#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages ยท Page 546 of 407
since row rank = column rank... you get that rank <= 5 this would mean nullity >=1
i saw someone do this as a mapping from R^6 to R and idk why he did that
i'll write the equation for ya\
\
$\begin{bmatrix}
x_1^2 & x_1y_1 & y_1^2 & x_1 & y_1 & 1\
x_2^2 & x_2y_2 & y_2^2 & x_2 & y_2 & 1\
x_3^2 & x_3y_3 & y_3^2 & x_3 & y_3 & 1\
x_4^2 & x_4y_4 & y_4^2 & x_4 & y_4 & 1\
x_5^2 & x_5y_5 & y_5^2 & x_5 & y_5 & 1
\end{bmatrix}
\begin{bmatrix}
A\
B\
C\
D\
E\
F
\end{bmatrix}
\begin{bmatrix}
0\
0\
0\
0\
0
\end{bmatrix}
$
this makes sense yes
det
could you more explicitly remind me of rank nullity theorem tho?
:pleading face or something like that yessir
like do you want me to prove it or something? cause it will just say rank + nullity = 6
no cause i don't see where you got the row rank = col rank
get that rank <= 5
wait
ok so its just null = 6 - rank(5) = 1
so there exists p /= 0 in p(x, y) such that T_p = 0
ie p(x_i, y_i) = 0 for all i = 1, .. , 5
something like that?
rank is generally defined at dimension of the image... that is dimension of the space spanned by the columns... but it turns out that this dimension is also the dimension of the space spanned by the rows
more like null = 6 - rank >= 6 - 5 = 1
"even if all our 5 points were same, in this situation, the rank reduces even further" can you remind me of the details for this?
this sounds like a basic property of rank that I forgot about
so if all points are the same... then all the 5 rows of our matrix are same which would mean that the row space is 1 dimensional so in this case null = 6 - rank = 5.
true..
this is just saying that there are lots and lots of conics passing through a single point
then you need to show that the union of kernels will be >= 1
even tho maybe thats trivial too
ok ok sorry, im probably being too anxious about this
thank you!!
you don't see the word "union" put together with "kernels" a lot.... maybe check this again?
ah yeah thats kinda weird
omg wait its makes so much sense
ok ty
nvm
what i said
have a wonderful day i appreciate ur patience
uwu 
Hi how would I define a Ring and a Field
Not define
I don't really know the word
but how would i right a ring out
like you write a group as
$(\bZ,+)$
Ilovehumaninteraction
so like the integers under addition
(R, +, .)
is there an equivilant for rings and fields?
ah thank you
and i assume that goes for fields as well
i haven't seen that a lot in books... they just usually say let k be a field...
Ah I see
i Ask because im looking at topological algebra
and it says a topological space that is also a field
is a topological field
i see, i don't know about it much. but (k, +, .) should suffice..
Alright thank you c:
uwu
you usually dont like specify it like that cuz it's usually pretty obvious

jus say
the ring Z
the field k
people assume + and โข are the ring operations
the local field Qp
yeah the main reason you see this notation for groups at all is that its often ambiguous what your group operation is
consider Q for example
it could be a group under + or (as long as you exclude 0) under *
in rings, the operations are rarely "ambiguous"; theyre either the "obvious" operations (standard + and *) or some esoteric stuff that has to be explicitly defined
Hey, so I know that for a group ( G ) and an element ( a \in G ) and subgroup ( S \subseteq G ), we have the conjugacy set ( aSa^{-1} )
Neil_P
I'm being asked to show that one set is conjugate to another set. I've looked online and I cannot figure out what that means
A set T is conjugate to S,if T=aSa^-1
I'm guessing to show that subgroups ( V, W ) of ( G ) are conjugate, I need to show that there is an element ( x \in G ) such that [ xVx^{-1} = W ] ?
Neil_P
i.e.,for every element t in T, you can find a element s in S such that t=asa^-1
@carmine fossil So that seems right, cool
Thanks - I couldn't find that specific definition on proof wiki or my previous textbooks. Any clue why this is important?
I know that my subgroups ( V ) and ( W ) are normal, so I'm guessing it has to the actions between cosets?
Neil_P
Yea
Interesting - the group is group action on a vertex transitive graph and V and W are stabilizers of the nodes v, w respectively
I don't expect them to be equal
Or, didn't
a is an element in an abelian group G, e is an identity element
is this statement always true for an abelian group G, where a^2=e ?
yes
damn
any finite group that has that property is product of Z/2Z 
Lets say im given a set where all the a's are not equal to its own inverse, and im given this group G = {e,a1,a2,...,an} im asked to prove (a1,a2,...,an)^2=e
but i can't just multiply and commute because a != a inverse how should i approach this
if a!=a^-1 then a^2!=e
do we have a book recomm. channel or can we ask on related server?
what about the self-inverse ones
that's the only thing
i think we just reset the assumptions for 4-6
like i got tripped up by the diagram but i don't think it applies to 4
really? so i can use a^2=e
a=a^-1
why
a^2=e iff a=a^-1
yes
oh are you just using my thing that says only the self-inverse ones survive after a single thing
ok so yeah just say all the non-self-inverse ones get cancelled with one copy
and then the self-inverse ones get done by the square
if ykwim
sorry if im being slow but why is this true again
it's not
multiplying all the elements that aren't self-inverse together should give you e
Here's another way to see it:
Let x = product of all elements in a group that has no nonidentity elements that are their own inverses. You can check that x^-1 = x, so x must be the identity.
In general, we can only conclude that x has order 1 or 2.
Ok, im putting it together now thanks folks
I am trying to understand primary ideals
an ideal q is primary if xy in q implies either x is in q or y^n is in q for some n
this is fine
the radical of a primary ideal is always prime and is the smallest prime ideal contain q
if q is a primary ideal and its radical is the prime ideal p, we say that q is p-primary
opps i see now
woooooo all modules are group rings
I find it easier to interpret this as a statement about A/q
yeah this is nicer
starting learning algebra i was always tricked into thinking its better to think about the elements themeselves
but it is nicer thinking about them in terms of the quoitent
saying A/p is an integral domain is much more succint than
p is an ideal such that if any product of elements from the ring is in theideal then at least one of those elements must be in the ideal
obviously this information is still being said when you have to define an itnegral domain
but assuming we all know what integral domains are by now it is nice
can someone explain "minimal primary decomposition" to me, I'll type in what i understand first then then where i get stuck
An ideal is not gaurrented to have a primary decomposition. A primary decomposition is simply a way of writting an ideal as a intersection of finitely map primary ideals.
A primary decomposition $a=\bigcap^n q_i$ is said to be minimal if:
(1) each $q_i$ is $p_i$-primary with each $p_i$ distinct
(2) for all $j$, $q_j$ does not contain the intersection over the other $q_i$
lime_soup
we can always reduce a given primary decomposition down to one that obeys (2) because if there was some j where qj cotained the the interesection of the others then removing this qj does not change the itnersection
ah
we can do 1 because if q_1,...q_j are primary withthe same p then we can replace this by their intersection
okay nevermind i have no question
rubber ducky
Let $\mathfrak a$ have a primary decomposition into the primary ideals $q_1,...,q_n$.
There are things called associated primes, minimal/isolated primes, and embedded primes.
First question, I assume these definitions are only in terms of a minimal primary decomposition of $\mathfrak a$?
Second question: The minimal primes are the minimal elements in the set all the $p_i=\sqrt(q_i)$. I assume we mean minimal wrt inlcusion? If none of the primes include in each other then they are all the mimimal primes and there are no embeeded primes? So lets say $(2),(3),(7)$ were the associated primes of some primary decomposition in the integers. Then they are also minimal primes
lime_soup
associated primes are defined without respect to a primary decomposition
As a result, the minimal primes of a ring are the same with respect to any primary decomposition
even though the primary decomposition can vary
I forget the nuances of some of these things though
hmm? I thought the associated primes are independant of the choice of minimal primary decomposition, but we could choose a stupid non minimal decomp that would gives us extra associated primes
and because of this we choose to define them in terms of a minimal decomp?
associated primes are defined for an A-module right?
they're primes of the form ann_A(m) for an m in M
ASS(M)
If R is an integral domain and M is a square matrix, prove that M and M^T have the same characteristic polynomial and the same annihilator ideals
I proves that they have the same characteristic polynomial
How do I prove that they have the same annihilator ideals?
For char poly remember that the matrix satisfies its char poly
=0
What happens when you take transpose of both sides?
What would happen if the transpose matrix had a smaller degree char poly?
Idk what annihilator ideal means
I have an unrelated question about representation theory
Say you have an irreducible representation V of G. My book says
"The center of the image G -> GL(V) has split rank one"
What does this mean?
Why does it follow from Schur's lemma?
Oh its literally just schurs lemma
can someone help me prove this?

you prove this the same way you prove most statements about dimensions: by furnishing a basis
find a basis of W_1 x W_2
ideally in terms of bases of W_1 and W_2
Shouldn't it be less than or equal to?
I don't think so but im not sure
it is an equality
Is this the cross product on R^3? Generalised cross product otherwise takes more than 2 arguments
it's a direct product of two vector spaces
$\dim(W_1 \times W_2)$
Shamrock emoji
what the fuck does it mean to cross product two vector spaces
Makes sense
Ask this guy
.-.
no its okay
I'm confused so im confusing people
idk
think its cartesian product
$W_1 \times W_2$ is indeed the Cartesian product.
(T*(Terra), -dฯ)
shamrock's new pfp looks even more like the old pfp than the old one
lmao
thank @chilly ocean
He thought this was what my previous pfp looked like
I think he said he thought it was a "gremlin wizard"
no fr thats also what i pictured whenever i saw it

Is there a slick proof of Chevalley-Warning theorem employing group actions?
Suppose f(x1, x2, ..., x^n) has degree d < n, and is homogeneous with constant term zero. The theorem states that the number of solutions is divisible by p.
If G is a p-group acting on X, then |X| = |S| (mod p) where S is the subset of fixed points. In particular, if X is nonempty and has pk elements, then there is a fixed point.
Maybe we should look for a group that acts in a way that fixes roots
scratching my head a bit over this one
showing $u|a_0$ is easy, because the constant term $a_0$ is equal to the product of the constant terms of the factors
bela
and because $u$ and $v$ are coprime then $u/v\mid a_0$ implies $u\mid a_0$
bela
but the v part is tricker
ur missing v^n next to a_0
oop yeah
bela
it's like the binomial theorem without binomials lol
ohhhhh
oh
i get it
i see
you factor out v
and then because u and v are relatively prime if you put a_n on the RHS it must be true that v divides a_n
thank you good friend
nice. np
in my prof's notes for a proof he just states that $F[x]/\langle x\rangle\cong F$ where $F$ is an integral domain. what's the logic and reasoning behind this? i don't understand where this assumption comes from, is it just one of the three isomorphic theorems?
bela
We have the identity map F --> F. Extend this by the universal property to the map F[x] --> F by sending x to 0. is this surjective? what's the kernel? what does the first isomorphism theorem say?
ohhh yeah!!
the kernel would be all polynomials with no constant term
i.e. the principal ideal generated by x
and the first isomorphic theorem is just F/K is congruent to G
thank you, im a bit rusty on isomorphic stuff, gonna need to brush up on some of those rules

Let T be a matrix with entries in an integral domain R and f(x) in R[x]. If f(T) = 0, is it true that the characteristic polynomial divides f(x)?
nope
its false when R is a field... just take f to be the minimal polynomial
ah, then just go to the fraction field
Yeah but is being similar in frac(R) => being similar in R?
need to think about that.... i feel that since we have both A and A^-1 in the field we can probably cancel the denominators
but it also feels that things could easily go wrong ๐
I can't wait until we get to field theory lol
1+ month of working with matrices has broken me
oof 
we just started field theory this week in my course
Ash
Basic Abstract Algebra
not sure what the normal rate to work through it is but i think we're working through it a bit slow, but i'm glad we are if that's the case
between this, graph theory, cryptography, and the satellite project im working on + my procrastination im too overstretched to commit to a fast pace lol
yeah it's a neat book
pretty brief in its explanations and proofs
the first course in my abstract sequence last term had me thinking that i was much dumber than i thought i was
but doing graph theory this term has made me feel like im a fuckin genius with algebra 
I don't need algebra to do that for me lol
hehe
im liking the class though
looking forward to starting my masters next year bc im no longer gonna be bogged down by CS courses
What are you doing your masters in?
math!
Pure, probably
im studying pure mathematics that is
but i'm interested in real-world applications
Seems like a fun time
i really liked aluffi's field theory
but chapter 8 is too scary for me at the moment ๐ฅฒ
That's the one I'm waiting for lol
Because the stuff in chapter 8 allows us to state everything in chapter 6 without bases
I'm re-reading Aluffi rn
I stopped before chapter 7, now solidifying my understanding of commutative ring theory, since that's a bit flimsy
lol i was waiting for that chapter to get scared ๐
Have you done Tensor product stuff before?
nope, i just read them today morning
It usually shows up in commutative ring theory
A-M has a terse, but nice discussion about them
Tor functor scared me for the day, before that it was adjoint functor
have you done much category theory before?
nope
i'm in my second year undergraduate
category theory was one of the reasons to pick up aluffi
Same
you've actually seen quite a few examples of adjunctions, funnily enough
Yeah, adjoints are tricky to get a hang of, but very useful
For example, all of the free ring / group etc. constructions are adjunctions
or, arise from an adjunction, rather
yea, free-forgetful is nice
btw you usually don't think about the naturality square while talking about free-forgetful adjunction... right?
I think about the triangle identity
guys I did. I solved racism the problem about annihilator ideals
All I had to use was the property that (A+B)^T = A^T + B^T
its just that right now, when i look at the naturality square its has data about 2 functors, and you combine it with the Hom thing to get two bifunctors and then we're talking about natrual transformation between these. These many layers make it hard to get a nice intuition about it
oh, you're using that definition of an adjunction
how else is it defined?
Hom_C(L -, -) = Hom_D(_, R) or whatever
yea these 2 are required go be naturally isomorphic
i really don't understand this word "natural"
i always feel super dumb when people mention studying stuff outside of classes
i always want to learn more but i dont have the energy
A transformation is natural if it respects the structure of the category, essentially
It's kind of like how, I want F (f g) to be (F f) (F g)
i have heard this saying that "Categories and Functors are there just to define Natural Transformations, and these are actually what are important"
sort of
that's historically kind of true in algebraic topology iirc
But it's kind of like, there's no point really in talking about functions between groups that aren't homomorphisms, because you can't really say anything about the structure
Similarly, a good notion of morphism between functors is a natural transformation, and without that naturality assumption, you don't respect the structure
I'm at the stage where i have to verify that every functor is actually a functor and same for every natural transformation... and because of that its kinda hard to get an intuition...
idk what i'm saying.. sorry if it doesn't make sense
I think it should be true that if R is a subring of S and you have matrices A, B over R which are similar over S then they are also similar over S. It's certainly true if R, S are fields due to rational canonical form
another way of thinking about natural transformations is that it operates purely on the outer part of something
like, if you have F A, an I transform that to G A
this transformation can only observe the "shell", i.e. the F part
it can't do different things based on A without violating naturality
Any numerical invariants like determinant or trace will have to be the same
So, I'm transforming different "shells" without observing the contents
I figured out another way to do the problem without relying on this. Thanks.
that's a nice way to think about it

hmm
But, with adjunctions, if you have L : C -> D, and R : D -> C, then for any A in C, you have the slice category with objects morphisms A -> R B, with B in D, and morphisms between these commuting diagrams:
Then, RL A is initial in this category
so like, if you have a free forgetful situation
e.g. Set and Group
then this category would be set morphisms from a set to a group, and commuting triangles as above, with the morphism on the right being a group homomorphism
and the free group is initial here
This is the usual characterization of the free group
You also have a dual property, with a category
and LR A being terminal here
i need to verify that this is same as the earlier definition... but this seems a bit more comfortable way to put it 
(this is equivalent to being an adjunction, but more concrete)
The proof is ass though
Thanks! 
det, have you done any homological algebra? Like, do you know what a projective object is?
no 
oh okay, nevermind then
I saw some exact sequence in R-Mod
I was going to talk about one reason we care about adjoints/how they show up in algebra
but i don't know what projective object is
Discrete Topology โข Forgetful โข Indiscrete Topology
I don't really either
is another fun and trivial example if you know some topology
I mean I know the definition and how to work with them
but I still don't feel like I have any intuition
Something something vector bundles
homological algebra feels weird to me, because you're like, synthesizing a field that comes from spatial intution
but you can study the objects in a purely synthetic way
but all the terms come from the geometric intuition
like "flat rings" or whatever
I sort of agree, but there's two different kinds of geometric intuition at play
like the formalism of homological algebra rose out of algebraic topology initially ("cycles") but was then expanded on by algebraic geometry
a lot of things are like that ๐
Eg general abelian categories and derived functors were defined by grothendieck
based
Sure, I'm just saying it's a common synthesis of two different things
Well, at least two
MacLane was also doing group cohomology stuff
Yeah like, the idea of working in a general abelian category is smart af
but an obvious generalization of like, modules
Prove that G cannot have a subgroup H with $|H|$ = n - 1, where n = |G| $>$ 2.
Yes
do you know lagrange's theorem?
yes, am aware lagranges theorem beats this
just a question about alternate solution
not completely sure how they knew x^-1 y was in H
because x^-1 y is not y
oh yh
since we assumed that x is not the identity.
:D ty
Det did you do this exercise in Aluffi?
How would one prove that adj(tI-A) equals a sum of that form?
This seems trivial from the definition but my hw set has a comment that if this problem seems easy I'm doing it wrong
I think that since we "delete" one column and one row when calculating each entry of the matrix, we get rid of exactly one t-a_ii in the determinant
yep i did it
And so we get a polynomial of degree n-1 in each entry
And then we can just split it
Does this seem correct?
yea... that's pretty much the reasoning... each cofactor is a determinant of size n-1 x n-1 so the adj(tI-A) is a matrix of polynomials each has degree atmost n-1
yea
they probably meant that "plugging A in f(x) = det(xI-A)" to get "f(A) = det(AI-A) = det(0) = 0"
hehe doitashimashite
@rustic crown did you do this exercise?
ye
My proof is almost complete
I only need to prove the dim 1 case
that is, I have to prove $e^{\sum_{r=1}^{\infty}\frac{(zt)^r}{r}}=\frac{1}{1-zt}$
yeah
Have a Banana, Bitch
yep
How did you do it?
either you can use the series for log(1-x) = -(x+x^2/2 + ....), so basically you're computing e^(-log(1-zt)) = 1/(1-zt)
or you can do it formally without referring to convergence in C
Let's do the latter
the other way i thought used formal derivatives
so you need to prove the chain rule for them first...?
its enough to show this
call that weird sum lol(t). and take f(t) = exp(lol(t))
now f'(t) = exp'(lol(t)) * lol'(t) = exp(lol(t)) * (1 + t + t^2 + ...)
(1-t)f'(t) = f(t)
(f(t)*(1-t))' = 0
f(t) = a/(1-t)
t=0 tells a = 1
proving the chain rule is a bit weird but not hard
where did the a come from?
derivative = 0 => thing = constant

Do you really need exact sequences for this?
Won't tr(alpha^r) just be sum of eigenvalues of alpha raised to r th power?
Because find a matrix in which alpha is upper triangular,and the diagonal entries will be just be the eigenvalues
,tex $rM := {rm \ |\ m \in M}$
CronoKirby
Maybe I'm missing something, but Aluffi presents this as a submodule, provided M is an R-module
but doesn't this only work if R is commutative?
because if I take some element rm, then s(rm) isn't necessarily contained in here, unless I can swap the two elements of R?
I don't think this is the ideal (r)
rm denotes the action of r in R, on an element m in M
but i don't remember him writing rM... i remember seeing IM
ah well then yeah, it follows immediately
Say we have a ring morphism from A to B
If B is an integral domain then the kernel of the morphism is a prime ideal?
I think the argument you're trying to make would hold if the morphism is surjective
f(xy)=0 implies f(xy)=f(x)f(y)=0 so one of x or y is in the kernel
Err, yeah no it works regardless
I am just worried about zero divisors in A
- a subring of an integral domain is an integral domain
Oh that doesnโt matter
- A / ker f = f(A)
- By definition, an ideal is prime iff the quotient is an integral domain
qed
Ah that is slick
Ty king
also, for maximal ideals, replace integral domain with field
quite elegant definitions imo
but subring of a field may not be a field...
Indeed, just thought I'd mention the alternate definition of maximal ideals, while we're at it
oh... my bad
nah, was good to point that out

Fun corollary:
If f : R -> S, R is a PID, and S an integral domain, then f(R) is a field
Well, you'd have to exclude trivial kernel here I guess
yep
Isnโt that true for any dim 1 integral domain really
are they not just pids?
if a is in J, then (a) is a subset of J
so you'd have dimension at least 2 provided an ideal isn't principal, no?
(a) might not be prime
It's true that minimal nonzero primes in a UFD are principal
By essentially your argument
ah, right
an ideal where no element in that ideal is prime huh
๐ค
despite the ideal itself being prime
The ring $\C[x, y]/(y^2 - x^3)$ is a 1 dim integral domain which is not a UFD
Shamrock emoji
Because x^3 = y^2
The ideal (x, y) is probably not principal
Since that's where the curve is singular
It's isomorphic to this ring
Thanks! uwu
det wholesome
Does anyone have errata for Jacobson Basic Algebra 1 and 2?
I couldn't find it anywhere on internet
Let $A$ be a ring. Can a $A$-algebra (defined as a ring $B$ with a homomorphism $A\to B$) be defined just as a ring $B$ that is an $A$ module such that $(ax)(by)=(ab)(xy)$ for all $a,b\in A$ and $x,y\in B$
Whoever
All commutative rings
Well atiyah mcdonalds defines it to be a ring $B$ with a homomorphism $A\to B$ which isnโt very intuitive
Whoever
So Iโll take it that I have the correct definition
atiyah mcdonalds 


Do the integers mod m define all possible subgroups of the integers under addition?
the integers mod m aren't subgroups of Z
u might be thinking of nZ for natural numbers n
Every subgroup of Z has the form nZ for some natural number n
np
ah, so just to make sure I have this all straight in my head, the integers mod is actually the set of indices of some set of equivalence classes, is that correct?
To answer the original question, every subgroup of Z is of the form nZ for a unique nonnegative integer n
okay, am I incorrect in believing there's an explicit connection to equivalence classes? Those different subgroups are each equivalence classes?
the integers mod is actually the set of indices of some set of equivalence classes, is that correct?
yea, basically. If you know about quotient groups, the integers mod n are just Z/nZ.
Oh, I see, the subgroups are nZ! So the quotients of some subgroup like 2Z would be [1] [2]?
Z/2Z isn't a subgroup
Z/2Z itself has two subgroups: the trivial one and the whole thing
so it has two quotients: the trivial one and the whole thing, the association is just reversed
larger subgroup <=> smaller quotient
and yes the quotient of Z by a subgroup nZ is the set of mod n congruence classes
so {[1],...,[n]}
it might make more sense to write [0], [1] as the elements of Z/2Z though
yea that is perhaps a better choice
but [2] = [0] so its fine as well
mhm
Ah, so Z/2Z is not a subgroup of Z, though?
what's the technical term for what Z/nZ is? I think I need to review the definition
It's a quotient
oh, okay
to be more precise, you're defining an equivalence relation on Z
where two elements are considered equivalent if they differ by a multiple of n
and then you're taking the quotient of Z by that equivalence relation
i.e. you're collapsing everything in the same equivalence class into a single element in the quotient
so e.g. 7 and 10 become the same element, namely [1] in Z/3Z
does that make sense?
yeah, that makes sense. I guess my confusion then
is that in a particular problem I'm dealing with I'm working with a cyclic group C_m that's isomorphic to (Z/mZ, +)
but that doesn't seem to make sense if Z/mZ isn't a group?
Z/mZ is a group!
oh, it's just not a subgroup?
right
if you have a subgroup H of a group G
then the quotient G/H need not be a group
but it is when H is what is called a normal subgroup
these subgroups nZ of Z are all normal subgroups
so the quotients Z/nZ are groups
if H is not normal then the quotient G/H is only a set, passing the group operation from G to the quotient G/H isn't well defined; it's only well defined when H is normal
I see, I haven't deal with normal subgroups yet, but that sounds nifty
Ah, okay, so other question
This process of defining an equivalence relation on Z so that the elements of Z are collapsed into classes
Is this a function of some sort?
I mean the "collapsing" is exactly the projection homomorphism Z->Z/nZ
that sends an element of Z to its equivalence class
this turns out to be a group homomorphism
I mean one way to think of normal subgroups is they are precisely the kernels of group homomorphisms
(that is, if you have a group homomorphism f:G->G' its kernel is the subgroup of all elements in G that map to the identity in G')
you can define Z/nZ by itself, it's the group of integers mod n
and this projection p:Z->Z/nZ is defined by p(N)=N mod n
nZ is its kernel
so in particular nZ is a normal subgroup of Z
Hm, I think I'm going to have to spend a bit more time with this particular idea when I have a chance later. But this cleared up my initial confusion, so thank you so much! (first day here)
No problem! Group theory is wonderful, good luck! ๐
Anyone who knows about Combinatorial commutative algebra know if it's worth picking up Stanleys book? I've already got CCA by Miller and Sturmfels
Given some R modules, is and an automorphism, is this equality ever not true?
There's an exercise to show that if phi^2 = phi, then this holds, but this seems like it works in general?
yea... consider M a pid?
it is definitely true for vector spaces
but do you think Z is isomorphic to 2Z oplus Z/2Z
is it not?
the right has this element (0, 1) which has finite order
but only finite order element in Z is 0
hmm
I guess so
hmm, what's the easiest way to show the first identity, assuming phi^2 = phi
right now I'm leaning towards showing that M satisfies the properties of the coproduct
๐ค
given m in M, stare at the triviality... m = (m - phi(m)) + phi(m)
this shows M = ker phi + im phi... showing their intersection is 0 is even easier.
right
I actually managed to get the coproduct argument to work
except for uniquness
For the unique function, you can take
but I wonder how you show that this is unique?
because image of m-p(m) is forced... and same with p(m)
ah right, like, any other alpha would be equal at each point of m
because you're either in the kernel, or in the image
or 0
i don't quite get this
you can have some component in kernel and some in the image
I don't get this argument then
so sigma(m) = sigma(m-p(m)) + sigma(p(m))
oh yeah, by that decomposition right right
lol i feel like you basically showed that internal direct product is a coproduct
no subsets where I live buddy
oh
nah I just wanted to see if this was possible
the direct argument is definitely easier
I was wondering this.... in the category of k-vector spaces, "direct-sum" works as a finite product. So is there some category where the categorical product is actually the tensor product..?
ig i found the answer.... tensor product is coproduct in the category k-Alg
the trivial category
8^)
the category of finitely generated R modules works
but there the product is direct sum... not the tensor product.
i think what I wanted was something like (R-Alg)^op
Ah woops, misread
Ah you mean Sch / Spec R?
Can anybody give me an example of a ring with no multiplicative identity
will R[1] work?
yes
k
thanks bro
that may not be a ring depending on your definition of ring
is it true that if you have a ring of unity R then it can be generated by its unity element?
my guess is no but i dont get why
i mean like
if u add 1 n times
or if you keep adding 1
will you get entire group?
i think you should because if you keep adding 1 and you are missing out on that element then there would be a problem.
it may not generate it as an abelian group
consider the ring $R = \Z/2\Z \times \Z/2\Z$
Shamrock emoji โ
the unit is $(1,1)$
Shamrock emoji โ
yea
oh ok
yeah i meant does it generate it with additive group
thats really clear example ty
Could The reals work here because the unit are everything but 0. So cant be a subring since there is 0 in the subset
So cant be a subring since there is 0 in the subset
do you mean 0 isn't in the subset?
yes
that works. 0 is not in the set of units of any ring either.
what
The ring {0}
in {0}, "0 = 1"
i see
Given an Artin-Schreier $E$ extension of the function field $k(x)$ given by the equation $y^p-y=f(x)$ where $f$ is a polynomial with coefficients in $k$, can we say anything about the ramifications at the places of $E/k(x)$?
Have a Banana, Bitch
Assuming that $k$ is algebraically closed
Have a Banana, Bitch
It would be really nice if I could somehow get that all places are unramified (or at least, all places not over the infinity place are unramified)
Artin-Schreier extensions will be everywhere unramified
@vestal snow
I mean somehow the way I remember this is that A^1_k is not etale simply connected, and all the nontrivial finite etale covers come from Artin-Schreier extensions of the function field k(t), with no restriction on f(t)
but such an extension being finite etale means it is everywhere unramified; the only ramification lives at the point at infinity
Gotcha
Wait so if it ramified at infinity, it is not everywhere unramified then?
Is everywhere unramified defined to be unramified at every place except infinity?
Will the ramification index at infinity be equal to the degree of f?
If so, will the uniformizer at infinity be x^-deg(f)?
well okay it's ramified at the place at infinity sure
I just mean that it's unramified at all the finite places
coming from actual points on A^1_k
yea I should have been more specific sorry
and yea that sounds correct regarding the normalizer and the ramification index I think
would have to think a little more to be totally sure
one amusing corollary: this means that the etale fundamental group of A^1_k is a free pro-p group of rank equal to the cardinality of k
which is utterly gigantic, even in the case where k is as small as possible (i.e. k=\bar{F}_p)
๐
what does holomorphic differentials mean in the positive characteristic setting?
are you just asking about what the genus of the Artin-Schreier covering X of A^1_k can be?
the answer is yes, in general these can have genus g>0, hence they can have some nontrivial H^1(X,\Omega^1_X) (which is maybe the appropriate replacement for holomorphic differentials in this setting)
w is a holomorphic differential iff ord_P(w) is greater than or equal to 0 for all places P in E
the way you can compute the genus is the version of Riemann-Hurwitz that holds in positive characteristic
Is my definition of holomorphic the same as yours?
yes I believe so
you just shouldn't use the term "holomorphic" in the positive characteristic setting
Okay. That's an unexpected result then
Because of this theorem
Since f has denominator 1, $t^{(\mu)} = 0$
Have a Banana, Bitch
yea I think what it means by holomorphic differentials are classes in H^0(X,\Omega^1_X) as opposed to classes in H^1(X,O_X) which might appropriately be called anti-holomorphic differentials
these make sense algebraically in char p despite the naming
(over C these are holomorphic and anti-holomorphic differentials respectively in the usual sense)
So this theorem suggests that the basis is empty right
no I don't think so
in the case when f is a polynomial
since $t^{(\mu)}=0$, the $x^v$ in the basis can't range over anything
Have a Banana, Bitch
e.g. you might try the hyperelliptic curve in char p=2 given by y^2-y=f(x) which will have genus g=(deg(f)+1)/2-1
e.g. if deg(f)=3 you'll have genus g=1 and you should be able to find precisely one "holomorphic differential" up to scaling
Yeah I guess that makes sense
So what will the basis, according to the theorem, be in the case f(x) is a polynomial?
ugh let's see
idk I would have to think about this for a bit and unpack this theorem, need to get back to work sorry ๐
something to think about though, sorry I can't finish the example right now

No problem! Thanks for the help!

In an Artin-Schreier extension E of k(x), what is the uniformizer at the place of E over infinity?
I'm trying to do this exercise: Let M be an artin module, let u be an injective endomorphism of M. Then u is also surjective.
So the idea is that we want to assume u is not surjective, and then show this breaks the descending chain condition
A good candidate for a descending chain is going to be im(u) contains im(u^2) ...
Now it is clear that each im(u^n) contains im(u^n+1)
What is not so clear to me is how do we know this sequence is not constant?
For the similar exercise for noetherian modules where we show that surjective implies injective, its clear that if the kernel is non zero then we have a non constant asscending chain
where the inclusions are strict
its not clear to me why the inclusions are strict in the case with the images
suppose u isnt surjective
im(u) is proper subset of M
im im u is proper subset of im u is proper subset if M
im im im u is proper subset of im im u is proper subset of im u is proper subset if M
suppose somehow
i just remembered a very nice reason
injective means f(x)=f(y) implies x=y
so if f^n=f^{n+1} can just cancel away all the f
hence im f=the whole thing
gg thanks very much
Iโm a little confused with this
A sub ring of a noetherian ring need not be noetherian
But we do have if 0,โAโBโ Cโ0 is an exact sequence
B noetherian implies A and C are noetherian
Does the second not imply the first
consider a non-noetherian integral domain R and take its field of fractions...
Here you are talking about modules over a fixed ring
Yeah
A ring is noetherian if it is noetherian as a module over itself
fields are definitely noetherian
Sorry
A sub ring of a noetherian module I am working with
I am tying to do this exercise in atiyah Macdonald
Oh sorry I misread your question
Are you asking, if A and C are noetherian then does that imply that B is noetherian ?
Sorry Iโm not being very clear
I believe the following two statements to be true
- Let M be a noetherian module over a ring A. Let N be an A-submodule of M. It does not follow that N is noetherian.
it does follow that N is noetherian... i think
- Let 0 to M'' to M to M' to 0 be an exact sequence of A-modules. Then M is notherian iff M'' and M'' are noetherian
Yes it does ; a chain of submodules of N is also a chain of submodules of M
Point 2) is ok
No it also works for quotients
M is noetherian if and only if N and M/N are noetherian
damn
The inverse image by the canonical projections of your chain stabilizes, so the image of the inverse image = the original chain stabilizes
is there some "nice" property where noetherian doesn't carry over
I thought I remember hearing some warning that M noetherian and N being some nice relation to M does not imply notherian
maybe something like
If notherian things hold for N, it doesn't imply it holds for M unless M is also finiteyl generated?
I
I'm really not sure what I am trying to think of
You have to be careful when talking about noetherian rings maybe, but modules over a fixed noetherian ring behave really well
hmm thats strange
since a noetherian ring is just a ring that viewed as a module is noetherian
is there a classic example of what can go wrong with rings
See the answer of det earlier
thats very strange
ooh
so let R be our non noetherian integral domain
let k be its field of fractions
k viewed as a k-module is noetherian
so we say k is a noetherian ring
R is a submodule of k, so it is noetherian as a k-submodule
but it need not be noetherian as an R-module
It is not a k-submodule
oh
Otherwise it would contain k
For 1) look at where a given vertex is sent under r^i
Wait ; I assume you define D_2n as the group of isometies of the regular n-gon ?
If my memory is right, the regular n-gon is the convex enveloppe of its n extremal points (say by definition) and an isometry preserves convex combinations, so an isometry of the regular n-gon is uniquely determined by its actions on the n extremal points
So you can indeed just look at what happens on vertices
It is the definition of 2pi that rotating once by 2pi goes back to where you started
Well maybe do a first proof assuming that you can just look at what happens on vertices
And then use your built up intuition to do a full rigorous proof
Have you actually shown that |D_2n|=2n ?
Maybe distinguish odd n and even n
It should work out better
For 3) you can just say that the determinant of a symmetry is -1 and the determinant of a rotation is 1
This is something really useful to remember
It can tell you whether a given element is actually a symmetry or a rotation
A rotation matrix of angle theta (or maybe -theta, I'm not sure) is (cos(theta) sin(theta))(-sin(theta) cos(theta))
so the determinant is 1
All those things are talked about when classifying isometries in euclidean space
and specifically in R^2
A non-trivial symmetry satisfies s^2=id and s!=id
Then you can show that there is a direct sum decomposition R^n= ker(s-id)+ker(s+id)
Pick a basis of each, this represents s by a matrix with -1s and 1s on the diagonal
How much linear algebra have you done ?
Ok let's do it another way. Your reflection has a fixed axis, and an orthogonal axis. Any vector on the fixed axis is fixed, and any vector on the orthogonal axis is sent to its opposite
(we're in R^2)
So you pick a vector on the fixed axis and a vector on the orthogonal axis
say x_1 and x_2
Those form a basis of R^2 since the axis were orthogonal
Actually take them to have norm 1
So they form an "orthonormal" basis of R^2
Then in that basis your reflection has matrix (1 0)(0 -1)
Well about the new x axis
can anyone explain part b a little more to me?
But yes
Yes, by definition the fixed axis in given by the axis origin-first vertex
There's a neat trick now
Yes
The trick is to notice that the map {rotations}->{symmetries} given by composing with a fixed symmetry is a bijection
by symmetries I mean reflections sorry
It's not exactly that
Actually composition of isometries are isometries
is more like what we want
There are as many reflections as there are rotations
Also a rotation is determined uniquely by what it does to the first vertex
so you should be able to use this somehow for 5)
Np, good night !
@obsidian path Would you care to explain a bit more what you don't understand ?
No ; you can see the columns of A as column vectors, that is elements of F^n (F is your ground field)
Then the span of those vectors is usually what's called the image of A, noted im(A)
Then it's asked to show that im(A) and im(T) have same dimension
I see, it's weird because I can't differentiate between A and T
A is a matrix, T is a linear transformation
Those are really different
A is just a tabular of number
I thought matrices and linear transformations were isomorphic?
Yes exactly
oh that's what they want shown? lmao
The point is to show that this isomorphism preserves the notion of rank
I see.. makes much more sense now thanks
but now the question is like
how do you relate the coefficient matrix to F^n perhaps
Note that the isomorphism between matrices and linear transformation is really non-canonical, you have to chooses bases
makes sense
But there is one vector space that has a "canonical" basis, that's F^n. So you can view a matrix as the associated linear transformation F^m -> F^n in the canonical bases
You then have to see that under this identification, the span in F^n of the columns is actually the image of the associated linear transformation F^m -> F^n
Then you've basically reduced to point a)
Actually not basically maybe, but you have to show then that the situation reduces to point a)
so I want to express the linear maps in terms of matrices, show its rank and show that its preserved in the linear maps as well? sort of?
what is F^m I'm not sure I understand that point
sorry last question
I don't understand what you've said
m is the dimension of X, sorry should have said that
ah its okay, I'll just think more about what you said
ah I see
hm
oh makes sense
The point is that you have to be careful about wether you're handling matrices or linear transformations
true, I see that
Because there is a subtle distinction between the two
Ok, have fun !
can you biject Z with Q and be done?
i know there is a bijection between the 2, but how does that help?
let $\phi: \bZ\rightarrow \bQ$ be the bijection, then define $a \oplus b = \phi^{-1}(\phi(a)+\phi(b)), a\otimes b = \phi^{-1}(\phi(a) \times \phi(b))$
er, sorry, i made a small error (forgot to pull back to Z)
8da
ok that blew my mind, idk if this makes sense but why exactly is this allowed? since Z lacks fractions, wouldn't getting Q into the mix be sort of cheating?
i guess the edit answered that mb
but what do we even mean "fractions"? if we are interested in giving Z a field structure, then at this point Z is still just a set, so there is even no notion of a fraction
maybe scalar multiples of the "standard" multiplicative inverses? then it doesn't matter since we are not talking about that at all?
yeah, the field structure i just gave on Z has nothing to do with the usual addition and multiplication on Z
it is just sort of a fake Q, or more like Q in disguise
since in a "set" setting, Q and Z are isomorphic?
yeah
oki, ty very much
EPSILON
You should be considering the position where vertex 1 was
Initially
Not where it is now
s(1) should be 1 ,s(2) should be n
and s(n)=2
nice!
Sort of nice
well you wouldn't be talking about a single element of a group
Find a point fixed by (rs)
And show a point to left side of it ,after applying (rs) goes to the right side
Yes
I think you still have to show a fixed point exists
Or like atleast find the axis of symmetry
A reflection is defined by an axis of symmetry
The axis of symmetry for (rs)
That is for s
For odd cases, It's just find an invariant point and the axis of symmetry will be the line through that point and origin
For even cases,it is finding a line passing through midpoints of 2 lines and origin
Let $A$ be a nonzero submodule of a rank 1 free module $F$ over a PID $R$. Suppose ${x}$ is a basis for $F$. Define the set $I = {r \in R : r.x \in A}$. It's clear that $I$ is a nonzero left ideal of $R$, so $I = (a)$ for some nonzero $a \in R$. I am trying to show that ${a.x}$ is linearly independent. Suppose that $r.(a.x) = 0$ for some $r \in R$.
kxrider
i think i should be able to somehow conclude r = 0 using that R is an integral domain, but im tired and can't see how atm. Any ideas 
(for context, this is supposed to be the base case for the proof that a submodule of a free module over a PID is free)
i think r(ax)=(ra)x=0 implies ra=0 right? since {x} is a basis
oh.... yea i think that's correct lol. im losing my mind 
Is rs an isometry, knowing that r and s are ? What is its determinant ?
What's a determinant here?
Like what does det(a)=-1 mean here?
Like What's a
Ok,makes sense
Yes it is exactly that. We even discussed it yesterday. You have to know the classification if isometries in 2d space though, which says that there are only rotations and reflections (I'm only talking about those fixing the origin)
Wait, you wrote "a reflection is a reflection iff..." but you meant "an isometry is a reflexion iff"...
right ?
Anyway, you know that for the isometries of the regular n-gon are either rotations or reflections
So if you pick an arbitrary isometry of the regular n-gon, just look at the determinant to know what type it is
What are you confused about?
Another way to say the first part is that if you remove relations, your group either gets bigger or stays the same size. So since the group of symmetries of an n-gon has those relations (but maybe it has more) and this group of symmetries has 2n elements, any group with that presentation in (1.1) must have at least 2n elements.
I'm not sure what their argument for X_2n is, but if I had to guess, it probably shows that you can write each element of D_{2n} in the form s^a r^b with a being either 0 or 1 and b from 0 to n-1 and this representation is unique so since there are only 2n things of the form s^a r^b, the group can only have 2n elements at most
@chilly ocean
I'm saying that the group of symmetries of the n gon has at least as many relations than D_2n which means D_2n must be at least as big as the group of symmetries of the n-gon
Maybe, depends what they showed. If they showed that the representation is actually unique, then this is sufficient already
The second shows it can't be more than 2n since every element can be written in that form, but maybe it can be less than 2n because its possible that two of the things in that form are actually equal
No
The identity can be written as both 1 and r^n and s^2 for example
Right
Right
Do you see how if we add another relation to a presentation, the group can only stay the same size or get smaller
There's no way an additional relation can make your group bigger
That's all that's happening
The group of symmetries of an n gon has the same presentation as D_2n, but it could have more relations
But since the group of symmetries of the n gon has 2n elements, by maybe removing relations, the group D_2n must have at least 2n elements
Other way around
D_2n is exactly defined as having those relations
It's the group of symmetries of an n gon that might have more relations
np
I think they just mean if the group had more relations it could have fewer than 2n elements
Fwiw D and F makes this sort of thing more precise in something like ch 6
Atmost 2n
You can map r to a rotation in a ngon and s to a reflection along some axis
Note that this map is well defined(because of those relations)
D and F is trying to prove any group defined by that presentation should be D_2n
How did you prove order of D_2n is 2n?
you could also use a presentation of the group and do an inductive argument
if you prefer
this is less elegant though
mirza's demonstrates an isomorphism between D_2n and a subgroup of a symmetric group
which is imo more meaningful
The proof is about showing that presentation actually describes D_{2n}
I might be doing bullshit math, but I think you could say something like: the presentation of D_2n consists of r, s|r^n=s^2=1,rs=sr^-1,.. where ... Consists of some relations, a priori could be empty or not. But this can be obtained as a quotient of r, s|r^n=s^2=1,rs=sr^-1, this the latter must be at least 2n
You can map r to the rotation and s to the reflection actions
That's basically the explanation in ch 6 I think
And since there are 2n such actions,no of elements in group described by the presentation is atleast 2n
because if it was any less then it means there would be some more relations
r->rotate 360/n,r^2->rotate 2*360/n... r^{n-1}-> rotate (n-1) 360/n, r^n-> rotate n 360/n
s->reflect,(rs)->reflect and rotate 360/n ....
(2n different possible actions, implying there should be atleast 2n different elements)
(new relations that are not implied by the ones you already have)
Can I check if I under stand quotient ideals correctly
Let $A$ be a ring and let $\mathfrak{a},\mathfrak{b}$ be two ideals. Then $(\mathfrak{a}:\mathfrak{b})={y\in A: \quad y\cdot \mathfrak{b}\subset \mathfrak{a}}$.
If $\mathfrak{b}=(x)$ is a principal ideal we write $(\mathfrak{a}:\mathfrak{b})=(\mathfrak{a}:x)$.
lime_soup
My question is then. Are the following two sets equal. ${y\in A \mid y\cdot x\in \mathfrak{a}}$ and ${y\in A \mid y\cdot (x)\subset \mathfrak{a}}$
lime_soup
If $yx \in \mathfrak{a}$, then $y(rx) = r(yx) \in \mathfrak{a}$ for any $r \in A$ as $\mathfrak{a}$ is an ideal. So, $y(x) \subset \mathfrak{a}$. On the other hand, if $y(x) \subset \mathfrak{a}$, then clearly $yx \in \mathfrak{a}$.
evilbuggy
I hope your ring is commutative and has 1
Good moment
I will make it better:A ring is an integral domain
a ring is a field