#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 515 of 407
thats it? LOL
can someone explain where the equalities and isomorphisms come from in the proof of part b that i have circled?
can someone help me with axiom rings
yea go ahead and ask @leaden finch
or if someone can answer my question, feel free to do so
@thorn delta according to the text, "theorem-i.8.9"
i think its mislabeled. i.8.9 tells us that if G is the internal direct sum of subgroups, then each element can be written uniquely as a finite sum from finitely many of the subgroups
so that allows us to identify the internal direct sum Ni with the direct sum Gi, but not the isomorphisms.
the fact that $\sum_{i \in I} G_i / \sum_{i \in I} mG_i \cong \sum_{i \in I} G_i/mG_i$ follows from theorem i.8.11, but i don't see why all the stuff in between $G/mG$ and $\sum_{i \in I} G_i/mG_i$ must hold.
kxrider:
right, but that doesn't justify the isomorphism between the quotients
for example, 3Z is iso to 2Z but Z/2Z is not iso to Z/3Z
can someone give me a 30 minute rundown of homotopy/cohomology/homology/babby's first theorems of alg top?
@ocean magnet
I can't teach cohomology 
"30min rundown", "cohomology". Wtf ?
this is a bit of a tough ask
considering this is, like, an entire textbook's worth of material
i know homotopy is something about transforming loops, cohomology is something about groups, and homology is something
maybe skip homology, i don't hear about that one a lot
homotopy is wiggly-waggly
are you familiar with the fundamental group?
i've heard the name
as its the prototype of homotopy groups
something about loops?
im not sure that says much, but yes
its the group of equivalence classes of loops on a space
(where "equivalence" is homotopy equivalence)
informally, homotopy equivalence is being able to "deform loops into each other"
btw a single point counts as a loop?
uh, yes
i mean formally speaking
a loop is a function, not a point
but yes, a function that maps everything in [0, 1] to a single point is a loop
ok i'm looking at wikipedia, it says fundamental group of a circle is Z, this makes sense to me, but how would i prove rigorously that the loop that is 2pi around is not homotopic to 4pi around?
oh, maybe an intermediate value theorem type thing?
i was thinking something along the lines like, remove a point of the circle to get a line segment, then one loop becomes just a function from one endpoint to the other, and the longer loop becomes two copies of that, then something something
the formal proof here is slightly involved
ok skip this then
so i recall "algebraic topology is about classifying topological spaces", so different funamental group means non-homeomorphic, right?
is that the only point of fundamental groups?
the fundamental group offers a first hint at the idea of "gluing topological spaces together"
(through seifert-van kampen)
and allows us to actually understand these spaces
classification is certainly its main function, but dont underestimate how impactful that actually is
moreover, there is a certain meaning to "going backwards"; start from a group and find spaces that we can associate with it
this slight-of-hand is often done in lie theory
which spaces have fundamental group Z?
many many
you can construct more from the circle through seifert-van kampen
or through deformation retraction
(e.g. this gives you that C \ {0} has fundamental group Z as well)
but there are more examples; for instance, the lie group of unitary matrices
indeed the isomorphism here is actually the determinant onto the circle
unitary matrices are 1 dimensional?
if they are isomorphic to the circle via the determinant
(for a square complex matrix)
im not saying they're isomorphic, i'm saying their fundamental groups are.
and this fundamental group isomorphism is induced by det
ah, so with a loop gamma, a point gamma(t) in unitary matrix space corresponds to |gamma(t)| in circle space?
wait a second..
its more like
if we map U(n) to U(1), this gives us a morphism of fundamental groups
and its easy to see we can "go back"
by "splitting" U(n) into SU(n) and U(1)
and as previously established (since U(1) is topologically a circle), pi_1(U(1)) = Z
one can introduce cohomology in 30 min but without any example. You'll understand nothing
yup
like theres a reason people write entire textbooks on this lmao
can we go back to seifert van kampen?
how does fundamental group mean we can glue stuff together?
how much category theory do you know?
well its more that the fundamental group lets us understand what our glued-together things will look like
i remember functor and category, sort of, and some exercises from algebra class on so and so's lemma or what not
oh, i guess diagram chasing is not really category theory
if u say like something something universal property then i would sort of know what ur talking about
ah ok, so you use the fundamental groups of the smaller pieces to compute the fundamental group of the bigger thing
is seifert van kampen an easy theorem or a hard theorem?
Does anyone here have access to the downloadable MAGMA? As the web version has a time limit set to 120 seconds which is not long enough for my script, if so can someone please run it and tell me the output? Would appreciate it.
u dont have access to it?
i thought i might have downloaded it in the past but no
2k is way too much for me to pay for it
Ah okay
hi, im trying to understand why the determinant yields a monic polynomial with variable z of degree n
that would mean that each c_{i, j} can be expressed in terms of z, which im not seeing why
help would be appreciated! thanks!
i too would like to get magma but no access :/
why would it mean each c_{i,j} can be expressed in terms of z?
because the concluding statement states that det(M_z) is a monic polynomial in variable z of degree n
Mz's coefficients are called mij, not cij
mij are cij if i \neq j, and cij - z if i = j
isn't this a standard result btw? (determinantn is monic degree n?)
characteristic polynomial*
degree n in variable z though?
you just use that one guy's determinant rule (cramer's rule?)
well, im getting that its a linear polynomial in z
since z appears once in the matrix

huh, z appears n times
?!
there is only one entry in the matrix where i=j
ohhh wait...
ok...
i get it
the whole time i was thinking z appears once
typing that out made me realise the mistake
i too would like to get magma but no access :/
@golden pasture if you're a student at NYU you get it for free, go to cims .nyu.edu then search for magma
someone convince my highschool to give us programs then
oh wait i could try to ask from others
john come here
actly if we had like a bunch of ppl wanting magma here
could split cost and patch program to allow multiple isntalls
It comes from my country
Australia :)
Unsw
Sydney
I guess I could ask my colleagues
But email takes forever
Patching it is illegal
Its propirtiary
But it is easy to RE it and patch from what I have heard
how come i can't find a torrent for this thing
prolly cuz no one uses magma
Academics who don't want to ruin the program
Yep
Because sage
A lot of cryptographers use it though
As they're lazy and don't program much
can mathematica do everything sage/magma can?
No
Pari/GP is another good one
But sage uses that
MAGMA is good because it's fast, and solves problems quickly
Just sucks it's proprtitary
Should be a homebrew of it :p
Is anyone here at NYU?
yeah i don't really like all these proprietary shit
Neither
Open source I prefer
But I like MAGMA
Without it being proprtitary
If it wasnt*
does anyone want to learn cohomology with me? https://maths.tcd.ie/~pedro/PHDCLUB.pdf
learn cohomology in 10 pages
oh me I want to learn cohomology
ok im on section 2.1 just starting, we can work through exercises together or smth
My experience with MAGMA was mm... Not a fan of the syntax. No GUI. Good documentation, which is rather important. So quite usable if you are okay with the terminal.
No idea how much the university was paying for it though. We all used the same install on a server. Normal laptops don't have enough power to use it properly anyway.
Pretty sure it is not good at being multi-threaded either. So thr raw clock cycle speed matters, like LaTeX, and eats a silly amount of RAM.
What does the red underlined part mean in this context? My understanding is that φ^-1(g) is some (h,k), but what does that mean when we put an absolute value on it?
Is phi^-1 not a map?
order
Order of the element phi^-1(g)?
yes
Ok, thanks!
anyone good with axiom rings?
i think @ Whoever#7942 is very good with axiom rings 🙂
you forgot to show the whole problem
what are the two operations?

what us 3 relating too?
the operations on the top of the sheet
try to see if there's an additive or multiplicative identity
like a+b=a for all b or a*b=a for all b
@leaden finch yea
um yea I don't quite understand the problem's question
there's additive and multiplicative
what are you confused about?
how do i find the multiplicative identity?
It's the thing when multiplied by anything else gives out the same thign?
just look at your table
yea just do what you did for circle +
with circle x
it's about the top of the page not the table
one element is acting as the identity and the table is reflecting that
how we know?
or wait maybe there is
maybe it's just 1
it isn't 1
but there is one
pretend b is the identity
and set a (x) b = a
solve algebraically for b
you'll get a number
someone posted their solution in my class right now
im cofnused
i thought we could of find it like this?
Which is your doubt? @leaden finch
I have one, a irreducible element is Product of irreducible elements? Like p = p
Does anyone here have MAGMA Computational Computational Algebra System downloaded on their computer? As I have a script I wrote to solve a problem, however I do not have access to MAGMA on my PC as it costs around 2k as it is proprietary software. I have used it in the past. But I do not have access anymore.
And the online MAGMA algebraic software for my problem/script is limited to compute for 120 seconds which is too short for my script.
If anyone has the downloaded version, can you please contact me privately in PM or chat. And I will provide the script I wrote to run.
why cant u write it for another softawre system like sage
sage kinda
sucks af for anything non NT
try implementing like (Z/2Z)x(Z/3Z)x(Z/10Z) and localize it at (1,2,5)
and will start crying
something looks weird
I'm pretty sure there is something weird, I never trust my "proofs" lol
in the third line, you have (ab)^n = a(ab)(ab)(ba)...(ba)b, there is the term (ab)(ba), so somehow something weird is going on with matching bs and as
i think you could fix it by, in the next line, having (ab)^n = aa(ba)(ba)...(ba)bb, i think
I'm flipping elements inside parentheses because the group is Abelian
you could also rewrite this using induction
Maybe I should've made it clearer, I'll improvise that.
in the line (ab)^n = aa(ba)(ba)...(ba)b, you have more a's then bs
you could also rewrite this using induction
@chilly ocean I didn't think of that at all! Thanks, I'll redo this with induction.
Repeating (n-1) sounds cranky anyway
in the line (ab)^n = aa(ba)(ba)...(ba)b, you have more a's then bs
@chilly ocean Yes, I messed up a lil bit. I'll proceed with the induction idea, it ought to be much clearer.
Thanks for the help! :)
Uh a stupid question, but how do I extend induction to negative integers?
something like, it holds for n=-1, then assume for n=k, and show for n=k-1
Thanks, that makes sense.
I'm trying to prove that a group $G$ is Abelian iff for all $a,b\in G$, $(ab)^{-1}=a^{-1}b^{-1}$. The forward implication is easy to prove, but for the backwards implication I'm stuck with the fact that for all $a,b\in G$, $a^{-1}b^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1}$. Do I need some additional assumption to declare $G$ as Abelian?
TedNowKaczynski:
This is enough
As you enumerate over a^-1, b^-1 for all a and b in G you go over everything
This is cuz every element of G is the inverse of something
Namely a = (a^-1)^-1
Now if you aren’t satisfied with that, just say a = g^-1 and b = h^-1 for arbitrary g,h and you get the normal statement (for abelian)
Thanks, that makes sense! I think a=(a^-1)^-1 is sufficient to justify every element has an inverse, and hence the statement holds for all a, b in G.
Yes
The reason I made a point to state it that way is the following
In a proof in representation theory you do something like a sum g over all g in G
Call this element like f for now
To complete a proof you get something like sum g^-1 over all g in G, and by this same logic you conclude this is equal to f
So knowing that enumerating over all inverses is the same as over all normal elements is important
I see. Wait, there's another proposition where I think this could possibly make sense, mind taking a look?
Sure
Let $G$ be a group and let $H={x^{-1}\vert x\in G}$. Show that $G=H$ as sets.
TedNowKaczynski:
Haha yeah this is the same thing
What did you try?
My argument yesterday was a stupid one where I said that the roles of x and x^(-1) are interchangeable, but I didn't understand the stuff explained to me :3
I mean
It’s the same thing at a high level but
For a low level proof just show both are subsets
H is a subset of G since G is closed under inversion
Then just say for any g in G, g = (g^-1)^-1
And that puts g in H
I see. It makes much more sense now, I was suggested the same yesterday.
Is the symmetry argument sensible, by the way?
In a sense you saying x and x^-1 is right but
It’s not really interchangeable
really, it’s more like
I think this proposition
Makes the symmetry arguments rigorous
So I think it’s better to show this one by hand
What do you mean by interchangeable?
I mean, what we describe as the inverse is up to us, since every element of G is invertible
Yeah, but by similar reasoning you could call x^-1 the inverse of x, so they are inverses of each other, and that's what I meant by interchangeable.
And they are guaranteed to be unique, I've proven that
I see.
But saying they’re interchangeable isn’t quite right
You have to qualify that statement
Because changing x to be x^-1 WILL change its value
And can change things
BUT sometimes due to symmetricity it ends up not mattering
Such as doing the sum over all of them
By this problem summing over all inverses actually sums over the same set
But unless you have more reasoning as to how they’re “interchangeable” I wouldn’t say it’s a proof
In the sense that if u came up to me and I asked “why is this true” and you said that I’d ask you wtf you meant
I see. I'll be more careful and try not coming up with crank proofs like this one XD
Then if you said well x = x^-1’s inverse you’re getting towards an actual proof
Also,Be as precise as possible
In the sense that if u came up to me and I asked “why is this true” and you said that I’d ask you wtf you meant
@next obsidian Met with that reaction yesterday XD
Agree with Drake
Your intuition on it was right
Altho idk if you came up with that afterwards haha
Hmmm, can't be too hand-wavy, noted.
But saying they’re interchangeable doesn’t communicate that idea
This was my gut instinct, I somehow just feel inverses have some weird symmetry, since every element is somehow paired to another element to generate the identity.
You’re right about that
But you have to poke at that harder and turn that into a proof
Between G and G^op no?
For the iso
Send g to g^-1
I often don't know how to write what I think :p
Then you have to do multiplication backwards
Practice
With this level of group theory
You should feel comfortable like your proof as is
If you explained to ur brother or sister what a group is
That they’d hear the proof and be convinced
Also, I'm currently using Gallian's text, and he has a lot of exercises based on groups under modulo operations. I've never done elementary number theory before, so should I take a look at it?
Just focus on doing every little detail for now until you get more experience
I don’t think you need it tbh
The only thing I think you really need is
Bezout’s lemma
I often have difficulty proving closure of these groups
Here's a question I couldn't solve
I think that struggle will do the same thing as just learning number theory
If it’s number theory issues
Hahaha, maybe you're right about that, but I think the emphasis here is abstract algebra, and I just want results from modular arithmetic to be freely used without being proven.
The question I didn't get: An abstract algebra teacher intended to give a typist a list of nine integers that form a group under multiplication modulo 91. Instead, one of the nine integers was inadvertently left out, so that the list appeared as 1,9,16,22,53,74,79,81. Which integer was left out?
I mean, I've seen the group defined as Z_p, another one defined as U(n), but this just seems bizarre
Sure
,w totient(91)
Correct
So there’s 72 things coprime to 91
But in this case they said 9 elements and one was left out
So here you’re supposed to multiply those things until you get one that’s not in there
And that’s the missing one
So this is just brute force?
Yes
They’re describing a subgroup of U(72)
Which you have 8 out of 9 elements of
you can just compute inverses
Right my bad
to find the missing one
you can just compute inverses
@sharp sonnet Hmm, that makes sense too.
Yeah
You have 7 non-identity elements
So the 8th has to be the inverse of one of those
Much less work
At most you have 7 things to calculate
Yes, I should figure that out. Thanks for the help. Uh there's another one I'm stuck on, mind taking a look at that one as well? :3
Sure
This will take a few moments to type
Let $p$ and $q$ be distinct primes. Suppose that $H$ is a proper subset of the integers that is a group under addition that contains exactly three elements of the set ${p,p+q,pq,p^q,q^p}$. Determine which of these three are the elements in $H$.
TedNowKaczynski:
There are options as well, should I type them?
I mean, this doesn't even seem to be closed under addition for any choice of p and q
it will have more elements
I think it’s p, pq and p^q
Since you c an get the latter two from repeated addition of p
Owww, that makes sense. But how about 2p? 3p? Clearly these should've been elements as well then?
It’s a bit hard to show this is the only one that works
Yes
It’s saying there’s H which is a subgroup
And of those 5 elements exactly 3 are in H
So there’ll be other stuff too
AH, I see. That makes much more sense.
So to show this is the only option
If it weren’t you’d need either p + q or q^p in there as well
Ugh this is really annoying actually
Oh hmm okay so
You can’t have p
Since then you get pq and p^q by adding p over and over
Yes, that makes sense.
So you have 3 elements of p + q, pq, q^p and p^q
p+q and q^p seem irrelevant then
do we know that subsets of the integers are cyclic?
err wait we don't even need that I think
Since you can subtract off powers of pq
I've only skimmed over the next chapters on subgroups, so that knowledge is not formally accessible at this stage.
And factor or something to get p^q and q^p from that I think
so if p is in there then <p> is contained in H
but <p> is maximal among subgroups
although it might be too hard to show that right now
Okay so I got it
Maybe I could come back to this problem once I've studied about subgroups then
So suppose you have p + q, pq, and either p^q or q^p
Just do p^q for now
It will work for q^p as well
Okay
wait shit
All I managed to show is q^q is in there
Fudge
Can I get q^p from that?
I was gonna say look at (p+q)^q
Subtract p^q
Then everything else besides the q^q term has a pq in it
to show that it can't be proper
Okay yes
like, the working case is just (p)
and all other cases will be non proper
due to bezout stuff
it's just casework
So everything in (p + q)^q = sum (n choose k)p^kq^n-k
So you can kill the p^q term using p^q since I assumed it’s in there
Besides q^q everything else has pq in it
So subtract off a multiple of pq to kill all those
Then you’re left with q^q in there which is coprime to p^q
So by Bezout the subgroup is everything
This works the same with q^p so it you’re left with p + q, p^q, q^p which is out by coprimeness
Or pq, p^q, q^p
Which is again out by coprime ess
I'll have to first take a look at what Bezout's Lemma is, I just remember the name.
It says this
Given a, b integers
And n,k integers
Any number of the form na + kb is a multiple of gcd(a,b)
And that you can reach it
What it means here tho is
There exists integers n,k such that na + kb = 1 if and only if a and b are coprime
Ah yes, I remember this, this was talked about in the prelim chapter of Gallian
you don't even need the only if
Yeah yeah
But I’d throw it in there
This is the most useful form usually for group theory purposes so I threw it in
and then you need to convince yourself that 1 generates all of Z
But anyway this says that you can use sums of a and b to get 1
And as Loch said, having 1 means the group is Z
also, you should remember bezout
Oww, I see.
it's very important
That’s the one number theory thing I said I think u should know
Besides that I think you’re probably fine
Noted, maybe I'll skim through an elementary number theory text and look at their proofs.
Thanks for the immense help. Much appreciated.
elementary number theory is a trivial corollary of abstract algebra 
Abstract algebra which got built out of elementary number theory
I don't really understand the relation between the two, is abstract algebra in a sense generalisation of all algebra?
Sorta
Algebra is like doing stuff over R
Using field axioms
Or I guess R(x)
It’s more like
Using basic group theory
You can prove a lot of basic number theory results
Hmm, so abstract algebra has an even wider scope? Since group axioms are stronger ig
Like fermat’s little theorem
Group axioms are weaker
Any field is a group
More things are groups
Owwww, but not all groups are fields
Fields require two operations
You need a notion of addition and multiplication among other things
But in that event, aren't fields just a subclass of groups with an additional operation aligning with field axioms?
fields are way cooler than groups ok
The name has strong categorical vibes lol
That’s like saying differentiable functions are a subset of all functions from R -> R
This is true, but also not that important
Huh, groups seem to be interesting so far, I don't know much about fields.
no
Since the extra stuff you impose is so strong
Hmm, that makes sense.
The stuff you do are completely different
You’ll use group theory knowledge occasionally
But it feels much different
@next obsidian what do you mean by forgetful functor
Send field to it’s underlying group
additive?
hmm I was going to say a dumb thing
lol what
But no more
Bends over seductively to pick up a minion
It was very inappropriate
I heard you’re not supposed to do that because it messes with logs
hey there, does anyone have a copy of humphrey's representation theory of semisimple lie algebras in the bgg category o?
Have you tried libgen?
I'm almost certain you can find it on Libgen
Is $\bQ-{-1}$ closed under the operation $$ defined by $ab=a+b+ab$?
TedNowKaczynski:
In this particular case, Q did not have an inverse for the element -1, so I removed -1 from Q; however, am I guaranteed closure now that I've changed the set itself?
You have to show a*b is not -1 for any a and b in your domain
Hmm, let me try that.
Seems like -1 was supposed to be its own inverse, but that amounts to cancellation by 0 on both sides and hence the -1 has to be excluded. It doesn't affect any other elements apparently.
Cuz $$a+b+ab=-1\implies a(1+b)=-(1+b)$$which gives $a=-1$ or $b=-1$, which are already excluded from my set now.
TedNowKaczynski:
Yes
Thanks for the help!
Is it okay to assume this exponent-like behaviour of repeated group operations?
TedNowKaczynski:
I see. Well yeah, the result does seem trivial, I just want to know what a proof here should look like.
yeah, it's very much fair grounds to assume that in a proof
it won't even be thought of as one of the assumptions
Hmmm, okay, but nevertheless I'll try to demonstrate the a^(kn)=(a^n)^k in a more subtle way. Thanks for the input both of you.
Let $G$ be an Abelian group and let $H={g\in G\vert g^2=e}$. Is it true that $H$ is a group?
TedNowKaczynski:
Do you know when H will be a subgroup?
Working with a concrete example makes me think it is, but I don't know about the general example.
I don't know about subgroups yet tbh
A subgroup is a subset that is also a group
I tried using G={1,-1,i,-i} as the example group here, then H={1,-1} and H is indeed a group.
I get that, but I don't know anything useful besides that.
I don't even know how to describe the closure of H
Hmm....
What do you think closure is?
Can you confirm if it is indeed a subgroup? I think I might have a justification then
Okay, so for $a\in H$, it follows that $a^2=(g^2)^2=e$ for $g\in G$ such that $g^2=e$. For any iterations of group operation, I'll either get the identity or $a$ itself, so it is indeed closed.
TedNowKaczynski:
Associativity, commutativity seem to trivially follow since G is Abelian.
This is not sufficient
Off track
Do you understand closure?
Yes.
If a and b are elements in H,ab should be in H
For all elements $a,b\in H$, $ab=(g_1)^2(g_2)^2$ for some $g_1,g_2\in G$, and since $g_1^2=g_2^2=e$, it follows that $ab=e$ for all $a,b\in H$.
TedNowKaczynski:
Why is ab=(g1)^2(g2)^2?
Because that's how H is defined?
a is an element of H if a^2=e
Yes, and I demonstrated that every such element does indeed give ab=e for all a,b in H
a need not be g^2 for some g
Yes
Hmmm, I might have to think harder then. Let me handle this one on my own; if I'm still stuck I'll reach out for help.
Thanks for the help so far!
np
Okay here's something I got: For elements $a,b\in H$, $a$ and $b$ are their own inverses since $a^2=e$ and $b^2=e$. Thus, $a^{-1},b^{-1}\in H$ for all $a,b\in H$. Further, $$ab=(a^2a^{-1})(b^2b^{-1})$$ $$ab=(ea^{-1})(eb^{-1})$$ $$ab=a^{-1}b^{-1}\in H$$This proves closure of $H$ under the group operation. The existence of inverses has already been established, what remains to be proven is associativity.
TedNowKaczynski:
@carmine fossil Sorry for the ping, could you take a look?
Associativity is inherited from the group,but proof for the closure is not correct. The existence of inverse is fine
You should show (ab) satisfies the group condition
Owww, that is correct.
Okay, let me figure that out.
Uhhh I cannot figure it out @carmine fossil
I can't figure out how a^(-1)b^(-1) belongs to H
focuse on (ab)(ab)
But we haven't established that ab is in H?
Because abab=aabb=ee=e
Yes
Crap. That clears it. Thanks for the help!
Because treating a and b as elements of G gives a.b=b.a
Makes sense.
And . On H is same except for the domain and range
Yes, understood.
Does there not exist a non-Abelian group with n elements for all positive integers n?
I thought the symmetric group doesn't commute in general
Owwww I seee, thanks for pointing it out!
In general, Any group of order p (if p prime) is always commutative
Or even better the group of 1 element haha
Yeah I thought about that one lol
any easy way to find n such that f(x) will divide g(x) in [Z/nZ][x]
i saw a method and it was matching coefficients and solving equations to come to an n
any better direct method?
can someone help me a with latex
Proposition: A group $G$ is Abelian iff $axb=cxd\implies ab=cd$ for $a,b,c,d,x\in G$.\Proof: We first prove the forward implication. Since G is Abelian, $$axb=cxd\implies xab=xcd.$$By cancellation, it follows that $$axb=cxd\implies ab=cd.$$We now prove the converse. From our hypothesis, it follows that $x=a^{-1}cxdb^{-1}=a^{-1}(abd^{-1})xdb^{-1}\implies x=bd^{-1}xdb^{-1}\implies (x)(bd^{-1})=(bd^{-1})(x)$, and thus it follows that $G$ is Abelian. This completes the proof.
TedNowKaczynski:
My argument for converse seems shaky, could someone verify it?
what do you mean by "from our hypothesis, it follows that x = a^-1 cxdb^-1"? the hypothesis is that "axb=cxd implies ab=cd", not "axb=cxd"
Hmmm
What should I do then?
For the case where axb≠cxd, the implication is vacuously true, for the case where axb=cxd is true, ab=cd must necessarily be true. I just blended the two conditions together, although I have no idea what else could it be 🤷♂️
here's another way to see the issue: what are a,b,c,d,x, and why is it the case that axb=cxd?
(i didn't follow what you said about if axb \neq cxd, the implication is vaculuos true)
Mmmm a,b,c,d could be some elements such that ab=cd, while x could be any element?
Uh if I assume the implication axb=cxd implies ab=cd, then it could possibly be true under the circumstance that axb≠cxd, since that falsifies the hypothesis? I'm screwing up ig :3
the flow of the argument should sound like "let a, b be arbitrary elements of G. let x, c, d be such and such. we show that axb = cxd. (insert why axb=cxd here.) then by the hypothesis it follows that ab = cd, which implies that ab=ba"
Ohkay, I'll try that. Thanks for the help.
I think I should really drop abs algebra for now and work through an intro to proofs book instead :/
Hmm, I would advice learn a subject where you have to prove a lot instead of a intro to proofs book @paper flint
You could study a Discrete Mathematics book
I'm taking a discrete maths course as well atm, but it's boringgg, maybe I'll take a brief look at an intro to proofs book, then continue struggling through abstract algebra and analysis.
Thanks for the suggestion though. Any Discrete Maths book you'd recommend?
I'm inclined to say if you enjoy group theory just keep doing it and getting better at proof writing ¯_(ツ)_/¯
Yah the only way to get better at proof writing is to just keep writing proofs and with help and changes for mistakes, you’re sure to improve.
Thanks, I've decided to stick with abstract algebra and learn a bit of proof-writing along the sidelines.
I remember taking discrete maths was pretty fun and challenging, but I definitely benefited more from an intro to proofs book/course; on a personal standpoint.
Dude, abstract algebra is pretty awesome too tho. I feel like the algebra proofs will def help with proof writing improvement too
I see. Which text did you consult for intro to proofs?
Yeah, as far as I've seen so far the proofs in abstract algebra aren't mind-blowing in any sense so far, they seem very coherent and understandable. I just need to know how to make mine rigorous and correct, and as has been suggested, I should keep improving.
For intro to proofs, I used a book called “a transition to advanced mathematics” by Douglas smith, Maurice eggen, and Richard Andre.
I was using "A Passage to Abstract Mathematics", smh, they sound like rip-offs of each other lol
Maybe any such text would do
I should just focus on the writing style and work through problems
Everyone has their preferences ahaha. And for the writing style, everyone has their own stylistic variants
Just as long as the argument suffices you’re justification
I like Tao's style in his Analysis text, I've adopted his way for induction based proofs so far.
Your*
Makes sense.
Thanks for the help, I'll definitely look at some intro to proofs text!
Yep! If you’re interested at the text I sent too, you should know they have a chapter on algebra and a chapter on analysis as well
Oh, that's nice! Libgen time
Lol!! Look into 7th or 8th editions.
It isn’t too much but you should get algebra material from the basics of groups to the basics of rings, and for analysis you have completeness, Bolzano wierstrass, and monotone sequence stuff; which I think is good enough as exposure, at least for someone looking for a good intro proofs book with slightly more rigor.
That totally is the book I need at the moment, thanks a lot for recommending it!
No problem! Glad to hear a fellow mathematician also workin their way up to learning more maths.

Hey there! I wonder if someone could help me with a little problem i got from group theory?
Im trying to prove that $GL(\mathcal{C}^{n}) \cong \mathcal{C}^{} \times SL(\mathcal{C}^{n})$. The thing is that SL is a normal subgroup and $\mathcal{C}^{} $ is clearly isomorphic to the center of GL (the set of non-zero scalar times de identity). However, This last set doesnt intersect SL just in {e}, so im kinda confused how to show this...
Maikel:
Here $C^{*}$ is the set of nonzero complex numbers
Maikel:
what is C^n supposed to be?
I suppose he meant GL_n(C)?
@chrome hinge assuming you meant GL_n(C), you have an internal direct product.
G = H x N where H, N are normal, HnN = {e}, and HN = G.
Hi. There are multiple notations for GL_n(C). [GL(n,C), GL(C^n), etc...]
Ya its not exactly an internal direct product
Since the sets you called dont intersect in {e}
But in ${\lambda id : \lambda \text{is a root of the unit}}$
Maikel:
Thats the interesction
If you take determinant of a matrix in that set, you'll get 1
However, i already solved it
ok yea thats true. what did you do?
Well, i used several isomorphism theorems
well, just two, but multiple times
So basically, lets call the set i just defined $\Lambda^{}$, and lets define $\Lambda = {\lambda id : \lambda \in \mathcal{C}^{}}$
Maikel:
Using the 2nd theorem you can see that $\Lambda / \Lambda^{*} \cong \Lambda$
Oh, what happened
Maikel:
Nice
Sorry, you need to use 2nd and then 1st theorems to show that
But thats the idea
Then they intersect in {id} modulo an isomorphism
@chrome hinge why does that show what you want to show?
$\Lambda \cong \mathcal{C^{*}}$
Maikel:
I agree that GL_n/SL_n is isomorphic to C*
But that doesn't give you that SL_nxC* is isomorphic to GL_n
My point (of which im not 100% sure its correct) is that now i found that C* is isomorphic to Lambda which is also isomorphic to $\Lambda / \Lambda^{*}$
Maikel:
What
Well. Then you can consider that the intersection between SL_n and C* is $\Lambda^{*}$
Maikel:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
And therefore the identity?
The intersection is the nth roots of unity
Maikel:
And that set is isomorphic to C*
I agree its kinda weird
But what basically is happening is like the set of nth roots of unity can be considered as the identity right?
I'm not sure what you mean
neither i
lol
Im confused about this
But
The intersection is the nth roots of unity
I thought i could make thats set the identity you know?
By taking the quotient group
And surprisingly the quotient group was isomorphic to C* !
Well, it was for me
Oh okay
I didnt know that till today
Okay here's another example to think of
SL_2(R)x R* is not isomorphic to GL_2(R)
Why is that?
(hint: count square roots of I in GL_2 and SL_2)
I don't believe that the statement you made is true
Or if it is it seems to require some work
But yeah try to think about the example I gave above
What ive found is that GL_n is isomorphic to SL_nxF* with x a semidirect product
Have you?
I don't think I believe that either
Especially if you say F for a general field
At any rate that statement wasnt mine, is an exercise from my algebra teacher
Can you post the exercise?
Its in spanish but i can translate the literal statement
Sure
Show that GL(C^n) is isomorphic to C*xSL(C^n)
Okay maybe it's true for that case but it's not obvious from what you are writing
It's not true for the R case in even dimensions
But what i actually did indeed prove is that the set of scalar matrices quotient the nth roots of unity times de identity is isomorphic to C*
That follows from the second and first theorems
Sure
Well you have to specify the intersection of what
Actually what you're saying now sounds good
You do need to say more
But this is a good idea
Oh, thanks :D
Yeah actually my big problem is the intersection thing
I want it to be the identity you know?
Then im done
Lol
If you can show that the map from GL_n to GL_n given by mapping an element A to A^n is surjective I think you can formalize things
Essentially existence of nth root of invertible matrices
This is true but it's a bit hard to prove I think
Unless you've already done a decent amount of linear algebra
What if i take the quotient of all three groups by Lambda*?
I can talk of a trivial intersection between the quotients of SL and the set of scalar matrices then
Would that help to prove the initial statement?
Do you know like Jordan form?
Yes
Okay I think you can use Jordan form to prove existence of nth roots
Okay let's assume you have that actually
So we have the map GL_n to GL_n given by A to A^n is surjective
What about SL_n?
Oof
Is the image of SL_n exactly SL_n?
Yes
Is the image of SL_n exactly SL_n?
@woven delta I actually know its contained in SL_n
Okay maybe this is fine actually
But i really dont get how this map could help me
Np man thanks for your help
Am I overlooking something or can't you just simply define the isomorphism explicitly as $f:GL(\mathbb{C}^n)\to SL(\mathbb{C}^n)\times\mathbb{C}^*, M\mapsto (\det(M)^{-1}M,\det(M))$
leoli1:
Maybe it is that simple
Can you show the map is surjective?
I guess the reason why this doesn't work for R is because in the dimension 2n case this map is not surjective, but I guess it is surjective here
Okay sorry @chrome hinge I guess it is pretty easy
Yeah it is surjective because $\mathbb{C}$ contains $n$-th roots. Given a pair $(N,x)\in SL(\mathbb{C}^n)\times\mathbb{C}^*)$, take $M=\sqrt[n]{x}N$ as a preimage.
leoli1:
Yeah
So basically we were out of the theorems hypothesis
It was way easier to find directly the isomorphism
Thanks leoli1
consider the set of integers Z with operation x.y = x * y + 1
where the * here is conventional multiplication
then (3.4)5 = (34 + 1)*5 + 1 = 13 * 5 + 1 = 66, while
3(4.5) = 3(4*5 + 1) + 1 = 3*21 + 1 = 64
so this isnt associative
but its certainly commutative, as x.y = x*y + 1 = y*x + 1 = y.x
since * of real numbers is commutative.
sure, that works too
How does one make sense of x.y.z in this case?
one doesnt
I mean, you'll still need the parenthesis
hence my point
Oh haha I've answered my own question ignore me
formally a binary operation is a function S times S -> S
so it only REALLY makes sense to write either ((a, b), c) or (a, (b, c))
but we can instead represent these bracket pairs as elements joined by an operation symbol *
but only when that doesnt introduce ambiguity
a * b * c is absolutely meaningless unless you assign a canonical interpretation
you COULD assign the interpretation (a * b) * c or a * (b * c)
but this generally doeswnt make much sense to do unless these coincide
(i.e. unless you have associativity)
we do sometimes write A implies B implies C
and this is usually interpreted as A implies (B implies C)
[since implication is not associative]
but i'd generally discourage this
[if you're wondering why this convention is taken, it's because it's notationally handy when https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Currying]
huh, I never would've thought of that.
Am I overlooking something or can't you just simply define the isomorphism explicitly as $f:GL(\mathbb{C}^n)\to SL(\mathbb{C}^n)\times\mathbb{C}^*, M\mapsto (\det(M)^{-1}M,\det(M))$
@queen vine hey man just realized this is not well defined...
Maikel:
It should be defined as $f:GL(\mathbb{C}^n)\to SL(\mathbb{C}^n)\times\mathbb{C}^, M\mapsto (\det(M)^{-1/n}M,\det(M)^{1/n})$ so that the map of an element of $GL(\mathbb{C}^n)$ arrives indeed to $SL(\mathbb{C}^n)\times\mathbb{C}^$
Maikel:
I took the nth root that has the least argument
I need to list all the subgroups, I've completely lost faith in my understanding of subgroups. All I'm sure of is using Lagrange's theorem, help?
all subgroups, up to isomorphism, or actually all of them?
well, i guess even all of them, it is not that annoying, the only subgroups that there are multiple copies of are Z2 i think
explain pls?
up to isomorphism: Z1, Z2, Z3, Z4, Z5, Z6, Z10, Z12, Z15, Z20, Z30, Z60, or u could list them out by the actual subgroups
nvm i thought there are multiple copies of a particular order subgroup, but i dont think this actually happens
are those just the divisors of 60?
i was thinking something like V4, where there are multiple subgroups of order 2
yah
right.. oh my god
note: all subgroups of a cyclic group are themselves cyclic
true
so.. that's it?
wow
gonna kms i spent all day thinking about this
I haven't been confident in my understanding of groups
speaking of isomorphism, could you tell me what it means exactly?
just to be sure of the definition
if u havent seen the definition then it's probably not worth worrying about
but an isomorphism is a bijective homomorphism
(in the context of groups)
oh wait
Z60 is the additive group, right, not the multiplicative group?
yes
ok yeah then that should be right
I think it'd be notated with Z60/{0}
if it was multiplication
ok I have a question though
any element mod 60 will return that element right?
nevermind for some reason I thought that made it the inverse of itself but..
I'm just gonna reread some definitions and take a step back lol
tyvm tho
mhmm
Hi. I come across somewhere on maths stackexchange if a a commutative ring $A$ is such that every element is either a unit or zero divisor, then all prime ideals are maximal. But the proof isn’t given. Was raking my mind for hours to no avail. Any hint? Also i come across a stronger condition on a ring for such conclusion to hold true. In fact this condition implies the condition in my original question namely every element $a$ has an integer $n>1$ such that $a^n=a$. Given this stronger condition, it is easier to prove the desired conclusion. But I wonder if this condition is in fact equivalent to the earlier condition? Thanks in advance.
τφκ:
any nonzero element in a finite ring is either a unit or a zero divisor
@chrome hinge You are right, but now we have the problem that the map is not a homomorphism anymore, for $n=2$ and $M=diag(-1,1,1,1)$ we have $f(MM)\ne f(M)f(M)$.
leoli1:
I am not even sure anymore if the statement is correct. It is clear that we have $GL(\mathbb{C}^n)\cong SL(\mathbb{C}^n)\rtimes\mathbb{C}^*$, however the semi-direct product might not be trivial.
leoli1:
Hi. I come across somewhere on maths stackexchange if a a commutative ring $A$ is such that every element is either a unit or zero divisor, then all prime ideals are maximal. But the proof isn’t given. Was raking my mind for hours to no avail. Any hint? Also i come across a stronger condition on a ring for such conclusion to hold true. In fact this condition implies the condition in my original question namely every element $a$ has an integer $n>1$ such that $a^n=a$. Given this stronger condition, it is easier to prove the desired conclusion. But I wonder if this condition is in fact equivalent to the earlier condition? Thanks in advance.
@distant rain the two conditions are not equivalent. Consider Q x Q, every element is a unit (if both entries are non-zero) or a zero divisors (if either entry is zero). Note however there is no n > 1 such that (1/2,0)^n = (1/2,0)
For the proof of the other thing, where if every element is either a unit or a zero divisor, I have a proof when you assume the ring has finitely many prime ideals. I’ll think more for how to prove it in general, but here’s the proof in this case.
Note that if every element is a zero divisor or a unit, then prime ideals consist solely of zero divisors. One can show that the set of zero divisors is equal to the union of all minimal primes https://mathoverflow.net/questions/20826/when-is-the-set-of-zero-divisors-equal-to-the-union-of-the-minimal-primes-in-a-r
Now assume p is a prime ideal, then p consisting of zero divisors means it’s a subset of the set of zero divisors which is the union of all minimal primes. Since I assumed there are finitely many minimal primes, one can apply the prime avoidance lemma so that p is a subset of a minimal prime q, but by q’s minimality we see that p = q. Thus p is minimal.
What we have shown is that every prime ideal is minimal, which actually is equivalent to showing that every prime ideal is maximal, so we are done.
The hypothesis that our ring has finitely many prime ideals isn’t a terribly strong one either, for example every Noetherian ring has finitely many minimal prime ideals.
Wait, shit I need to assume the ring is reduced to apply this lmfao
can someone reference me or advice me , i dont get how this is "easy to see"
Try taking some examples
I guess sigma 1 is a diagonal matrix and for sigma you just add the appropriate number of zeroes to make it a rectangle
my bad
Sigma is a diagonal matrix with eigenvalues
with all >0
Try taking some examples
@carmine fossil Am i suppose to try out diagonalizing a few examples?
Try some examples of sigma and see if this is true
bruh what even is that notation ?
I found the order of A and B, but not sure how to do AB. Trying induction but its difficult, can anyone help?
did you mutiply em?
If you multiply them I’m pretty sure you get an upper diagonal matrix
At least this is the standard thing
And then the thing in the upper left just keeps getting bigger and never goes to 0
Proposition: A group G with |G|<=5 is necessarily Abelian.
I tried thinking about it for a while and started enumerating case-by-case, but found it to be too tedious. Can anyone suggest a neater way of proving this?
Any hints are appreciated. Feel free to ping me.
Maybe I should state the proposition as an implication.
Proposition: If G is a group such that |G|<=5, then G is Abelian.
Contrapositive: If G is not Abelian, then |G|>5.
I can't seem to make much progress with the contrapositive either.
just list all groups
Going case-by-case is the only way to go here?
i don't know, but there aren't too many
I did it up to 3
the smallest non abelian group is S_6
Might as well do 4 and 5 then
Thanks for the input; yeah, the instructor did quote S_6(he refers to it as S_3) as a non-Abelian group with 6 elements.
Haven't done Lagrange's Theorem yet, I did take a sneak peak and saw this result though.
for order 4 there are only 2 possibilities
there is Z_4
cyclic group of order 4
and the other is the klein four group
if you don't know that, you can construct it with a cayley table
Haven't seen these come up yet :3 The sections on subgroup will now start.
Sounds good, should be able to do that.
But
you should know what a cyclic group is?
Constructing a Cayley table constitues a proof?
No, they haven't been introduced yet.
eh, not really, but
for small orders you will see that there is only one(in this case two) ways to construct a cayley table
that could be turned into a rigorous proof
but it would be like
Hmm, so it can just be used as a side visual and then write the arguments rigorously.
"if we assume that the product of those two elements is this element, then we reach some contradiction"
and that like a few times
Ye, that's what the instructor did, I just thought he was doing things the easy way for understandability.
there are only finitely many possibilities how you can turn 4 elements into a group
and all but 2 end in contradiciton
i think in this case writing out the proof does not help understanding
set up the table
make some small calculations on the side
i.e. convince yourself that there are only two possibilities
Lol okay, I'll build the Cayley table for a group with 4 elements.
I did like the proof argument too, though.
yeah, I think a simple script would do the job.
Once he proved that {e,a,b} had to be distinct elements for a group of 4 elements, then proving the fourth element is ab=ba seemed like a reasonable process.
He went bit by bit, explaining why a^2!=e, ab!=a, ab!=b and so on
Wait, he did prove a^2=e
Maybe I should build the table
that's the klein four group then
it has 3 elements besides the identity which are all self inverse
or geometrically, the symmetry group of a rectangle
non-square
(it's also the smallest non-cyclic group)
Okay building a Cayley table for {e,a,b,c}, each element distinct has given me a bit more of data than I expected. For example the second row consists of {a,a^2,ba,ca}
Symmetry group of rectangle-that's enlightening
I had only seen the symmetry group for square before
But I can see the V,H,D,D' can be the elements of this group 
Uh Loch I think I'm more confused by the table
TedNowKaczynski:
Uhkay so here's my ugly looking Cayley table
I have to somehow impose the conditions of closure, associativity and invertibility upon the elements in the bottom-left 3x3 grid.
the thing is
all of the elements in that table
have to be either e, a, b or c
and each line/row can have each element at most once
(it's kinda like a sudoku)
so you go to 2nd row, look at a^2
it can't be a
so it's either b or c
what is distinct?
your group has only 4 elements, a^2 is either a, b, c or e
it can't be a, because then a would be the identity
and the identity is unique
so it's either b, c or e
Makes sense.
and the more you fill out the table, the more choices are 'forced' on you
Now ba!=a and ba!=b
because it's like a sudoku
Yepp, it does seem like one now
and at some point you will either end up with a valid group structure
or some contradiction
it's a bit tedious tbh
Yes, but it's a good exercise. I should do this. Thank you!
it's a very abstract way to think about groups
I liked the rectangle analogy a lot
That makes things so clear and visual
Isn't there a way to establish some 1-1 correspondence between the two structures and establish being Abelian as equivalent?
i mean yeah, usually we want to think of groups as symmetries of some object
you can show that the klein four group (the symmetry group of the rectangle) is abelian that way
but not that there does not exist a group of order 4 that is not abelian
like, i don't think that there is a good reason for this

