#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 684 of 407
associativity axiom is always automatically inherited into the subgroup since we use the same binary operation but with restricted domain. It won't be very helpful
You have only used identity and inverses
oh
so by using binary operation on this subset you get 0+(3+(-3))=0 and 3+0+(-3)=0
idk i jsut used associativity
.
basic process of elimination tells us we need to use closure
'For all a, b, c in G we have a # (b # c) = (a # b) # c'
In the original group
This must also hold in any subset of the original group
So that's why associativity won't help
So yes, use closure.
So far, if
3is in our subgroup, we know
{0, 3, -3} is a subset of the subgroup
so using binary operations on 0+3=3, 0+(-3)=-3 and 3+(-3)=0 which shows us that for all elements within the subset 3, using binary operation leads to another element in the subset 3
You think this set is closed under addition?
yeah
what element can we get with the operation that isn't here
try 3+3
It is not --- you have not considered some important combinations
wait we are allowed to do that
this is a game changer
Yes, the binary operation maps from G x G to G
: G x G -> G
We are always allowed to combine the same element
i was under the impression that we couldn't use the same numver twice
: G x G -> G
a # b is a member of G for all a, b.
But there is nothing saying a and b cannot be equal
i suppose its jsut the way i interpreted closure when my lecturer wrote it up
Well you know now
thanks
Groups are not meant to be completely foreign objects
They are meant to mimic things we are familiar with
And generalise
this has been better than studying at glasgow
Alright so back to the thing
{-3, 0, 3} is a subset
utilizing closure, what can you conclude?
glasgow is meant to be good for maths 
We must have 3+3, -3 + -3, ... anything else...?
the subset is closed for all values that are multiples of 3
(where are u at if u dont mind me asking? im at bristol 👀)
wtffff
nice
nottingham... for now
its horrible
So {3n : n in Z} must be a subset of our subgroup
yeah
correct btw, it's 3Z
Do you notice anything special about 3Z?
each value switches from even to odd?
no
more like - with respect to the group axioms
We already have a group
Check?
Closure --- any two multiples of 3 add to make a multiple of 3
identity - 0 is in it
inverses --- ?
associativity --- (as said above, this is always inherited)
not to the power -1
are inverses
yeah
yup
So to reiterate what we did
We started with Z
We considered what must happen if 3 is in a subgroup
And then we tried constructing what is 'the smallest' subgroup containing 3
And ended up with 3Z
Note there could be larger subgroups that contain 3Z
But does this help give you an idea how to construct subgroups?
You consider 'what if an element is in it'
and use the group axioms
yeah this helps
like, for example, try and construct the smallest subgroup containing 5
or if you're feeling brave, construct the smallest subgroup of 3Z containing 6
altright i'll give those a go
both processes are very similar to what we've already done
Ok and back to the main topic
what are the cosets of 3Z
Note left and right cosets are the same in this case
because we have an abelian group
n + 3Z = 3Z + n
ah
Remember my above definition
gH = {gh : h in H}
yeah
here we have addition
so I write g + H or H + g instead
{g + h : h in H} = {h + g : h in H}
So we have g + H = H + g
This definitely happens whenever we have an abelian group G (but isn't the only case when this happens)
interesting
in general
if gH = Hg for any g
we call H 'normal'
and this will come up to be a very important concept
So for now
Try figuring out what the left cosets of 3Z are
There are only a few of them (hopefully you can see why if you try)
..., -2 + 3Z, -1 + 3Z, 0 + 3Z, 1 + 3Z, 2 + 3Z, 3 + 3Z, 4 + 3Z, ...
alright so the one above was just the right one
g + H is left coset
H + g is right coset
In this case they are equal, so we just call it 'coset'
ah ok
So to figure out the cosets, you need to figure what these are
A lot of elementary group theory stuff is all about 'unravelling' definitions
As long as you understand the definitions, it becomes straightforward (so really try to get to know them)
oh ok
You should figure out which each of them are
ok
For example, 0 + 3Z = {0 + h : h in 3Z} = {0 + 3n : n in Z} = 3Z
Now try a few others
ok i'll have a go at 1+3z first
transferring? 👀
PhD will occur elsewhere
oh wow
besta luck - what you thinking doing it in
I kinda want to but I don't feel I'm up to it 
representation theory
I should've taken rep theory this year. big dumb
imagine having a course on it 
rip
i found that for the first few i tried every even n gave out a prime for example when i did 1+3(4)=13
prime numbers tend to be odd
tru
I don't think that's quite what you were supposed to look for though 
that as the only pattern ive noticed so far
You're not really meant to notice a pattern
you should just list the elements of the set
oh
(or give the set builder notation)
Eg.
1 + 3Z = {..., -2, 1, 4, 7, 10, ...}
But what you need to hopefully notice is some of these cosets are the same
oh yeah
I have a quick sanity check question: Q(\sqrt(pi)) = Q(pi, \sqrt(pi)) right as field extensions and Q(pi + \sqrt(pi)) is an intermediate field of the one on left
Yes
between Q and it?
I agree
F : K : M
K is an intermediate field?
I mean that Q \subset Q(pi + \sqrt(pi)) \subset Q(\sqrt pi)
yh ok
yep
Q(pi), Q(x), I see no difference 
we def do not have that the field is actually equal right, since I don't see a way to get pi from Q(pi + \sqrt pi)
You are talking about the intermediate equalling Q(rt pi) ?
yes
likely not but lets see...
Oh wait this joke might be useful
You might as well call rt pi = x since its transcendental (can show isomorphism)
I would find it easier to work with x 🤔
We want to check if Q(x) === Q(x + x^2)
If I'm not mistaken
that's equivalent yep
Yeah Alex we're talking about if they're equal
God I can't see how lel
it should be true
Oh
i feel like shouldnt as well.
x^2
Can we construct this on the right
probably not...
I don’t think they’re equal if you consider Q(x + x^2) inside of Q(x)
I agree
sorry i shoulda used =, not === lel
I think it becomes impossible due to the fact that I think Q(x + x^2) doesn’t have any homogeneous things
Ah yeah that makes sense
You need a Z-grading to make sense of it, but it should be true
Hmm
what's 1/(x^2 + 1)'s graded parts?
That’s true, but you could consider the part of Q(x) which is graded
And then intersect
Maybe?
I see ty, More generally is it true that Q(x^n + x) a strict subset Q(x)?
sure
And you can probably just intersect Q(x) and Q(x + x^2) with it
Idk, I guess in the end I don’t see how you can get x inside of Q(x + x^2) is the point
But maybe I’m wrong
Me too
It surely feels wrong
But I can't think of a proof
Okay this might be insanely dumb but
So we would get an expression x q(x^2 + x) = p(x^2 + x)
For q(t) a nonzero polynomial
Then
Oh
Look at highest degree
On each side
Is Q[x + x^2] -> Q[x] faithfully flat?
If this is true, then their fraction fields cannot be equal
Suppose they were equal, then x = p(x^n+x)/q(x^n+x) for polynomials p, q with rational coefficients, q nonzero
Do you see why?
Q(x^n + x) is all rational functions in x^n + x
Multiplying out we see that x q(x^n + x) = p(x^n + x)
If p has degree a and q has degree b, the degree of the left hand side is nb + 1 and the degree of the right hand side is n a
These are different mod n so they can't be equal
Unless n = 1 of course, in which case they agree
Oh yeah lol
sham do you wanna learn perfectoid spaces
I don’t actually think you need that much AG
lol
It looks like mainly just a shit ton of commutative algebra
but it’s weird commutative algebra
are we meeting at 2pm in the math lounge today?
Oh huh
Rip
Yeah fair enough
Sg

If I pick any x \in C, is there a way to see the degree of extension [Q(x) : Q(x^2 - x)] is a finite, or is this not the case
it feels like it's just a degree 2 extension
yeah
f(t) = (t^2 - t) - (x^2 - x) is the minimal polynomial of x over Q(x^2 - x)
So it's degree 2
Does that make sense?
Wait but if x is in C, is it not possible that Q(x) = Q(x^2 - x)?
Like if x = 1 or something dumb
Ah I didn't read that part, I thought x was transcendental
The proof is still basically valid
The degrees are 1 or 2 bc the min poly divides my f(t)
Yeh
yep, i see it now..
Can anyone check if my following argument is correct.
I want to show that Q(2^(1/3), i 3^(1/2)) is a field which does NOT contain i.
- We can see Q(2^(1/3), i 3^(1/2)) is a degree 6 extension.
- If i was in the field, then 3^(1/2) must in in the field since we can just divide i3^(1/2)/i to see sqrt 3 is in the field.
- We would have that Q(\sqrt 3, i) is a subfield of Q(2^(1/3), i 3^(1/2)).
We have a contradiction since Q(\sqrt 3, i) is a degree 4 extension
??
3^1/2 is in a field by definition
also thhis field is subset of real numbers so its obvious
Why is that the case? i 3^(1/2) is in the field, but it is not clear from that that 3^(1/2) is in the field if i is not in it
quick question, if theres a function f mapping from A to B with identical operation, where f(xy) = f(x)f(y), does this imply that A is a subgroup of B?
ok I read it differently
What's identical operation?
o they have the same binary operation
Maybe I am not understanding it correctly, but what if G = Z and A = {0,1}. The map f: A \to Z given by f(0) = 0, f(1) = 1 does what you want but is not a subgroup?
nvm.. I didn't understand it correctly
Polynomial over a field is a PID.
or 
degree function turns it into euclidean domain and thus PID
This is actually also an iff
Ah yes. Thanks
um ok
but yea i was seraching something along the lines of relating subgroups with a homomorphism function
tyty
I suppose one way to interpret this is that we can view one group G as 'embedded' into another group H when we have an injective homomorphism φ:G -> H (with such a map called an embedding). By the first iso theorem we have that im φ is isomorphic to G and so we have a subgroup of H isomorphic to G, hence the idea of it being an embedding, and with this in place we can view a subgroup as being the special case with the map being the (set-theoretic) inclusion
is there a trivial example that shows two finite groups of same order aren't isomorphic
K4
C4
S_3 C_6
Hi, I had a quick question about tranpositions and 3 cycles
how would one get (acb)(acd) from (ab)(cd)?
as in , knowing (ab)(cd) , write it as a product of 3-cycles
Is there some type of formula?
For reference, this is the proof that I encountered this case in
It's much easier to think of this in the other direction: evaluate (abc)(acd) and write it down as a product of disjoint cycles.
Once you know they are equal, equality works both ways.
oh yeah ik the other direction but i was just curious if there was any way
like if i was given on a test : write (ab)(cd) as the product of 3 cycles
what would my approach be
If you're asking how does one get the idea to write (acb)(acd) in the first place, I imagine it goes like this:
"Hmm, I wonder how much of the alternating group I can generate by combining 3-cycles. Let's try to multiply some 3-cycles together in simple combinations and see what they produce ... hey, this one gives two separate transpositions, cool!"
Ok, thanks. I guess it's just brute force 😭
Perhaps one way of thinking is that we know we can form 3-cycles from products of 2-cycles and so we can, say, insert two copies of a 2-cycle to force 3-cycles
So (a, b)(a, c) (a, c) (c, d) for example, which we know becomes (c, b, a) (d, a, c) lol i was lucky and got the exact same thinf
But eh like yes it is also just brute force
i think i am missing something obvious, but shouldnt the trace of f be a matrix over R, not an element of R?
is "trace A" supposed to mean trace of left multiplication by A or something?
hm? trace of a square matrix is the sum of the diagonal elements, trace of a linear operator is the trace of its matrix representation
AE_ijB=Σ(a_pi b_jq)E_pq
Where E_ij is the matrix which only the element in the i-th row j-column 1 other elements zero
So the trace is $\sum_{i,j}a_{ii}b_{jj}=\sum_{i}\sum_{j}a_{ii}b_{jj}=(\sum_{i}a_{ii})(\sum_{j}b_{jj})=tr(A)tr(B)$
Cogwheels of the mind
$AE_{ij}B=\sum_{p,q}a_{pi}b_{jq}E_{pq}$
Cogwheels of the mind
Right so I had a question about valuations, say I have a valuation $\nu$ on a field of fractions $K=Frac(R)$, is it always true that the valuation ring is (isomorphic to) the localization at a prime ideal of R?
I had to prove it's true for $Q= Frac(Z)$, but the p-adic valuations are litterally all the valuations I know of so idk whether the result holds in general
dadaurs
I don't think this is true. Take a DVR R, then it only has to primes, 0, and its maximal ideal
All you need to do then is find a single valuation ring of K = Frac(R) which is not equal to R, and I think this should be possible
In fact, there's a really obvious example with Q, look at Z_(p) the localization of Z at a prime ideal (p)
oh yeah I didnt recall that Z_(p) is local, ty
Answer key says the answer is D, but couldn't G be the group Z_12, in which case all the even elements of Z_12 form a subgroup of order 6?
oh god sylow theorems 
first sylow theorem guarantees elements of order 2, 3, 4
order 12 is just the group itself
process of elimination it has to be 6 but I don't like that answer
isn't elements with a given order different from subgroups of a given order
you can take the cyclic subgroup generated by an element of a certain order and obtain a subgroup of that order
yes but what if G isn't cyclic
i think A_4 is the example
oooh right
you misunderstood the question
is A_4 abelian
there are examples with subgroups of order 6
yeah, that's what confused me
but also counterexamples
🤔
since when is A_4 abelian
where is my list of small order groups 
sorry am I losing my mind here
its not, you are right
just take C_4^3
A_n
is like the least abelian you can possibly get (specifically they're "perfect" groups)
A_3 is just C_3 so yes
C_p is cyclic of order p
using additive notation 
I use multiplicative notation for abelian groups
it's just easier when 90% of the time they're just going to be shoved straight into a module over a field
which already has a +
a module over a field 🤨
yup
so what's the conclusion?
of this?
not every group of order 12 has a subgroup of order 6
misunderstanding of original question
wew gave a correct counterexample probably
I'm kinda confused as there are only two possible groups of order 12 , Z12 and Z6xZ2, both of which has a subgroup of order 6?
talking about abelian groups
well for a start A_4 is another group of order 12 so that's false
assuming you mean abelian
no
we went over that
I'm fairly convinced C_4 x C_4 x C_4 works
alternatively write C_12 as the isomorphic product C_3 x C_4 and then it's clear
C4xC4xC4 has order 4^3?
that's isomorphic to Z12 or Z6xZ2 so it still holds
is it? is it really?
subgroup of which group
C6xC2
ah fuck this I'm googling it
or your C2xC2xC3 in which case, we take (1, 0, 1)
yeah you're right
completely correct

I was just operating on the principle that the question wasn't wrong 
@unreal portal .
lmao, very nice
i think wews original answer is what whoever made the question wanted
but they didnt want to google list of groups
or they forgot to remove abelian
yeah removing abelian it's just A_4
loch I have no idea how to classify groups if they're not abelian
i mean abelian ones
true
to see the question doesnt work
you classify all groups using representation theory
oh that's epic
maybe you heard of it
nope
almost all subgroups are some product of Z2 so yeah
it's impractical to classify all non-abelians
yeah just put a lil Z3 on that thing
let me show you what I mean
I know that you can classify certain semi direct products like this but general groups hell no sister 💅
i just know it plays a big role
also we knew the character table of monster group before we managed to construct it
and stuff like that
constructing the character table might as well be constructing the groups lets be honest lol
here you go
ok it's not up to isomorphism but still
wouldn't surprise me - there are SO many groups of order 2^k
and one day I aim to understand why
sylow memes I presume
since 2 is the smallest ...
meh it's kinda informal argument
you can check the cites
you already get a big number of abelian groups just by classification
in the example in the post you get powers of 2 up to 2^10
for 2^n it's just the number of partitions
so almost exponential, just abelian groups
Yea I know the first theorem of isomoprhism but I don't understand which homomorphism gives that
the quotient basically turns x to 0, so try that
I'm struggling with this exercise... Let $M$ be a flat module over a commutative ring $A$ with unity. Then $M$ is faithfully flat if and only if $M\otimes_A \kappa(\mathfrak{m})\neq 0$ for all maximal ideals $\mathfrak{m}$. Here $\kappa(\mathfrak{m})=A/\mathfrak{m}$ is the residue field at $\mathfrak{m}$.
I know that $M$ is faithfully flat if and only if $M\otimes_A N\neq 0$ for any nonzero module $N$, but this stronger version eludes me.
Cool problem
I remember in atiyah macdonald there are like 5 equivalent definitions of faithfully flat. I think it might be harder to show the converse direction with the definition you gave
But the goal is to show that for all m,M tensor k(m) nontrivial implies M tensor N nontrivial for all A-modules N
Yeah
I proved it for finitely generated modules (because then you can use Nakayama).
But the general case seems harder
That is super important lemma that i forgot and need to review lol
I dont know what that means
filtered limit?
Filtered colimit, sorry
Still not sure what this means
It let's you take limits of modules, it's pretty nice
I guess the filtered part
Look it up I guess
Well because I proved the problem for finitely generated modules. Now take the filtered system of finitely generated submodules of N, and tensor it with M. The limit is M tensor N, and all the maps are still inclusions (because M is flat) . As all of the modules in the new system are nonzero, so is M tensor N.
Okay I think this is a solution, but thanks anyway.
what's the correspondence theorem used for
Is this the one relating sub-things of a quotient to those containing the thing you quotient by?
If so, it’s used so insanely often, just keep learning algebra and you’ll see it used over and over. I can’t point to any specific instance that stands out, but you will use it many a time
can someone explain this solution to me
i dont get the second sentence at all
i think i get the first sentece beacuse that all their is too choose from in the group?
If all elements are mapped to 1,the image is 1
and so since it's a surjection G' = {1}
Which is impossible
what do you mean by this
i need help woth this sentence
It cannot be that ker φ = G since then imφ = {1G′}, contradicting the assumption that
φ surjects onto a nontrivial group.
do you understand why this follows?
ker φ = G since then imφ = {1G′}
If the kernel = G, then that means all elements are mapped to 1
yes
since we're assuming that \phi is surjective, then imφ = G', right
but that then implies G' is the trivial group, contradicting our assumption that G' is nontrivial
Can anyone explain why representations with the same character are isomorphic? I've read the definition and proof, but I was wondering if there was a watered down explanation?
actually i dont seem to understand this
if phi is surjective we want everything in the codomain to be mapped
right?
if a map is surjective, then its image is equal to its codomain
that makes sense right
hmmm
convince yourself that this is true
this is an equivalent characterization of surjectivity
okay
how does that imply this tho
because of this
the image of \phi is {1_G'} since we're assuming in this case that its kernel is all of G, and we also know by surjectivity that the image is equal to the codomain, thus these two facts together imply that G' = image{\phi} = {1_G'}
OHHH wait
i think i get it
so if kernel is G that means everything gets mapped to 1
exactly
so we literally have 1 thing left to choose from
yes
so then now that we have G ruled out
it has to be 1
and theres a rule right that if kerphi = 1 its injective
yep you got it
no worries glad you got it
why does this hold..
it states that for a homomorphism f from G to H there's a bijective correspondence between subgroups of G containing the kernel and subgroups of H
Otherwise it becomes smaller
In which case this is just the same statement as what I said when combined with the first isomorphism theorem
I can't see why..
If r_2 is not zero then it’s smaller than d_1, contradict to the choice of that element d_1y_1+…
I see tq
what is the quickest way to prove that a subgroup is normal?
like say i choose subgroup of D4 right
i chose {1,r,r^2,r^3}
how would i know its normal
im bad at creating homomorphisms
fuck
when you mean this, do you mean that every element in my subgroup would map to 1 ?
In this case, you can represent each element of D4 as a matrix (i.e. a transformation of R²) and use its determinant.
My books says "give a set that exactly has one element, it has precisely one operation on it and that operation makes it into a group, a trivial group". I am confused, is it all sets with one element is a group? That cannot be true right unless the only element is an identity?
Oh, but even easier: Your subgoup contains fully half of the elements of the group. This means that there is just one left coset and one right coset other than the subgroup itself -- which means that left and right cosets are necessarily equal, so the subgroup is normal.
That’s the only way to put an operation on a set with 1 element
i didnt know you could do that ?
is that a therem or something?
It's something of a special case: every subgroup of index 2 is automatically normal.
(whoops, sorry for misping, that was an answer to Par).
index is just the number of left cosets right?
yes (or equivalently, the number of right cosets)
how do we get 2 in this case?
I haven't seen the Q
(here and the following two posts)
For a finite group the index is simply the size of the group divided by the size of the subgroup, since all cosets have the same size.
wait wait
cant we just do
ghg^-1 is in H for all g and h
is that a typo then
this is the solution
wouldnt it be r^k
i wanted the easiestr way
on the head lol
but the thing i underlined isnt that supposed to be r^k
No.
really?
If you flip the square over, then rotate it 90° clockwise and flip it back again, the net result is that it has rotated 90° counterclockwise.
when we flip is it about the vertical axis
The gorup ends up the same (that is, isomorphic) no matter whether the axis is vertial, horizontal or diagonal, as long as it's the same axis you use for each flip.
Sure it is - since r^4=e you have r^{-k} = r^{4-k}.
Wow, even though this is simple, I never actually thought about it before. The only map operation would be the identity map with makes any set with one element a group. I don't know why I find that fascinating. Thanks.
r^j looks like it's a typo.
ohh okay thanks
why does he do both tho
do we have to show r^k and r^-k?
to prove normality
In principle you need to prove that ghg^-1 is in H for every h in H and every g in G. However, as a shortcut you can get away with only doing it for enough g's that the ones you have tried generate G -- and a dihedral group is generated by the primitive rotation and one reflection.
I have this saved as a 'weaker' check
(forall g in G) gH = Hg
is another way of writing the statement also
This might not be 'quicker' but could be 'simpler' to think about
Again, the thing about generators holds.
aH = Ha
bH = Hb
->
(ab)H = a(bH) = a(Hb) = (aH)b= (Ha)b = H(ab)
So we can just check
(forall g in a set of generators) gH = Hg
Right. So we could just have checked srs^-1 and rrr^-1.
I think I like this the best for this example. (More explicitly:)
Let H =< G, 2|H| = |G|.
Let a in G - H. Clearly aH = G - H = Ha, else a in H
Let h in H. Clearly hH = H = Hh
H must be normal
Any suggestion on this. Let {a, b, c} be distinct objects, let G be the set of all permuations of {a, b, c}. Define a operation on G to be an iteration(first one permutation and the the other). I need to show G is group and not an abelian group. There should be 3! maps in G right? Let say f_1,...,f_6. would the iteration be take a given element in G say f_j and then compose it with every other map in G?
How do I even start to show this is a group?
If you mean that the operation is function composition of permutations, then it's a group all right, but is is not abelian.
on right, that was a mistake, the book says show it is a group and that it's not a abelian group.
You're probably supposed to simply check the parts of the definition of what a group is one by one.
It's a "check that you've grasped the definitions" exercise, not a "be clever and puzzle out a solution" exercise.
oh I see, my bad.
It’s my understanding that for every unitary square matrix U (with complex entries), there exists a unitary matrix V such that V^2 = U. Is there a simple formula for such a V in the case of a 2 by 2 unitary matrix U?
Quick question regarding definitions. If I have a polynomial p \in K[x]. Its splitting field L, is the field extension of K in which p can be factored into the form (x-a_1)(x-a_2)...(x-a_n) where a_1,...a_n are all the roots of p. Is this the same as saying L = K(a_1,a_2,...,a_n)?
Even for 1×1 you run into the problem that there's no continuous square root. This makes it difficult to have an explicit formula in the higher-dimensional cases, because several different branch choices need to be made consistently.
Yes, more or less -- the main tripping point is that in general the a_i's come into existence together with L. So once you have the splitting field, L = K(a_1,...,a_n) will be a true statement, but you can't use that as a definition of L a priori.
Alternatively you can fix an algebraic closure of K and work in that -- then the a_i's are all there, and L = K(a_1,...,a_n) will work for picking out L as a subfield of that algebraic closure.
yh that is a result as opposed to the definition in my course
(You can think of the roots existing in an algebraic closure of K, otherwise it doesn't make sense to adjoin them)
How do I see then that [K(a_1,...a_n): K] = [K(a_1,...a_n): K(a_1,...a_n-1)] [K(a_1,...a_n-1): K(a_1,...a_n-2)] ... [K(a_1): K] is bounded above by n!. It is clear [K(a_1): K] is bounded above by n, and I think [K(a_1,a_2): K(a_1)] is bounded above by n-1, but I don't see it clearly. There is a trivial n^n bound, but this is stronger
I mean if the issue is choosing positive or negative square roots then you can always choose the positive square root.
No, they're complex square roots.
is it alright to just say that $\bR[x]$ is a ring with $+{\bR[x]},\cdot{\bR[x]}$ so the subset $I$ is an abelian group over $+{\bR[x]}$ if we can show that $+{\bR[x]}$ is a binary operation on $I$?
nix
I had a proof in class that said if the order of a group G was pq for some primes pq with p > q
then <p> was a normal subgroup of G
But is this not true if p is prime but q is not prime?
not just a binary operation, but satisfies all the axioms. Alternatively you show that (I, +) is a subgroup of (R[x], +)
no, for example take A4, |A4| = 12 = 3*4 but <(123)> is not a normal subgroup of A4
but p > q
hmm alright, thanks
yeah what ryu said. the number of p-subgroups must be 1 mod p and divide q. but the only number congruent to 1 mod p and dividing q if q<p is 1, so that there is only subgroup. i think it's the second sylow theorem that says there is one p-subgroup iff that subgroup is normal.
Hi, I am trying to prove Q is not free as an abelian group. I am kinda confused as should I treat Q as a Z-module? The ring is not specified
show that Q cannot have a basis, or any 2 element is LD
Thanks! Should I treat Q as Z module or just any R module?
Z modules, as you are trying to show it's not free "abelian" group
Sorry I don't get it.. what if R is Q or R is some ring of integers? I don't see how it violates Q being an abelian group
The term "free abelian group" means "free Z module"
Ah I didn't know that... Thank you! I'll look it up
Does every group that has an order divisible by 3 have a subgroup of order 3?
This is true by Cauchy's right?
But I looked online and there were a bunch of questions saying to prove that, except when the group is abelian
Oh this is so much simpler than my proof
Well… it’s more down to earth
My proof is to use the universal property of free objects to show 1/2 exists in Z

What does that have to do with K[x] not having unique maximal ideals?
I don't understand the explanation
Loca is equivalent to saying that the non-units form an ideal
Namely if m is the unique maximal ideal, m is the set of non-units
I see, thanks!
BTW
This is how to show if A is local, so is A[[x]]

Although you get a better statement by just classifying maximal ideals of A[[x]], the fact that A local => A[[x]] follows from that
Wait, how?
For a power series
F(x) = Sum_0^infinity a_nx^n
F is invertible iff a_0 is a unit
RIght, yes
So now
So if the constant terms come from the unique maximal ideal of A
Great!
And the general statement
The maximal ideals of A[[x]] are of the form (m,x)
Where m is a maximal ideal of A
I forget how exactly to prove this, maybe you localize at m?
To reduce to the local case?
I kinda forget lol
Idk either lol
But anyway
This may one day be useful
Particular if you ever learn enough commutative algebra to care about complete local Noetherian rings
Because this shows that class of rings is closed under taking formal power series
But that’s a story for another day 
Another day has passed
I am curious what you mean by closed under taking formal power series
If A is a Noetherian complete local ring, then so is A[[x]]
Well no
but not
It’s very similar
and atiyah macdonald supposed to fo over completed rings
i know rings have norms also
In the case of a local ring with maximal ideal m
say that |a| = 1/n where n is the largest n such that a in m^n
So a and b are close if their difference is in a large power of m
(Note that this is like the p-adics)
To be complete wrt this topology is to say that Cauchy sequences in this topology have a unique limit
Aka if you have a Cauchy sequence {a_n} there’s some a such that a - a_n is in m^n+1
Or m^n
Whatever, it doesn’t matter
It’s equivalent to saying that power series “in m” exist
Aka if you have a sequence of element a_n where a_n is in m^n
Then the power series Sum_0^infinity a_n exists
Where that’s the limit of the partial sums Sum_0^k a_n
So we pretty similar to analysis notion besides a couple of big facts like focusing on powers of the maximal ideal
Yeah I guess so
If you’re familiar with p-adics i think most people find it easiest to frame it like that
I should be more familiar
But I am not, so I pretend complete local rings are power series rings
Yeah
And try to prove theorems for those first
the first time i saw power series rings was iwasawa algebra
And then use the idea
like 7 weeks ago
Lol
Yeah this right here is just referencing p-adic metric
I wonder the motivation for this though
Why care about complete rings other than number theory
I dont know any other contexts they would show up unless you are deciding to formalize something that already uses power series
The main motivation is via the Cohen Structure Theorem
Let’s just state the nicest case
If (A,m,k) is a Noetherian local complete ring containing a field, then A ≈ k[[x1,…,xn]]/I where n is the number of generators of m
If A is also regular, then I = 0
hurb
So if you take eg a non-singular variety and then take the completion of its local rings, it looks like a power series over the field you’re over
And when you want to prove stuff, this often lets you reduce to the case of power series over fields (or if you don’t contain a field, a very very nice ring)
And we actually understand power series very well, it’s almost like working with polynomial rings
And polynomial rings over fields are practically the most well understood rings
this is also kinda the motivation
power series rings let you do the arguments you see in complex anal/Riemann surfaces over more general schemes
Formal deformations 
also that 
I dont think ive ever seen someone motivate power series using the structure theorem lmfao
I didn’t motivate power series with those
They asked why bother with complete rings outside of a NT context
.
O fair
Motivating power series rings with the structure theorem is so ass-backwards hahahahaha
yeah I misread
which is why I said this 
Could anyone explain why being a free abelian group means it's free Z module? Doesn't being any R-module requires to be an abelian group first? I am so confused.. sorry
A Z-module is exactly an abelian group!
If you’re a Z-module you’re an abelian group by definition
And if G is an abelian group, we need to define scalar multiplication by Z
So what should n•g be where n is in Z, and g is in G?
g+ g+... + g for n times
Yup
And this turns G into a Z-module, and actually it’s the only way to do so!
Because you’re forced to have 1•g = g
And then by distributivity
n•g = g + … + g (n-times)
Ah I see. Just to confirm: If it is a Z-module, it has to be abelian. If it is an abelian group, we can always define such operation to make it a Z-module
Yup
And crucially the last thing is unique!
There’s only way to make it a Z-module
Otherwise like the two processes wouldn’t be inverse
I see. Thank you!!

Is the first dude spitting fax or no? Opinions?
Eh
He’s right that things are usually about finitely presented modules, and the thing about coherence makes sense as well as this allows the sort of stability on finite presentation you need
But it’s often a really harmless assumption, and without it you become mired in ridiculous statements with hypotheses you will never verify unless you are in a situation which is finite generation plus Noetherianity
It seems like a person with Uber specific needs and a very nonstandard view of things because they like constructive commutative algebra
My take is that if you end up needing whatever the hell that guy’s doing that requires ditching the Noetherian hypotheses and throwing coherence plus finite presentation everywhere, you can just learn it when you get there
For the rest of us 99.99% of people, Noetherian is just fine
my first question would be what is an example of the "new" framework that doesnt fit into the noetherian
e.g. whats a coherent ring that is not noetherian
K[x1,…]
idc about that one 
but ye, what chmonkey said
if your only argument is "but you can build a more general theory"
i dont think that is enough
I think the (main) argument here is for people interested in constructive commutative algebra
If you define Noetherian as usual you can’t constructively show Z is Noetherian or some shit
So it’s a really dumb notion
And constructive commutative algebra has “useful” applications beyond just being an exercise for people uncomfortable with the law of the excluded middle, there’s some logic thing about it idrk
But if you can prove stuff constructively you get stuff for free or something, I’m not too sure it’s something about the internal logic of some topos or something, Moth knows a little about it
The thing is this is a hyperspecific reason, almost nobody is doing this stuff because they’re fine just doing normal commutative algebra
(What is a coherent ring ?)
One that is a coherent module over itself
ok maybe there is more to this then
And what’s that you ask?
but it still sounds mostly like "i think this is the correct way to do mathematics"
It’s a finitely generated module such that all finitely generated submodules are finitely presented
It is very rarely used because coherent = finitely presented = finitely generated over a Noetherian ring
Which is why eg Hartshorne only defines a coherent sheaf over a (locally) Noetherian scheme
my experience is that slapping noetherian condition on things makes arguments easier
i wouldnt want to lose that
The main benefit to coherent modules is that they’re stable under more stuff, whereas finitely presented stuff aren’t. And when A is a coherent ring, finitely presented = coherent anyway
So it’s just a very technical condition for non-Noetherian settings nobody really actually cares about
Well you often end up with non-noetherian rings in algebraic geometry
So it can be useful to have less strong assumption
Yes ofc
And you can get around these things with a variety of methods
Like Noetherian approximation
I think ultimately saying Noetherian rings are unimportant is just plain false though
They’re important because they imply amazing things and are a very robust class of rings stable under tons of operations, and almost all rings of interest are Noetherian anyway
I think this fits here better than the category theory channel. My question is: How is that true? The obvious linearization of the group case definitely leads to a category of modules with monoidal product induced by the coproduct. I don't get it.
(source is "Quantum categories, star autonomy, and quantum groupoids" by Day and Street btw)
Hello.
Suppose I have groups S ↣ G such that S is a normal subgroup of G. Suppose also some additional structure (maybe an ordering) lets me choose a representative c ∈ C ∈ G/S. I reckon then every element splits one way like so: g = cs. How do I call this situation?
For example, suppose G = ℤ (with addition), S = 2ℤ, so that G/S has two elements — even and odd numbers. Choose elements {0, 1} as representatives. Now every number can be split as either 0 + 2n or 1 + 2n.
What does the fancy arrow between S and G mean here?
A group homomorphism that is one to one with respect to the underlying sets. I edited my previous message to make it clear.
Okay, thanks. (I've just seen $\hookrightarrow$ with that meaning).
Troposphere
Yes, it is the same — other literature (maybe older literature, I am not sure) has these arrows with forked tail instead of hooks and I like them more because they are symmetric. They also go well with the arrows onto (epic) that look like so: ↠.
On the other hand, the forked tail looks to me like it wants to symbolize that there are two different point at the left end that go to the same right end -- exactly the opposite of what you really mean. :-)
Anyway, I don't think I've heard a fancier word for your situation than "(system of) canonical representatives" for the cosets.
Is there any literature that mentions this?
M. Artin just calls them "representative elements", which is not much better.
In mathematics, particularly in combinatorics, given a family of sets, here called a collection C, a transversal (also called a cross-section) is a set containing exactly one element from each member of the collection. When the sets of the collection are mutually disjoint, each element of the transversal corresponds to exactly one member of C (t...
this might be what you're looking for?
Yes!
I am a bit disappointed that there is no special name for a «smallest» or «the most central» transversal. I reckon it may be defined relative to a given minimal generating set, by choosing «the most easily generated» element from each co-set. An example would be {0; 1} as above.
Another example: given a matrix M: V → V' with kernel K = M⁻¹ (0) a line, the subspace orthogonal to K is a transversal that is «the most central» geometrically.
i guess often (e.g. R/Q) there is no "obvious" cross-section (i like cross-section more than transversal) so that's probably why it's not mentioned
but you can call them canonical like troposphere mentioned if they're clearly the nicest ones
Can we say a Kernel is a homomorhpism that maps multiple objects of a Group C to a single object of Group D?
a kernel is a subset of the domain, not a function
It's not a morphism?
Moldilocks reacted with
Either you are making a basic mistake in the definition of kernel which wew pointed out or you are making a more complicated mistake in cat theory 
Wait oh
Kernel is a set of objects in Group C being mapped to a single object of Group D, where it's a subgroup of C?
Ker : $Hom(G, H) \rightarrow P(G)$ trollololol it was a function the WHOLE time
Wew Lads Tbh (201 🍇) ✓
Aaaaa

No he is trolling
Okay xd
There are some functions called kernels. Like say here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Positive-definite_kernel.
You can view it as the inclusion of the subset instead of the subset itself, and the benefit of that is that then you can define it using a universal property 
why would I do that
It's very important in homological algebra
oh yeah nevermind diagrams look cool, I'm convinced

fr though I can see why it would be useful to have a universal property definition
for some wacky objects
When you want to calculate the characteristic of the quotient of a polynomial ring is it common practice to calculate characteristic in some evaluated ring instead?
so like if i want to calculate the characteristic of Z[t]/(t-2)
then i just note it's 3 in Z[i]/(i-2)
No
and that the two rings must have the same characteristic
Its characteristics is 0
hmm why dont they have the same characteristic then
i thought it sounded wrong
but i cant see where im going wrong in applying third iso theorem
The characteristics of D[x]/I is characteristic of D
yeah that makes sense (at least directly for a linear poly)
Characteristics of a domain is the smallest positive integer n such that n1=0
idk it just seemed to me like Z[t]/(t-2) is iso to Z[i]/(i-2)
i cant figure out why this is wrong
i mean take the ideal J=(t^2+1, t-2) and I=(t^2+1) then we get Z[t]/J iso to (Z[t]/I)/pi(J) with pi the projection Z[t] -> Z[t]/I
Yeah, so? Their characteristics are both 0
How did you get 3
Not multiplication
yeah loooool
Yeah addition
haha thanks
Lol, np
It's not completely moronic:
If 3 = -(i+2)(i-2), that would prove that 3 is in the ideal (i-2) and therefore the characteristic of Z[i]/(i-2) would be 3.
Actually -(i+1)(i-2) is not 3 but 5, so what we get is that the characteristic of Z[i]/(i-2) is really 5.
However Z[i]/(i-2) is not isomorphic to Z[t]/(t-2) because i²=-1 even before you quotient out an ideal, whereas t² is just t² to begin with.
In Z[t] you just have -(t+2)(t-2) = -t²+4 which does not say anything about 3 or 5.
wait yeah youre right
but where does my earlier argument fail then ?
this
In this case the projection of J is (5,0).
And Z[t]/(t-2) is just Z.
So (Z[t]/I)/pi(J) is Z/(5) too. But that doesn't tell you about the characteristic of Z[t]/I.
how do you see that the projection of J is (5,0) though without this argument
Z[t]/(t-2) means that pi(t-2) = 0, or in other words pi(t)=pi(2)=2.
no but im projecting on Z[t]/(t^2+1)
Oh, sorry, I read you the wrong way around.
Z[t]/(t²+1) is indeed Z[i].
But then what does your argument say about Z[t]/(t-2) when (t-2) is neither I nor J?
oh right it only tells me about Z[t]/(t^2+1, t-2)
yeah okay
thanks
good thing this discord is here to catch my dumb mistakes lol
Are there 2 diff integers in Z/60
Such that ax=b mod 60 and bx=a mod 60?
x not being 1 or -1
Do you have any restrictions on x, a, or b?
Apart from that
Which of the 2 are to be chosen and which is fixed (I assume x is fixed and you're asking about finding a and b)
Is that true though? do you not show that it is noetherian by showing it's a euclidean ring or sth if I remember correctly?
Constructively
Is euclidean division not considered to be constructive?
Or am I misremembering sth.
You show that Z is a PID with it
Does anyone know what the notation (I:x) means where I is an ideal of a commutative ring R and x in R?
(context)
Never seen it before.
(also: the paper is very interesting in general. https://www.researchgate.net/publication/255588550_An_Elementary_Characterization_of_Krull_Dimension)
is it not just ideal quotient? or if x is an element its ${y\in R : yx \in I}$
Lochverstärker
Help please
Um
I think not
im not sure if mental math is correct
but you need x= 60ka+a^2,60hb+b^2
where k,h are different integers
and this is for any a,b right?
oh woops
other way
any x there are a and b
Is x given or can we choose that? There are several x satisfying x² == 1 (mod 60), and then you can pick an arbitary a and set b=ax.
And you can find further solutions by requiring x² == 1 only modulo some of 3,4,5, and then choose a so it is 0 under the same moduli where x²==1 doesn't hold.
Oh, okay, thanks! Never heard of „ideal quotient“ until now, just of fractional ideals.
i think this appears in context of primary decompositions
and there is some geometric interpretation
Rubik's Cube
quick question, I'm not really understanding that the union of 2 subgroups of a group not necessarily make the union a subgroup of the group
do you know about the klein four group?
have you heard from our lord and savior K_4?
yep
in both cases the point is basically "the union of two cyclic subgroups of order 2 is definitely not going to add anything"
you're gonna miss out on the product of them
if I may add some intuition, think of vector spaces instead and ask yourself why the x axis \cup the y axis won't give you a subvectorspace of ℝ².
With groups and subgroups it's essentially (I might even say literally b/c vector spaces are abelian groups) the same thing
(meant ℝ², sorry)
thank you for taking the time out fo your day to help me although I dont know what a subvector space is or what vectors involvement with groups are( yet) as we only started group theory 3 weeks ago and i'm still in first year , however after a while I did come to a conclusion that the reason why it doesn't work, i'm not too sure if this is correct but what i thought is , what if i have a union between 2 subgroups in which one of the subgroups is contained in the other, for example lets say I have K {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9} and L{1,2,3,4} the union of these 2 subgroups would just be K and so its not really a new subset as K has already been established to exist and so that's why I think it doesnt work
Oh, so do you do group theory before linear algebra?
I'm not familiar with the curricula around the globe so I don't know what your prerequisites are 😅
we did a little bit of matrices but yeah university of glasgow is not very good for maths from what i've gathered
we did basic matrix addition adn subtraction
ah, so you won't be familiar with the „geometric“ or abstract algebra approach to linear algebra then, that's fine tho
not really although 3blue1brown(this man has single handedly gotten me this far without dropping maths) uses it a lot
Isnt d always one?
because Q adjoin theta contains theta so a polynomial over Q adjoin theta should have the polynomial x-theta
so why isnt d always one?
This is regarding the lowest degree polynomial with coefficients in Q
It’s not very clear as written, because like you said if we allow the polynomial to have coefficients in the number field, then x - theta always works
Does anyone know if isomorphism preserves quotient? I mean this in the sense that if $G/H\cong F/N$ is it true that $G\cong F$ and $H\cong N$ on their own?
llspacebarll
Definitely not. For example Z/2Z = C_2 = C_2/{0}, but Z is not isomorphic to C_2, nor is 2Z isomorphic to 0.
right, that makes sense
We don't even have the naive converse. 2Z and 3Z (as additive subgroups of Z) are isomorphic, but Z/2Z and Z/3Z are not isomorphic.
About the only thing we can say is that if f : G -> F is an isomorphism and f(H)=N, then G/H is isomorphic to F/N ...
You cannot even say when given G, H, what C exists such that C/H ≈ G



