#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 11 of 1
For example, to make a circle, you can start with [0,1] and glue it’s endpoints together
You’ll have a partition like {{x} : x in (0,1)} \cup {{0,1}}
This cylinder construction you’ve given is basically this, except you are forming a circle on each fiber of the square
Sure, intuition makes sense. For the circle example, how do you conclude a circle is being formed just from the {{x} : x in…
There is a natural map [0,1] -> S^1 given by e^{2pi i t } which is constant on each element of the partition of the interval.
So it induces a continuous map on the quotient space
And this will be a homeomorphism from the quotient we constructed to the circle
Hm ok if we needed to construct a partition of [0,1] x [0,1] to form something complicated for me like Möbius strip how would I try
Can you guess where (0,0) should be glued? What about (0, 1)?
Prolly same location as in cylinder but how would I twist one side
when are these all "useful"
It can’t be the same location as the cylinder. Otherwise you’ll just get the cylinder
Glue (0,0) to (1,1)
Glue (0,1) to (1,0)
Last one is useful to say that the product is a metric space
First two are useful in functional analysis
Think about what to do for the rest of the point on the edges
The first two are induced by norms on finite dim spaces. Therefore you can use whichever you want whenever it’s convenient
yeah i realized that munkres says soon afterwards that the topology they induce is equivalent to product topology
Even though the norms are equivalent it's still useful to distinguish them. Just not for topology reasons.
im assuming that the definition of convergence is basically the same as one you might find in an analysis course?
like for all points in the sequence, there exists an N s.t for all n > N, subsequent x_n will be contained within some "radius"
or i guess since we dont necessarily have a metric of the space something something nbhd of x_n
A sequence (x_n) is said to converge to a point x if, for every open neighborhood U of x, there is an N such that x_n is in U for all n > N.
I stress "a" because, in a non-Hausdorff space, a sequence could converge to two limits. The classic example is (1/n) in the real line with two origins. A more contrived example is any indiscrete topology, wherein every sequence converges to every point.
Since you were unsure what the definition of convergence should be, you should try to prove that convergent sequences in Hausdorff spaces have unique limits.
The converse is false, though. There are non-Hausdorff spaces in which every convergent sequence has a unique limit, such as the cocountable topology on an uncountable set.
(I googled that one.)
The moral of the story is that all spaces are Hausdorff.
*all spaces are sequential 
All spaces are path connected compact hausdorff
I'm not topology brained enough to know what that means, and I don't want to be.
All of my spaces are smooth manifolds.

Based
LCH BTFO.
me neither and i have an exam in t-minus 12 hours 
sections 19 - 26 of munkres
product metric quotient topology, connectedness and compactness
doesnt sounds like a lot when i say it like that but 
Trying to look back at my old general topology materials and see if there are any good questions that weren't pulled right from Munkers.
... most of them were.
im just reviewing material for now, in about two hours i'll switch to reviewing problems/examples
appreciate it tho
but i'll def be posting goober questions in here
The optional stuff on topological groups might be fun, and you could tackle it since you're posting rings in the algebra channel.
yeah i wanna do that in my free time this weekend 
im literally taking topology and algebra this semester so it's only natural lol
Here's one I remember being tricky. Prove that every infinite Hausdorff space has an infinite discrete subspace.
I think the idea is to do it for metric spaces (easy/easier) and then generalize.
Lee's book Introduction to Topological Manifolds also has nice problems.
It's really more of an introduction to topology through manifolds than a specialized course on manifolds.
Topological manifolds. The second book in that trilogy is the differential topology one.
nice
so yk how for a manifold to be smooth, the transition functions between its overlapping charts must be C^inf or at least C^k? I've seen some people define them as "locally diffeomorphic to R^n" as well
are those two things equivalent?
is it because like composition of differentiable functions is also differentiable?
what is the significance of uniform convergence
oh i guess uniform limit thm looks important
uniform convergence is rly important for many theorems and is a natural way to talk about functions converging
okay do I guess that's true
does that extend to complex manifolds as well?
like instead of transition maps being holomorphic
"locally (holomorphic)homeomorphic between M and C^n"? like the homeomorphisms being holomorphic 
sorry completely unrelated to my last question but i'll go back to that soon - how is a quotient map stronger than contuity?
isnt this first condition just saying that a homeomorphism is a quotient map?
this is weird, so a quotient topology depends on the topology of a space that maps to a set
i guess that makes sense if its a quotient similar to how we think of quotients in algebra
maps aren't necessarily surjective, quotient maps are
no, it implies an injective quotient map would be a homeomorphism
first property there doesn't say anything about homeomorphisms

For the lower limit topology, if you have a function $f: \mathbb{R}{ho} \to \mathbb{R}{ho}$ given by $f(x) = -x$, is the function continuous? person I'm working w/ says no cause w/ an example like $[0, 1)$, you'd get $(-1, 0]$, but I'm not entirely convinced that's true
JesusChristSusan
The function x -> -x is indeed not continuous, when you put the lower limit topology on both the domain and codomain. Why? You have found an open set whose preimage is not open.
how often do maps from compact spaces to hausdorff spaces come up
and how relevant is that consequence that its a closed map
A lot of spaces you work with in point set will end up being compact and or hausdorff, so the answer is probably 'very often'
25 is pretty important in particular
Only all the time
I object, 24 is equally important because it says in particular that it's a quotient map
Oh I mean like it's an important consequence of 24
26 looks interesting, haven't seen it before
Wait no. That just says if f is perfect then preimages of compact sets are compact
So I've seen it before
Just didn't realize
I forgot all those proper/perfect map stuff. Never used it
quotient maps still befuddle me, how does 24 show that
Continuous + open/closed implies quotient map

silly question but what does an open set of the quotient topology look like
it depends on quotient maps right
so it must in turn also depend on the topology of X in p: X -> Y
it's the final topology wrt. to the quotient map
wdym final
the finest topology such that the quotient map is continuous
(i called it "final topology" because this is a concept that can be generalised for families of functions into some fixed space and is called like that)
this gives you that U is open in the quotient space iff. p^-1(U) is open in the parent space where p is the quotient map
In general topology and related areas of mathematics, the final topology (or coinduced, strong, colimit, or inductive topology) on a set
X
,
{\displaystyle X,}
with respect to a family of functions from topological spaces into
X
,
{\displaystyle X,...
in case my explanation is too chaotic 
We are doing topology

ok i'll rephrase - why is an open/closed map not necessarily cont.
Because there are counter-examples to that
Take any bijective continuous function and inverse it for example
are closed/open maps which aren't continuous important? Probably not
The identity map from R-with-the-usual-topology to R-with-the-discrete-topology is open and closed, but not continuous.
yeah, two topologies on the same set, one strictly finer than the other
How do I prove the real projective plane RP^2 is compact. It’s defined as the quotient space obtained by taking the antipodal points of S2 but other than that not sure
As a hint, note that the real projective plane is the image of S^2 under some map, and that S^2 is compact.
is that even a hint lol that is the proof xd
well i suppose you haven't given the map
Nor the theorem used to conclude that RP^2 is compact. But yes. 😆
I have proved before that continuous image of compact space compact. For the map, I’m not sure but could it be mapping opposite points of the 2 sphere to each other
the image of that map is S^2
Use the fact that RP^2 = S^2/~ for some equivalence relation ~. In general, what is the most clear map from A to A/~?
Is there any easy description of the generator of the first nonzero homotopy group of the complex Stiefel manifolds $V_{n-q}(\mathbb C^n)$? (Which Milnor and Stasheff, citing Steenrod, assert is the $(2q+1)$-th one.)
Automorphism
I am reading Steenrod as well, and he gives an explicit description of the generator of the first nonzero homotopy group of the real Stiefel manifolds. But nothing similar for the complex ones.
V_k(C^n)=U(n)/U(n-k), now just use the long exact sequence of homotopy groups
Thanks! What I want is the fact that U(k) acts trivially on the homotopy groups of V_k(C^n). That is just a consequence of the fact that U(k) is connected, right?
I believe so yes
but yeah you're just doing the same thing you do with real Stiefel manifolds replacing orthogonal groups with unitary groups
the homotopy groups of unitary groups are easier than for orthogonal groups
so the answer ends up being a bit simpler 🙂
For orthogonal groups, O(k) does not act trivially on the homotopy groups of V_k(R^n). And that sometimes causes a twist in the bundles of homotopy groups of V_k(E), for E -> X a real vector bundle.
Anyway, thanks!
Prove that if $U_i \subset X_i$ is open, then $\prod_{i=1}^{n}U_i$ is open in $\prod_{i=1}^{n}X_i$. To prove this, do I just pick up an element in $\prod_{i=1}^{n}U_i$ , define the basis element it's in, and show that it's contained in a basis element for $\prod_{i=1}^{n}X_i$?
J.Ross
I don't think I'm following this stuff very clearly lol
how are you defining the product topology
(because under some definitions this is literally by definition)
We've only defined it for finite cartesian products for now, defining the product topology on $\prod_{i=1}^{n}X_i$ by the basis $B_{P} ={\prod_{i=1}^{n}b_i : b_i \in B_i}}$.
J.Ross
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Oh is this like given bases of the X_i
Huh haven't seen someone define it like that since that is basis-dependent lol seems to just complicate it
Oh yes, sorry, each X_i has a respective basis B_i
He's using his own text, which is extremely unfortunate, but I have to roll with it
Ah okay
Then you need to prove that the topology is independent of the basis chosen
He stated this which I suppose makes sense
The "next exercise" is in part asked above
Take $x\in \prod_i U_i$ then $x_i\in U_i$ so $x_i\in B_i\subseteq U_i$ for some $B_i\in \mathcal{B}_i$ so $x\in \prod_i B_i\subseteq \prod_i U_i$ so such products form a basis for product topology
Blitz
Ahhh okay that makes sense
R - {0} in R.
in R if there is any
R in R
other than the set itself
but fr R minus finitely many points is a nice example ^
Ok so we can only remove points
They are.
They are, since the plane/line etc are closed subsets of the space
Ah right i was thinking of the line not being open
okay got itt
the intersection of infinitely many open dense sets is also dense and open?
I guess if you want you can do something like R minus loads of copies of the cantor set and stuff like that lo
Not in general, but for countably many this is Baire's theorem
Yessssss
how do i prove that
Okay sorry good point i didn't see that lol
so it can not be open?
even if its dense?
i know the intesections of infinitely many open sets can not be open, but is it the same when theyre dense
Find an example.
from the examples youve given me it doesnt worj
even if i remove infinitely many itll always stay open
Intersect R - {1/n} for n ranging over the positive integers. These are all open and dense. Is their intersection open?
Dense?
it seems open and dense to me :/
Why do you think it is open?
we're just removing points
and a set of points is always a closed set
so its compliment is open
"A set of points is always a closed set" is completely false.
it needs to contain its limit 0 okay
So you agree that the set I wrote down is not open?
so {1/n} for n going to infinity isnt closed? :/ i am a bit lost now
It is not closed.
is there an intuitive sense for this?
0 is a limit point but it is not in the set.
yep
but its surely dense
nice
got it
thank you
Yeah because R\Q is such set
Yeah. To see this enumerate Q
What an irrational example.
You can remove any other countable set from R too
Baire space is best space
Who doesn't love zero-dimensional Polish spaces
Bear space.
You just walked into the wrong bar.
Trying to describe quotient space D^n/S^{n-1} generally. I know Sn-1 is boundary of Dn so I try to visualize case for n=2. D2 is the unit disk in R2 right and I collapse boundary to a single point
Do I just end up with unit circle in R2
no, you get the 2-sphere
and this generalizes to D^n/S^{n-1} = S^n
The 2 sphere is unit sphere in R3 right
yes
And D2 is unit disk in R2?
yes
How does collapsing boundary of disk end up with S2
see if this answer helps
Yeah image is helpful. How does the bottom half of the circle get constructed
ok i found this animation
Let's define an equivalence relation ~ on a disk (D^2) by stating that any two points on the boundary of a disk are equivalent. Obtained quotient space D^2/~=D^2/S^1 is homeomorphic to a 2-dimensional sphere (S^2).
One can also come up with the explicit quotient map, which is defined in the video.
Thanks makes way more sense. When you “collapse a set to a point” the point is arbitrary right? Like in this example, bottom semi sphere is formed by considering collapsing of boundary to point below and above the disk for example
And quotient space contains set of these collapsed arbitrary points?
i dont really understand your question
the points in the quotient space are equivalence classes
the whole set you collapse is mapped to a single equivalence class, i.e. to a single point in the quotient space
If I have V_n nonempty closed subset of compact space X with V_{n+1} subset Vn for all n in N, how do i show that if intersection of V_n for all n in N is subset of U for open U, V_n subset U for some n
I have proven the intersection is nonempty but not sure if it's useful here
Suppose otherwise , that V_n intersect U^c is non-empty for all n , conclude.
What is the contradiction? V_n intersect U^c should be non empty, no?
If thats the case for all n
Then that would contradict the assumption " intersection of V_n for all n is a subset of U "
can you prove why
Not sure but maybe something to do with X\U closed
To show some set A is not a subset of a open set U its enough to show A intersect U^c is not phi \
Notice if V_no intersect U^c is not phi
then so is intersect Vn for n<=no
Do you see where we are going with this?
Right, I agree and everything makes sense. But I don't see where the contradiction will be. If the intersection of all Vn with U^c is nonempty, we can use earlier result and say that U^c has same characteristics as V_n I think
Dont know what you mean by "U^c has same charachteristics as V_n "
The contradiction is || if V_n is not a subset of U for all n , then V_n intersect U^c is not phi for all n , thus the infinite intersection of Vn has to intersect U^c (because otherwise there is a V_n that is a subset of U), this proves the intersection of Vn for all n is not a subset of U which is against our assumption ||
I see I was being foolish and thinking wrong about hypothesis. Thanks for help
Question about concept of continuity
So it's been a while since my undergrad top course, but I randomly got in the mood to work through some basic stuff.
The short version I recall for what makes a function $f$ continuous is preimage of open is open" which I think means Given some function $f: X \to Y$, $f^-1(Y)= {U \in \tau_X: f(U)=V \in \tau_Y }$. So the preimage of the codomain $Y$ is the set of all open sets of $X$ that also map to open sets of $Y$."
\
\
The intuition I had at the time (and still do) was that what makes this definition capture the notion of continuity is that things that are close" in $Y$ must have come from things that are close" in $X$. And if that's NOT the case, then that means that there are some things that are close" in $X$ that got split" while traveling on their way to $Y$.
Vin
Alrighty, so with this intuition in mind, I'm confused by the function $f: [0, 2\pi) \to S^1$ where $S^1$ is the unit circle in $\mathbb{R}^2$ and $f(\phi)=(cos\phi, sin\phi)$. The claim I've come across is that $f$ is continuous, but it's hard for me to see how this is true. That is, what's close" in $[0,2\pi)$ that is split" apart in $S^1$?
Vin
My gut is that I might be incorrectly believing that the space $[0,2\pi)$ has the usual topology of $(a,b) \in [0,2\pi)$ where $a,b\in \mathbb{R}$ and $0 \leq a < b < 2\pi$.
Vin
What do you know already? Are cosine/sine continuous? How are they defined?
For me... it's kind of obvious
This is literally exp(it)
Which is continuous because exp and multiplication by i are continuous
Or, looking differently, it's continuous because the functions cosine and sine are continuous
We have different equivalent notions of continuity and why would you work with just one, anyway
The preimage definition is good because it's comfortable in lots of arguments, they become purely set-theoretical
So from a metric space sense, sure $sin\phi$ and $cos\phi$ is continuous (ie, open balls and stuff). That's not what I'm after, though
What's I'm trying to grok is which sets of $[0,2\pi)$ don't stay inside of another open set in $S^1$
Vin
again, I think there's something wrong with my assumption that an open set in $[0,2\pi)$ looks like $(a,b) = { x \in [0,2\pi): a < x < b}$
Oh, I think I found it by writing through this. Just need some confirmation that my logic (and more importantly, foundational understanding) doesn't have holes:
Take the coordinate point $(1,0) \in Y = S^1$ and a neighborhood around it $V$ that lies on the unit circle $S^1$ and is arbitrarily close to $(1,0)$ (can't remember how to easily parameterize the interval I'm imagining, but oh well). Then there is no open set in $X = [0,2\pi)$ that maps to $V$ since you need to be on both sides of the coordinate point $(1,0)$ on the unit circle $Y=S^1$.
\
\
For instance, if I grab some small open set $U_1 \in X = [0, 2\pi)$ that's super close to $2\pi$, then the image of $U_1$ under $f$ never grabs the coordinate point $(1,0) \in Y = S^1$. On the other end, if I try using some really small $U_2$ that's close to 0, I run into the same issue. The open set $U_2$ is either not close enough to the lower bound 0 (so it misses the coordinate coordinate point $(1,0)$) or it oversteps like $U_2 = (0 - \epsilon, 0 + \epsilon)$ and falls outside of our space $X= [0,2\pi)$ making it actually not an open set
Vin
In any case, I should probably stop procrastinating on my day job by rehashing topology stuff for fun. I'll check back later to see if someone can confirm/reject my reasoning or intuitions. (Miss my days in uni when there was guaranteed feedback of thinking through this stuff; maybe one day I'll try to utilize Adga or Coq to just check my logic)
This is \emph{not} the topology on $[0,2\pi)$. A set $U$ is open in $[0, 2\pi)$ if $U = [0,2\pi) \cap V$ for some open set $V$ in $\bR$. For example $[0,1) \cup (2, 2\pi)$ is open in $[0,2\pi)$ since $$[0,1) \cup (2, 2\pi) = [0,2\pi) \cap ((-\infty, 1) \cup (2, \infty))$$
So with this in mind, you can think about how to construct an open set of $[0,2\pi)$ whose image is contained in an open nbhd of $(1,0) \in S^1$.
kxrider
Also it seems that your "intuition" that $f$ shouldn't be continuous is actually the intuition for why $f^{-1}$ is not continuous. This is because $f^{-1}$ will take a small connected nbhd of $(1,0)$ and send it to some disconnected set in $[0,2\pi)$.
kxrider
going to bed, but hope that helps clear things up somewhat
I'm confused, where do we use the fact that A_alpha is path-connected?
it doesn't seem like we need it..
It isn't used, but it's nice to assume path-connectedness when you're doing SVK .
I got the capitalization wrong. Seifert-Van Kampen.
That is what Hatcher's doing, right?
The assumption is there because you want the fundamental groups at each point to be isomorphic.
haven't gotten to van kampen's thm yet
this is in the proof that the fundamental group of S^n = 0 if n ≥ 2
This lemma is used in the proof of the theorem as well.
ahh okay
The lemma basically says that the map in van Kampen's theorem is surjective.

Some googling suggests that the path-connectedness assumption is there only to be able to go from the fundamental groupoid version to the fundamental group version.
This is outside my expertise, though.
Yeah I don't think you should need anything to do with path-connectedness of the $A_\alpha$, cause really all we care about is the path components of the $A_\alpha$ containing $x_0$ and that the intersection of those corresponding path components is also path connected. But it doesn't really matter since we could just redefine the $A_\alpha$ to be those components anyway
potato
Yeah in this lemma all you care about is a given basepoint but to be able to move between different basepoints you need those additional path connectivity assumptions
which hatcher just seems to be doing anyway but that's chill
That's what I thought. Nice.
I'm wondering if for y in N subset V, when do we have H_n(V, V-N) -> H_n(V, V-y) induced by inclusion is an isomorphism. I would want something like N deformation retracts onto y, but it's not working out for me yet.
here's what I've tried so far: look at the LES's of the pairs (V, V-N) and (V, V-y). We get a chain map between them via i_*, so I would like to get isomorphisms of H_n(V, V-N) and H_n(V, V-y) by applying the 5-lemma
Joseph
but I don't know if i_* is an isomorphism of H_*(V-N) -> H_*(V-y). Is there a homotopy inverse to the inclusion, given that N deformation retract onto y, or do I need more assumptions?
I guess this will work in manifolds and stuff just by doing a radial projection sorta thing
Nobody
does simplicial homotopy theory get more intuitive or do I just have to think of everything syntactically? lol
Like I'm working through stuff on Kan complexes and homotopy groups etc and I see the analogy to topological spaces but can't really visualise anything (probably unsurprisingly)
Of course, sure thank you :)
potato have you computed a good handful of geometric realizations
Is it true that if a subset of R^n is discrete, then its intersection with every compact set must be finite (and vice versa)? I suppose it would be enough to show that the closure of a discrete subset is discrete, but that doesn't seem to be the case (e.g. take {1/n:n>=1}).
Your first question is yes no, because of your example
yeah sorry my bad
If your set is closed and discrete, then intersection with any compact subset of R^n is finite
If a subspace of R^n is closed and intersections with compact sets are finite, then because it's a K-space, it must be discrete
Not yet
Only rly for simplicial complexes
What's a K-space?
Space which topology is determined by topologies on compact sets
Trying to prove RP^2 compact by using def of RP2 as quotient space obtained by taking antipodal points of S2. If I take open cover, union U_i of RP^2, union f^{-1}(U_i) will be open cover of S2 and S2 compact so we have finite subcover, ig union from i=1 to n f^{-1}(U_i) finite. So i have union from i=1 to n U_i is finite and union of open sets in RP^2 but how do I ensure it actually covers
Note if $S^2 = \bigcup_{i=1}^{n} f^{-1}(U_i)$, then since $f$ is surjective we have $\mathbb{RP}^2 = f(S^2) = f(\bigcup_{i=1}^{n} f^{-1}(U_I)) = \bigcup_{i=1}^{n} f(f(^{-1}(U_i)) = \bigcup_{i=1}^{n} U_i$, where i've used the fact that if $f$ is a surjection then $f(f(^{-1}(U)) = U$
potato
In fact, this proves more generally that the image of a compact space under a continuous map is compact and since quotient maps are surjective, in fact any quotient of a compact space is again compact - which is nice to know
e.g. Mobius strip, Klein bottle and so forth are all compact, being quotients of a square
Clean explanation thank u
I'd like to understand my error on this question
Where I got no right point
Maybe one was true
you might want to give translations of the question and the statements
I think I know where you're from looking at the website lol 
What course is that?
dope np
If X is infinite set with cofinite topology and A subseteq X finite, what is cl(A)
thought cl(a)= empty since only two closed sets are X and empty but it not correct
would make sense if cl(A)=A but idk why empty set wrong
its the cofinite topology. doesn't that mean finite subsets are closed?
Yes
so its not true that the only closed sets are X and the empty set
The closure of a closed set is itself...
Yeah that is dumb so X not closed
Ok yes empty set open and complement
I’ve realized I was thinking A was open
Sorry for bad question thanks for help
its all good npnp
What are some example's of a sequential space that is not Frechet-Urysohn ? 
proof: let x be in the complement --> x is an exterior point of A --> there exists a nbd of x subset of X-A --> N intersect A is phi
what then
this is over a metric space
B_e intersect A is phi --> B_e/2 intersect (AUbd(A)) is also phi
so B_e/2 is a subset of A U bd(A) all complement
so its open
done?
https://dantopology.wordpress.com/2010/06/21/sequential-spaces-i/
See examples. Note that Frechet-Urysohn spaces are precisely the hereditarily sequential spaces
anyone
my bad
And it's a mess
Also, how are you defining the boundary
Under some definitions, this is a triviality for example
points that have nbds that intersect with both A and A complement
Okay sure
alright ile give it a look and come back with any questions
, thank you
hm question, can there be a set with both cluster/limit points and isolated points?
sure
take for example the set [0,1]\cup {3} in R
3 is an isolated point clearly
but [0,1] is closed and in particular contains all its infinitely many limit points
imnotrachel
oh why are there no brackets
you need to do \{\}
this has a limit point that's not in the set
but 100 is an isolated point
every point is isolated, in fact
oh i see so it would need to be in like an interval such as what you put [0,1]
true
what are you trying to achieve imnotrachel
im trying to understand a new concept im learning in real analysis
just got introduced to topology
that was just a question my professor left us to wonder about till next time
he also asked if its possible for a set to be an open set whose complement is not closed
which im not sure what that means entirely
one of the definitions of closed sets is complements of open sets
it might be trickier to see depending on your definitions, but the answer is no
it's impossible
so its impossible because the complement of an open set is closed
does anyone know if the two complexes in Dolbeaut cohomology are chain homotopic up to a shift
as in the ones given by partial and partial bar
this must be super trivial, but I really do not see how the "long equation" involving pullbacks proves that the formal group law is x + y + xy (oops I cropped away the last part, but the last equation says f(x, y) = x + y + xy)
the formal group law is given by the image of the "Thom class" under this map, the induced map characterizing the tensor product of two line bundles, but I don't even see how last expression in the "long equation" in the prev. post lives in the image
I should just go to sleep
also wait, is E^*(point) the same as pi_*(E)?

So I've read that if X is some space then we have a weak homotopy equivalence |Sing(X)| -> X. Is this a nice way to show that cw approximations exist and can be defined functorially? because otherwise i'm surprised i'd not seen it earlier lol
maybe it's just the initial hurdle of defining simplicial sets etc which is the issue
yeah this is proved in may's book on simplicial homotopy theory
This was in my topology homework but I think it's really easy which is, obviously, making me overthink so I just want to check. "Let x be a point in a metric space X, and suppose $r > r_0 > 0$. Show that $B(x,r_0) \subseteq B(x,r)$". I just had as proof: Let $y \in B(x,r_0)$. Then $d(x,y) < r_0$. But $d(x,y) < r_0 < r$, so $d(x,y) < r$, and $y \in B(x,r)$. Eh?
J.Ross
This is fine.
Swick
"A subset U of a metric space (X, d) is open if and only if for every x \in U, there is some B(x,r) \subseteq U, r>0". Don't both implications follow directly from the metric topology having the set of all balls centered at points in X with r>0 as a basis?
Since you were assigned an exercise like the one above, I think you're expected to provide a little bit more detail. But yes, that is the idea.
I would normally say that this is pretty much immediate, but you were assigned a similarly immediate exercise above, so there's probably some expectation of giving all the details.
Oh most definitely, I just wanted to make sure I had a decent intuitive idea first. Thank you for the help! I'll be sure to right it our formally as to why it follows so directly
Which definition for topological spaces is most commonly used?
The one with open sets or the one with neighbourhoods?
Ik theyre equivalent but the open set one is easier to remember
@empty grove sorry for ping but you did stuff like this before right?
not sure what you mean
you can be given a basis of neighbourhoods for each point
Yeah it's just vague as stands imo
not really. Anyway the open sets definition is clearly used more often
Well I've never seen someone define what a topological space is (in general terms) in terms of neighbourhood bases
only specific examples
I think Hausdorff used to define topological spaces in this way, historically
but I haven't seen such definitions myself either
it's archaic
Allright thanks
I still dont fully understand how open sets work. What if the point we are considering the neighbourhood of is at the "margin" of the space? Wouldnt the spherical neighbourhood with epsilon radius "go outside" of the space?
I mean a part of it
Or epsilon has to be in the subset?
You're asking why something like, say, [0, 1/2) is open in [0, 1]
right
there's no problem here
the neighbourhood of 0 in [0, 1] is not the same as neighbourhood of 0 in R
Something like that, yeah. But what of the neighbourhood of 1 in [0;1]?
Cant the neighbor of 1 go over the 1] so like (1; something)?
Thats what I dont understand
same thing
If you're working in a topological space [0, 1], then you forget about everything that R is
3? Doesn't exist for you
well not literally but what I mean is you restrict your view to [0, 1] alone
you can't take subsets outside of your space of interest and claim they are open
And every point in [0,1] has a neighbour there?
where
In that interval
well yes, multiple neighbourhoods
In [0,1]
a whole bunch of them
Ah I see now. Well my confusion them stems from the fact that the book didnt give any example of set
I imagined it worked a bit different then what you tell me
Hi everyone, i have a question that i cant seem to get anywhere with
F:R2 -> R
f(x,y) = x+y^2
Show f is an open map
This should be easy but im stuck
I want to prove its a quotient map by showing its a continuous and open map.
Continuous is simple. But to show its an open map i couldn't
$$f((a, b)\times A) = \bigcup_{y\in A} (a, b)+y^2$$ is open as union of open sets
Blitz
so f is open
yeah. Images have this useful property that $f(\bigcup_i A_i) = \bigcup_i f(A_i)$, which is why it's enough to check it for the basis
Blitz
(saying this for completeness sake)
Would (0,1) be closed then?
in what space
Idk, R?
no
what's the point of this question
I cant think of a closed set, but thats probably because im thinking of the space R^n?
so you just want an example of a closed set?
Yep
take any singleton in R^n
Blitz are you a professor?
Facepalm ensues
you can define it with filters too
bourbaki did it if i'm not mistaken
Im asking because im doing graduate in math, and i still feel inadequate
I thought that if the empty set is open then a singleton would be open
Shit is hard
empty set is open by vacuity/definition
i like introduction to topology based on filters
I have this book topology by h .schubert
But he gives noo examples he only did for metric spaces
do you think i can get it online for free?
hmm
take cofinite topology or product topology
it could be good abstract examples
Ill see what I can scour up
This is the most abstract subject Ive ever studied. The error in my thought was that I saw open sets as subspaces
And I did a lot of mental headcanon
I see
trying to get a grasp of the intuition behind it isn't always good
i understand you
if you associate it with "weak" things like spaces you will lose some of the general intuition sometimes
try to study topology with filters
Wdym with filters?
1 sec
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Filter_(set_theory)#:~:text=A%20filter%20on%20a%20set%20may%20be%20thought%20of%20as,a%20filter%20is%20an%20ideal.
tf is wrong with this link
any topology expert here?
Well, Id catch up on general topology before spicing it up with filters or any sort of variation
If you find a good book.
Which im not sure which one to recommend to you
filter could give you a better grasp of topology
Its fine ill figure it out
But do you see how that could cause me confusion when going back to normal topology?
Yes and no..
with a good book
or a good teacher
maybe you can do the "parallel thinking"
@wispy veldt do you agree with me?
Do you know of a good reference for filters in topology @grizzled ibex? ive been really interested in studying it.
Bourbaki probably
"Bourbaki General Topology"
that's probably your way
@supple heart https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2925070/book-reference-for-topology-can-i-avoid-filters
lol
depending on how much you wanna know, i found a nice handout on ultrafilters & tychonoff a while back
oh yeah, this https://ericmoorhouse.org/handouts/ultrafilters.pdf, short but goes up to like proving tychonoff and introducing stone-cech compactification etc
just like the dude in math.stackexchange said, filters are very powerful.
ig it depends on what you wanna do right
Allr
just give it a try
but in your opinion, what do you think?
wdym
The connection between ultrafilters and various theorems has been a fascinating subject to me recently, i was just about to ask for references on its relation with tychonof lol
is it really necessary? or just very useful in specific topics?
Oh
From what I can tell they are only useful if you have a specialised interested in general topology lol
Oh
Like I've never used them in algebraic topology for anything and when I took my first topology class I was practically dissuaded from learning about them as opposed to smth else
makes sense
In functional analysis nets are indispensable and filters are just cumbersome
But they are nice to understand stuff like Tychonoff for sure and I'm sure they have plenty of applications in general topology lol like blitz will know better
what do u mean?
with cumbersome
I know few applications of filters but it doesn't strike me as the miraculous thing that people are trying to paint it as here
Is this sound enough?
people argue that both nets and filters are good
What are some advantages nets have over filters?
( in the case of topology ofcourse)
is it just easier to work with ( which i assume so from what you said)
neither is easier to work with
both are easier in some circumstances while cumbersome in others
now i understand your opinion
fair enough
no
also it's hard to read if it's not in latex
what you want to take is something like the origin and point (0, 1)
if you just take some point close to the origin, that won't work
can someone explain the counterexample to me
if max|f - g| = 0 then f(x) - g(x) = 0 for all x, so f(x) = g(x) for all x, and so they are the same function
they say that it is enough for f, g to intersect at exactly one point, but then max|f - g| is clearly not 0 right?
The argument in the picture doesn't make much sense. As you say, d(f, g) = 0 does imply f = g.
it doesn't define metric because it's not well-defined
oh like if f diverges and g = 0
it's bonkers, whoever wrote it is wrong
Hi, I I’m currently trying to teach myself abstract algebra and wanted to learn a little bit of topology for fun. I’m completely new to topology and know basically nothing about it, but I wanted to learn a little bit of the basics. Computation wise, where should I start?
Or Topology without tears if you prefer something relatively easier to read: https://www.topologywithouttears.net
or Topology Now! https://www.amazon.com/Topology-Now-Robert-Messer/dp/1470447819 if you want to learn a bit of what "modern" topology research is about. Quoting from one of my profs: It gives you some taste of what part of topology topologists are interested in. Although I personally don't like the writing of it..
Topology is a branch of mathematics packed with intriguing concepts, fascinating geometrical objects, and ingenious methods for studying them. The authors have written this textbook to make the material accessible to undergraduate students without requiring extensive prerequisites in upper-level ...
Or topology: a categorical approach 🤓
Thanks for the suggestions 🙂
How do I prove union A_i for i in I connected if {A_i | i in I} is indexed subfamily of path connected subspaces with each Ai Aj nondisjoint
intuitively makes sense dont know how to rigorously prove. presumably find path connection for union but not sure how
Path connectedness is stronger than mere connectedness. You only have connectedness, so you can't use paths to prove this.
To do it rigorously, start from a separation of the union and get a contradiction.
I've just realized i might have formulated question wrong. I am trying to prove the analogue of this question for path connected spaces where the original was connected. I would guess that this means A_i is indexed subfamily of path connected subspaces instead of connected
any suggestions with this in mind
Start with two points and try to connect them with a path.
Just start to prove it as you normally would and see if you can smell anything.
It seems obvious but idk take x,y in union, then x,y in some U_x and U_y respectively and since U_x, U_y path connected there is probably some way to generate path connection for this union u_x and u_y
There is. Think about it.
Remember your assumption on the intersections of these sets.
Draw a picture if it helps.
In case you haven't gotten it yet, ||there is a point z in the intersection of U_x and U_y. Since U_x is path connected, you can find a path from x to z. Similarly a path from z to y. Concatenate them.||
Yeah i had got it thanks for help
Nope, can't really follow it
topology >computation wise
since you're new I suggest reading about the topology of metric spaces first
I didn't read it myself but I found this book: Topology of Metric Spaces by Kumaresan
Lol nlab has an introduction to point set https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/topology
I’m not saying I’m recommending it btw, I just find it funny
Okay it’s not too much point set in there
This one has a lot more lol
I think that topology of metric spaces is a better starting point as well
Can we phrase hilbert theorem 90 in terms of some classifying space being simply connected?
What
What is your intuition
Are you talking about the theorem on elements of relative norm 1 ?
Yes
H90 says
Group cohomology can be interpreted as the cohomology groups of some Eilenberg-Maclane space
So my intuition is that H90 is equivalent to saying some space is simply connected, but what space is the correct one to consider here?
H1 = 0 doesn't imply simply connecteness
Somehow you should be able to write H^1(Gal,L) = [Gal(L/K),K(1,L*)]
Hey, we just learned about cw complexes in my alg top class and im kinda struggling with the intuition behind it, specifically when you "are allowed" to attach n-cells to your space. The exercise im currently working on requires you to construct the solid torus as a cw complex, i know that you can construct a regular torus by first attaching the endpoints of two 1-cells to a single point and then you can somehow attach a 2-cell to this construction to get your torus, therefore i am tempted to say that we can create a solid torus by attaching the boundary of a 3-cell to this 2-cell so we "fill the inside", but i know this is not the way to do it because the euler characteristic of the solid torus is 0. Im wondering if there is some easy way to see in which cases you can/cannot attach an n-cell, for me even the regular torus is a construction i don't get
you can only add an n-cell by gluing it to the (n-1)-skeleton. with your torus example, you're not allowed to fill the inside with one 3-cell because the two "ends" of the 3-cell would need to glue to each other
just to clarify, you have to glue the n-cell to the (n-1) skeleton by giving a gluing/attaching map from the boundary of the n-cell (an n-1 sphere) to the (n-1) skeleton.
Then, the new space you get is by putting the n-cell down and doing the gluing. In particular, you’ll get that the interior of the n-cell is still homeomorphic before the gluing, it is just the open n-disc. For the solid torus, the volume inside is homotopy equivalent to the circle (you can deformation retract the open solid torus onto its inner circle). If your construction were correct, the open 3-disk and the circle would be homotopy equivalent, which is false.
with regards to seeing how the (hollow) torus is a CW complex
we should talk about how we attach the 2-cell to fill in the skin of the torus
attaching the 2-cell amounts to giving a map from the boundary of the 2-cell (a circle) to the 1-skeleton. Maps from a circle are just loops, and we can write them down by giving a sequence of paths that starts and ends at the same place
in our case we attach the 2-cell via the attaching map which goes first along a, then b, then a backwards, then b backwards
maybe as an aside, but this picture helped me when i was learning about this
(this represents one possible cw structure of the torus)
ooh that’s a really nice picture
Okay, I've seen the notation aba^-1b^-1 being mentioned before for attaching the 2-cell to the 1-skeleton, but because I only saw the picture of the square I didn't really understand why it would look like a torus but now I see why a loop like that is needed, thank you. As for the solid torus, if I were to attach another 2-cell to the 1-skeleton by attaching it only to b then the "inside" of the 2-skeleton you have would basically be a cylinder, right? Then you can attach a 3-cell to it, if I understand correctly
yeah that’s right!
Awesome, thanks alot!!
You are correct.
and can someone give me some example problems on subspace topology and when a given space is open in a subspace or a link to exercises
cool thanks! preparing for a topology midterm and coming up with examples on the fly lol
Munkres probably has what you're looking for in its second chapter.
ive donee those lol but thanks 🙂
A is open in a subspace Y of X if A can be written as Y intersect open sets from X?
You might find what you want here.
The open sets of Y are defined as the intersections of Y and open sets from X, so yes.
To clarify: if $A \subset Y \subset X$, then $A$ is said to be open in $Y$ if there is a $U$ open in $X$ with $A = U\cap Y$.
rakko
Just the definition of the subspace topology.
question
is [-1,0) NOT open in [-2,2] as theres no (a,b) such that (a,b) \cap [-2,2] = [-1,0)
but theeres no open set such that its intersection with [-2,2] is equal to [-1,0)
does the lower limit topology have any particular uses
probably only as an example
this feels extremely trivial, isn't that just the definition of a basis for a topology?
never mind, i guess the intersection property isn't immediately apparent
yes?
it's one of the definitions
I ran across an exercise that requires i show something is a homotopy but im really rusty on this. $h_t(e^{i\theta}) = (e^{i\theta}, e^{i (\theta + t\varepsilon)})$ as a homotopy from $i(e^{i \theta})= (e^{i \theta},e^{i \theta})$ to $f(e^{i\theta}) = (e^{i \theta}, e^{i (\theta + \varepsilon)})$ where these are maps from $S^1$ into $S^1 \times S^1$
*-algebra
is the easiest way to show this thing is continuous really to look at the preimage of open sets in the torus?
maybe i can say im composing continuous functions?
\theta + t\varepsilon into f?
but it's not really a composition is it..
hm
like i am not sure how to "write down on open set of the torus and take the preimage to show it's open"
oh i guess it will have the same preimage as f and i really anyways
can someone share some geometrical insight on why the fundamental group of the torus is abelian. I mean I understand algebraically why it is, but it doesnt feel geometrically that the product of two equiv classes of independent loops should commute
or at least it is hard to believe that the loop which first goes around T^2 vertically and then horizontally is homotopic to doing this in the opposite order
ill take a look 🙂
im also a little confused how to take a derivative of f in the circle
do i do like $df_{e^{i\theta}} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 \ e^{i\varepsilon}\end{pmatrix}$
*-algebra
you just show that h_0 = i and h_1 = f and h_t is continuous, but this is clear as each component function is continuous.. (e^i*theta is constant wrt t so it is cts and e^i(theta + e \epsilon) is cts by basic analysis)
that you can look at the continuity of each component comes from the definition of product topology
i thought it was a mistake for f(x,y) to show that f(x, -) and f(-, y) are continuous separately?
Also i feel like $f(e^{i \theta}) = (e^{i \theta}, e^{i (\theta + \varepsilon)})$ should intersect with ${ (e^{i \theta}, e^{i \theta})}$ but i cant show it
*-algebra
eps is bounded between 0 and 2pi
but these have to intersect right? i can see the picture in my head
there should be 2 points
but i can find them
i think the best way to go is using by the universal property for product topology, h is cts iff both canonical projections are cts
so it suffices to show the two maps pi_1(h_t(e^itheta)) = e^itheta = id is cts ... done and that pi_2(h_t(e^itheta)) = e^i(theta + tepsilon) is cts, here you can take preimages or use composition of cts fns
ok sure
you agree that those two subsets should intersect btw right
these channels are so dead with rakko
btw
@gritty widget https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=nLcr-DWVEto
This video illustrates the proof of the Theorem in the title. The proof goes like this:
Consider a rectangle. Then the path going up the left side of the rectangle and then along the top is homeomorphic to the path going first along the bottom and then up the right side.
Gluing the rectancle to make a torus, this shows that going first a...
this might answer your question though
cant you just solve the system e^itheta = e^itheta' and e^i(theta + epsilon) = e^i(theta' + epsilon)?
thank you!
i figured stackexchange would have the algebra and youtube would have the geometry
thanks logan
i dont think that system works
one is the diagonal of the torus
the other is not
so it's literally $e^{i \theta}= e^{i \tau}$ and $e^{i \theta} = e^{i(\tau + \varepsilon)}$
*-algebra
you get that $e^{i \varepsilon} = 1$ but you can't have that because $0 < \varepsilon < 2\pi$
*-algebra
then the sets cant intersect it seems
these both live on the torus
well im being asked to find the number of points they intersect
lol
so i feel like they must
i guess they really dont..
Hi all, I dont really understand how the last line of the first paragraph of this proof can be concluded
Haven't we only shown that there is an open set in the component C, not that C itself is open?
Note that x was arbitrary. It's a general fact that if a set contains a neighborhood of each of its points, then it is open.
Ah ok, I thought about it being the case for every x, but I thought the author would say something along those lines so I got confused
Thank you!
how do i prove Two closed sets whose intersection is not closed.
i believe this is impossible
and that the intersection is closed, but i do not know where to start the proof
But the intersection of any collection of closed sets is closed.
To prove it, well, you must have a definition of "closed set" to start from.
a set contains all of its limit points
right now, all i can think of is imagining a number line and intersecting two closed sets
hm i think i have an idea
Impossible. Let sets $A,B \subseteq {R}$ then the intersection of the sets would be $A \cap B$ where $\exists x \in A,B$ therefore proving that the intersection is closed contains all of its limit points
imnotrachel
This doesn't prove anything.
There isn't even a discernable logical step here.
I don't even know how to comment on this so I'll instead just say how you actually should prove this.
Start with two closed sets. Consider a limit point of their intersection. Show that the limit point is in each of the sets (and therefore in their intersection).
That's just for the case of two closed sets. The intersection of any arbitrary collection of closed sets will be closed again, but I think it would be good for you to start from the simple two sets case.
oh okay i see, ill try again with this information thank you
today first time i read about nets and i think i cant understand them
are all nets sequences ? or are all sequences nets ? or neither of these is correct ? 😛
nope
example of a net in $\mathbb{R}$ would be something like $x_t = t$ for $t\in [0, 1)$ for example.
Blitz
all sequences are nets though
so nets can be uncountable ?
yep, they can be of any cardinality
oh i see
they just generalize all notions of convergence, because sequential convergence is too weak to capture them
it's not as hard as it seems
also i saw an example like that but t is the rationals in (0,1) in that case couldnt we replace the net with a sequence ?
depends on what you mean
replace, then the question is, for what purpose
the example was that this net with the {1} isnt compact set but all convergent sequences with their limits are compact sets
that's true, this is a one peculiar property of sequences that nets don't share
other than that, they are pretty much the same
but couldnt we replace the above net with a convergent sequence that would have limit 1 and then they would be the same set ?
In what sense?
I'm not sure what you mean by replace here
actually i will try to think about it more and i will come back 😛
You can't order rationals in (0, 1) in such a way, that it forms a sequence, and the sequence is convergent
np
if {A_n} is a finite collection of sets, how do you show that
int(\bigcup_n A_n) \subset \bigcup_n int(A_n)?
im aware this does not hold in the infinite case
Usually you make life easier for yourself and say like
Suppose we have an open set contained in the LHS (when you remove the int I mean). Can you show it is contained in the rhs?
Or actually there are other similar ways
hmm this is that theorem about finitely many open sets' intersection being open right?
Usually a definition / pretty much a definition and here we have unions anyway so I'm not sure what you mean
yeah i guess so
did you mean to do intersections
oh right sorry
Like as it stands I'm pretty sure this always holds
$int(\bigcap_n A_n) \subset \bigcap_n int(A_n)$
CoolShot
Sure
So there are a couple of ways to do it so like
One way is to take any open $U$ contained in $\bigcap_n A_n$ and show that it is contained in the RHS
potato
Another way is to show that $\text{int}(\bigcap_n A_n) \subset \text{int}(A_n)$ for each $n$ and in fact this is easier
potato
Have a go at one of those
hmm let me try the second one
this holds for arbitrary amount of sets
and it just follows from this which is the most optimal way to show this imo
it works
in both cases it's just {0}
for finite amount of sets we have the equality
oh
ok yeah youre right i was able to prove subset in the general case
I have a question regarding my solution verification
Let R_sup have the topology of all intervals of the form (-\infty,a) a \in R union with empty set and R itself
Let f: R_sup -> R_standard be continuous then f is constant
So what I did is suppose f isn’t constant then f(x) \neq f(y) so by Hausdorff ness of R_standard there exists disjoint open neighborhoods of f(x), f(y)
Then their pre images are open by continuity and disjoint
But their pre images under R_sup are NON disjoint
Forcing f to be constant
Does this work
@ me with an answer if you’re helping me 🙂
Try to justify why preimages won’t be disjoint, otherwise looks fine
Thanks 🙏 @coarse night
For any topological space X with f:X to S^n, f continuous and not surjective, how do I show f null homotopic
This is effectively a map from X to R^n
and R^n is contractible
just learned homotopy def today, and I just looked up contractible which seems like quick solution to problem. is there a way to find explicit homotopy between f and constant function
also what is relevance of non surjective in your contractible explanation
it's so that we can treat f as a map into R^n
You might want to clarify that it is because S^n minus a point is homeomorphic to R^n.
Why would I? You already said that
lol
Lol that makes sense
Other than that, any tips on how to explicitly make homotopy between constant and f? want to try even if for practice
But R^n being contractible basically means that something like H(t, x) = tx maps the identity functions to the zero function
and here after the identification with R^n we can also just do H(t, x) = tf(x)
and this is a null-homotopy
Ok seems super simple when explained thanks for help
im confused at the end. when we choose an epsilon > 0 why can we then say that x is in complement of A
oh nvm its a contradiction therefore x is in A complement
im brain dead
what is BWOC supposed to mean? "By way of contradiction" or something? haven't seen that abbreviation before
oh yes my prof does that
actually i do have a question
why exactly does it provide a contradiction
because if x is a limit point of A^c, any open set containing x should intersect A^c. But V_eps(x) lies inside A, so it doesn't intersect A^c, contradicting x being a limit point of A^c
if $A^c$ has a limit point $x$, then the open neighbourhood $V(x,\epsilon)$ contains points of $A^c$. Therefore $x$ can not be an interior point of $A$ and, since $A$ is open, $x\notin A$. Finally $x\in A^c$ and $A^c$ is closed because contains all limit points ($x$ is arbitrary).
José Rosales
ohh okay that is clear. thank you guys
hi! how would i be able to calculate the genus of the Grötzsch graph?
here is some sage code that does this:
G = graphs.GrotzschGraph()
G = Graph(G, sparse=False)
bt = sage.graphs.genus.simple_connected_genus_backtracker(G._backend.c_graph()[0])
bt.genus()```
The genus is 1.
In general computing graph genus is pretty bad, even this sage implementation hangs very badly on reasonably small graphs. But in this case we're okay and we only need to attach one handle to the plane to embed this graph. You should end up with an embedding something like this
Nobody
You also dont need all this C buisness , simply being in B and boundary of A implies A intersect B is none empty by definition of boundary.
I am trying to compute the fundamental group of R^3 \ {S^1 V S^1}, i can do it using van kampen and I see it is Z free product Z, but I cant see what it retracts to or and algebraic way to compute
For example another one which i was able to do was fundamental group of $R^3 \setminus {L_1 \cup L_2 }$ where $L_1$ and $L_2$ are disjoint lines: for this I computed $\pi_1(R^3 \setminus {L_1 \cup L_2 }) = \pi_1(R \times (R^2 \setminus {p ,q}) ) = \pi_1(R) \times \pi_1(R^2 \setminus {p,q}) = 1 \times \pi_1(S^1 V S^1) = \pi_1(S^1) * \pi_1(S^1) = Z * Z$
good point, originally I had a thought somewhat along these lines but for some reason I couldn't formulate it properly
thanks
loganb
i dont see why they become lines? why not two rays?
I'm having trouble proving some things I need for homework:
- I have to show that S^1/~ is homeomorphic to S^1 where ~ identifies antipodal points. This was mostly fine.
I used the continuous function f=z^2 from S^1->S^1 and noticed that since the function takes the same value on antipodal points, you get the unique continuous function h: S^1/~ -> S^1 satisfying f = h o pi where pi is the canonical surjection.
If you let g: S^1->S^1/~ be the multivalued square root function, you can see that h and g are inverses as their compositions are identity maps.
However, I'm having trouble showing that g is actually continuous.
- Let X be the union of the lines y=0 and y=1 in R^2 with the induced topology. Define ~ on X as follows: (x_1, y_1) ~(x_2, y_2) iff x_1=x_2 =/= 0. Is X /~ homeomorphic to X?
I had a bit more trouble deciding on an approach here. X is clearly not connected, and I believe that the decomposition space is connected, but I had trouble actually showing this. If you try a cut point argument, you can say that every point of X is a cut point, and intuitively, no point of X/~ is a cut point, but that seems just as difficult as showing X/~ is connected in the first place. If you use continuous functions to a 2 point discrete space, it just feels a bit unwieldy and I'm just not as familiar with how that interacts with decomposition spaces.
- If f:[0,1]->S^1 is defined by f = e^{2pi i t}, then f is a closed mapping. It seems intuitive, but I couldn't really make any traction on actually proving it.
Any advice would be appreciated! Thanks!
For the first bit, a general thing is that if f: X -> Y is a quotient map and ~ the relation on X given by x ~ y iff f(x) = f(y), then f factors through to give an homeorphism X/~ -> Y
And your map z -> z^2 is automatically a quotient map (think why!)
As for the second, I think you should try checking path connectedness (often it's more easy to prove this than connectedness)
This should be because it's open and continuous (easy to prove because it suffices to check that z->z^2 is open for open intervals). This does bypass a lot of the work I ended up having to do, but just out of curiosity, do you happen to know any sources that prove that the set-valued square root function is continuous?
Uhh I mean I would show continuity by saying it is the inverse of the other one lol
But there is a general theorem which shows ur map is a closed map
so you don't even need to do that check
The same theorem works for 3
Like cts map from compact to hausdorff is closed
I don't think I ever would have thought to use this.
It is really useful for quotient spaces
Especially since many examples you get will be at least one of the two lol
since it means often you can just write down a map and immediately know it is a quotient map
This also definitely seems like a good way to go about it - for two points a,b \in X, you get two cases based on whether or not one of the points is (0,1).
In the first case you let the path be f:t->[(a+t(b-a),0)] and in the second let the path be g:t->[(a+t(b-a),1)]
To show that these paths are continuous you fix some t_0\in[0,1] and take an arbitrary open set U containing f(t_0) or g(t_0). the elements of f(t_0) (or g(t_0)) both have to be interior points of the union of elements of U in the underlying space X, so you can find open balls entirely contained in the union of elements of U centered at the elements of f(t_0) (or g(t_0)). Say the radius of those balls is d. Then by choosing a ball of radius d about t_0, it seems you can prove continuity.
It's still a bit of a hassle to work with arbitrary open sets of a decomposition space, but I think I can get around it now.
Let me know if there are any holes with my argument or simplifications that can be made, and thanks for your thorough help!
yeahh I think you can also define paths by like
Well, you can define paths in X and then compose with the quotient map to get some paths
Then you can glue them together to get more paths (where you may not have been able to glue paths before)
If you do smth like this then you don't have to explicitly talk about open sets and stuff ^
I'm slightly unsure what your proof is doing but perhaps I'm just not thinkign about it properly lol
In class, we were taught a method of representing connected sums of surfaces as attaching (twisted/untwisted) ribbons to a disk.
Is there a name for some formalization of this? I understand it's in the realm of Morse theory, but searching online for that doesn't get me very close to this specific process.
Sure, so in this context, you can show that T#RP2 is homeomorphic to K#RP2 by attaching a twisted ribbon to the second diagram and "moving" where things are attached so it looks like the first diagram.
thank you!
hiii, I'm wondering if anyone could help me with this maybe? I understand that X excludes from R the reciprocals of integers, and I tried mapping some open sets in X to X/~ but so far no luck. Any hints?
Nobody
Nobody
update: now I'm just stuck at proving X/~ is not Hausdorff. Could anyone please give me suggestions to proceed?
Nobody
Could you take a look at my question by any chance? 🥺
Hi guys, a very silly question but I am writing a term paper and am kind of forgetting what was special about this metric and it's name as well (was it Frobenius metric?)
It's basically for the countable product of metric spaces with pn as each individual metric
Nothing, just one of many ways to give metric to the countable product of metric spaces
The only important bit is that the topology generated from it is product topology
maybe you don't know what product topology entails?
just to be safe, it basically means that the convergence in this metric is the point-wise convergence along all the coordinates
Because I counldn't find any good resource on those and how they're important
I wouldn't say they're important, using x/(1+x) is one of the canonical ways to make bounded metrics
but you could just as well use min(x, 1) for that
the idea is, make metrics (uniformly) bounded, say by 1, sum them up with coefficients whose series converges
and it should always give you the same thing
in terms of topology/convergence
np
Frechet is how I know it
If I have X compact Hausdorff with f:X to X continuous and X_n+1 = f(X_n) for all n >/ 0, doesnt intersection from n=0 to infty of X_n nonempty follow by definition of X_n
yes
from finite intersection property
X_n is decreasing, and the members of the sequence are all closed and non-empty
assuming X isn't empty in the first place
thanks that makes sense. I'm also trying to show f(A)=A for what I guess is nonempty subset of X. To do this, first i need to show A_n+1 subset A_n then it gives set of A_n has FIP. From here, how do i show A subseteq f(A) and f(A) subseteq A? If this is right approach
Are A_n iterates of A
I just let A_1=f(X) and A_{n+1}=f(A_n) similar to X
Is A their intersection
yes
inclusion of f(A) in A is obvious for sure
from commutativity of composition of f with powers of itself
sure. I'm not sure for this other inclusion tho
I feel like I saw something similar before. We might need to assume that X is metrizable, not sure
Let's take $x\in A$, then $x = f(x_n)$ for some $x_n\in f^n(X)$. Let's take a convergent subnet $y_\alpha$ of $x_n$ converging to $y$. Then $x = f(y)$. For any $n$, we can find $\beta_n$ such that $y_\alpha \in f^n(X)$ for all $\alpha \geq \beta_n$. Then taking limits, $y\in f^n(X)$ for all $n$. So $y\in A$.
Blitz
Do you need Hausdroff for this ?
yes, for the image to be closed
Actually yes you do otherwise regularity would suffice?
as in regular spaces?
Yes, it’s just something minor nvm
this only uses countable compactness of X, but we still needed compact Hausdorff to show that the intersection is non-empty ig
If you just assume X to be countably compact, then you still get that f(A) = A, just not that it's non-empty
Never heard of subnet, but just looked it up and not sure if I can use this. Is there alternative way to formulate without nets or subnet
you can assume X is metrizable if that bothers you
and take a subsequence instead
Ok ig I'll use that instead thanks for help
In this question I'm asked to consider equivalence relation defined by x~y iff x-y integer and justify what the resulting quotient space is. It is clearly R/Z which I know is homeomorphic to S1 and can show that but idk what exactly question refers to
I can't understand you. What exactly are you bothered by?
You seem to have answered the question just fine.
I don't know what the question is asking. It asks me to justify what the resulting quotient space is. What is there to show to prove quotient space is in fact R/Z?
It is R/Z by definition. The question is rather open-ended, but it probably wants you to prove that R/Z is homeomorphic to S^1.
There is nothing you have to do to prove that it is R/Z.
Ok thanks, thats what I was thinking just wasn't sure
Hiii, I'm wondering if anyone could help me with the last question? We haven't covered enough to prove this, so I guess I only need to state what's the intuition, but I find it hard to visualize this... is this like a cone?
just apply -1 ~ 1 first. can u see what you get then?
a sphere?
like a 2-sphere? nope.
-1 ~ 1 is like pinching two points together on the circle
hmm i don't think so. i think ur overthinking
ah
ur only identifying two points together on the circle
could you just tell me what it is🥺
oh....
then ill let u think about what also identifying i ~ -i comes out to
so how would I describe this thing..
qualitatively its a figure-eight kind of shape. Its generally called "a wedge of two circles"
the wedge sum is just a kind of operation that takes two spaces and identifies them at a single point
are you trying to draw 2 dimensional spheres or something?
not sure what im looking at tbh
no I'm just trying to do what you did again
the bottom-middle one looks kind of like what i drew but its a bit cut off. Not sure what the 4 other drawing are tho
how would you draw it?(sorry I'm not asking you to do my homework I just really can't picture it)

do u mean the 1 ~ -1 and i ~ -i picture?
yeah
the final picture is the desired space
it would be a wedge of four circles
i just drew the intermediate steps to get across the intuition that you are just "pinching" these points together
ummm but why are you associating i, -i with 1 and -1 the same point?
does this look right then?(I'm just moving i and -i together)
yeah, its kinda hard to draw
but its the disjoint union of two circles which are identified at two distinct points
oh yes I think I'll use this description
like taking the figure eight shape and folding it onto itself
sounds good
yeah if you take two disjoint circles and glue one to the other at, say, i and -i as in your picture then there's a map from S^1 into that space given by traversing one circle then the other which should factor through your given quotient to give a homeomorphism
sounds reasonable! thank uuuuu for both of ur help 🙂
excuse me I am new to topology
why {open set} x {open set} is also open in product topological spaces... is it definition or what?
and I found the definition of a "basis" for a topology in Munkres is somehow different from the def in a topology book published later... is there something wrong?
I think it's easier to just think about what a degree 2 cover must look like
If you think of S1 v S1 as a graph with 1 vertex and two oriented edges, then a degree 2 cover ought to have 2 vertices and 4 oriented edges
wait no, that's not how it works
hmm maybe I forgot how this goes
Ok I think this is how it works
So if we label the edges of S1 v S1 with a and b
Then in a degree 2 cover we have two vertices and four edges. For the covering map to be a local homeomorphism, each vertex in the cover should "look" like the vertex in the base space, meaning it should have an edge corresponding to a going into it, an edge corresponding to a going out of it, and similarly for b. Note that the edge going in and the edge going out can be the same edge or it can be distinct
This gives you constraints on what the cover can look like and it's not too difficult to explicitly draw the graphs and see which ones are distinct
I'll think about how one might recover this from index two subgroups and ping you if I come up with something
any pointers on starting this 
Can you visualise B
It's gonna be all the integer radius disks centred at 0
You want a larger totally ordered set, so just put a bunch of sets in between each D_i and D_(i+1), till you cannot put any more sets in between

moment