#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Ā· Page 501 of 407
not really
Well (a) is ra, ar for all r in R, (b) is rb, br for all b in R
Then that means that ra = sb for some r and s?
yes but that's not strong enough
you can say what r is
(a) is contained in (b)
which means a is an element of (b)
which means...
a is a multiple or a divisor of b is the only thing that I can think of
I can't keep them straight
taht's fine, take a second to figure out which one it is
Divisors and multiples have lost meaning to me 
I think that it means that a is a divisor o f b
Because if a is an element of b then that means that a = rb for... oh no it's a multiple of b
why don't you try writing it out symbolically
ok great
yes
so if (a) is contained in (b) then a is a multiple of b
what does this tell you about the norm of a and b
norm(a) > norm(b)?
(this is part a of the problem)
I mean I was asking you to state part a :P
but it's fine, all we actually need is N(a) > N(b)
Yay
okay so now if we have a whole chain of (a1) subset (a2) subset (a3) subset ...
then what do we say
Uhhh a_i is a divisor of a_j if i > j... maybe directions are mixed up, one sec
Ok so if j > i then a_j divides a_i, and N(a_j) | N(a_i)?
Each one is divided by the next
or alternatively that we can write N(a_1) as being a product consisting of all the other N(a_i)s?
no
oh
Each one is bigger...?
Err sorry
Each successive N(a_i) is smaller?
Like N(a_1) > N(a_2) > ... so on ?
$\geq$ not $>$
Buncho Bananas:
oh sorry
okay great now there's another thing you know about these norms
they're not just random integers
they're all positive
Well it's decreasing and positive so it's got to stop at some point?
$2 \geq 2 \geq 2 \geq 2 \geq 2 \geq \cdots$ never reaches 1
Buncho Bananas:
yes it has to stop at some point
Oh so this is what stabilize means 
yes
so now we just need to explain why once the sequence of norms stabilizwes
the sequence of ideals must also stabilize
basically: if a divides b and if N(a) = N(b) then in fact (a) = (b)
because a and b differ by a unit
say I never did understand the "Differ by a unit" thing
for this you need to knwo that something has norm 1 if and only if it's a unit
a = ub
for some unit b
differ in the multiplicative sense
you already did that
Well it's decreasing and positive so it's got to stop at some point?
@shy bluff
Oh
Wait so you'd actually write this like "If we write a chain of ideals we see that each one divides the previous one, and so by a) the norms of each ideal divides the norm of the previous ideal, and we have that these norms are strictly positive and decreasing in the chain, so we must stabilize after some finite number of norms/ideals/steps"?
the norms of the generators
not the norms of the ideals
you know that the nroms of the generators stabilizes
but now you need to prove that the sequence of ideals stabilizes
Oh sorry
But lik ethe general idea is there right 
Wait wdym
If the norms of the generators stabilize does the sequence of ideals not stabilize
what?
... nevermind
no you're trying to prove the opposite lol
Ok keep going
if the norms of the generators stabilize
then the sequence of ideals stabilizes
that's the goal of the problem
prove that the sequence of ideals stabilizes
Yes
Wait like yea the fact that N(a_{i + 1}) | N(a_i) for each one shows that eventually the norms of the generators stabilize right?
Then I need to show that if the norms stabilize the ideals stabilize
yes
How do you do that?
why don't you think about it for a bit
I feel like we've made some good progress together
Is this what Zorn's lemma is for?
no
Ah
(I am not randomly guessing, I am acutally going thorugh my notes/lecture slides/etc and trying to see how to do this)
you can just do it directly
and you need this fact I mentioned that something has norm 1 if and only if it's a unit
I dont' see what that has to do with anything/can't it continue forever as like 2 like you said and not ever reach 1?
the a_i aren't going to be the things with norm 1
i'd rather not give you too much more -- I feel like I've helped you out on this problem a lot and I'd rather you spend some more time thinking on yuour own
before I give you any more hints or feedback
that's fair
other people can jump in if they want but i'm gonna take a break from this for now
good luck!
thank you
Ok so let's say that the norm stabilizes at some a_i = a_{i + 1}. Then we have to have a_{i + 1} | a_{i}, which means that there exists some b such that a_i = b * a_{i + 1}, but because their norms are the same, we have to have that N(b) = 1? So then they're associates, and because they're associates the ideals that they generate are the same?
You should try to show that N(b) is 1 if and only if it's a unit
(idk if you have that fact yet)
But yeah if $a_i = b*a_{i+1}$ where b is a unit then $a_{i+1} = b^{-1}a_i$ so they are the same ideal
Try proving that fact then
oke
Liquid:
Try characterizing the units in Z[alpha]
wdym by characterizing
Like let's say $a+b\alpha$ is an element of $\mathbb Z[\alpha]$. Then when would there exist $c+d\alpha$ with $(a+b\alpha)(c+d\alpha) =1$
Liquid:
Lol I switched to Q in my head because I've been doing a lot of galois theory lately
Anyway this is just an algebra problem
Ie like high school algebra
You just multiply it out and match the coefficients with 1
Okay so this is actually a hard approach, let's try an easier approach
Yea all I got is like ad = -bc and that ac + bd\alpha^2 = 1 lol
Let's apply the norm to $(a+b\alpha)(c+d\alpha)$
Liquid:
Since it is 1 we must get $N((a+b\alpha)(c+d\alpha))=1
Yea
So what does that tell us about a+b\alpha
Oh sorry if I'm repeating a part you already did lol
Oh no like I mean that you just get N(a + b\alpha) N(c + d\alpha)
Then we get that they have to be multiplicative inverses of each other?
what do you mean?
Sorry I am proving the direction "is a unit implies norm 1"
so we're proving that a unit has norm 1
Ok, so if u is a unit, then there exists v such that uv = 1, then we'd have that N(uv) = N(u)N(v) = N(1) = 1
Right?
And as N(u) and N(v) are naturla numbers including 0, that's only true if they're both equal to 1
Yea
So then N(uv) = N(u)N(v) = N(1) = 1 must have that N(u) = N(v) = 1, as N(x) for all x is defined as being >= 0 right?
Yeah N(x) is always >= 0 for Z(sqrt(-d))
Yea
Okay so let's do the other direction now
"If N(x) = 1, then x must be a unit" yea?
Yeah
So a nice way for this to work would be to be able to use the norm to find an inverse
Let's think about what the norm is
We'd have 1 = a^2 - b^2 \alpha^2
Oh lol I realized why this is true
?
That's an a not a 1
Pardon?
so 1 = (a + b\alpha)(1 - b\alpha)
@shy bluff
Replace the (1-b\alpha) with (a-b\alpha)
That's good
I'm not too sure about the next step but I'm going to say that I can go and assume that inverse of N exists
What do you mean?
Yes
So N(a+b\alpha) = 1 means that the multiplicative inverse of a+b\alpha exists
Not that the inverse of N exists
Okay so now we have our sequence of principle ideal (a_i)
Wait do you mean that the fact that N((a + b\alpha)(a - b\alpha)) = N(1) = 1 means that (a - b\alpha) is a multiplicatiev inverse of (a + b\alpha)?
Yes
Ok good I'm following!
Okay so now we have our sequence of principle ideal (a_i)
And we showed that the corresponding sequence of norms N(a_i) is eventually constant
yes
What does that tell us about the relationship between $a_i$ and $a_{i+1}$
(you did this before with buncho)
Liquid:
Okay
Let's spell out the argument though
So we have some b so that $a_i = b a_{i+1}$
Liquid:
yes
(here i is large enough so the norms have already stabilized)
So what does that tell us re the norms
Liria ^(;,;)^:
Which means that $N(a_i) = N(a_{i + 1})N(b)$, which would require $N(b) = 1$?
Liria ^(;,;)^:
Yeah because of the stabilization of the sequence of norms
Write that out too
$N(a_{i+1})=N(a_i)$
Liquid:
oh that's true
Okay so write it out
One sec I'm typing this out
š
If we have a chain of principal ideals, we see that the generator of each successive principal ideal will divide the generator of the principal ideal that comes before it in the chain.
That is, if we were to have $(a_1) \subseteq (a_2) \cdots$, we would have that $a_2 | a_1, a_{i + 1} | a_i$. By part a, we have that if $x | y$ then we have that $N(x) | N(y)$.
Then have that $a_{i + 1} | a_{i}$, we have that $N(a_{i + 1}) | N(a_i)$, which would mean that $N(a_i) \geq N(a_{i + 1})$. Then we see that the norms of the generators of the chain of principal ideals is a decreasing positive sequence of natural numbers. Then it must eventually stabilize at some $a_k$.
When it does stabilize we would have that $N(a_k) = N(a_{k + 1}) = N(a_{k + 1}) \cdot 1$,
Liria ^(;,;)^:
I'm not quite sure about the last bit
wait taht's not quite right
It should stabilize at N(a_k) not at a_k
Okay the last line is a bit off
$N(a_{k+1})=N(a_k)$ is good, and you want to use that plus $N(a_k) = N(a_{k+1})N(b)$
Liquid:
To show that $N(b)$ is 1
Liquid:
And therefore $b$ is a unit
Liquid:
wait why can't we go from $N(a_k) = N(a_{k + 1}) * 1$ to see that $1 = N(b)$ for some unit b?
Liria ^(;,;)^:
Or is that what you mean, just written differently
Well that is true but we can't say $N(a_k) = N(a_{k+1})N(b)$ implies $a_k=a_{k+1}b$
Liquid:
Liquid:
And we want to show that $b$ must be a unit
Liquid:
Since that tells us that $(a_k) = (a_{k+1})$
Liquid:
No
Why would that assume that
All I am assuming to get such a b is that the chain is ascending
So $(a_k) \subseteq (a_{k+1})$
Liquid:
Well N(a_k) = N(a_{k + 1}) is fine because that's the direction that we're moving in but going from that back to a_k = a_{k + 1} is what we're trying to show isn't it?
We are trying to show $(a_k) = (a_{k+1})$
Liquid:
š
liquid it bothers me that you keep sayin "principle" and not "principal"
Lol
I forget which spelling is which
I guess it's principal
It's weird because when I was a kid a teacher told me that I should remember it because "a principle is ____ your pal"
And I can't remember if the principle is or isn't my pal
I guess he isn't
No this time I am referring to a school principle
lmao
Is it better to prove that a conjugate exists or to prove the equivalent statement that the left and right cosets are equal gH=Hg
Also is <r²>={r²āæ, nāā¤}?
kxrider:
can I ask
what should I know before learning abstract algebra?
Iāve learned enough to figure out that anything else is worthless without this
too many problems
There aren't any essential prereqs except "mathematical maturity"
a decent familiarity with proofs and sets
that's about it
you can't really expect "mathematical maturity" from someone who's yet to learn abstract algebra 
oy shush
no offense
youāre not entirely wrong
I suppose it's relative so I should have said "enough mathematical maturity to understand abstract algebra" which is a useless answer
that's what mathematical maturity means: experience in the various fundamental areas of math
Iāve been trying to learn other branches of math, even ones that donāt need this first (like real analysis) and I keep coming back to the same issues, ones I think this can help with
i thnk learning learning algebra first is helpful
Are there any good resources to learn abstract algebra?
do you know linear algebra?
(on the level of an intro proofs based linear algebra course)
I took a semester of linear algebra last year
i really liked Aluffi's algebra book
so.... yes?
Notchmath, you've been working through Tao's Analysis I right and have gotten through a significant portion of it?
its really long but hes so friendly
Then you're good
Yeah Iāve been trying to
the issue is I keep trying to connect his concepts to other concepts I know
Abstract algebra and real analysis are independent imo. Neither is a prereq for the other.
to develop a better understanding conceptually
and keep needing algebra to express my connections and confusions
so I think itās worth taking a break from that and coming to try and get some of this first
What in real analysis do you feel like you need algebra for?
well
I find a concept
I apply it to natural numbers
I get myself confused
I try to ask a question in #elementary-number-theory to clear up my understanding
and I have no way to express my question
or even in Linear Algebra Iād do that
Give a specific example of why you think you need algebra to learn real analysis. I think you probably don't, which is why I'm asking
I learned about vector spaces, so tried to imagine an infinite-dimensional space describing natural numbers by their prime factorizations, got confused in a way that was confusing my original understanding of vector spaces, and couldnāt formally phrase my question so I could clear up my confusion
and that was in Linear to be clear, not Analysis
but that sort of thing is common
The natural numbers do not form a vector space
you do not need algebra to learn analysis
well right cause addition didnāt work
well it did
not addition in the numbers, addition in the vectors
on the other hand, your experience with tao's analysis should be enough for you to get yourself into an abstract algebra text
You really don't need algebra to learn real analysis. You are specifically trying to form connections only to the natural numbers, when it might not work, so you're getting confused. A good textbook should contextualize the definitions in analysis already.
oh not natural numbers sorry positive numbers
I mistyped
so 25/12 would be represented as (-2,-1,2,0,0,0...) but also as (logbase2(25/12),0,0,0,0...) and I got myself confused in a way I donāt exactly remember now
or I was working with basic modularity and wound up in #topology asking about lines on the surface of a torus
that sort of transfer is why I want to do algebra
You can do what you want, but ending up in topology before studying real analysis won't do you any good. It's good to find interesting questions, but if you don't have the knowledge to understand the answers, you can't go further. Learn algebra too if you want, but don't stop learning analysis because you think you need algebra. You don't.
thatās my point
I can ask questions but not understand answers
this is how I understand my answers
ugh I wish textbooks werenāt so expensive, if I canāt find an unusually cheap copy I donāt know if I can do anything before I take the actual course
There are free textbooks online, and alternative means of getting any textbook. But yes, textbooks are ridiculously expensive
l i b g e n s c i h u b
Ok after sleeping on it I now understand what the ascending chain condition is saying
Hrm
To prove that something is not a UFD I just need to find an element that canb e factored in 2 different ways right
yeah that would do it @shy bluff
You could also find something that doesnāt factor into irreducibles at all
hrm
I'm still trying to wrap my head around the differenceb etween inrreducible and prime lol
Prime says if you divide a product you must divide one
Irreducible says you canāt factor it any further unless one of the things is a unit
In Z both of these properties characterize prime numbers
But irreducible captures the definition of a prime in Z as āa number which is only divided by 1 and itselfā
Where as prime captures the thing that āif p divides aā¢b it divides a or it divides bā
Wdym by "You must divide one"
Where as prime captures the thing that āif p divides aā¢b it divides a or it divides bā
it means this
hrmmm so if p is prime then p|ab means that p|a or p|b but p being irreducibel means that a | p only if a = p or a = 1?
associate of p or a unit i think
Yeah I corrected it
oh ok
Really it says
If p = ab then one of them is a unit
In Z the only units are +- 1
For irreducible, p = ab means that one of those two is a unit
And for prime it means that?
hrmmm
p | ab then p | a or p | b
Ok I see that these are two different things
I just ened to wrap my head around it some more lol
Ok
oh wait I think I see
I think I wasl ooking at it the wrong way
The example of 6 = 2 * 3 = (1 + sqrt(-5))(1 - sqrt(-5)) in Z[sqrt(-5)] helped I think
Because then I can see that what you're saying is that 2 is irreducible because it can only be expressed as being 2 = ua where one of the two is a unit, but that 2 does not divide (1 + sqrt(-5)) or (1 - sqrt(-5)) individually
but it divides their product?
Umm yeah I guess thatās a way to see it yeah
So this shows 2 isnāt prime in there
Even tho itās irreducible
And this happens only because
It isnāt a UFD
Or well, that isnāt strictly true
But itās necessary
Because in a UFD the two are the exact same thing
Irreducibility is like saying you canāt break it down anymore
Prime is about it dividing other stuff
You have to show it
The easiest way is that you have a norm
And itās multiplicative (just grab the norm from C)
You can show that since 2 has norm 2 that it couldnāt be broken down further
This is the same thing you need to do to show 1 +- sqrt(-5) is irreducible but there the norm isnāt quite enough
You need to use the fact that it has nonzero imaginary part as well
The idea is that if 2 = ab
Then a and b are of the form c + dsqrt(-5)
If d ā 0 then that element has norm at least sqrt(5) which already makes it too big to possibly multiply into 2
So now you know a and b are just integers
And 2 is irreducible there (in Z)
The same sorta thing works for 3 but you need to do a bit more since sqrt(5) < 3
In here is a proof of Z[i] being a Euclidean domain and Z[sqrt(-5)] not being a UFD
Itās in week 6
Oh hey I get the first 2 questions on that week0 stuff 
Ohh ey it's the chinese remainder theorm thing from last week
So you only need to show that 2 is irreducible
That one of (1 +- sqrt(-5)) is irreducible
Then show those two arenāt associate
Because thatās enough to imply it isnāt a UFD since then 2 and the (1 +- sqrt(-5)) are different irreducible factors, even up to units
Is there a nice universal property for composite field extensions?
Itās the smallest field containing both
My only guess would be that like two morphisms from the two like, building blocks to the same target which āagreeā in some way factors through it??
Like a nice one that comes to mind that that for field extensions G, G' over F, the composite GG' is the initial object in the category of field which are field extensions of G and G' where the extending maps extends extension from F to G and G'
This is basically just saying itās a push out lol
Sure
Oh sure I see what youāre saying too
But I donāt think what I said is true
Or it might be? I donāt think that makes it a push out though
Idk tbh, am walking rn
Haha
So will think more later
I have weak field theory tbh
Both times I learnt it I felt like I was really shaky
To me the compositum of two fields K and L can really only be reasonably defined if both are taken to be subfields of some larger field F (otherwise, how would you define the compositum of R and Q[X]/(X^3-2) for instance). And since any subfield of F that contains both K and L contains KL, it seems to me like KL is the categorical coproduct of K and L in the category of subfields of F, with inclusions as morphisms.
@woven delta
How is it avoided?
UFDs are euclidean domains right
Euclidean domains are UFDs.
Oh other way around?
Not all UFDs are Euclidean domains
Np
Set of Euclidean domains is included in the set of Principal Ideal Domains which is included in the set of UFDs. And both of those inclusions are strict
Lol "set"
So every element of a UFD can be written as a product of irreducibles, and that product is unique?
up to units
Err yea
That is usually the definition of a UFD, so yes
For the last part, the book says that if $\sum i_k j_k = 1$, then the $i_k$ generate I
The formerly edible banana:
How do I prove this?
You just show it manually
I forget quite how I did it but I think I just showed that every element can be written as a sum of products of the i_k and other stuff
Lol you just threw the definition at me
But it helped
I was looking for some slick trick, but it turned out pretty simple
see the chain of ring inclusions on this page @shy bluff https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unique_factorization_domain
In mathematics, a unique factorization domain (UFD) (also sometimes called a factorial ring following the terminology of Bourbaki) is a ring in which a statement analogous to the fundamental theorem of arithmetic holds. Specifically, a UFD is an integral domain (a nontrivial c...
Hrm
ok
So now I'm trying to prove this,
I know how this works for prime numbers in the integers
But how does this work for a finite field?
Err
Err I see that if K is infinite it's the same thing as Euclid's proof
But what about when it's finite?
Good question
I'm not sure
From my understanding, Euclid's proof (for integers) is that if you have n prime numbers, you can set q = p_1...p_n + 1, and that q is either prime or not prime
If q is prime then we have a prime not in the list
If q is not prime then q must be divisible by a prime, but this prime must also divide 1
I'm not sure how you'd extend this to work on an arbitrary field or polynomial ring ovre a field
I'm making the assumption that I can treat an infinite field the same way as I can nte integers
oh wait
ok I think that was my problem
I forgot that K[x] is a ufd
And to double check, irreducibles in a UFD are also prime yes
yes
So S is the set of all possible porducts of elements of S_o with units?
yes
Also, another question, as u is a unit, and S is multiplicatively closed, the inverse of u is also in S?
S contains all units because you can choose k=0 and u as any unit
yeah it says u is in R^x
Ah I thought that was a specifci u
it would be chosen outside of the set notation if that were that case
prior to defining S
yes
lol in this wiki page one of the references is just a proof https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Irreducible_element
In abstract algebra, a non-zero non-unit element in an integral domain is said to be irreducible if it is not a product of two non-units.
If I have a localization? Rinvg of fractions? Whatever they callit, S^-1R, with f/g being a unit in it, then it requires that g/f in S^-1R right
Wait nevermind
that equal ssign is in .. D right? like they're equal in the sense that they're equal according to the ring that they come from?
it's in whatever set the products "re" and "sd" land in
hrm
Can things divide only if they're in the same set?
Yep, looks like it...
ok, so if I have f/g of S^{-1}R, with f/g being a unit, then I can say that there exist a/b in S^{-1}R such that (f/g) * (a/b) = 1/1, and that we have to have that f, a in R, g, b in S right?
Does the affine group over integers Aff(Z) have any nice properties ? Like it is also called "infinite dihedral like group" . I came across this while preparing for finals . Like it has properties like quotient of Aff(Z) is Aff(Z) itself or Dn for some n and stuff . I am wondering does it have any other nice properties like this ...
Iām curious what the affine group even is?
Like they are 2x2 matrices generated by
$\begin{pmatrix}
1 & 1 \
0 & 1
\end{pmatrix}$ , $\begin{pmatrix}
-1 & 0 \
0 & 1
\end{pmatrix}$
WhyamIsohot?:
Isn't that SL(2, Z)?
hello i have a (probably basic) group theory question
let $G$ be a group and $M = {g_1,...,g_n}$ be a minimal generating set for $G$. is it true that $M$ can be constructed by choosing $g_{i+1}$ if $g_{i+1} \notin \langle g_1,...,g_i \rangle$ for $1 < i < n$ ?
xdres:
if so, why? if not, why not?
Iām really confused
For one I donāt know what āconstructed meansā
But furthermore if {g1,..,gn} is a generating set for G
Wait umm
Ohhh
I think I see
How can g_i+1 not be an element of <g1,g2,...>
Oh yeah oops
Yeah I had the same thing
I feel like this might actually not be true
But I canāt justify it
For abelian case I can
Because then itās a Z-module and torsion means you wonāt have a basis
Im not experienced enough ill leave this to you
And I think what heās describing is basically incrementally building a basis
Like I feel like a minimal generating set might still have relations
Because it isnāt free
Yeah xdres my gut says no
But honestly this seems really hard and Iām not feeling up to the task ;w;
no worries :)
Yeah I don't think this is true
I don't think you can even get a finite generating set this way, much less a minimal generating set
Probably you can show this using the free group on 2 generators
Like this really follows from the fact you can embed the free group on 3 generators into the free group on 2 generators
You can keep partitioning up the free group on 2 generators G so that at stage n you can always find an element $g_n$ so that $g_n \notin <g_1, ..., g_{n-1}>$ and another free group on 2 generators inside G so that that subgroup intersects $<g_1, ..., g_n>$ trivially
Liquid:
So this kind of idea doesn't really work
a counter example is Z/4Z, where you have generating set {1}, but {2,1} is also a generating set
Yeah obviously the minimality is bad
But also I think this sort of idea will produce a generating set in the finitely generated abelian case
or in any group choose g_1 as the identity
In the non abelian case it won't even do that
No I think you misinterpret it
I thought you have a given minimal generating set
And you try to build up the group adding one element of that minimal generating set at a time
So in the case of Z/4Z the minimal generating set is {1}
So g_1 has to be 1
I thought this was basically saying that if {g1,...,gn} is a minimal generating set, is g_i not in {g_1,...,g_{i - 1}}
This isnāt necessarily true for modules, since if you arenāt free your minimal generating set has relations among the generators
Oh okay the statement said "can M be constructed" so I assumed that we were trying to construct a minimal generating set
yeah that's what i thought too. like similar to the algorithm of constructing a basis for vector spaces
otherwise "constructed" seems like a strange word to use
Yeah, I mean
I sort of thought the same thing, but strictly speaking g_i is already in scope
Tbh I'm not sure what they originally intended
Somewhat related is that there are theorems about small random subsets of a finite group giving generating sets. E.g. see theorem 1 here : https://www.math.ucla.edu/~pak/papers/randk14.pdf
and discussion afterwards
ok so for part c here, I'm trying to show it in the direction of "if x is associate with y... x is irreducible". What I"ve got so far is that if x is associates with y then there exists a unit u such that $x = uy = u\frac{f}{1} = \frac{u}{1}f = af$, where $a$ is also a unit
Liria ^(;,;)^:
Bu tI don't know how to go from that to irreducible
Or how to use the fact that f is irreducible?
My thought is that like we assume that x is not irreducible, then x = cd for some c, d non unit
The nyou have that cd = af, where f a is a unit and f is irreducible
But not really sure where to go from there
Anybody? 
i think i see a messy proof
my proof being messy? seems likely 
first off x and y are associates in S^-1 R, so your u is a fraction
oh
no i mean the proof i just thought of is messy
elements in that ring have the form a/b, where a is in R and b is in S. and the units are the ones where a is also in S
Yea
sure
you want to show that x is irreducible, so suppose it factors into the product of 2 fractions
Err wait you'd have (u/v)(f/1) right?
yeah and then multiply them together
yeah, then clear denominators to get an equation in R
or use the equivalence relation, whichever way you think about it
sure, then you get that acv = ufbd
right. so b,d,u,v are all in S, and a,c are just in R
no, just in S
oh they're units in S but not units in general?
Err yea ok
so now use that R is a UFD. b,d,u,v all factor into products of elements from S_0
oh I see
and also use that f is not in S_0, or associate to anything in there
what you're aiming for is that a/b or c/d is a unit in S^-1R, which means either a or c is in S
Ah so the no nthe left side you get that v is in S, and that on the righ tside, ubd is in S as well
And then you can divide out all the common factors between them?
ERr cancel out?
you could...i'm not sure it helps
hrm
like they could have no common factors to begin with
that's true
maybe use an analogy with Z. if f=2 and S is all odd primes, and b,d,u,v are all odd numbers...what do you conclude about a,c
Wait question, by part b there don't we have that f/g is a unit in S^-1R if and only if f in S?
oh right ok
actually i didn't even read (a) or (b) xD
lol
hrmmm well if f = 2 then we have that bduf is also even
Then the product of acv has to be even?
what's the conclusion then
either a or c has to be even
odd primes
sorry S_0 is odd primes
S is odds, you're right
So bduf is an even number, which means that acv must be even
As v is in S
Then either a or c is even
yes
but that says nothing about the other?
you have prime factorization in Z, so ubd is a product of a bunch of odd primes
Yes
so 2ubd=2 * 3^(n_1) 5^(n_2)...
Yes
and LHS has to have that same factorization
Ah
Oh and because f is not an associate to any elemnt of S_0 we can't just have v = f with a, c units?
yeah v is in S and f is not
f is not associate to any element of S_0
that's equivalent to f not in S i think
yea
ok so then we get something like
Let v = p_i... p_k
Then we get that bduf = (p_1... p_j)f = ac(p_i... p_k)
And then we can divide out all the common irreducible (if any), leaving us with some number of irreducible that are not common betwee ntehm
And as f is not an element of S
We have to have that ac = whatever primes left over right?
i don't think they all have to cancel
not all
from the RHS
here's a better reasoning for the Z case
we want that a or c is in S={odd numbers}. so suppose they're both even
you have 4 dividing acv=2ubd, but u,b,d are all odds
Oh I see
How do I prove this: Let $G_1,G_2$ be simple groups, then the only normal subgroups of $G_1\times G_2$ are $G_1\times G_2$, $1$, or a group isomorphic to $G_1$ or $G_2$
Oh I think I got it
Oh wait yeah
Whoever:
that's more believable
What do you mean "a group isomorphic to G_1 or G_2"?
The normal subgroup of G_1 x G_2
Then I have no idea how to prove this
But lemme give it a try
@elder valley cant' I just write that if we have $acv = f(ubd)$, where $ubd, v in S$, if we assume that neither a nor c in S, we would have that $v = ubd$, and thus $f = ac$, but $f$ is irreducible, so this is a contradiction, and so either a or c in S?
Liria ^(;,;)^:
how do you get v=ubd
Assume neither a nor c in S
Then neither a, c, f in S
Then we have that v and ubd in S
So we need v = ubd?
Like the two sides have to have the same prime factorization
Or does that not make sense
i don't see it
you can use that there's only 1 f in the factorization of the RHS, so there can be only 1 in the LHS
all the other irreducible factors are from S_0
Yea the two sides have to have the same factorization because they're in a ufd
yes but only 1 f. f can't go into both a and b
Wdym
when you prime factorize a and b, f can only be present in 1 of those factorizations
because there's only 1 on the right side
Wait it's acv = fbdu
What do you mean by "f can only be present in one of those factorizations"
like you write both sides of the equation into a product of irreducibles, and the product has to be the same by uniqueness. but there's only 1 f on the right
just like with the Z case there was only one 2
Then I have no idea how to prove this
@smoky cypress maybe for every subgroup of G1 x G2 you can consider the projections onto G1/G2?
Thanks
Like because ti's uniquely factorized, we have that $fbdu = f(gf_1 \cdots f_k) = acv$ for some unit $g$, $f_1, \cdots f_k \in S_0$
Liria ^(;,;)^:
And then if we assume that both a, c not in S, then a, c can't be written as being the product of elements of S_0
So then we'd have f = ac, v = gf_1... f_k
you don't get that f=ac. like a could be f*f_1, which is not in S
you can try using that f irreducible -> f is prime
maybe that's easier
wait why?
because you're in a UFD
Like if I have that both f, a, c not in S
v could be 1
Yea but then if v is 1 then i require that ac = gf_1... f_k
err
acv = f(gf_1... f_k), but if v = 1 then we just have ac = f(gf_1... f_k)
yes. but that doesn't mean ac=f
It doesnt', it just means that one of ac is in S
i'm getting lost in all this
you have that f divides acv
and f is prime
really you just want that f doesn't divide both a and c
hrmmm
f divides acv and f is prime
As f not in S_0 we have that f does not divide v?
hrm
That says nothing about c or a though? all that it means is that there's something that we can multiply f by to get a?
Oh then we get tcv = gf_1... f_k
the prime factorization of t,c,v must then be some sub-product of the RHS
so you have c in S
all of them will be
oh right
ok I see
Because it equals to that mess
and there's no longer any factors that aren't in S
yeah exactly
Ok It hink that I was trying to say something similar but just worded really badly
that's what i meant by f is only in one of a or c, because there's only 1 f to cancel on the right
Okay uh, I need help getting all the elements for Dā
I have Dā={e,r,r²,r³,rā“,rāµ,s,rs,r²s,r³s,rā“s,rāµs}
Is that right?
(r is for rotations and s is for reflections)
And then for the subgroup, I have <r³>={e,r³}
I'm asking mostly because the first time I looked for the elements of Dā, I had trouble finding the 12th element but I think that's fixed now
Yeah, in general for D_{2n} you have n rotations, given by r^k for k = 0,...,n-1
(r^0 = e here)
And n reflections, given by r^k s
just to clarify for this one, for part c, one direction is "If x is irreducible, show that y = f/1 is irreducible" right
Oh right
I forgot what your notation was
Yeah D_n
I tend to prefer saying D_n has 2n elements but for some reason I thought you were using D&F's notation
Also I thought rāæ=e
Where D_{2n} has n elements
r^n = r^0 = e
Either way, you can index 1 to n or 0 to n-1 here
Alright
So assuming I have the elements for Dā and <r³> right, I'm kind of confused on how to find the cosets
For the Cayley table I mean
Say, for the left cosets, do I multiply <r³> from the left by an element of Dā not in <r³> to find cosets?
You want to find representatives for each coset
So for example
r is equivalent to r^4 and that's it, right?
So you have a coset {r,r^4}
You also have {r^2,r^5}
These two cosets multiply to what? To the identity coset {e,r^3}
Since |Dā|=12 and |<r³>|=2, we have 6 distinct cosets right?
And I can find them using that method?
Yeah, multiplying from the left by an element of D6 not in <r^3> also works.
So you want to multiply by every element of D6 that is not already in one of the cosets you have
Yeah, that's how I remember doing cosets, although the way Sloth did it was the equivalent of multiplying r*<r³> and r² * <r³>
So, say multiply by r then you get r<r> = {r, r^4}. Now since you've gotten r^4 here too, you don't have to multiply by it too. So multiply by r^2 then you get {r^2, r^5} and you don't have to multiply by r^5 either since you'll get the same coset
Yes, just wanted to make sure you know what you said is fine
Thanks, Luna
Also sorry if I hijacked the chat, I thought you had deoccupied it, Liria.
Question: Can we divide units? Like say that u is a unit, do we have that v | u?
Oh dwbi
Idm, I use this chat way too much lol
lol
@shy bluff Yes, no reason you can't
Units divide everything in the ring
Units divide every other element, so a unit is at least divisble by every other unit
You can't assume it is, but if you can find an element q such that u = vq then it doesn't matter whether they are units or not
Np
For my problem, once I have the 6 cosets, how would I go about building the Cayley table?
Referring to this problem:
Try listing the 6 cosets on the top row of the table and the left column of the row
What are the 6 cosets you got btw?
@charred pewter
Alright, have you seen a Cayley Table before?
Yes
So, the top row of the table and the left column of the row consists of the element of the set we're talking about, in this case it's the 6 cosets you take the pic of
Now, try writting them by order to the table,
||By order, I mean,
<r^3> | r<r^3> | r^2<r^3> | s<r^3> | rs<r^3> | r^2s<r^3>
<r^3>
r<r^3>
r^2<r^3>
s<r^3>
rs<r^3>
r^2s<r^3>||
In the order I found them in the pic?
Yeah
Actually, it's not really needs to be by order, but the way you write it must be the same
Say you write it like a,b,c,d,e,f on the horizontal side
then you need to write it a,b,c,d,e,f on the vertical side too
Okay,
After writing the appropriate elements on the Cayley Table, you fill the table by multiplying the correspondences elements
By multiplying, I mean with the operation of the group has too
After done doing that, you'll have the Cayley Table for D_6/<r^3>
Does my explanation clear enough? Sorry it's not clear enough :/
By multiplying two cosets with their corresponding elements, can you show for example how to multiply <r^3> and r<r^3>
I'm kinda confused by what you mean
I mean, multiplying them like this
So for example when I multiply r<r^3> by r^2<r^3> I can just write it in the cayley table as a multiplication of the two cosets?
Yeah
wdym lol
Like r<r^3>*r^2<r^3> is how I'd write it in the cayley table
That's the part that's confusing to me
They are cosets right? Which is on the group of D_6/<r^3> too, therefore it's a quotient group.. So when we have a<r^3>b<r^3>, then it's operation will be coset multiplication (which is the operation of quotient group), which is equal to ab<r^3>
Also we know it's a quotient group because <r^3> is a subgroup of D_6
and D_6 is cyclic, therefore it's abelian too
and because <r^3> is subgroup of D_6, and D_6 is cyclic, then <r^3> is a normal subgroup of D_6, which leads us into getting D_6/<r^3> is a quotient group
Then, to answer your question of how to simplify "$r\langle r^3 \rangler^2 \langle r^3 \rangle$", since the operation is coset multiplications, we can get that $r \langle r^3 \rangler^2 \langle r^3\rangle =r^3 \langle r^3 \rangle=\langle r^3 \rangle$
Wilston Lynx:
@charred pewter
Wait, I might be wrong a bit, is D_6 a cyclic group or abelian?
Hmm, no, D_6 is not abelian
Wait
Ugh, I'm sorry man but I'm not quite sure myself what's the operation of D_6/<r^3> is :/
Well aren't all cyclic groups abelian?
Yeah, but D_6 isn't cyclic right?
I made a mistake by stating that it's cyclic earlier
if you think of D_6 as the rotations and flipping of a hexagon
you can think of D_6/<r^3> as the rotation and flipping of a hexagon where the vertices are labelled 1,2,3,1,2,3 instead of 1,2,3,4,5,6
if you join up the numbers 1,2,3 you get 2 triangles rather than 1 hexagon
in fact D_6/<r^3> = D_3
D_3 is still non abelian
So the quotient group operation Wilston said I could do doesn't apply, right?
How else could I find what r<r^3>*r^2<r^3> is equal to?
you can think of D_6/<r^3> as the rotation and flipping of a hexagon where the vertices are labelled 1,2,3,1,2,3 instead of 1,2,3,4,5,6
@knotty mason I personally doesn't understand how this come up? Can you elaborate more?
D_3 is still non abelian
@charred pewter The thing Skymoo mentioned earlier was meant to point us that D_6/<r^3>=D_3, so I think by making the cayley table for D_6/<r^3> is basically the same as making the cayley table for D_3
Wait so I wasted time with those cosets?
So the elements we need to operate are the ones from the D_3
Wait so I wasted time with those cosets?
I think--
I personally still not sure how one could come up with D_6/<r^3>=D_3 tho?
Same here
and by equal here does that mean they're isomorphic or basically the same group?
Might need anyone to elaborate about this more lol
Sorry if I turned out not help you much Aur :/
No it's okay, you did help
Do you know how to find the product of two cosets if the group isn't abelian
That's where we were stuck
to mulitply cosets, use a<r^3>* b<r^3> = ab<r^3>
Even if it doesn't form a quotient group?
to mulitply cosets, use a<r^3>* b<r^3> = ab<r^3>
@wind parrot this only applies when the quotient part is a normal subgroup right?
Because iirc that operation is only well-defined when the quotient part is a normal subgroup
it is normal
Yeah, I just checked, it's normal
Yes, I checked that it's closed under conjugation
I don't know how he knew but he was right
Ahh my bad then
The good news is that we can straight up just do a<r^3>*b<r^3>=ab<r^3> now
in the cayley table
Anyway, thank you both for the help š
@thin flume sure I can
@charred pewter you didn't waste time doing cosets, that's an important thing to learn and practice
D_6 is rotation and flip symmetries of the hexagon, the next one is identifying opposite sides which is the same as quotienting by <r^3>. the next is the same thing but making it clearer (hopefully) why it is isomorphic to D_3
I think we can argue in general that if tau is the flip, D_n / tau = C_n. and D_n / r^d = D_{n/d}
is every leading ideal radical? i mean, we have an I ideal in the polynomial ring K[x_1, ..., x_n], and the leading ideal is defined to be the L(I) generated by the leading monomials of polynomials in I. My question is, that is this L(I) a radical ideal?
@knotty mason D_n/tau=C_n is not true ....
Any non-trivial quotient of a dihedral group is always dihedral or Z/2Z or Z/2ZxZ/2Z iirc ...
Even if it's being true, we can't just assume they're the same right? I mean, afaik Isomorphic means that they have the same structure, and by that, the elements that has same order are correspondences to each other, not being necessarily the same right?
quotienting by group elements ?
@timid hull ah thank you
is every leading ideal radical? i mean, we have an I ideal in the polynomial ring K[x_1, ..., x_n], and the leading ideal is defined to be the L(I) generated by the leading monomials of polynomials in I. My question is, that is this L(I) a radical ideal?
Hrm... For a quotient ring over polynomials, does irreducible => we cant' find roots in the original ring?
Ah nevermind
Reading through Dummit and Foote, I wish that my prof had followed the ordering more..
How do I show that if $G$ is a finite group, $A,B\subseteq G$, and $|A|+|B|>|G|$, then $G=AB$
Whoever:
Form A^(-1) = {a^(-1) | a in A}. What can you say about A^(-1) \cap B? can you adapt this argument to work "for any group element"?
(that last sentence won't make sense until you figure out what the first sentence is telling you)
Ah I see
So let $g\in G$ then $\brc{a\inv g:a\in A}$ and $A$ have same cardinality, so it must overlap with $B$, or there exists elements $a,b$ such that $a\inv g=b$
Whoever:
š
any time you have some kind of assumption like |A| + |B| > |C| then some kind of overlapping argument might be helpful
I see
,iam adv
Your roles have been updated!
Wait how the bell
Did this person give themselves adv
In an advanced channel
š³
No
What happened was he gave himself adv in another channel
Removed it in this channel
Then got it again in another channel
That represents a rotation by Ļ/4 radians on the unit circle
How many such rotations until you get back to identity?
You tell me! What number, when multiplied with a complex number, doesn't change that complex number?
1
But you're correct, 8 rotations in total is a full rotation
And yes, the number that you'd rotate back to is 1
The subgroup is of order 8!
Oh that's neat
I have literally never encountered this kind of problem before
I found it weird that my prof put it on homework
It said it was wrong š
Now I'll never know because it's one attempt only lmao
Dafuq
I put 40320 but that's the same thing as 8!
Oh
it should have accepted it
Oh no
?
oh god
LMAO
Rofl OOPS
LOL
Welp next time you'll know what the answer should be haha