#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Β· Page 503 of 407
Or hmm
Oh jjst
I think theyβll remain as disjoint cycles
Actually Iβm not too sure
Lol
I think they'll remain as disjoint cycles too
Yeah but you might need to break up
s_i
Into like two cycles
If itβs even and you squares it
Then you get two different cycles
Of half the length
And maybe it still works out the same but idk
In general if xy = yx
you should have that <t,s_i> is the internal direct product of <t> and <s_i>
And their orders are coprime then the order is the product
wait why Auvera?
trivial intersection and they commute with each other
Oh ok
Oh true
Interesting
Then the order of <t, s_i> is just |<t>| * |<s_i>|?
Of t^n and s_i^mβs order
Ah
And then <t>'s order is just 2 and <s_i>'s order is n - i
Maybe off by 1
What happens if we have that i = 1 or 2?
i think when i=1 you generate S_n but that might be completely wrong
I don't konw if that's true
Like say we have (1 2) and (1 2 3)?
(12)(123) = (132), if i'm doing this right? (which I might very well nto be)
that's the Herstein way π€£
Pardon?
assuming you evaluate your functions from right to left you get (12)(123)=(23)
in Herstein's book he does left to right
OH
Idk I'm jus tfollowing this
But uh yea if i = 1 then I see that <s_i> is just S_n but how does that interact with <t>?
<s_1> is not S_n, it's only order n. but <s_1, t>=S_n
wait why
hrmmm
for i=2, i've no idea
hrmmm ok
Well I emailed the prof about the nilpotent matrices, thing and he said Suppose G acts on a set X, and x is an element of X. Then we say that the orbit of x is the set { gx : g in G }, and we say that a subset S of X is an orbit if S is is the orbit of x for some point x in X.
I still don't really understand how we're supposed to show that the set of nilpotent matrices of rank i is an orbit under the conjugation action of GL_2(K)
err what that actually means that we're trying to show
Oh I found a proof for <s_1, t> = S_n
Oh hey wait https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/grouptheory/genset.pdf both s_1 and s_2 generate s_n
Yea
And then corollary 2.6 is the i = 2 case
But question
why does this work?
Err
Where did the $\sigma^{-1}$ go?
Liria ^(;,;)^:
i think you just evaluate it in cases. the only numbers in {1,2,...,n} that aren't fixed are sigma(1) and sigma(2), so just plug those in and see where they go
wdym by aren't fixed?
aren't fixed by the function sigma * (12) * sigma^-1
fixed meaning mapping to itself
oh ok
Oh that's pretty cool
(12)(2...n) = (1...n) and so we end up generating S_n again
That took me a while to get π
Question: In general, for a group, can we say that its idenitty generates the group?
Usually when you say "[thing] generates the group", you mean "every element in the group is a product of elements in [thing]"
Hence, when you say "the identity generates the group", you're saying "every element in the group is some product of identities"
but since identity times identity equals identity, this is never true when your group has some elements which are not the identity
product of elements in [things] U [thing]^-1*
Yee, you're right actually
But in any case, even with inverses, the identity still doesn't generate much π
How do I show this: Let p be the smallest prime dividing the order of a finite group, then any subgroup of index p is normal
look at the action of G over G/H
or H over G/H I don't remember
where H is of order p
Oh thank you that's a good hint
hrm
How can i show that the union of all Surds is a feild?
how are you defining surd here?
any element of that union would just be a single surd right?
sorry i meant to say
union of all tower of number feilds such that $B_{i+1} = B_{i}(\sqrt{\alpha})$ where $\alpha \in B_i$
boat:
What are good books for ANT (with good exercises, in particular)?
I got a copy of Lang's book, but it doesn't have exercises
Hrm
Thanks, I'll check it out
im hoping to start on it soon
How do I show that for every commutative R, there is an isomorphism like this?
you just prove it's an isomorphism
Hrm
I think that part of my problem is that I don't really understand the procedure for generating such a homomorphism I guess
So like I get taht phi should map r(s, t) to r(y, y)
Right?
yeah that's it
And then I need to prove that that is a surjective homomorphism with kernel (s - t) yea?
yup
I guess that the hard part is showing the bit with division
Like I can show that clearly (s - t) is in ker(phi)
But I don't know how to show that it is all of ker(phi)?
the direct approach would be to write out r as a polynomial in s and t, determine r(y,y), and set it equal to 0
you'll get some system of equations in the coefficients of r you can relate back to r(s,t)
wdym by "Determined r(y, y)"?
hrm
So I can go and show that like <s - t> is in ker(phi) right? And then I go and show it the other way around?
well you posed the problem as R only commutative, so no
i'm not sure you even need commutative
hrm
Do you be like "For any r(s, t) we have that phi(r) = r(y, y) = a_ny^n + ... a_1y + a_0", and then show that I can...
Hrm
i think you need to write out r at the start, before applying phi
that seems awful to write out
How would you write out r? Like for regular polynomials it's a_nx^n + ... a_1x + a_0 but for here we can have differing degrees of x and y yea?
yeah
often the definition R[s,t] = (R[s])[t] is used, so r(s,t) is a polynomial in t with coefficients that are polynomials in s
hrmmmmmmmmmmm can I just be like "For any r(s, t), if we take r(y, y) we get an element of R[y], and so we can write a_ny^n + ... a_1y + a_0"? the problem is that I don't know how to write r(y, y) as the product of something + (s - t)
Like it's not euclidean
So we don't have a division algorithm right?
yes but also r(y,y) is a polynomial in y alone. the s and t are gone
because you've mapped into R[y] now
Wait does R[y] have a division algorithm?
if R is a field it does
ok but R is just a commutative ring
you're assuming r(s,t) is in ker(phi) right?
So I can go and show that like <s - t> is in ker(phi) right? And then I go and show it the other way around?
i thought you were on the "other way around" part now
right. so you're choosing r(s,t) in ker(phi)
Oh ok, so I'm choosing r(s, t) already in ker(phi)
And I want to show that it takes on the form of g(s, t)(s - t)
yes
ok but how do you go and do that without a division algortihm 
that's what i was outlining above π€£
So set r(y, y) = 0?
yeah although i don't think it will do you any good without knowing how the coefficients of r(y,y) relate to those of r(s,t)
if you write it out you will see
i'll get you started. say $r(s,t) = \sum \limits_{i=0}^{m} \sum \limits_{j=0}^{n_i} r_{i,j}s^it^j$ for some $r_{i,j} \in R$
Auvera:
Somewhat like so but the r coefficients are wrong
yea that
So you end up with $r(y, y) = \sum_{i = 0}^m \sum_{j = 0}^{n_i}r_{i, j} y^{i + j}$
Liria ^(;,;)^:
wait
can I go and use the fcat that like R[s, t] = (R[s])[t] to go and write like.. r(s, t) = r_1(s) + r_2(s)t + ... r_n(s)t^n, and then go and show that if f(r(s, t)) = 0, then we have that 0 = r_1(y) + r_2(y)y + ... + r_n(y)y^n? Or something like that?
yes that's all true. where do you go from there though
seems like you're trying very hard to avoid this double summation lol
Ah rip it doesnt' help
The double summation is hard for me to read , and thus I feel like using it is impairing my ability to understand what's going on
Like the hard part I think is that we don't have a diviison algorithm?
hmm. even assuming R[y] is euclidean i don't see how that helps
like what do you divide by
Well then I can write it as being p(s - t) + r
And then I just need to show that r = 0
Right/
no, s-t is not a polynomial in R[y]
Err
We can write r(s, t) as being
p(s - t) + q for some p, q in R[s, t]
Then clearly from the first part, p is in ker(phi)
hrm
Actually yea that doest' help much
you could probably use grobner bases to get it pretty easily but i don't know much about them
Never heard of those either 
it's the closest thing you get to a division algorithm in a multivariate polynomial ring
Well I found this, http://www-users.math.umn.edu/~felix077/download/sec9.pdf exercise 14 in it but I'm having a hard time understanding their arguement for why the remainder goes to 0, and this also doesn't apply to this question because R is not necessarily an integral domain
yeah that should work
if you've proved the more general version of division algorithm, i think you dont need R to be a field, you just need the leading coefficient of the polynomial to be a unit
so you could apply that to the ring R[s][t]

I don't think I've necessarily proved a more general division alogrithm
Like this is what we have?
how did you prove R[x] is euclidean domain?
Yea lol
I mean I have a second question that's very similar imo and if I can prove this oen I think I can prove the second one
can we prove wolstenholme's theorem ($\dbinom{pa}{pb} \equiv \dbinom{a}{b} \pmod{p}$) using the frobenius endomorphism? i'm trying to right now by expanding the function $(1+x)^{ap} = (x^p + 1)^a$ in $\mathbb{F}_p$ and fiddling around with binomial coefficients, but i just can't get the result to stick. further, can we extend this to modulos $p^2$ and $p^3$?
Using the equation $(x+1)^{ap}=(x^p + 1)^a$, the coefficient for $x^{pb}$ on the left side is $\binom{pa}{pb}$, and the coefficient for $x^{pb}$ on the right side is just the $b$th term from the right, which is $\binom{a}{b}$, and this proves the congruence mod p
Whoever:
wait but doesn't FLT complicate the proof above...? i kept reducing powers modulo p-1 so that all i could get was an equivalence between sums (which said nothing about term-by-term equivalence, obviously)...
like actually you have $\sum _{i \equiv b \pmod{p}} \dbinom{ap}{i} = \sum _{j \equiv b \pmod{p}} \dbinom{a}{j}$, right?
deiknymi0:
i know i already took away the x
so like i'm taking the coefficients of x^1, x^p, x^(p^2), etc... because all of these are equivalently just x
The equation is $\sum_{k=0}^{ap}\binom{ap}{k}x^{k}=\sum_{k=0}^a\binom{a}{k}x^{pk}$
Whoever:
faceplam ahaha the irony i can't even spell it right. thanks for responding β€οΈ
Lmao
π very nice
Hi, I have a question pertaining to isomorphisms between general and special linear groups and symmetry groups. It is very easy to observe that an isomorphism exists between GL(n, Zp^k) or SL(n, Zp^k) and the symmetry groups S3, S4 and A4, and S5, but I was wondering if there was a generalizable isomorphism to a symmetry group Sn for all n. More specifically I am looking for an isomorphism from a matrix group with finite field entries to the symmetry group of any n-dimensional simplex.
Regarding GL_n (Z_p) - the determinant map is going to have a kernel thats of order p, so it would need to be p = 2 to be an S_m for some m. My sense is that except for small n the answer will be no? I think calculating the orders of these groups probably gives a proof of no, but haven't checked it. (The orders of GL_n are easy to count, you just describe ordered basis by picking a nonzero vector, then picking a vector independent to it, etc. and count the number of choices at each level. I think the order of SL_n is that divided by |F|, from first isomorphism using the determinant map.)
But if you are looking inside, then I believe there are faithful representations given by acting on the standard basis in F^n.
Ok that makes sense. I have found SL_n(Z_p) seems to work up to S_6 but I cannot find any matrix group with order 7! I included GL because it might've been possible but I see that it isn't. And yeah |GL_n(Z_p)/SL_n(Z_p)| = p-1
oh yeah by |F| - 1, lol. thanks
You always have the permutation matrices as a representation of S_n
and I think that works in any field
I didn't actually check the orders, but I would calculate them before believing anything I wrote above lol
i was wondering why there were so many new faces talking math in chill
until i realized this wasn't chill
And it's faithful since you can look at the action on basis elements in a free module
@vital quail one day the time of great unification will come, and all channels will merge together and achieve global consciousness
This servers true purpose is the human instrumentality project
One time I was in my schools lounge and this grad student told me the empty ring wasn't a ring
well its not the empty ring (theres no such thing), its the ring where 1 = 0
So the empty scheme wasn't affine (or maybe not a scheme at all?)
the zero ring corresponds to the empty scheme though
oh sorry I meant the zero ring
he's like a 5th year algebraic geometry grad student who's very smart and capable
But he insisted it wasn't a ring
the textbook I used required a ring to contain the identity, but it's apparently a very controversial topic?
ppl gotta have opinions
well
the ring where 1= 0 does have an identity
its the ring {0}
the empty ring though
oh yeah there's no empty ring (at least in usually commutative algebra)
you need an element
like how there's no empty group
he's like a 5th year algebraic geometry grad student who's very smart and capable
@latent anvil does he also think every mathematician should switch to categorical foundations?
I'm not sure, but his thesis is focused on the derived category of the category of qcoh sheaves on a scheme, so he's definitely A Fan of category theory
I'm cool with the zero ring but Z/8Z is just straight up sus
That's victim blaming
no victim blaming would be hating on 9 for getting eaten
8 just sat idly by while 7 used its homophone to eat 9
The monster
@latent anvil circular reasoning smh
circular reasoning is valid as long as circular reasoning is valid
a funny thing about circular reasoning is that it's funny
Wait what if we consider a truth system where truth values are on a circle and call that circular reasoning?
Logicians get on this
Sounds like Jan's thing
there's closed time like curves
circuit model of time travelling computation
Scott Aaronson has some interesting papers on it
Let G be a lie group. Consider a theory whose truth values lie in G
PSPACE becomes Polynomial sized circuits, because (philosophically) the difference between time and space disappears
Sorry just to go back to my question before, I guess I could use permutation matrices to represent S_n+1. I'm trying to visualize a rotation of an n-simplex corresponding to an edge-edge rotation of a tetrahedron. If the subspaces are literally just the axes of the dimension corresponding to the number of "symbols" in the permutation, then I guess that's easier than trying to find a generalized SL_n(Z_p).
well if you embed the simplex in R^{n+1} in the right way
the isometries /symmetries will be linear
and coincide with the permutation matrices
not sure if that answers your question tho, just free associating mostly, but maybe makes it easier to visualize
right way = convex hull of the standard basis vectors
im not completely sure what you are asking now though
whats an edge edge rotation?
like the induced action on the edge labels?
an edge-edge rotation is the rotation through the midpoints of the edges of the tetrahedron, so the elements of V4 I guess
I was thinking of potentially using partial permutations too to describe the rotation but I'm not sure if that would be helpful
helpful for what?
to understand the particular rotation of an n-simplex of order 2
what do you want to do with the understanding?
I need to explain a bit more to answer that question. I am dealing with "kaleidocycles" which are a "ring" of connected tetrahedrons that can be rotated. Right now I have a solid idea of how that works in R3, and a fairly decent idea of a parallel using 5-cells in R4. I'm trying to expand it to any dimension to then create a program that will visualize the rotation.
Permutations are far easier to work with than a time-variable matrix, so I figure it would be easier to deal with projective spaces rather than all of R^n
I'm not sure I follow why you are going to projective spaces
To answer simply, the rotation of an object of dimension 4 or greater is extremely difficult to visualize traditionally
(just set n = 4?)
But on the other hand a permutation of order 2 doesn't encapsulate the whole rotation, since it is both a rotation and translation
wdym?
lol
for 4 dim polytopes people like to use schlegel diagrams for visualization
yeah I've seen schlegel diagrams used but for anything beyond that, it seems like Coxeter diagrams and Cayley graphs are far more useful
which inspired the idea of using symmetry groups
Yeah Alex Voet
gotcha
chhhhhmonkey
a_v is zero almost everywhere
I thought it was something like $a_{(k_1,...,k_n)} X^{(k_1,\cdots,k_n)} = a_{k_1}{(k_1,...,k_n)} x^{k_1} + \cdots + a{k_n}_{(k_1,...,k_n)} x^{k_n}$
The formerly edible banana:
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it's times, not plus
also, it should be x_i^(k_i)
it's a polynomial in n variables
so those n variables should appear somewhere
$a_{(k_1,...,k_n)} X^{(k_1,\cdots,k_n)} = a_{k_1}{(k_1,...,k_n)} x_1^{k_1} \cdots a{k_n}_{(k_1,...,k_n)} x_n^{k_n}$
The formerly edible banana:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
So this?
Gotcha
a polynomial in n variables is a linear combination of terms of the form x_1^(k_1) * (x_2)^(k_2) * ... * x_n^(k_n)
which is abbreviated as x^(k1, ..., kn)
and the coefficvient on that term is called a_(k1, ..., kn)
Oh wait
I actually came up with the same notation a couple of months back I think
I think I get it now
Thanks
Fellow 'nana
haha
I have several questions:
- How do we chose m?
- Why does this choice of m guarantee monic in x_n?
- How exactly does induction kick in?
I feel like this proof isnβt a very well written one
Which book are you pulling it from?
Why does s_x = 0 imply s|_U_x = 0?
s_x = <s|_U,U>
What does this mean?
an element of the stalk at x
is an equivalence class
<s,U> where s in F(U)
and x in U
and <s,U> = <t,V> iff s|V\capU = t|V\cap U
so by definiton
I guess I'm not too sure with that construcitno of the direct limit
I just use the one I stated
haha
then s_x = <s,U> when s in F(U)
and by definition 0 in the stalk is just <0,U> for all U
So if <s,U> = <0,V> which means s_x = 0
then s|_U\cap V = 0|_U\cap V
Wait so shouldn't that give us that s|_U_x's image in the direct limit is 0?
Which would imply s|_U_x_x = 0?
yes
but why does the book say s|_U_x = 0 then?
s_x is the set of all sections over neightbourhoods of x mod equality on one neightbourhood
uh yeah mb
But banana
s_x is one of these classes
they're saying, depending on x
you have a nbd U_x
such that s|_{U_x} = 0
but since you have one such U_x for all x in X
that they cover
Yeah, but I don't get how s|_{U_x} = 0
because if s_x = 0
If s_x = 0 that means that 0 is in s_x, since s is in s_x by definition, we have that s and 0 are equal on a neightbourhood of x
then you're saying <s,U> = <0,V> for some V
then take U\cap V = U_x
then s|_{U_x} = 0
by definition of that equality
How do we know here that the intersection is not empty?
both have to be nbds of x
Okay and that's because we are taking the limit over the neighborhoods of x right?
That's fun that your book states that lemma and proves it when the course I have set this fact as obvious
How do I show that if the action of G on S is primitive and effective, then the action induced by any normal subgroup H (β 1) is transitive
Hey guys
im trying to prove this problem
show that $x^2 - \sqrt{2} $ is irreducible over $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt(2))$
boat:
what i did was assume that $\alpha \in \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt(2))$, then$ \alpha = a_1 + a_2\sqrt{2} $
boat:
then i substitued alpha into x^2 - \sqrt{2}
so i get sqrt{2} = (a_1^2 + 2a_2^2) + 2sqrt{2}a_2a_1
then a_1 + 2a_2^2 = 0 so a_1 = a_2 = 0
so we have sqrt{2} = 0
a contradiction
so its not reducible
oh right
i am kinda confused about the next part
i dont see how this being irreducible fits into it
find the elements of gal(E/Q(\sqrt{2})
E is the splitting field of f(x)
so E = Q(\sqrt[4]{2})
since the roots are \pm \sqrt[4]{2}
i was just going to use the fact that f(x) has 2 roots
in E
so it must be isomorphic to Z_2
but i am not sure how to make your arguement
I know that | Gal{E/Q} | = | E: Q |
which is 2
but that doesnt really tell me anything about the elements right
^ thats only true if f(x) is seperable
but irreducible polynomials are always seperable in char 0
im not sure if E is char 0
you have the idenity
transformation
right
and you have the conjugate transformation
those are 2
ohh so thats how we use irreducible
like if a is a root -a is a root
in this case
since there are two
sorry i mean
a --> -a
-a --> a
is a map
and you have the identity map
idk how i can argue that it is a map
a, -a is a root of f(x)
so we have two elements in Gal(E/F) from before.
so the elements must be: 1. automorphism taking a - > a and -a -> -a
2.taking a - > -a and -a -> a
and these are in Gal since they fix F and take a root to a root
is that enough to say these are all the elements?
ohh i see
i just wasnt sure if the arguement was enough
thank you very much Viburnum
hey guys
How would i find the order of a galois group
why is Q(\sqrt[4]{2}) / Q not Gaois?
some texts
do not define a galois group if its trivial
for the order of the galois group
right
because i just found the galois group of that a few mins ago
which was Z_2
ohh right
hmm
but then i am not sure i understand
the minimal polynomial would be x^4 - 2
\pm \sqrt[4]{2} and \pm i \sqrt[4]{2}
ohh right
since they are imaginary
so its not a splitting feild
Thats why its not galois
ohh i see
we just defined galois feild over a feild extention
how would i find the order of Q{\sqrt[4]{2}, i}?
normally i would try to find a irreducible polynomial
but i only worked with one element
when i have two, can i just set alpha to sqrt[4]{2} + i
and find it
right so Q(sqrt[4]{2},i) \subset Q(sqrt[4]{2}) \subset Q
but i need to show that Q(sqrt[4]{2},i) is a splitting feild of f(x) and f(x) is seperable first right
but i would have to calculate an f(x) using sqrt[4]{2} and i
i see
thank you viburnum
can i use eisenstien's criterion on polynomials with just two terms say x^2 + 2
i can take all a_i = 0
so any prime would divide it
and take any other prime
but then it would hold for x + 2 as well for p = 3
but its clearly reducible
Yes
(to your first question)
Idk what you're saying after that
What do you mean you can take all a_i = 0
a_i is all the other terms of 2 + a_1 x + x^2 + a_3 x^3 and so on
it would work in this case
Lol you're doing it wrong
reread the statement of eisensteins criteria
Oh wait nevermind
wait what
I don't understand why you have an a_3 there?
eisensteins requires seomthing about the leading coefficient
and then all the others
Yeah
and the constant coefficient
Here's the statement
yeah
Okay so what's your question boat?
right
Why is x+2 clearly reducible?
for example, you can use eisenstein's criterion to prove that x^5 - 2 is irreducible
that's correct
eisenstein's criterion says "if this property holds then f(x) is irreducible"
right
it does not say "if f(x) is irreducible then this property holds"
ohh right
good point
that was a dumb question
sorry guys
im just trying to cram everything
Supposedly you can do some substitutions to apply eisenstein to even more cases
Lol
f(x) is irreducible iff f(x + a) is
Well we are working over Q
Also not claiming it fails in other places, but I proved it for integral domains for a hw haha
There's something about like x^{p - 1} + x^{p - 2} + ... + x + 1
woah thats a good point
A natural question would be "what's a polynomial you can't show is irreducible using eisenstein with substitution"
then apply eisenstein
do you have any examples of how it fails in a non-domain?
I don't
isn't x --> x + a always an automorphism of k[x]?
but I only proved it for integral domains
sorry so
k[x] is a bad example here tight?
Like I proved it in that case
we'd want a like R[x] for R arbitrary
and since it's an isomorphism, it takes units to units and factorizations to factorizations
Is x --> x + a an automorphism of R[x] for arbtirary rings?
it clearly has an inverse
x-a
namely, x --> x - a
Oh lol
hmm
Snipe? Bullets collide in midair? idk
Then maybe it's for arbitrary
I proved it really hands on
and think I used integral domainness
sure, I'm just suggesting that there seems to be a very easy proof which works in general
how do you guys remember all these proof techniques
just cuz
I had a problem
and was like "wtf lol"
and someone was like "haha do x -> x + 1"
and it just stuck in my brain
You tend to remember the ones that come up a lot
or if u come up with it yourself
on a problem that gave you a lot of trouble it's memorable
Is that from freshman year of UG?
yeah
damn
This in particular is how you prove that the cyclotomic polynomials Phi_p are irreducible
I'm finishing up year 2 of doing math
crazy I still got a loooong ass way
before I'm even looking at post docs haha
don't wanna scare you or anything but there are people who have been doing math for 5 decades
I'm still surprised you're so young lol, in my mind you're at the very end of undergrad/a grad student
me?
Yeah
lol
are you a mathematician?
so like, age wise I'm at that end of UGish age
Oh I know it consciously just like, when I talk to you it feels like I'm talking to a 4th year or a grad student
what's a "mathematician"
you probably did your grad school and got a phd by now, since you been doing it for 10 years
I'll take that as a compliment
what do you do after?
congratulations!
thanks :)
Wait Buncho do you have a Post doc lined up?
not a postdoc, but I do have an academic job
oh?
i just define mathematician as those crazy smart guys who get paid to write mathematical papers
I decided to transition into teaching-focused position instead of a research-focused position
so I have a permanent position
What about the ones who aren't crazy smart and get paid to write papers?
damn nice
"tenure track but for teaching"
wait
waiting
At a 4 year uni?
Math professors
well they gotta be pretty smart to be mathematicians
yeah, washington university in st louis
Oh nice!
i mean math phd's
yea math phds
congrats buncho
I'll still have some time to do research but I decided I wanted to focus on teaching and do research on the side instead of vice versa
thanks :)
what did you do your thesis on?
and yes mathematicians get paid lol
boat you say that but I'm a grad student and it took me forever to see why max(yr,y^{-1}r^{-2}) \ge y^{1/3}
I work in number theory
also
but idk how much taht means to you haha
π
swtich to discussion maybe?
meh i can just go rant about like how ppl around me think studying math is the stupidest thing to do
Yeah prob
as i wont get paid and end up as hs teacher ( who is underpaid here )
wtrf
?
but this isnt the channel
so let me ask an algebra question
i think they are right @solemn rain
lol
a facebook problem i was very interested in but did no effort whatsoever ins olving
cuz i am bad
is it one of those with fruits?
no
Let \phi_n be the nth cyclotomic polynomial. Suppose that \phi_n splits into powers of d irreducible factors mod p for some prime p. Show that all these factors have the same degree and multiplicity.
^ facebook from ' actual good math problems ' page
Finite field extension of Q
Hmm
sorry, the question isnt the same, it just looked very familiar
any hints for Let \phi_n be the nth cyclotomic polynomial. Suppose that \phi_n splits into powers of d irreducible factors mod p for some prime p. Show that all these factors have the same degree and multiplicity.
Still thinking
damn i wish i could think
tbh
like actual mathematical thinking
there is a remark made on the post
that i do not understand maybe you do
'Actually this is also true over the p-adic integers by Hensel's lemma if the multiplicity is one in the mod p split. This happens when p==2 does not divide n. I don't wanna make claims about p=2.'
My heart tells me that it's got something to do with the business about like, x^{p^n} - x being the product of irreducible polynomials of degree dividing n? Because you factor out x and now you're kinda getting something a bit cyclotomic
But my head tells me that my heart is stupid
wait really
let me check it
where is x^[p^n]-x
field
nvm ih ave no idea
i cant remember what ycclotimc polynomial even means
i think a polynomial having nth root of unity as a root
bro if you wanted a solution or to understand the problem
first look up what a cyclotomic polynomial is kek
Lol
and once is aw the remark i just got put off
i hate it when i attempt a problem i dont know its out of my reach
or maybe unsolvable
jusut aw aste of time
nah
What problem are you talking about?
progress in math isn't cuz you solved x amount of problems
any hints for Let \phi_n be the nth cyclotomic polynomial. Suppose that \phi_n splits into powers of d irreducible factors mod p for some prime p. Show that all these factors have the same degree and multiplicity.
you thinking about it teaches you stuff
yea yea ik
but im just not in the mood for learning math nowadays at all
but yea ur right
i just caught the problem on fb :d
Doing random problems is silly
If you're not willing to put in the time to think about them
yea just caught my eye ig
it can be deduced from Galois theory
first a theorem in group theory
Assume $G$ acts transitive on a set X. Let $H \lhd G$, let ${O_i}_r$ be the orbits of $H$ on $X$.
i) $G$ permutes the sets ${O_i}_r$ transitively
ii) Each $|O_i|$ is equal
iii) If $x \in O_i$ then $|O_i| = |H : H \cap G_x|$
iv) The number of orbits is $|G : H G_x|$
skymoo:
Now if you bring that through the Galois correspondence you will get the result
Let $f(X) \in F[X]$ be irreducible of degree $n$ over $F$. Let $L$ be the splitting field of $f(X)$ over $F$. Let $K$ be any Galois extension of $F$ contained in $L$ then $f(X)$ splits into a product of $m$ irreducibles of degree $d$ over $K$ and $m = [F(\alpha) \cap K :F]$, $d = [K(\alpha) : K]$
skymoo:
Well I suppose this is not quite relevant to what you asked about mod p, this is more about extensions of Q.
from Cox - Galois Theory pg 404
The cyclotomic polynomials have a cyclic Galois group
So I suppose every cycle type you get from decomposition mod p would be cycles
Any simpler ways to deduce it?
(x^13-1)/(x-1) splits mod 53 
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/376668/is-there-a-pattern-of-the-factorization-of-a-polynomial-modulo-p-as-p-varies interesting link with some relevant stuff
OK I see how to solve this problem more directly
If you look at how Phi_p(X) factors mod q you can notice some patterns
it's determined entirely by the congruence class of q mod p
next you can look at field extensions of Z/qZ
in particular, when Phi_p(X) occurs as a factor of X^(q^d) - X
I need some help with this https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/269573202018041856/742387259680227458/515168765189816321.png
craft:
this is the general idea
@undone bay how do you interchange the indices of B and change it to + or - accordingly. I mean how do you know it is symmetric or anti-symmetric?
If we can show that $(B^\mu_\alpha B^\gamma_\beta + B^\mu_\beta B^\gamma_\alpha)$ is symmetric, we can use the fact that product of a symmetric tensor and an anti-symmetric is zero. But how do we prove that it is symmetric?
ElonMoist:
(finally typed that right)
@teal lake I'm not assuming anything about the Bs, the only indices I change for the B tensors are the indices being summed over, which are arbitrary
no problem!
how does the parity of a permutation behave with respect to permutation composition?
even * even = even
odd * even = odd
odd * odd = even
?
What's permutation composition
the operation in Sn
Well I guess that group is isomorphic to $S_2$
yes @neat ginkgo that's one of the reasons why it's named "even" and "odd"
Where odd is the function where you swap the elements and even is the identity function
because the operation acts like how even and odd numbers behave under addition
nice, thanks
that's all i needed to confirm, idk why its so hard to find this on the internet
maybe i just dont know how to ask questions
I just googled "product of even and odd permutations"
and found several sites giving that answer haha
also it's on wikipedia https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parity_of_a_permutation
In mathematics, when X is a finite set with at least two elements, the permutations of X (i.e. the bijective functions from X to X) fall into two classes of equal size: the even permutations and the odd permutations. If any total ordering of X is fixed, the parity (oddness or ...
that's usually a good place to look first
im just trying to deduce the parity of Ο^(-1)Ο^(-1)ΟΟ for n>=2 Sn
apparently its always even
where pi and omega are any permutation
yes
Ο^(-1)Ο^(-1)ΟΟ = (ΟΟ)^(-1)ΟΟ
yes
yes and you can prove it with the fact you just asked about haha
(ΟΟ)^(-1) = (ΟΟ)^(n-1), right?
the product of sigma and sigma^(-1) is the identity, which is even
if sigma and sigma^(-1) had opposite parities then their product would be odd
but the product isn't odd, it's even
this all follows from the fact you were asking about
wait my brain
is there not an X>0 such that sigma^X = sigma^-1
omg im so stupid
not every inverse of a permutation Ο is a power of Ο
right?
im probably making this way harder than it is
yes but why does that matter
the reason i was confused was because i thought the inverse of a permutation is always a power of that permutation, so an odd Ο would change parity every time it composes with itself
yes but just look at the proof I gave you
already
if pi and pi^(-1) had opposite parities then their product would be an odd permutation. but we know their product is the identity which is an even permutation. therefore pi and pi^(-1) have the same parity
from your proof i can conclude that (ΟΟ)^(-1)ΟΟ = identity
but not (ΟΟ)^(-1)ΟΟ
right?
but we separately know that sigma*pi and pi*sigma have the same parity.
you're right
for exactly the same reason. no matter what the parity of sigma and pi are, we know that odd * odd = even, odd * even = odd, even * odd = odd, and even * even = even
thank you!
π
How do you show that there is no simple group of order 56?
Or 148
I know I probably need to use Sylow theorem to find a normal subgroup
probably give a classification of all groups of that order using sylow theorems and semidirect products, and show that every possible group is non simple
I still haven't figured out how to do that quotient 
Have you had any further thoughts on how to do the quotient thingy from a couple day sago @elder valley
what part are you stuck with
Well I managed ot show that <s - t> is a subset of ker(phi)
But not the othetr way around remember
For uh phi(r(s, t)) = r(y, y)
where R is just a commutative ring but not euclidean or anything
@elder valley Oh I think I got it, classifying all groups of that order is a bit too hard for me, but I can show that it only has 1 sylow subgroup, which shows that that sylow subgroup is normal
So the factorization of 56 is 8*7, so we look at the number of 2 sylow and 7 sylow subgroups. We know that n_2 is odd and divides the order of the group so it is 1 or 7. We know that n_7 is 1 mod 7 and divides the order of the group and so is 1, 2, 4, or 8
Obviously it must be 1 or 8
Our goal is to show that n_2 or n_7 is 1
Yeah
This tells us that the 2 sylow or 7 sylow subgroups are normal
@shy bluff lets go to another channel so there's not overlap
Okay so if there are 8 7 sylow subgroups then there are 48 elements of order 7.
It's easy to see why this isn't compatible with there being 7 2 sylow subgroups
@smoky cypress
Yeah sorry I'm going pretty fast and not explaining what I'm writing
Which part are you not sure why is true?
It's easy to see why this isn't compatible with there being 7 2 sylow subgroups
This
Okay so each 2 sylow subgroup has 7 elements of order a power of 2
Oh got it
So there can be at most 1
For some reason I thought the sylow 2 subgroups have order 2
When they have order 8
Yeah
Another nice trick is there is a map from G to S_{n_p}
That's a common one you use for these kinds of problems
But just straightforward counting arguments work very often
(that trick doesn't work here unfortunately lol)
Are you referring to the proof that if p is the smallest prime dividing |G| then any subgroup of index p is normal?
I'm just saying that G acts on the p sylow subgroups
Yes
So maybe it will work on 148
148 is 37*4
So we look at the 2 sylow and 37 sylow subgroups
n_37 is 1, 2, or 4 so it must be 1
So this problem is just trivial actually
hey guys, how do i prove that if $x | f(x)$ then $\sigma (x) | \sigma (f(x)$
boat:
where sigma is an isomorphism Gal(E/F)
what do you mean?
If x divides it you can write f(x) as
xg(x)
Push that through the isomorphism
Then you get sigma(f) = sigma(x)sigma(g)
Unless I am misunderstanding lol
hmm that makes sense
right
Also I didnβt mean to be a dick when I said definitional
I just mean if you unwind the definition of βdividesβ itβs basically just that
So I meant to say it as like
Youβre probably just overthinking it
yeah dont worry i think think you were being mean haha π
i was over thinking it haha
thank you very much
NP
Do I have to prove all of these to show R is a ring?
Yes
(though there are some theorems that can speed this process up; for example, if you can prove that multiplication is commutative, then it suffices to show only one of D1 or D2)
But that would only work if R is a commutative ring so I guess that only applies in specific cases
yeah, only in specific cases
Also if you want to show H is a subgroup of G you can just show that H is non-vacuous and a*b^(-1) is always in H for any a,b in H. So if you want to show something is a subring, instead of showing A1,A2,A3,A4, you can just show that the subset is non vacuous and a-b is in the subset for any a,b in the subset
A group can have more subgroups than it has elements
That's pretty interesting
For $n>2$, each element of the additive group of $(\bZ/2\bZ)^n$ has order $2$, so each element with the identity is a subgroup. This gives $2^n-1$ subgroups, and of course there are more proper subgroups which gives more than $2^n$ proper subgroups
Whoever:
if $\sigma$ doesnt fix any elements in E. let $\alpha \in E$, and that i have a set ${\sigma(\alpha) : \sigma \in Gal(E/F) } = {a_1 , a_2, ... a_n}$ Show that for any $\sigma \in Gal(E/F), \sigma $ applies to this set gives the same set.
boat:
The set is just the the set of conjugates of $a_1$
radiateur-man:
show your attempt when you ask questions @pure crest
oops sorry
( i am not sure if this statement above i made is correct)
boat:
im not sure ihow i can write this is a more rigorous way
is it rigorous enough
im just really bad at writing things into proof
Is there a good resource anyone knows of which would help me tighten up my field theory? Iβve covered the subject twice but feel shaky on it, specifically stuff about finite fields always makes me super nervous
@pure crest i think your notation is your down fall. rather than label the elements as a_i, label them as sigma_i(alpha)
But I want to show it's the same set
call that set A. if you show sigma(A) is contained in A, then youll have sigma(A)=A since sigma is injective and A is finite
Ok silly/basic question, I understand everything up to "G/K is isomorphic to a subgroup of S_p." but why p? Card(G/K) = pk so Cayleys theorem provides its iso to a subgroup of S_pk, why would it be S_p? The thing in parenthesis about pi_H provides that G/H is would be iso to a subgroup of S_p if it H were normal in G. Its just that one part, I think I understand the rest of it, please clarify this - thanks ahead of time
G acts on the left cosets of H by left multiplication @kindred mist
There are p left cosets
So therefore the action gives us a map from G to S_p
Ah ok now I see how the first iso theorem implies it
ty
I knew that was a silly question
For two groups $H,N$, can we find another group $G$ such that $N$ is a normal subgroup of $G$ and $G/N\cong H$?
Whoever:
Just a wild guess but is this semidirect product?
Ok
If we take "is a normal subgroup of" to mean "is isomorphic to a normal subgroup of" (which was probably already implied) then I can't see why G = H x N wouldn't work (x being direct product of groups). Semidirect products maybe work too?
I was thinking that too but
Actually yeah
I was being dumb about how N appears there
but like yea i think i see what you mean, you technically would be doing G/{e}xN instead of G/N but that's surely fine right
I mean we can just identify N with 1 x N, so N will be a subgroup of G x N
have you heard of short exact sequences before
Yeah
oh ok
Wait what about it
well it's sort of what you're talking about that's all, figured that's where your question came from thinking about
Yeah you're asking about the groups G that fit into a short exact sequence 0-> N -> G -> H -> 0
NxH is an obvious one, semidirect products also, but these cases happen when there are sections
There are lots of groups that fit into such short exact sequences which aren't semidirect products
Exactness doesn't imply normality of N right? You have to assume that in the sequence
No it does
Oh I was thinking of something else
All short exact sequences are isomorphic to a sequence like 0 -> ker \phi -> G -> H -> 0
I was kind of thinking of classification of finite simple groups, so if we have all the simple groups, can we get all the other finite groups by building them using simple groups
That's what I was thinking about
How would we build them?
out of legos preferably
Oh duh N is the kernel
That was my question
I don't build groups, I carve them out of a permutation group
like a statue out of block of granite π
Welp
That was just my random thoughts
Because I don't want to do the exercises for this section
They all look too scary
I agree, I'd rather do analysis
Same 
algebra talk is a bunch of gobeldy gook to me
bruh moment
This is how Jacobson defines semidirect product. My question is that, is there a simpler definition, or a more intuitive definition. Then also what the semidirect product trying to do?
It's just a more general way of making a new group from two existing ones
I learned it from dummit and foote and thought it was very clear. It's nearly the same definition but they present it a lot more explicitly than the pic you showed
@smoky cypress there is also the internal one
If you think about the internal one it's pretty clear
Also do a bunch of examples
Something that's also nice is to think about why the semidirect product is never abelian for a nontrivial action
I think if you see internal ones
it makes more sense
I remember there's some like semidirect produt in a matrix group
of the symmetric matrices (acts like S_n)
and the scalar matrices (acted like (F_p)^n)
and it's like the multiplication worked normally
but the action of the symmetric matrices sort of twisted it a bit
Idk, this is just the one example that made my eyes go π
@smoky cypress here's a nice exercise
Prove all the facts about how the internal and external semidirect products are related
Wait is the semidirect product above the internal one?
Oh ok
The internal one is like "suppose H and K are subgroups of G with 1) H normal 2)H \cap K = 0 3) HK = G
Then the internal semidirect product of H and K is G
So the nice fact you can prove is that every element of G can be written uniquely as hk for some h in H, k in K
And then you're like "what is $(h_1 k_1 )(h_2 k_2)$ written in this form"
Liquid:
So H is normal so $h_1 k_1 h_2 k_2 = h_1 (k_1 h_2 k_1^{-1}) k_1 k_2$
Liquid:
And $k_1 h_2 k_1^{-1}$ is in H
Liquid:


