#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Β· Page 517 of 407
Hmm, that makes sense
Probably that's why people think I'm a woman
Hahaha
But not
Enigma and paraphrasis
I like those words
@chilly ocean xD
a problem i saw and looks mad fun but mad hard
and i just need a hint
Prove that for every finite group G the number of group homomorphisms f:Z^2 -->G is n|G| where n is the number of conjugacy classes in G
Why is it not just |G|^2? Because to define f ,you need f(1,0) and f(0,1) . You can choose f(1,0) in |G| ways and f(0,1) in |G| ways
idk
Bc f(1,0)f(0,1) = f(1,1) = f(0,1)f(1,0)
yeah, so you choose the image of wlog (1, 0), then the image of (0, 1) is in the centralizer of that, so you count up those and thats it?
odlk
so each function can be mapped
to an element not in the centralizer?
@sharp sonnet
the map is uniquely determined by the images of (1,0) and (0,1)
once you map either, you have to map the other to an element in the centralizer of the first due to what zak said
so you just have to compute $\sum_{g \in G}\lvert C_G(g)\rvert$
LochverstΓ€rker:
use orbit stabilizer to compute the sum
Hint: $(\alpha\alpha'\beta)^2 = (\alpha(\alpha'\beta))^2$.
leoli1:
The product of all monic irreducible polynomials in a finite field $\mathbb{F}_q$ is $(x^q-1)$ or finite field $\mathbb{F}_p^m$ is like $(x^{p^m} -1)$.. yes? or is it something else?
jm:
I am a bit confused on what you're trying to say, there are monic irreducible polynomials over F_q of arbirtrarily high (in fact every) degree
Every element of F_{q^n} satisfies x^{q^n} - x, and a definition of F_{q^n} is the splitting field of x^{q^n} - x over F_q
So the minimal polynomial of every element in F_{q^n} over F_q divides x^{q^n} - x if that's what you're trying to say
Maybe that's what I'm trying to say. I antrying to get the product $\prod{i\in \mathbb{F}_{2^4}, i\neq 0, 15}(x-\alpha^i)$
jm:
$$\prod{i\in \mathbb{F}_{2^4}, i\neq 0, 15}(x-\alpha^i)$$
jm:
jm:
I think it's x^{2^4} - x.
Well the product of all the $x - \alpha$ has degree $2^4$, and they are all coprime, and they all divide $x^{2^4} -x$
not 24, 2^4.. or 16.
Brofibration:
Right. Ok.
Then, if get rid of the x-0 term we have the $2^4-1$ and then, can we get rid of $(x-\alpha^{15})$. I'm trying to figure out where that term went. is $(x-\alpha^{15}) = (x-1)$ if $\alpha$ is a root of $x^4 + x^3 +1$. Then i can factor $(x-1)$ to get the product of all these min.pols.
jm:
Thanks.
I am super confused on what you're trying to do, we always have $(x- \alpha^{15}) = (x-1)$
Brofibration:
Im assuming $\alpha \in F_{2^4}$
Brofibration:
ya. I'm trying to figure out BCH codes.
Which means I need the product of all the polynomials $(x-\alpha^i)$ for $1 \leq i \leq 14$, which I am concluding is $x^{14} + x^{13} + \cdots + x + 1$.
jm:
Where $\alpha$ is a root of $x^4 + x^3 + 1$, the generator.
jm:
jm:
well if x^4 + x^3 + 1 is irreducible then it is
yeah it is irreduducible
it has no quadratic factors
and no roots
so $F_2[x]/(x^4 + x^3 + 1) \simeq F_{2^4}$
Brofibration:
for dimension reasons
which means that the root will generate the multiplicative group
or does it hmm
yeah it should, as x^4 + x^3 + 1 probably does not divide x^7 - 1
nvm im being stupid the root cannot live in a smaller field extension
yeah it should be a primitive
.Thank you so much for all your help.
Hey would someone be willing to help me out with some homework for my abstract algebra course? Not looking for full solutions, just want to be pointed in the right direction
Let $\phi : G \rightarrow H$ be a homomorphism of groups with $K = ker(\phi)$. Suppose $m \leq G$. Prove $\phi^{-1}(\phi(M)) = MK$
What's tripping me up is the $\phi^{-1}(\phi(M))$ because intuitively I would just think that's M but there must be some reason the question is written in this way
Yeah I just intuitively assumed that would be M
slimvesus:
Ah ok so it also includes the elements of G that map to an element in $\phi(M)$ but aren't also in $M$?
Dunceular:
Hi, I was wondering if anybody could help me on this homework problem. I'm guessing we have to use First Isomorphism Theorem, but not sure how to construct a homomorphism going from a space of hom's to a cartesian product.
I think you have to send the function with f(1) = r1, f(2) = r2 and f(3) = r3 to (r1, r2, r3)
Prove that is a homomorphism
I see
Let K be a field and a be an algebraic element such that min_K (a) is not a separable polynomial. Is it true that the field extension K(a) will be purely inseparable?
I think it's not true
There's some example with the rational function in 2 variables over F_2 iirc
but im blanking on it
Hmm okay
Can someone explain how this definition of perfect is equivalent to the definition that K is perfect iff every algebraic extension of K is separable?
proving every alg. extension is seperable => there are no non-trivial purely inseparable alg. extensions is easy
I can't get the reverse implication though
Suppose that there are no non-trivial purely inseparable extensions. Let F be an algebraic extension with a in F being inseparable over K.
If I could somehow show that K(a) is purely inseparable over K then we would be done
But as Brofibration said, that does not seem to be true
Hmm
I don't see how exactly I would prove that
Let F be an inseparable extension w/ a an inseparable element
The only way I can think of is to show that K(a) must be purely separable
which is what I was trying earlier
I should say that Brofibration might be wrong about it so it is worth thinking of a proof
because I don't really see any other way of proving this
Try proving it this way: No inseperable algebraic eextensions iff K = K^p iff no purely inseperable extension
By K = K^p I mean you have all pth roots
char K = p
Viburnum are you assuming that there is an inseparable algebraic extension?
and then trying to show that that gives us a non-trivial purely separable algebraic extension?
im pretty sure you can have an inseperable extension with no purely inseperable sub extension
inseparable*
Something Artin-schreier-ish
Let F be an inseparable extension over K and let L be the set of all separable elements over K
What do you think I should do next Viburnum?
Hmm okay. Maybe there's a different way to prove the equivalence
Im pretty sure the equivalence K = K^p iff no purely insep shouldnt be bad
Is K^p the set of everything raised to the power of p?
yup
If there is nor purely insep, then x^p - a must have a root
for any a in K
If K = K^p, then assume we have an extension L/K. Fix a in L. Assume we have a^p^n in K for some n. Assume n is minimal. Then (a^p^n-1)^p in K
so a^p^n-1 in K
contradiction
So that does K = K^p iff no purely insep extension
Now we need all finite extensions are seperable iff K = K^p
Assume all finite extensions are separable, then we must have a root for X^p -a for all a in K
I think the other direction might be a wee bit hard
Yeah we would just need to show that all irreducibles are separable.
An irred poly is separable iff deerivative is not zero
Assume we have an irred poly p
If the polynomial has a term of the form X^l where l is not a power of p, then the derivative is not zero
as l \neq 0 in K
Therefore assume the poly is of the form $X^{p^n} + a_{n-1}X^{p^{n-1}} + ... + a_0$
Brofibration:
But now as we have $K = K^p$, we can write thee polynomial as $X^{p^n} + a_{n-1}X^{p^{n-1}} + ... + a_0 = (X^n + b_{n-1}X^{n-1}+ ... + b_0)^p$
where the b_i are pth roots of a_i
Brofibration:
which means the poly was not irred
and we are done
ye i think that does it lol
phew
I guess
K = K^p is a pretty neat definition of perfect
i don't think the proof used anything fancy
That's what I just did
You showed all finite ext. are separable iff K^p = K
oh you mean infinite ones
Yeah
it doesnt matter, if you have an inseperable algebraic extension, then you have an inseperable finite extension
but just picking the field generated by some inseperable element
Wait so
why does all finite extensions being separable imply that x^p - a has a root for every a?
hmm
yeah
if it had no roots
adjoin root alpha
then alpha is all the roots
as x^p - a = (x-alpa)^p
so not seperable
contradiction
?
we dont care
all factors of x^p -a will only have alpha as roots
no linear factor as no root in K
so we have some irred poly with repeated roots
thee min poly of alpha divides x^p - a
the*
but it cannot be x-a as otherwise alpha is in K
no problem
We showed K = K^p iff no purely insep at the start
@sturdy marsh I think there might be a problem with no non-trivial purely inseparable extension => K^p = K
You say that given a in K, x^p - a must have root
I'm assuming that you used contradiction for this
Suppose there are no roots in K
Let alpha be a root
then the minimum polynomial of alpha must be of the form (x-alpha)^n where 1 < n =< p. Therefore alpha is not separable
I'm guessing that the contradiction you went for is that K(alpha) is then a purely inseparable extension
However, it is not obvious why if alpha is inseparable then K(alpha) is purely inseparable.
Not formally taking a class in this subject but I wanted to ask if X=G/N does that mean N x X=G?
no
We indeed get a bijection $N\times X\to G$, $(n,Nx)\mapsto nx$ (after selecting representatives for the cosets) of sets, but in general we don't get an isomorphism as groups. Take for example $G=\mathbb{Z},N=2\mathbb{Z}$, then $2\mathbb{Z}\times \mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}\not\cong\mathbb{Z}$.
leoli1:
Nvm
It says to compute the permutation compositions, I don't understand how you would compute the 100th exponent though, and also what change does absolute value make?
Obviously there's a better way to do that haha. Do you know what the order of an element is? Do you know what the order of (1254) would be?
When you get a problem like this and you don't know what to do, just start multiplying. You might notice a pattern.
It says to compute the permutation compositions, I don't understand how you would compute the 100th exponent though, and also what change does absolute value make?
@obsidian path
I think you have to find the order of (1254) then applied 100 mod |(1254)|
Ah I get it now sorry I should've said something
but yeah you're right
since you're here may I ask for confirmation
is the answer (3254)?
When you get a problem like this and you don't know what to do, just start multiplying. You might notice a pattern.
the issue is that I was confused with the multiplication earlier
still kind of am
25 is cancelled out because the order brings it back to the identity
then you get 3 goes to 1, 1 goes to 2, 2 to 5 and 5 to 4
is that correct?
Oh ok.. true
what about this? 1 goes to 2, then 2 is stopped, then you get 2 to 5, 5 to 3 right? so (253)
Yes, ans 3 to 2
@vestal snow alpha is purely inseparable over K as alpha^p is in K. Every element in K(alpha)/K will also have this property. Any element is a K linear combo of 1, alpha, alpha^2, ... raise it to the pth power and you land back in K. So the extension is purely inseparable.
2
right; next, where does 2 get mapped to?
but (23567) disagrees since 1 gets mapped to 2
right.. so do you do (123567)?
no...
i mean okay listen
im confused what you mean by
"compute"
whats the end goal
that's fair
since this is already a product of disjoint cycles
which is what we usually look for
there's no way to write it as a single cycle, if that's what you're looking for
ok well
what if you were trying to find the composition of the two cycles?
is that any different?
or sorry, compute the composition rather
"product" and "composition" of cycles are the same thing
right
the resulting permutation cant be expressed with a single cycle
what do you think? do you have any guesses?
well.. I assume inverse just means you're flipping the pointers
so instead of 1 maps to 2, it should be 2 maps to 1
yeah, essentially
well.. that's why I was trying to compute the two first and then seeing if I can just do that instead
the inverse of a permutation is just that permutation backwards
now if these weren't disjoint permutations
you'd have to be careful
since $(ab)^{-1} = b^{-1}a^{-1}$
Namington:
so you'd have to make sure to place the two cycles in the correct order
but compositions of disjoint cycles commute so
thats not necessary here
right
i'll write it that way anyway though
so that made me think that it's actually harder
so clearly I don't understand lmao
$[(1\ 2\ 3\ 5)(4\ 6\ 7)]^{-1} = (4\ 6\ 7)^{-1}(1\ 2\ 3\ 5)^{-1}= (7\ 6\ 4)(5\ 3\ 2\ 1)$
Namington:
but we traditionally rewrite cycles to start with the lowest number so
$(4\ 7\ 6)(1\ 5\ 3\ 2)$
Namington:
and its easy enough to check that the composition of this with the original yields us the identity permutation ()
so then you're saying
if they weren't disjoint
we wouldn't be able to use that law?
$(ab)^{-1} = b^{-1}a^{-1}$
Deku:
ay
we'd be able to use that law
thats fine
its just that
becuase they're disjoint, that isnt NECESSARY
if we wrote $a^{-1}b^{-1}$ instead
Namington:
it'd still work
oooh I see
since disjoint cycle composition commutes
but if they werent disjoint, that isnt necessarily true
consider eg
(1 2)(1 2 3) vs (1 2 3)(1 2)
[it shouldnt be too hard to see why disjoint cycle composition commutes, though]
yeah thats the idea
if we have two cycles ab
if a affects some element x
then b doesnt affect x
by disjointness
(more properly, b maps x to itself)
and vice versa; if b affects x, a doesnt
oooh that makes more sense
so it doesnt matter what "order" in which we do these since
no matter what, they'll never "get in each other's way"
yes no worries hahah, thanks for checking on me :'))
oh hi
If I don't know that H is a group but I found that
f : G -> H is a homomorphism, H is a group?
Well wouldn't that depend on what kind of structure G is?
a function is a morphism in its own category
a function is automatically a morphism of sets
Let N_p denote the number of p-Sylow subgroups of a group G. Prove that if G is simple then |G| divides N_p! for all primes p in the factorization of |G|.
Isn't G=Z/pZ a counterexample to this?
can someone help a sistah out
Go for it!
I guess that is true, but subfield implies subring
It says there "Subfield"
You have to prove that is close under sustraction and division
$a,b \in \mathbb{Q[\sqrt{2}]}\implies a - b, a/b \in \mathbb{Q[\sqrt{2}]}$
Basically go through the axioms that define what a field is, and ensure that your set has them
There do exist quick tests. Be sure you know what they are if you are going to use them
Enigsis:
It is inherited from G
I can show closure by manipulating what it means to be in K but
associativity is the one thats confusing me
G has an associative binary operation. K uses it as well
I guess since (alphabeta)^2 = (betalpha)^2?
ah gotcha
Just because it operates on less elements doesn't mean it stops being associative
so in a proof that K is a subgroup i could just observe it is associative
yeah ive shown its closed and not empty
That's it, associativity property follows from be a subset of G
"division" that's inacurate
You have to prove closure and inverse elements (which can be done in a single thing)
Identity elemets follows from take a/a
Division isn't inaccurate
ab^{-1}
You can think of a divisin
a/b
this is what my teacher gave me for the existence of an inverse
Agree that using / as a symbol and calling it division is an odd choice in group theory
But it does work
but it seems to skirt any mention of an identity
Prove identity yourself! Take G's identity. Is it in K?
Well if a is in the set and a^-1 is in the set and its closed then a*a^-1 = Id is in the set
actually im having trouble with the inverse part too
I get that inverse of any Beta is also a member of G
but that seems kind of redundant because to prove the existence of an inverse i have to be working with the same element of G the entire time
any suggestions?
you don't have to work with the same element of G the entire time, but you need to end back up with beta in (beta a inverse)^2 at the end @cinder bone
yeah
are you stuck somewhere?
i guess the problem is getting from [(beta-inverse * a)^2]-inverse to [(a * beta-inverse )^2]-inverse
it looks like i need a commutative property
like i need to switch the beta inverse and a on this
yep. check your assumption. For alpha, we have (alpha beta)^2 = (beta alpha)^2 for any beta in G
np
$$f: R \to S$$
Tobii:
damn beat me to it
ty ty
Okay, so an isomorphism would be map R to that set of matrices, what do u think this map should be
oo i got it now loll
someone know how i can move this == sign below the matrix
Consider $f ( a + b) = f(a) + f(b)$\\
Let
\begin{equation*}
f(a + b ) =
\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 0\\
0 & a +b
\end{pmatrix}```
ampersand
don't know if the equation environment supports this or if you explicitly need align
oh
,, \begin{equation*} a &= abc\ test &= lol\ \end{equation*}
lol
Okay either I'm way too tired or the bot is trolling me
Tobii:
\begin{align*} a &= abc\\ test &= lol \end{align*}
if you just want a bad looking line break \\ will do the thing on it's own
oo
and i need help with this. i've already gotten the identity element which seems to be 0, but then i get $a^{ln(a^{-1})}=0$
Williamg:
It can't be zero as 0 isn't part of G
frick, i dumn. that means i must have made a mistake
well you want that $\forall a\in G: ea = ae = a$
Tobii:
the identity element a * e = a^ln(e)=a
so if you write that with the definition it should be apparent what the identity is :'D
which means ln(e)=1
And yes I chose e because it was our convention for the identity and not because it fits here
it's eulers number as:
$ae= a^{ln(e)} = a^1 = a$ and $ ea = e^{ln(a)} =a$
Tobii:
yea
thanks
is G an abelian group?
oh, ich sehe erst jetzt, dass du deutsch bist
It's easier to show when you remember the identity $a^b = e^{b*ln(a)}$
Tobii:
I have no formula for the inverse, but you can use the properties of the log function that such a value must exist in G
solve $a^{\ln(b)} = e$ for, say, $b$
ball:
I've solved the main question. But I wonder what to say to the question "What can you say if S is infinite?"?
Idts
Because aren't you using finiteness of S to say there is an element e such that e*a=a for an a?
Nah that has nothing todo with finiteness
I can tell you that 1*x in the real numbers is also x
and R is infinite
How do you know there is such an element 1,which does that?
Without explicitly defining R to have such a 1.(Or constructing it to have 1)
I was using the fact that the function f:S->S f(g)=g.a is an injection and also a surjection because of same cardinality
That leads down a whole rabbit hole about maths was "invented" and such I guess
am I reading that correctly as g times a?
Yes,(assume we are fixing a for the rest)
Since that's a bijection,there should be some e such that e.a=a and left inverse b such that b.a=e
Similarly e' and b' such that a.e'=a and a.b'=e'
With algebraic manipulations,we can show e=e' and b=b'
And ultimately show a.e=e.a=a for all a in S
@slow osprey @carmine fossil is this a ring???
How do I formally prove that this is a ring????
Example lol
Say the axiom of additive inverse
I don't know how this works for matrices
It works the same as it does for anything else
How do I formally show closure though?
Also, what are the elements in your ring?
$a,b \in Z$
set of Upper triangular matrices?
nzrpi:
Is entry in 1st row 2nd common always even ?
No, The question is vague
Nvm,Jt's a typo
Anyway for example take the axiom of additive identity
Take a matrix A=
[a 2b]
[0 a]
[0 0]
[0 0]
Is the additive identity
Check it by applying + on A and 0 matrix
Manually compute the multiplicative inverse and say that doesn't lie in the set
So counter example?
Yes
$\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 2\0& 1\end{pmatrix}$*x=
$\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0\0& 1\end{pmatrix}$ where x =
$\begin{pmatrix} 1 & -2\0& 1\end{pmatrix}$
nzrpi:
x isn't in the set, is it??? Of course not right?
Is the span of all nontrivial normal subgroups of G = G?
what does span mean?
the answer is probably no whatever its definition -- consider a simple group.
Except for simple groups
Try D6
Yeah lol
so the span of H_1 and H_2 is like the subgroup generated by them?
it's a good question i think. good for developing intuition around groups.
I'm trying to show that, if $H_1$ and $H_2$ are subgroups of a group $G$, and $H_1\cup H_2=G$, then either $H_1=G$ or $H_2=G$. The furthest I've gotten is showing that if $g_1\in H_1$ and $g_2\in H_2$ then $g_1,g_2\in G$ and therefore $g_1g_2\in G$, which means that either $g_1g_2\in H_1$ (which infers $g_2\in H_1$) or $g_1g_2\in H_2$ (which infers $g_1\in H_2$). I'm not sure how to exactly develop this into showing that this means either $H_1$ or $H_2$ is equivalent to $G$. Any help?
bela:
I think you can use the same argument as Vector Spaces
i asked my prof and he said to basically extend the logic and propose that $g_1$ is not in $H_2$ and $g_2$ is not in $H_1$, but then by showing that that cannot be true, then it follows that either $H_1$ and/or $H_2$ must contain all elements of $G$
bela:
I think there was almost this problem in chill channel a few days ago
Er, NVM, it was a little more different than I remembered
And get the contradiction
If $g_1$ is not in $H_1$, then it have to belong to $H_2$ and if $g_2$ doesn't belong to $H_2$ it have ti belong to $H_1$, but, just do $g_1g_2$
Enigsis:
Just think of subspaces of a vector space, is the same
i haven't learned anything about vector spaces yet
Oh, I see
You can argue this via cardinalities pretty easily
Well, just do g_1g2
yeah i just did g_1g_2
And find the contradicction
I'm trying to show that, if $H_1$ and $H_2$ are subgroups of a group $G$, and $H_1\cup H_2=G$, then either $H_1=G$ or $H_2=G$. The furthest I've gotten is showing that if $g_1\in H_1$ and $g_2\in H_2$ then $g_1,g_2\in G$ and therefore $g_1g_2\in G$, which means that either $g_1g_2\in H_1$ (which infers $g_2\in H_1$) or $g_1g_2\in H_2$ (which infers $g_1\in H_2$). I'm not sure how to exactly develop this into showing that this means either $H_1$ or $H_2$ is equivalent to $G$. Any help?
@tight otter
Use this
Enigsis:
You can argue this via cardinalities pretty easily
@chilly ocean
How?
||if H1 is more than n/2 elems, then it must be G, so assume H1 and H2 both have cardinality n/2. But H1 and H2 intersect at the identity, so union is less than G, contradiction||
Actually, I think you can do the problem more general, if you suppose that $H_1 \cup H_2$ is a subgroup, then one is contanied in the other
Enigsis:
Ah, I totally missed that, good point
I understand you, hahaha, I take a class in Group Theory and the focus is in Finite Groups
Maybe instead have to argue by index
ooh that's a good solution 88ddda for finite groups
not sure if i'd be allowed to use that technique in this specific homework though
really clever though
Maybe instead have to argue by index
@chilly ocean
Finite is more simple because every proper subset have less cardinality, but, at infinity proper subsets can have the same
@tight otter did you figure out the argument?
and its easier to prove isomorphisms
yep enigsis, thanks 
π
Which is your argument to show that those are the elements of Z(M)?
Z(GL(n, C)) is indeed the set of non-zero scalar multiples of the n x n identity
what was your argument for the 2x2 and 3x3 cases?
and then i'm guessing you made clever choices of B to show that A had the desired form?
that same strategy should work in the general n x n case
the 3x3 case is on my algebra problem set right now lmao
i am pretty sure the answers will be very similar, the former the non-zero real multiples of the identity and the latter the non-zero complex multiples
$\Omega \subset \bm{R}^{n+1}$
88ddda:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
maybe bm requires some package?
Hey would this be a reasonable place to ask about representations and actions of SU(2)?
Yes
ty
can someone help me in ;atex
latex
my code came out weird
If $\Omega$ \subset $\mathbb{R}^{n + 1}$ is a smooth domain (i.e.,\partial $\omega$ is locally representable as the graph of a smooth function), ist boundary is well approximated by n-dimensional affine spaces. For $Q$ $\in$ ${R}^{n + 1}$ and $ r \textgreater 0,$ $B(r , Q)$, denotes the $(n +1)$ - dimensional ball of radius $r$ and center $Q$. The fact that \partial $\Omega$. The fact that \partial $\Omega$ can be well approximated by n-dimensional planes can be expressed as follows: for a point $Q$ $\in$ \partial $\Omega$ and a radius $ r$ $\textgreater 0$ sufficiently small there exists a number $\theta$( r, Q) $\textgreater 0$ such that the intersection of the boundary with the ball of the radius $r$ and center $Q$, \partial $\Omega$ $\cap$ $B (r, Q)$ is contained in a tubular neighborhood of width $ r\theta$ $( r, Q)$ about the tangent plane of \partial \Omega at $Q$, $T_{Q}$```
Whoever:
about the tangent plane of $\partial \Omega$ at $Q$, $T_{Q}$
Put $ around the math part please
how can i fix this
\par
The Hausdorff distance $D$ between two sets $A$ ,$B$ $\subset$ ${R}^{n + 1}$ is defined by:\
\begin{align*}
D[ A,B] &= max {sup {d(a,B): a \in A},
\end{align*}
SUNSHINE:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
Whoever:
hmm i tried it this way but idk whats wrong
it comes out weird
The Hausdorff distance $D$ between two sets $A$ ,$B$ $\subset$ ${R}^{n + 1}$ is defined by:\\
\begin{align*}
D[A,B] &= \max{\sup {d(a,B): a \in A}}, sub \max{d(b, A): b \in B}.\\
\end{align*}
D[A,B]=\max{\sup {d(a,B): a \in A}}```
SUNSHINE:
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I think you should ask those questions in #discussion
how do you prove that something is a nonempty for a subring
for this one
we have to show its a subring first right ?
one of the coditions says 1. show thats nonempty
that set looks super nonempty to me
Yeah, literally choose any values for r and s and say that that element belongs to it, so it's nonempty.
oh like what values?
your favorite
2 and 6?
if those are your favorites
yes but we pick any number since its rational numbers
well any pair of them would show that the set there is nonempty
there you have it, a proof that the set is nonempty
okay, how can i start my proof
are you sure you posted the right problem?
yes, i only showed that its a subring
The problem says that you have to prove is a subfield
i just need to prove if its a subfield too
so we dont need to prove if its a subring first?
i think im confused
Yes, you can
You need to prove then, that inverses exists for every element and that's it
oh okay, can you check if my steps for subring is right?
It seems good to me
okie
to show that something is a subfield
it has satisfy addition, multiplication, multiplicative identity and additive inverse?
And multiplicative inverse
π€¦ββοΈ I was confused what you meant by field for like 2 days, I just now realized it translates to the German "KΓΆrper" in a math context :-)
Yes
I think only in English is called field
By a bad translation (That was I read)
@leaden finch You could check too that if a,b in S then
a - b, ab^(-1) in S, that's a criterion
@solemn rain yo homeboy where did you learn group stuff from?
Books
can someone help me with this
creating a table
but my teacher said that theres a fast way to do it ?
hmm no
isnt Z2_2 : { 0, 1}
mm okay
so then
hmmm not sure
isnt like a * x = a?
you just need a triple (a,b,c) such that for any element (x,y,z) of your ring, (a,b,c)(x,y,z) = (x,y,z)(a,b,c) = (x,y,z)
where (a,b,c)(x,y,z) = (ax,by,cz)
@leaden finch
are we suppose to find the units ?
nope. but you know the multiplicative identities in Z2, Z3, and Z5
err, maybe you don't know. If you have Z3 = {0,1,2} for example, then 1 is the identity since 1x = x1 = x mod 3 for any x in Z3.
Does that make sense? Because by definition of equivalence mod 3, we have x = y mod 3 iff x - y is a multiple of 3. well, since 1x - x = 0, and 0 is a multiple of 3, we must have 1x = x mod 3
feel free to ask if you still have any questions, sunshine, but I'm just going to leave a quick question here too.
In the theorem, when they say "G is the direct product of a finite number of indecomposable subgroups," they are including the case when G is indecomposable, right?
alright, that makes sense. thanks
np
Hello ! I couldn't find anything on the internet, so perhaps it's no known result... Is there some kind of formula for either 1) the characteristic polynomial, or 2) the spectral radius of a Vandermonde matrix ?
@chilly canyon Did you find an answer? I thought it was an interesting question but idk.
Nope, nothing at all... Maybe I should open a MSE question, but I managed to solve my problem differently soooo :)
But yeah I'd also like some kind of answer, even though I doubt there's some "nice" formula
For cases where the coefficients are all positive, Perron Froebenius gives a tiny tiny bit of answer, but it's far from being efficient in practice
Is there more context? I'm curious about what you were looking at
if a group G acts transitively on A
is it fair to assume that the stabilizer of any element a in A
is just the identity in G
<@&286206848099549185>
So first off you're not supposed to be pinging helpers until 15 minutes go by
my bad i didnt know the rules
That said, the answer is no, imagine you have an even bigger group G' and a quotient map G'->G
okay that makes sense
im stupid lmao
if A = {a}
then obviously G is transitive
but then the stabilizer of a is the entirety of G
1/3
wait
so does this mean that the identity of a transitive group action is not always unique?
im confused again
ah okay
@chilly ocean s^2 = e
Expand (srs)^j and show that it is sr^js
What does e^X mean here?
Lol so you're talking about a particular type of group
If you're talking about the exponential then it seems like you are
the idea is that a small neighborhood of identity is a generating set for G. the exponential map has a nice derivative at 0, and maps 0 to the identity in G, so the exponential map on lie algebra elements generates G.
but you might be interested in the G-product of two exponentials: exp(X)exp(Y).
So map this group element down to the lie algebra.
turns out this lie algebra element can be computed by the Campbell-Baker-Hausdorff formula.
and it also turns out the CBH formula involves only commutators in X and Y.
so the brackets somehow encode the group product.
@frigid umbra
Can a finite abelian group be p divisible for some prime p?
(for every element y,there is an element x such that y=px)
i think this was an exercise in dummit and foote, my guess is no
That is for divisible groups(well, because the crux step involved a multiple of order of the group n):nG=1, for our p divisible case,we can simply choose p such that p is not n,if n is prime)
Not p divisible ones
i recall something about the map (in fact, homomorphism) x mapsto x^p (frobenius map)
I think that works
(for every element y,there is an element x such that y=px)
@carmine fossil

pZ, works, isn't?
No? Take y=p,x=1 is not in pZ
Ah, right
Z/pZ works
I'm thinking then in a finite field
Yes
A finite integral domain
Z/pZ works with p and abelian
can someone help me with this one
what would be an example of this one
determine if a given subset is a subring
Which?
hmm not sure thats a question what my teacher told us
im not sure what example it would be

{1} is a subset of Z but {1} is a not a subring. An example liek that?
hmm maybe
yea so in problem 1, to show S is a subring, you just have to show that S is nonempty, and closed under multiplication and subtraction
there's only 6 elements.
pretty hard to go faster than just checking each one π
you could use the fact that that thinger is a ringer for Z_6.
i wanted to do the table but my teacher told me that it will take longer
like, a multiplication table?
that does seem like too much work. i was thinking you just go element by element and classify it.
oh can you show me loll
so i think (1,0) is a zero divisor. what do you think?
hmm how do you know thats a zero divsior?
can you find a non-zero element $(a,b)$ so that $(1,0) \cdot (a,b) = (0,0)$?
ball:
do we always pick ( 1,0)?
nope.
we're thinking about 1/6 of your exercise.
however, i think if you understand (1,0), you'll understand a whole lot of others.
it isnt? read it properly
can someone explain too me why 3 is an idempotent?
@leaden finch 3^2=9 = -3 (mod 12)
(or just 9)
thus it is not an idempotent
i meant *not idempotent lol
what
i got confused why 3 isnt idempotent
because 3*3 = 9
and 9 is not 3 mod 12
idempotent squared should be the same
prolly if you find out that idem potent roughly is translated as the same power it would make it intuitively more clear
wdym
Go look up the definition of idempotent in your notes/book, and give the precise definition.
So are you guessing the definition?
x is idempotent with respect to an operation * if x*x=x
Does anyone have the time to check the output for my Python code? I have written a function which is supposed to generate the multiplication tables for the groups (Z/11Z)* and (Z/12Z)* but I'm not sure if the output is correct and I am not sure how I can check this:
Why is it posting 11 columns?
That may be a small bug.
Ignore that column
If it's wrong, that is
I can easily cut it out if it's wrong
Z/11Z has 11 elements, but you seem to omit the 0 element, so that should be a 10*10 table?
otherwise the values look good while glancing over them
Oh, I forgot that Z/11Z includes 0. I guess just remove that last column and add a column of zeroes to the beginning?
(Z/11Z)* has 10 elements
11 is prime so the unit-group(is it called that in english) well the thing that only has the invertible elements has 10 elements
If you include 0,it wouldn't have an inverse
That's what I thought. I was thinking I just need to remove that last column where all the values are the same?
I'm not sure about the 2nd table though, but yes
Isn't (Z/12Z)* = {1, 5, 7, 11}?
Yes
So all the elements should be elements in that set
Because it's a multiplicative Abelian group
(Yeah i just failed calculating eulers phi function, my result was 5 every time lol)
So it seems to be correct but for that last column
Oh, that reminds me. I've seen Euler's phi function defined as phi(N) = |(Z/NZ)*| for abstract algebra, but I've also seen it in RSA crypto defined as (p-1) * (q-1). Are they both the same?
Yes(assuming n=pq and p,q are primes)
Thanks for clearing that up! π
Well that's a special case as if p is a prime then phi(p) = p - 1
and phi(p*q) = phi(p)*phi(q)
specifically in rsa we dont use p^2 cuz trivial to factor and pqrst... cuz security is size of largest prime factor so pq is best in size and hardness to factor
usually we also do LCM(p-1,q-1) cuz thats the order of elements in group of coprime integers mod pq
@frigid umbra sup
So I've got this problem I'm working on. I'll latex both the problem and what I have so far just to make sure we're clear that I am not just fishing for an answer.
So first, the problem:
Let $G$ be a finite group of order $n$. Also, let $m\in\mathbb{Z}^{+}$ and $gcd(m,n) = 1$. Suppose that $a$ is sn element of $G$ satisfying $a^{m} = e$. Prove that $G$ is cyclic.
HisMajestytheSquid:
What I have:
Now since $a^{m} = e$ we have that $|a| = |\langle a\rangle| = m$. By corollary $2$ of Lagrange's theorem we have that $|\langle a \rangle|\vert |G|$. That is, $|G| = |\langle a\rangle|k$ for some $k\in\mathbb{Z}$.
HisMajestytheSquid:
@open torrent, Something like $mx + ny = 1$ for some $x,y\in\mathbb{Z}$?
HisMajestytheSquid:
be careful: $a^m = e$ doesn't imply that the order of $a$ is $m$.
ball:
I guess it could be some multiple of the order then, correct?
yeah
There is a corollary I have here that goes something along the lines that if $G$ is a finite group for an element $a\in G$, $a^{|G|} = e$. Is this something I can use to simplify my problem a little?
HisMajestytheSquid:
seems doubtful to me.
G is supposed to be cyclic. I wonder what the generator is.
oh, hm. actually, the fact that $a^{|G|} = e$ might come in handy!
ball:
Oh!
Okay then
The generator thing is something I considered but I wasn't sure how to go about using that. The corollary that I mentioned seems like if I can show that |G| is some multiple of m then I cam perhaps find a generator? Or show that a is a generator of G
Jfc
I wrote the problem down wrong
i was about to say...
Sorry for bothering you guys
this only happens when a = 1
har.
proof. a^m = e implies that |a| divides m. But |a| divides n. Since gcd(m,n) = 1, |a| divides mn. So mn is at least |a|, which implies m = 1 <- doesn't follow
correct proof: ||since gcd(m,n) = 1, cm + dn = 1 for some integers c,d. Then a = a^1 = a^{cm + dn} = a^{cm}a^{dn} = e using ur corollary and assumptions||
Yeah, that last bit at the end is what I'm actually supposed to be proving.
You're all good. Thanks for the help anyway guys.
How does the map being R-bi-additive give me an R hom
I thought it only gives me a Z hom
doesn't it follow from the universal property? or are you saying that the universal property only gives you a Z-linear map?
Yeah
This map isn't R bilinear
If I define $\psi: R \times M \rightarrow M$ by $\psi(r,m)=rm$, I understand that the map satisfies $\psi(rs,m)=(rs)m=r(sm)=\psi(r,sm)$, but I don't see why $s\psi(r,m)=\psi(rs,m)$
HelixKirby:
Like, it is true if R is commutative, or even if s is in the center of R
i got made fun of once for thinking about non-commutative rings. i haven't gotten over it yet.
Honestly, I don't really care much for them, they just make everything less nice
In some references (wikipedia), bilinearity is right-linear for the first argument and left-linear in the second.
Apparently it just works..
$\phi(s(r\otimes m))=\phi(sr\otimes n)=\phi(h(sr,m))=\psi(sr,m)=(sr)m=s(rm)=s\psi(r,m)=s\phi(r\otimes m)$
HelixKirby:
Even though the map $\psi: R \times M \rightarrow M$ is not $R$ bilinear...
HelixKirby:
Yeah, are you sure the sided-ness of the action in each argument?
perhaps they are emphasizing that $R$ is an $(R,R)$-bimodule to show that the resulting $\mathbb{Z}$-homomorphism from $R \otimes_R M \to M$ can be promoted to a morphism of $R$-modules?
ball:
the right $R$-module structure on $R$ gets 'eaten' by the left $R$-module structure on $M.$
ball:
Yeah, but the book said that we could only make R-bi-linear maps into R homs
I guess this is an exception...
Even though $\psi: R\times M \rightarrow M$ is not R bilinear, the tensor product one is
HelixKirby:
yeah, im not sure this represents an exception.
It seems like it, normally there's no guarantee that taking this R bi additive map and turning it into the map on the tensor product turns it into an R map
The only thing for sure you're guaranteed is an Abelian group hom
How bizarre
i guess i mean it doesn't strike me as an exception to the universal property.
the universal property gives you a Z-hom. this can be promoted to a left R-hom.
by using the left-R structure on R which didn't get eaten.
Yes, but you also supposedly had to use that the R bi additive map was also R bilinear
For the promotion
I think for exactly the reason you outline above, the tensor product of a right R-module M and a left R-module N is itself an R-module only if R is commutative
But the action doesn't associate correctly to be a left action (unless right actions and left actions are the same, ie R is commutative)
Ugh, I wish I could just deal with commutative rings
In order to be eaten "correctly" $r(m\otimes n) = (mr \otimes n)$
Turgul:
Btw, what does a fortiori mean?
i don't understand that. i would define r(m \otimes n) to be (rm \otimes n). is there something incorrect about this?
I don't think it would necessarily be an R module
Or maybe it is
I don't know
I mean, what is rm?
That's not even defined
Well, at the very least, you would lose the isomorphism $R \otimes N \cong N$
M is an (R,R)-bimodule.
Turgul:
sorry, we might be talking past eachother. fuckin non-commutative rings. har.
For sure. It's telling that most people that take tensor products assume R is commutative (ie in Lang's Algebra)
Like, it got upgraded, normally I'd get a Z hom, but in this case, I actually got an R hom
It's sufficient but not necessary I guess
An R bi additive function can sometimes lift to an R map
But for sure it will be a Z map
Maybe helpful:
i think the magic is in R.
because R is an (R,R)-bimodule.
in general, if M is an (S,R)-bimodule, and N is a left R-module, then M \otimes_R N is a left S-module.
I see, why don't we just allow the tensor product to be of two left modules and just say $r(m\otimes n)=rm\otimes n = m \otimes rn$
HelixKirby:
Does something go wrong?
If you look at the link I posted, it forces $(rs)(m \otimes n) = (sr)(m \otimes n)$
Turgul:
Like, why do you have to shift from left to right
No, I made it so that doesn't happen
It's not the same as a tensor product
you want some kind of associativity in your ring action though.
$(rs)(m \otimes n) = r(m \otimes sn) = (rm \otimes sn) = s(rm \otimes n) = (sr)(m \otimes n)$
Turgul:
Oops, didn't mean to delete
$rs(m\otimes n)= rsm\otimes
n= sm \otimes rn = m\otimes rsn$
HelixKirby:
But from $sm \otimes rn$ you are allowed to pull the r or the s out of the tensor product in either order
Turgul:
So, you can, but this definition kills off a lot of things you might not want dead
But we're stuck with something that's not an R-module
Moral of the story, be careful around tensor products :p
Anyway, cheers
Yeah, I know you should never try to define a function out of a tensor product
How can I show that S_n acting on Z[x_1,...,x_n] is a group action?
say $ \sigma , \tau \in S_n$ and $f(x_1, \cdots , x_n) \in \mathbb{Z}[x_1, \cdots , x_n]$
The formerly edible banana:
applying $\tau$ first gives us $f(x_{\tau(1)}, \cdots , x_{\tau(n)})$
The formerly edible banana:
Say $p(x_1,\cdots ,x_n) = f(x_{\tau(1)}, \cdots , x_{\tau(n)})$
The formerly edible banana:
How do I show that applying $\sigma$ on $p(x_1,\cdots ,x_n)$ gives me $f(x_{\sigma \tau(1)}, \cdots , x_{\sigma \tau(n)})$
The formerly edible banana:
Lol, when you type a whole essay (i know I'm exaggerating, leave me alone) and answer your own question
Haha yeah
I realized the action literally was "apply sigma to every indeterminate's index"
Is the answer c?
Thanks
Hey, I had this question about the number of orbits of a group when acting on a set and the size of the group itself. In particular, whenever you have G < Sn and an n element set, it seems like the more orbits you have, the less permutations there are. This certianly seems true whenever the number of orbits is n (because they are disjoint etc etc so G must only have the identity), but I cannot seem to find any good upper bound on the order of G dependant on the number of orbits.
I did calculate examples for all subgroups of S3 acting on {1,2,3} and got (# of orbits)/3 which just can't be a general thing.
Moreover, I figured a necessary lower bound must be (# of orbits), but I won't write that argument out.
I don't really understand what you're saying. the result i know of for counting orbits is the Burnside Lemma. you might give that a look.
i alr saw that @vital quail
@chilly ocean this probably doesnt answer your question but in general for a group G, subgroups H,K of G and a K-set X we have $(X \uparrow^G_K)\downarrow^G_H = \bigcup_{x \in [H \backslash G / K]}(^x(X\downarrow^K_{H^x\cap K}))\uparrow^H_{H \cap ^xK}$.
Brofibration:
The usual action of S_n on the usual n element set is the induced G-set from the action of S_n-1 on a singleton
oh wait does this do it
the restriction $(X\downarrow^K{H^x\cap K}) = *$ as X is a singleton
Brofibration:
then after you conjugate and induce then the H-set you get is $H/H \cap ^xK$
Brofibration:
which is transitive
so the number of orbits is in bijection with the number of double cosets H\S_n/S_n-1
Im considering Sn-1 to be the subgroup that fixes n btw
oh wait this did not really do anything lol
counting double cosets H\S_n/S_n-1 is the same as counting orbits ahahahahahaha
@chilly ocean this probably doesnt answer your question but in general for a group G, subgroups H,K of G and a K-set X we have $(X \uparrow^G_K)\downarrow^G_H = \bigcup_{x \in [H \backslash G / K]}(^x(X\downarrow^K_{H^x\cap K}))\uparrow^H_{H \cap ^xK}$.
@sturdy marsh what does the arrow notation mean
wy:
