#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 505 of 407
Basically I have a sheaf of modules, and I've defined them via colimits
So on a base I have defined F(U) to be an ideal of O_X(U), on a cofinal set of open U's (open affines of a scheme if you care)
Then I've defined F(V) arbitrarily to be a colimit of the F(U) for U a subset of V
And I want to show that this actually leads F(V) to be an ideal of O_X(V), and I have a condition about the maps which says the maps from like F(U) -> F(U') for U,U' in my base play nice
Anyone home?
I'll check back at normal person hours.
But just in case, I'm trying to get my thoughts organized enough to answer a question from a list of problems my professor suggested we look at.
I figure some part of it has to do with the relationship between reflections and rotations but something about how points at the vertices move I think has to be addressed here.
Because a reflection about a line of symmetry doesn't itself equate to a rotation but two reflections does so somehow I'm supposed to describe how the act of reflecting it twice moves the points out of the right alignment and then back into it.
So if anyone could potentially guide me toward the logic I might need to construct a coherent thought about that I would be greatly appreciative.
@next obsidian are you sure you extended by colimits?
Because the Sheaf property literally states that F(V) = lim_U F(U) where U ranges over a covering of V
I think it’s by colimits... maybe it’s a limit
I kinda doubt it's a colimit tbh
Oh my god
A section over V should be given by a compatible family of sections over basis elements contained in V
I actually think I have it then
And take a limit of ideals over each of those rings
I realized if I have an injection into A considered an A-module
And want to check that considered as a module over the limit of rings, it stays an ideak
You can think about that in this abstract setting
Yeah
No need to get yourself confused with sheaf notation
Sorry I guess by abstract setting
hope it helps your problem, ping me if you still got questions
wait so did you have a colimit of schemes?
No
I mean
I thought it was
But it’s supposed to be a limit
So take a base for a topological space B
but don't you want a limit on the ring side?
it wasn't even a colimit of schemes tho?
Yeah it wasn’t of schemes
Oh okay
But I think I knew what he meant
Like there were no real schemes involved
I was misinformed earlier
I never claimed I took a colimit of schemes
Chmonkey was going over some stuff on how sheaves are determined by a Sheaf in a basis for the topology
You totally did
I reckon
Brb finding screenshot
colimits of schemes are generally a bad idea, very few colimits of schemes exist
finite limits of schemes always exist though
Okay you said "This is for a thing about like closed sub schemes"
Is that because you can glue schemes?
not that the colimit was of schemes
Also yes it is about closed subschemes
gluing schemes gives you colimits, right?
closed subschemes correspond to Quasi-Coherent ideal sheaves @latent anvil
Just not all of them
Yeah so
yeah, glueing schemes along open subschemes is one of the few examples of colimits that exist
I’m trying to do something from Vakil
Which is before anytbing about qcoh comes in
Just not all of them
@latent anvil mhm?
Quasi-Coherent Ideal Sheaves give you all closed subschemes
ah
yeah no I guess it doesn't
I(B)_f -> I(B_f) is an iso
You show that these ideals define a closed su scheme
The thing I first wanted to do was extend this to an ideal sheaf
Then form the quotient
I(B)_f -> I(B_f) is an iso
@next obsidian you're not aware of this, but this is one of several equivalent conditions making sure I defines a Quasi-Coherent Sheaf of modules
Yeah so, I figure it is
anyway
But I think the point is to get this without resorting to higher level stuff
And the big issue I had was that I didn’t get closed subschemes
yeah ofc
Since I couldn’t define the scheme theoretic image
And most sources only do it for a qcqs morphism
Well the underlying space that you want is Supp(O_X / I) if I'm not mistaken
So I wanted to try and get my hands dirtier
I think so too
To try and understand this stuff better without just going to stuff about quasi coherent sheaves
But yeah, your construction of how to extend I to a proper sheaf of ideals works
Gotcha
yeah go ahead then ✌️
Thx for the help
always
I've been watching some commutative algebra lectures recently and Wikipedia-rabbit-hole-following
And I think I'm starting to grok the idea of a local ring, and specifically localization of a ring at a given point
So let me see if I have this intuition right
In algebraic geometry, we often want to be able to look at, say, real-valued functions on a given variety V near a particular point p, and we might want to do algebra-y things to them. That means we might want to divide by certain expressions. Those expressions might be zero at other points on V, but we don't care about that as long as they're not zero at p. So we "localize" at p and say, okay, any function f that isn't zero at p now has an inverse "locally", and now we can happily move terms about without worrying about dividing by zero.
In another example I've seen of a local ring — the fractions with odd denominators — this is the integers localized at 2, because we've essentially said "okay, we really care about 2 in this ring, so we'll allow ourselves to divide by anything that isn't 2 and doesn't contain a 2."
- Is there anywhere I'm off base, or anything else I should consider?
- How would this apply to the dual numbers over R, i.e. {a+bε: a,b∈R and ε²=0}? I can't easily visualize what we'd localize where to get R[ε].
the dual numbers is R[x]/(x^2), but this is local simply because any prime ideal containing (x^2) has to be (x) so there's only one maximal ideal
I think that case is more about the fact that it's almost R
but it's like only one level away, so you get (x) inside there too
Idk jack about varieties, I think that's sort of the idea about localizing at a point
Ah so it's more related to the fact that fields are already trivially local?
I think so
And so you haven't strayed too far
There's dimension theory stuff and polynomial reasons to justify it a lot
But in terms of schemes
If you know what the topology on Spec A is
All I know about schemes is "varieties with multiplicity"
The sets D(f) form a base
Spec A is the set of primes
and closed sets are just sets Z(I) which are primes which contain I
And I don't know MUCH about varieties yet, I'm taking my first AG course this semester
(First lecture is in 2.5 hours)
The important part
here is that On the set D(f)
you actually look like Spec A_f
As in like that patch
is isomorphic to Spec A_f
the same way a patch of a manifold is like R^n
Okay so ... I know Spec R is the set of prime ideals of R
Yeah don't worry about it too much I guess
There might be some base information I'm missing 😛
But the fact it's a base for a topology
means that any open
can be covered by sets like this
I'm sort of slowly piecing together the bits.
and that they're like arbitrarily small
If you get into scheme theory
you'll see that these sets are super duper special
they sort of glue stuff together
Interesting.
I guess this doesn't really give much about like
what a visualization is, and I'm definitely not the one to ask for that
Hah well that's okay, I appreciate it regardless
Another thing to consider
about A_p
where p is a prime
You know how often you solve stuff by quotienting out by an ideal?
And you can relate a lot of stuff about A/I with A
and vice versa
Like ideals containing I are in bijection with ideals of A/I
you get the same sorts of stuff with localizing at a prime, but only really with prime ideals
So primes of A_p are in bijection with primes of A contained in p
where as primes of A/p are in bijection with primes of A containing p
so the two together tell you everything about the primes in relation to p
but A_p being local means you can apply a lot of powerful commutative algebra stuff and then draw those results back into A
Does A_p mean A localized at p?
At A\p
Okay, didn't know that was a notation
Yeah
it sort of sucks because
let x be a prime element
then (x) is a prime ideal
Then A_x and A_(x) are different
Whoopsie
Which sucks but it's just the notation haha
There's a lot of properties that can be checked "locally" though
For an A-module
M
You can also form M_p, localizing M at p
then M = 0
if and only if M_p = 0 for all prime p
if and only if M_m = 0 for all maximal m
So in a sense
this is like saying M_p = 0 is I guess it being 0 close to p
but if you look 0 close to all points
then you're just 0
There's a surprising number of things you can check at localizations
In fact, you can make this better, if (f_1,...,f_n) = (1), so all these f_i generate A
then M is 0 if and only if M_{f_i} is 0 for all i
So I guess in a way it's almost like you bring in localness of analysis into the picture
but algebraically
(by this I mean like, usually you can show something globally by showing for arbitrarily small balls around every point that it holds, at least in analysis)
Honestly though localization is something you just work with and start to appreciate more and more and see how powerful it is
Okay I will keep that in mind. 🙂 I think I'm still working on grokking all of this and will need to piece things together myself.
I think if you pick up a commutative algebra book
and see them prove stuff you'll see how its powerful
I don't personally really get much by trying to figure out stuff by trying to visualize it or think of it in some general way, so I guess that's a differnce in how we both learn things
I just kind of learned how to form a localization, then saw how its applied
Yeah. I need intuition in order to deal with things like this, I can't just definition-juggle
I'm only now getting to the point where I'm somewhat comfortable with what modules are, even, and that's only after working with multiple examples and playing around with them.
Anyone around?
- Is there anywhere I'm off base, or anything else I should consider?
- How would this apply to the dual numbers over R, i.e. {a+bε: a,b∈R and ε²=0}? I can't easily visualize what we'd localize where to get R[ε].
@whole basalt take a polynomial f(T) in R and evaluate the expression f(T + eps) when considered as a polynomial in R[eps][T] to see what the dual numbers are useful for
What does “every (r+1)-rowed minor of A is 0” here mean?
This is jacobson’s basic algebra page 184
Does this theorem need to assume that D is commutative?
Because I don't remember it says that assume the rings are commutative, but it just suddenly uses it in the proof
pid=commutative
imagine unique factorization when things aren’t commutative
slightly difficult
Ah.....
Fantastic I think I need to go over the ring chapters again to see which parts depend on commutativity
Oh yeah
just assume all rings are commutative almost everything will hold
If it's not commutative then you can't even cancel the factors

rings without identity can always be embedded into a ring with identity
Wot

The ring (without identity) of even numbers can be embedded into Z, which is a ring with an identity
I don't see why "the i-rowed minors of QA are linear combinations of the i-rowed minors of A"
Oof ok
Rings without 1 are dumb
perfect for me, who is also dumb
rs and gs are pretty cool
What are rigs
rings-negatives
Ah
but its dumb
Is $(A_f)g$ isomorphic to $A{fg}$?
Chmonkey:
answer: yes
Okay
I have an ideal $I$ of a ring A, and I have $f_1,\dots,f_n$ such that they generate the unit ideal of $A$.
Chmonkey:
How do I show that the sequence
[0\to I\to \prod_i I_{f_i} \rightrightarrows \prod_{i,j}I_{f_if_j}\to 0]
Chmonkey:
Is exact (interpret the two arrows as actually being the difference of the two maps there)'
If I let $B = \prod_i A_{f_i}$ then this is
Chmonkey:
[0\to I\to I\otimes_A B\rightrightarrows I\otimes_A B\otimes_A B\to 0]
Chmonkey:
And $B$ is faitfhully flat, I think this is really some whack Cech complex or something, so some cohomology stuff might actually prove this, but I want to show this with less firepower
Chmonkey:
what's your problem
Oh I'm reading
Is this showing the thing is a sheaf on a base
You're doing the max proof
$I(\text{Spec }B)\to \prod I(\text{Spec }B_{f_i})\rightrightarrows \prod\text{Spec }B_{f_i}\cap \text{Spec }B_{f_j})$
right
Chmonkey:
But the thing you're assuming is quasicoherence (secretly)
which says the map $I(\text{Spec }B)f \to I(\text{Spec }B{f})$ is an iso
Chmonkey:
so I can turn it into the better looking complex
you pick up a Tor1(I,B (×) B) term on the left when you tensor the SES for O_Spec A with I
Do you hear what I'm saying
Umm
the thing is
I don't see how I get this sequence
as tensoring a sequence
Like
[0\to A\to B\rightrightarrows B\otimes_A B\to 0]
Chmonkey:
@cloud walrus
is exact
shamrock:
Yeah that makes sense
ughhh
I was tryna see how I got my sequence by tensoring with B

owned
okay ty for the break from analysis
now I gotta get back to convergence in measure
Yeah
okay literally
I saw a notification in analysis
and was like "that must be shamrock"
lmaoooo
The argument I just made was omegabrain
That reminds me of like
Because I had chosen a sequence of $f_k$ such that
$m({x \in E : |f(x) - f_k(x)| > 1/k) < 1/k$
shamrock:
And I ended up with $\lim_{K\to \infty} \sum_{k > K}m({x \in E : |f(x) - f_k(x)| > 1/k) < \lim_{K\to \infty} \sum_{k > K} 1/k$
shamrock:
And I wanted that limit to be 0
but it isn't
It's infinity
By the divergence of the harmonic series
So I went to the top of my argument and said "let $a_k$ be the terms in a positive convergent series"
shamrock:
lmfao
it was so good
Yes now we're bounded by infinity!
Dude I said that infinite integral converged
on the midterm that one time so
why didn't you just
do like 1/k^2
did you just want to flex
I did in my notebook
But it was messy so I needed to post on discord
and cmon how could I not
lmao
the tails of an infinite series goes to 0 and I think that's beautiful 😊

man people keep telling me this analysis class is gonna be shit
e.g. Andreas
and I don't believe
I have faith
It's gonna rock
Hey, could someone help me with a problem?

Neil_P:
so R-{0} under multiplication has an element of order 2
Or if my mapping is bad
what map do you have?
ln(x) goes from the postive reals to the reals
yes
I haven't figured out a way to get the nonzero reals to map to the positive reals, but ik a bijection exists
a bijection does exist, but it does not preserve the multiplicative structure
oh. You're right.
Does order 2 mean that there are two unique elements a, b such that a^2 = b^2 = 1?
no it means that (-1)^2 = 1
what would an order 3 look like?
$(\cos(\frac{2\pi}{3})+i\sin(\frac{2\pi}{3}))^3=1$
Liquid:
That's pretty elegant
Would you say the group of complex numbers has an order 3 element?
more generally $e^\frac{2\pi i}{n}$ is of order n
and for that matter, an order n element for every integer n?
cool. that makes sense
Lol we just covered that in complex
Liquid:
lol forgot the i
Thanks for the help. I get why I'm wrong on my original question
think about the order 2 thing
basically if there was an isomorphism, there would have to be a corresponding element of order 2 in R under addition
That makes sense
which would mean there is an element $r\in \mathbb{R}$ with $2r=0$
Liquid:
a=-1, b=-1 and x=1, y=1 all map to the same thing, despite being different. Therefore this mapping is noninjective
but you can write $\mathbb{R}^\times = {1, -1} \oplus \mathbb{R}^+$
I've seen you around here a lot - are you a just in upper level classes or some type of phd student?
I'm a PhD student
Liquid:
I'm a second year undergrad
Sorry, what does that notation mean? (the X and oplus?)
$R^\times= R-{0}$ (more generally the group of units of a ring, for a field it is what I just wrote). $R^+$ is just positive reals
I don't know either, sorry
But it seems interesting
Yes
Is that a mapping from one group to another?
Thank you both
~~can we show that if a polynomial in $\mathbb{F}_p [x]$ takes on every value in $\mathbb{F}_p \cup { 0 }$, then its leading coefficient must be divisible by $p$?~~stupid
deiknymi0:
Is that true? If the leading coefficient is divisible by p then it’s 0 in Z/pZ
I’m not sure if I’m understanding the problem correctly
Also 0 is already in F_p
yeah sorry about the F_p thing
Yeah the statement doesn't make much sense
what i'm asking is if we have a polynomial of degree k, with integer coefficients, and modulo p, it attains all the values in (0, 1, 2..., p-1), can we show that its leading coefficient is divisible by p?
What about the identity?
hmm true. what if we make an additional constraint that k > 1 and k |(p - 1)?
x^p-x
Oh
k | p-1 might be good
But like a better statement might be that the only polynomial in F_p[x] of degree < p that is surjective is x
I don’t think that’s the case. The set of functions $\bF_p\to\bF_p$ is isomorphic to $\bF_p[x]/(x^p-x)$, so every function can be realized as a polynomial with degree $<p$. Then, the linear polynomials in $\bF_p[x]$ are bijective, so this gives $p(p-1)$ bijective polynomials. But there are $p!$ bijective functions from $\bF_p\to\bF_p$, so there must be some bijective polynomial with degree greater than 1 and less than $p$, then you can just scale it to make the leading coefficient to be 1 in $\bF_p$
Whoever:
That's neat whoever
You can actually realize functions as polynomials explicitly using Lagrange interpolation which is cool
And then reduce using x^p = x mod p
But like a better statement might be that the only polynomial in F_p[x] of degree < p that is surjective is x
@woven delta also x+1, x+2, ...
I guess then whoever went on to talk about that more in depth sorry for the ping lol
Yeah
I wasn't thinking lol
Also I may have been implicitly discounting those functions in my head
yeah to be fair making mistakes like that is easy to just lump all things of the same kind of class together or whatever lol
I do it all the time
Yeah same
@woven delta actually if you use lagrange interpolation you also don’t need to worry about degree, since by construction the polynomial has degree at most p-1
thanks for the discussion everyone
@vale flint You also asked if the degree of such a polynomial must always divide $p-1$. The answer to that is also no for $p>3$. We can actually show that there are no surjective polynomials of degree $p-1$ over $\bF_p$ for $p>2$ by Lagrange interpolation. Then it is just a matter of bounding the other possibilities. There are at most $(p-1)p^{\frac{p-1}{2}}$ possible polynomials as the degree must be at most $\frac{p-1}{2}$, which is less than $p!$ for $p>3$ because $p!=p(p-1) (\prod_{k=2}^{\frac{p-1}{2}} k(p-k))>(p-1)p^{\frac{p-1}{2}}$ follows from $k(p-k)>p$ for $k>1$.
tree3:
@steep hull how do you show that there is no surjective polynomials of degree p-1?

my vague guess to try to prove it would be to think of uhh
$f_a(x) = 1-(x-a)^{p-1}$
Merosity:
it's 1 at x=a, 0 otherwise
try to play around with linear combinations of these and other junk ... + magic
Alternatively, note that for any polynomial of degree $<p$, $\sum_{n=1}^{p-1} f(n) \equiv -a_{p-1} \mod p$, where $a_{p-1}$ denotes the $x^{p-1}$ coefficient.
tree3:
Use Lagrange interpolation to write the $x^{p-1}$ coefficient as $\sum_{k=1}^{p-1} f(k) \frac{\binom{p-1}{k} (-1)^k}{(p-1)!}$ which becomes $\sum -f(k) \mod p$, which is $0 \mod p$.
@smoky cypress
Ugh I don't quite see how the sum comes from but lemme see
I gave two slightly different proofs
Well I don't get either one so 🙃
For the first one, I used that $\sum_{n=1}^{p-1} n^k \equiv 0 \mod p$ for $k<p-1$
tree3:
For the second, just plug it into Lagrange interpolation formula
And that’s what you get
tree3:
The first formula is the exact representation of the x^{p-1} coefficient of the polynomial of minimal degree going through p chosen points
Which when taken mod p turns out very nicely
thank you, that makes a lot of sense!
tree3:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
Is there a universal way to turn a magma into monoid ?
Scrap the magma you have and output Z
Based
I'd have to think about it, but if you can quotient magmas then you can probably quotient to make it associative
Then add an identity
I want to say no
Magmas have so little structure, and enforcing associativity and an identity seems like a large task to do universally to something which literally is just "lol I have a binary operation"
I believe it, but the identity definitely isn't a problem
Ok
This was a problem on my Algebra qual @woven delta
For a finite group G, with G/Z(G) abelian of order pq where p and q are distinct prime, prove that G is abelian
I couldn't solve it, anyone know how to do this?
Yeah I think I do
So in most cases a group of order pq is cyclic
And in that case it's a very classical problem
Sure
But okay, another good thing to know is that G/Z(G) is isomorphic to the inner automorphism group of G
Hmm
G/Z(G) abelian
For a finite group G, with G/Z(G) abelian
In general the other group is a semidirect product
Which is not abelian
Oh lol
Yeah this is trivial
I didn't read the G/Z(G) abelian thing
really it just amounts to knowing G/Z(G) cyclic <=> G abelian
Yeah
And knowing that the only 2 groups of order pq are the semidirect product of Z/p and Z/q and Z/pq
And that the semidirect product is abelian iff direct product
@uncut girder
Yeah
I forget, but out curiousity you know that some H of order pq is a semidirect product if p < q by Sylow theorems?
Something like the order q subgroup is normal
Cool
And then you can explicitly make the action
By writing down Aut(Z/q) = Z/(q-1)
We need p divides q-1
So the action is multiplication by p in Z/(q-1)
That's the outer way of making the group
Yeah
Btw I went through to check the quotient works, it seems like there's a unique smallest quotient of a magma that makes it associative
If the relation is works on $M$ is $\sim$ then the associated monoid to $M$ should be $M/\sim \sqcup {e}$
The_Vman:
Which should have the property that any magma morphism f from the magma M to a monoid N factors through this monoid
Could anybody explain to me how exactly an irreducible polynomial defines a Galois field?
i.e x^8 + x^4 + x^3 +x + 1 defines the Galois field GF(2^8), but what does that actually mean?
You take the quotient of the polynomial ring $F_2[x]$ by the ideal generated by your polynomial, in this case x^8 + x^4 + x^3 +x + 1
The_Vman:
You take the quotient of the polynomial ring $F_2[x]$ by the ideal generated by your polynomial, in this case x^8 + x^4 + x^3 +x + 1
```Compile error! Output:
! Missing $ inserted.
<inserted text>
$
l.54 ...erated by your polynomial, in this case x^
8 + x^4 + x^3 +x + 1
I've inserted a begin-math/end-math symbol since I think
you left one out. Proceed, with fingers crossed.
Let $f\in F[x]$, $u=x+(f(x))\in F[x]/(f(x))$, then is it true that $F[u]\cong F[x]/(f(x))$?
Whoever:
I don’t see what he did to show that you can do row operations such that b_{11} | c_{kl} for every k,l
And the “equivalence” here means that A is equivalence to A’ if A’=PAQ where P,Q invertible, P is mxm and Q is nxn
I think the point is that if b_{11} doesn't divide some c_{kl} then you can decrease the degree of the minimal entry of A, and you can only decrease the degree of the minimal entry so many times
I kinda get that point, but I don’t really see what happened in the line “Repetition of the first process replaces c_{kl} by ...”
Ah I think we can come up with an alternative proof then
Let $m(A)$ be the smallest $\delta$ of all the nonzero entries, then we can find $\min m(A’)$ where $A’$ goes through all the matrices equivalent to $A$. Let $A’$ be one such matrices and by row operation we can move the entry with smallest $\delta$ to $a_{11}$. If $a_{11}$ doesn’t divide all other nonzero entries then we can find matrix that has a smaller $m(A)$, then we can just use row operation again to make the first row and column to be in the form (24), and proceed with induction
Whoever:
Alright thanks I guess I can stick to this
No problem
if a,b are in a field extension B of Q, and an arbitary element, can i say that if a+b+c in B then c is in B?
c = (a+b+c)-(a)-(b)
I have asked this already, but I don’t see “Hence the i-rowed minors of QA are linear combinations of the i-rowed minors of A and ...”
what does i-rowed minors mean?
The determinant of some smaller ixi matrix
Determinant of an i by i submatrix
I guess you can find a ixm submatrix Q’ of Q and a mxi submatrix A’ of A such that the minor of QA is det(Q’A’), then by this link https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy–Binet_formula?wprov=sfti1,
the minor is a linear combination of the minors of A’, which are minors of A
But that’s kinda nontrivial
Yeah dude this is non-obvious to me
Are you familiar with the exterior algebra? If so there's a not too terrible way of seeing it
I think I know the very basics
Do you know how the determinant is related to the exterior algebra?
Ah I do not
The_Vman:
Where the wedge operation is like multiplication, being linear in each entry and anti-commutative
The_Vman:
Ah yes I do know that they are anti symmetric and linear
Awesome
The_Vman:
In general the kth exterior power will have dimension n choose k
Yes
The_Vman:
In the case of V = W, since the nth exterior power is 1-dimensional, the induced map is simply scaling by some scalar
You can take that scalar to be the definition of the determinant of T
(I should note that in general having $\wedge$ be anti-commutative is equivalent to $v \wedge v = 0$ for all $v$ but in characteristic 2 you need to define the exterior algebra using the latter)
The_Vman:
Does that all make sense? I can give an example
Kind of
I learned \wedge as a way to construct an alternating multilinear map from two multilinear maps
But sorry it’s 4am here and I can’t quite think clearly
I’ll reply tmr
Yeah this is pretty much the same, except you define it as formal products/wedges instead of as maps
Cool, it's pretty late here too we can keep talking about it tomorrow of you want
Alright
is it true that if H is subgroup of G then [G,G] ∩ H=[H,H]
certainly [H,H] ⊆ [G,G] ∩H but i am having hard time proving the other way
This is not true
I'll define something here, a group is called "Perfect" if [G,G] = G (this is a real term)
If you search, you'll find that the smallest non-trivial perfect group is A_5 which has 60 elements.
Now suppose it were true that [G,G] ∩ H=[H,H] and G is a perfect group, then for any subgroup H of G, then H is a perfect group because
[G,G] ∩ H=[H,H] turns into G ∩ H=[H,H] which clearly says H = [H,H]
Note that [G,G] = {e} if and only if G is abelian, so take any perfect group, like say A_5, then take any non-trivial abelian subgroup of it, the abelian subgroup is not perfect so by contradiction the statement is false
@steady axle
Nice problem to think about
right
As a bonus, any non-abelian simple group is perfect so there's a wealth of examples of perfect groups if you care
Hey guys, how can i prove that $\sqrt{2} + \sqrt[3]{5}$ is an element in $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt[3]{5} )$?
is it enough to just say that $\sqrt{2}$ and $\sqrt[3]{5}$ are in $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt[3]{5} )$ so their sum must be as well?
boat:
ye
The_Vman:
i was thinking of going by the definitions by saying $sqrt{2} = a_0 \sqrt[3]{5} )^0$ where $a_0 \in \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})$ but i dont think thats necessary
boat:
whcih one, the latter one?
regardless of your definition, closure of addition holds anyways
ohh alright thank you!
I was just trying to say that when you write $\mathbb{Q}(\alpha, \beta)$ for some real/complex alpha and beta it means the smallest subfield containing Q, alpha, and beta. So in particular it should be closed under addition
The_Vman:
ohh yeah i see what you mean
i wasnt sure the level of detail one should go to prove this
what's the operation in a quotient group
i dont get it like
Z4/Z2 = {0+z2, 1+z2, 2+z2, 3+z2} = {{0, 2}, {1,3}, {2, 0}, {3, 1}}
right
the elements of the group
are sets
but its a group of sets, what's the operation
So in a quotient group, the sets are cosets by the normal subgroup you quotiented by
I'm not quite sure I get the quotient you wrote down
It is
The_Vman:
did i fix it?
Not quite
:/
While {0, 2} is fine, the other subset shouldn't be {0}
The quotient group consists of elements like x + {0, 2}
Yeah happens, especially when you are used to multiplying everything and suddenly you start working with +
Looks good now
yeah makes sense that it contains all of Z4 as elements of the cosets
yea
so the thing i dont understand is, why is this a group? what's the operation? what's the neutral element?
So if you write the cosets like x + H and y + H, then the operation would be (x + H) + (y + H) = (x + y) + H
If you think of them as sets, you just take x and y to be elements of the respective sets, and then the sum of the cosets is whatever coset corresponds to x + y
And you only quotient by normal subgroups so that this operation is well-defined, doesn't depend on these choices
No problem
@fair obsidian i read over what you said, and now it makes sense
No
Ok, and did you get the relationship to the determinant?
Yeah the nth exterior product of V (dimV=n) has 1 dimension, so for a linear operator in V we have an induced map on n vectors, and since the exterior product has 1 dimension this induced map is multiplication by scalar, and we can define this scalar to be the determinant of the linear operator
I guess the n vectors can be chosen to be the standard basis
Or any linearly independent set
Yeah exactly and by like linearity and such the choice doesn't matter
Ok so I think the best way to see the minors thing is to go through an example
Alright
I'm missing one term I'm too lazy to write down
The_Vman:
Anyways the point is that if you use the v's and w's as basis and write down the matrix corresponding to T, then factors on the wedges are exactly the determinants of the 2x2 minors
Lol yeah its all just symbols
But now to compute the 2x2 minors of some composition ST, you just need need to apply S
Which would be something like $(a_{11}a_{22} \cdots) S^(w_1 \wedge w_2) + (a_{11}a_{23} \cdots) S^(w_1 \wedge w_3) + \cdots$
The_Vman:
Yeah
So it is going to be a sum where each term is $\det(\text{some minor})\cdot S^*(w_i\wedge w_j)$
Yeah exactly
Whoever:
And then $S^*(w_i\wedge w_j)$ will also be a linear combination where the coefficients are minors of the second operator
Whoever:
Yup
Yeah that makes sense
And also I see the first equation now
This one
You have $T^*(v_1\wedge v_2)=\br{\sum_ja_{j1}w_j}\wedge \br{\sum_ja_{j2}w_j}$
Whoever:
And then you can just expand the wedge using linearity, the fact that wedge is antisymmetric
And I’m gonna place my trust on your algebra that this will simplify to the expression you wrote
You can trust
It is nice to go through a map from 2d to 2d. Like if T only mapped into the span of w_1 and w_2 then you should get the usual ad - bc
Yeah I can see that without writing it down
Yeah that’s how I learned wedge product, as a way to produce alternating k tensor from smaller multilinear maps
I read it in Spivak’s calculus on manifold ch4
Oh nice I also used Spivak
Although I should say, that construction is better mirrored not in this space but in an isomorphic space which is embedded in the general tensor product
Here you don't have to deal with the coefficients consisting of a bunch of factorials
Oh ok, I read another construction that involved some k shuffle or sort of stuff, and I found the construction in spivak to be much nicer
He used like an alternating map right? You sum over the permutations with sign
Yeah
Yeah that space of alternating k-tensors is (isomorphic to) the dual space of the kth exterior power
Oh ok
It's some sort of universal property. The kth exterior power has any alternating k-tensor factor through it
Honestly not entirely sure. You can find the condensed definitions and construction on Wikipedia, I kinda learned them from some TAs and by thinking about them on my own, applying what I knew about it while doing the alternating k-tensors in Spivak and such
If I do find a good resource I'll link it to you
Alright thanks
let G be a group such that G/Z(G) = <aZ(G)> where a is from G, prove that a must be from Z(G)
np
Lol no, I still need to think about it
But with practice you maybe remember similar things and make connections
Ok so, do you have any ideas so far?
so the whole conversation we had earlier was just so i can wrap my head around what this even means
i understand now that
there is a specific coset aZ(G) which generates all the other ones
i need to prove that a is an element of Z(G)
is this right so far
Yeah exactly right
i dont really see a path towards the proof, i know that the quotient groups cyclic therefore any coset mZ(G) is just a^i * Z(G)
Well what is Z(G)?
its the subgroup of G consisting of only elements that commute with G
don't know if that sounds right, trying to translate from the language im taking the course in lol
No its fine, I would say the subgroup consisting of elements x that commute with every element in G
So to show that a is an element of Z(G), you need to show that a commutes with all elements of G right?
Cool, so to answer your question, I think you should do it directly
But go ahead
Sorry, I wasn't sure if you wanted to say more or not
im trying to do something with just algebraic manipulation
but i think its not working lol
Ok, I'll say this, you started by explicitly writing down the elements of G/Z(G)
Can you somehow use that to write down what elements of G look like?
Almost
There's an element a^i in each coset, but a generic element in the coset a^i * Z(G) might be just slightly different
So in the previous example we had cosets like 1 + {0, 2}, which had elements 1 + 0 and 1 + 2
What are elements of the coset a^i * Z(G)?
{a^i * z1, a^i * z2, ...}
Exactly
So a general element in G is in some coset, so it has the form a^i * z for some z in Z(G)
Right?
oh god
i completely forgot
the the elements in the cosets
are actually just elements of G
...
im so stupid
hahahahaha
i think i get it now
god
Lol no, it happens
That took me a while too actually. When you look at a quotient G/N it gives you a description for the elements in G.
It takes a little bit to get that you can use that to your advantage. That if you want to know something about elements in G, you can sometimes use what you know about the cosets
Ok but back to the question
Now you just need to show a is in Z(G)
nah it aint coming to me
lmao
every element in G is just some power of a * an element from the center
Right
And you want to show that the element a commutes with all such elements a^i * z
m = a^i * z
ma = a^i *z * a
ma = a^(i+1) * z
Yup
Well what is a*m?
That's math lol
why did it take me so long just to realize i need to show ma = am
lol
thank u again ! ! ! 🙏
Really I would say that's the hardest part. You might be able to do every step, but if you don't know which steps to take it gets a lot harder
You're welcome
took me a while to get my head around what im even working with
like what actual mathematical objects
Here Jacobson defines the $p$-component $M_p$ of a module (over pid $D$) to be the set of $y\in M$ such that $p^ky=0$ for some $k$. I have two questions: first is $p^k=\underbrace{1+1+\cdots+1}_{p^k\text{ times}}$; second, it says that $M_p\subseteq\operatorname{tor}M$, but part of the definition of torsion submodule is that $p^k\neq0$, which is not guaranteed in a ring with characteristic $p$, so is it still true?
Whoever:
I'm not too familiar with modules but I would say that p^k * y is the repeated addition of y, so yeah p^k is 1 added to itself p^k times
You always have a map from Z to a ring with identity by sending an integer n to 1 added to itself n times, and I think if not specified you think of integers as being in the ring in this natural way
@neat ginkgo Are you familiar with the viewpoint, that all cosets are equivalence classes,such that the relation respects certain conditions?
Yeah @fair obsidian, and by first iso theorem this map shows that R contains Z/(n) or Z, and if R is an integral domain then n=p is prime
Yeah makes sense
Just reading some definitions, you define the torsion submodule when the ring is an integral domain, are you assuming that here?
Wait if R is has characteristic p, then isn't any q^k a unit if q is some other prime?
Ok good to know
But my point was that if the p.i.d $D$ was characteristic $p$, then any prime power $q^k$ is a unit as it is a non-zero element of $Z/(p)$ inside $D$. So if $D$ has prime characteristic any torsion element $y$ with $ay = 0$ for $a \neq 0$ and $y \neq 0$ would have $a$ not be some $q^k$
The_Vman:
So if you used the above definition, the q-components would all be zero anyways
So it only really makes sense to talk about this if D isn't characteristic p
It would only make sense if D has characteristics 0 I guess
https://discordapp.com/channels/268882317391429632/496784958430380033/746766403675226303
https://discordapp.com/channels/268882317391429632/496784958430380033/746772276724105227
<@&681260374879633482> can someone these few questions xD
The answer to the first one is yes
Z acts on all modules in that way
And that's always how we interpret multiplying by an integer
Alright
I'm not seeing where part of the definition of torsion submodule is what you said
Can you post the definition you are referring to?
What's your point then whoever
If p^k is 0 in the ring R, then p^k m = 0
Then M_p will be the whole module
Hmm
So M_p is not a subset of torM anymore
Okay so this can only happen if our ring is of characteristic p
Yeah
But yeah you're right
This definition needs a few more words
To make it make sense
Just let p not be the characteristic
Yeah I guess the characteristic 0 case is the interesting one
Yeah
I found the definition in D&F, it’s not a direct definition
Oh
The primes are not primes in Z, but primes in the pid
Bruh
@woven delta @fair obsidian I think it might be that by primes they meant primes in the pid
Lmao
Apparently there's a generalization of sylows theorem that states that the number of subgroups of order p^e for any integer e is congruent to 1 mod p
Does anyone have an idea for how to prove this?
There is an outline of that proof in the last section of chapter 1 of Jacobson
It's in the exercises
@woven delta
Awesome thanks
We have this on a problem set in my algebra reading group thing
It's awesome
It's on the homework the week before the sylow theorems are in lecture
TIL what quaternions are
used for a brief second in my algebra book
what field of mathematics is this studied by
For fuck's sake
pretty trivial
ur the typo here
I got to the first box, then i was tired and stopped
sharmock
what field of mathematics is this studied by
algebraists? Not sure if there's a specific branch that specializes in quaternions. Probably people that study real associative algebras or something like that.
Quaternions I don't think are specifically studied but they kick in elsewhere
Mostly in algebra
The group Q8, quaternion algebras
they show up in topology, when you're looking at classical (matrix) groups
Iirc SU(2) is isomorphic to the unit quaternion is diffeomorphic to S^3?
the unit quaternion are a 3d sphere in a 4 dimensional space so you can use them to put a group structure on S^3
Sounds right I think
The one I know offhand is that SO(3) is RP^3
So if SU(2) double covers SO(3) then yes that works
Yeah it does
In fact this is how Lee (outlines in an exercise) the proof that SO(3) ≈ RP^3
you like look at how a unit quaternion acts by conjugation on the imaginary quaternions
This is a linear automorphism of a 3d vector space
if you look at it in the basis {i, j, k} you actually land in SO(3)
and this is surjective with kernel {-1, 1}
Oh my proof of that was much more direct lol
Like you just come up with a map S^3 -> SO(3) by being like
Err
No no
From the 3-disk
?
You can realize RP^3 as D^3/antipodal points on the boundary
oh yeah sure
So you map D^3 -> SO(3) by just being like
Aight for a point on the disk x, map it to the rotation about the axis given by x, by angle |x|\pi
(We're considering the axis given by x and -x to be flipped, so rotating the opposite direction)
Two things map to the same guy if they're antipodal points on the boundary
So boom it factors through RP^3 and is a homeomorphism (in fact it should be a diffeo?)
Nice
Does anyone know where I might find an algebraic proof (or something useful for constructing a proof) of the following claim?
$A, B \subseteq E \implies \mathbb{F}(E) \cong \mathbb{F}(A) \underset{\mathbb{F}(A\cap B)}\ast \mathbb{F}(B)$
Where F(X) is the free group on a set X and the RHS of that isomorphism is the free product with amalgamation
I can think of a method from a topological perspective using Seifert van kampen, but wondering if there exists an algebraic proof already before reinventing the wheel myself
So A and B are sets, do you mean to say that the product with amalgamation gives F(A union B)?
Yes sorry, here $E = A \cup B$
Migillope:
The easiest way I can think of proving this I think is by using universal properties
Migillope:
that was what I meant to type up
Cool
I think you might be able to construct an explicit isomorphism, although that is similar to the universal property stuff
Do you know what I am referring to when I say the universal properties (of the free group, amalgamation, ...)?
Yeah, I tried some cursory attempt at that, but I'm unsure how I would go about constructing the diagram
Starting from A U B -> F(AUB) and AUB -> F(A) * F(B) amalgamated over F(A ^ B) would do it, but that last bit is kinda the entire problem (and not particularly well defined)
I've already simplified the problem to a reasonable algebraic problem, I just want to make sure I'm not working on it pointlessly before committing the time to it
I'm not an expert but I think it should work out
Ok so lets let H = F(A n B) and G = F(A) * F(B) amalgamated over H
Using the inclusion AuB into F(AuB) you want to construct a map from G to F(AuB)
So G has the property that whenever you have homomorphisms f1: F(A) to K and f2: F(B) to K such that the restriction of f1 and f2 to H give the same map, you get a unique homomorphism h: G to K
Such that h matches up with f1 and f2 by restricting appropriately
Right?
such that the restriction of f1 and f2 to H give the same map
meaning K subgroup F(AnB)?
No I mean that H is a subgroup of F(A) and F(B), so you can restrict the domain of f1 to H and the domain of f2 to H
And $f_1 |_H = f_2 |_H$
The_Vman:
Maybe you think of there being inclusion homomorphisms $\eta_A: H = F(A \cap B) \to F(A)$ and $\eta_B: H = F(A \cap B) \to F(B)$ instead, and then I mean $f_1 \circ \eta_A = f_2 \circ \eta_B$
The_Vman:
Maybe I should ask, how have you defined the free product with amalgamation? Are you ok using this property or should we be talking about quotients too?
I don't know how clear that is, but that's the kind of diagram I'm thinking about
that is more clear to me
I'm (ideally) defining G (free product w amalgamation) to be to be F(A) * F(B) / <<F(AnB)>>, so the free product of the free groups of A and B quotient out the normal closure of the free product of A and B intersection. From there it's pretty easy to use the first isomorphism theorem to complete the proof
I'm not sure if that diagram is true in all cases, what is that property? Pushout?
Ok yeah that makes sense, but you mean the normal closure of elements $\eta_A(g)\eta_B(g)^{-1}$ for $g \in F(A \cap B)$?
The_Vman:
Yeah it is a pushout diagram
yes
And yeah the pushout diagram corresponds to a free product with amalgamation
yeah my category theory game is not weak, I wasn't sure if that applied to free groups of free products w/ amalgamation
I had similar diagrams, just wasn't sure on the theory of that. This is generalized a lot from my application
I mean I'm pretty sure it does, but I think my category theory game is probably weak lol
I figure I could avoid category theory if I could prove that for $f: F(A) * F(B) \to F(E)$ and $g: F(A\cap B) \to F(A) * F(B)$ we have $ker(f) = <<im(g)>>$ then the original statement would follow
Migillope:
but that might be more convoluted than just figuring out the cat theory
Hmm
Yeah I can't think of a good way of showing $ker(f) \subseteq <<im(g)>>$ other than going through some diagrams
The_Vman:
I mean, I don't see any reason why pushout wouldn't work with free groups, but at the same time I don't want to write something relying on that fundamentally without really knowing for certain it does
clearly pushout applies to free products with amalgams, as it is literally the same, wiki even defines them as the same. I just don't know if it applies to free products of free groups with amalgams. I suppose that would just be a subcase, so why not?
Yeah it's just a subcase
But that's not what's going on with the above f:F(A) * F(B) to F(E) and g:F(A n B) to F(A) * F(B)
Yeah I think the best to solve your problem is to show that the pushout diagram with F(AnB), F(A), F(B), and F(E) instead of the free product with amalgam, has the universal property
And so F(E) must be the free product with amalgam through some natural isomorphism
And using the property of the free group (and the pushout property of AnB, A, B and AuB) it shouldn't be that bad at all
I guess my question would be what conditions we need upon the homomorphisms such that the commutation in your diagram is an isomorphism
does F(A) -> K need to be an isomorphism?
or just homo? or surjective?
Sorry so that which one becomes an isomorphism? The map from F(E) to the amalgam?
the map from F(A) *_H F(B) to K
Ohh