension of the sphere, not the dimension of the space it's embedded in
Yup I know that,
we could have redefined notation so that e.g. S^3 is the sphere that lives in R^3, but then S^3 would have dimension 2 and that's kinda undesirable
Ya my question is, why is the sphere one dimension lower?
because that's the convention that everyone chose?
maybe they mean "why is it one dimension lower than the space it is naturally embedded in"
Yes, thank you, also sorry for the confusion caused if there were some.
it's usually preferable to talk about a space independent of its embeddings into other spaces
the notation should reflect this
Yup I understand this, but this doesn’t really answer my question.
Maybe I should phrase it differently, for example in R^3,
the unit sphere can be described by 3 coordinates, I know that doesn’t mean its 3 dimensional, because its 2 dimensional apparently.
So my question is how do we describe the 3 sphere using two coordinates,
Yup
you can't find a set of 2 coordinates for the whole sphere, but you can find local coordinates for smaller portions of it if you like
for example you can remove one point from the sphere and get coordinates on what is left using stereographic projection
But this comment from math stack exchange says that all points on the surface of a 3 sphere can be represented using two coordinates
locally this is true
but you can't do this globally over the entire sphere
"dimension viewed as a manifold" here means locally you can find that number of coordinates
Oh then you are probably right, I haven’t learned about locally or globally, ill just read more first and then go back to this.
a manifold is something that can be covered by "charts" (so some collection of subsets) and each of these has coordinates
you can cover the sphere S^2 with two charts
for example take one set to be the sphere minus the north pole
and take the other set to be the sphere minus the south pole
the two together cover the whole sphere
on each of these two sets you can define some coordinates
and on the overlaps you can translate between one set of coordinates and the other
Oh I also haven’t learned about charts or manifolds, this is way beyond me as Im just studying the “Infinitely large napkin by Evan Chen” a pdf introducing olympiad math high schoolers to harder math.
I will take a screenshot of this, and ill try to understand this when I read about it, thanks a lot for your effort, much appreciated
like if one set of coordinates is centered at the north pole (this is your "origin") then the south pole is out at infinity in these coordinates
conversely if the other set of coordinates is centered at the south pole then the north pole is out at infinity in these coordinates
in each case you've had to leave a point out, so you don't get global coordinates of the sphere
but if you're an ant standing on the surface of the earth, at least locally everything looks flat
even if globally there's something more interesting going on
Ah its like standing on a sphere and from that perspective, the sphere is flat so you only need two dimensions to describe the points around it, but you require 3 coordinates to describe the entire sphere, is this what you are trying to say?
right that's exactly it



