#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 491 of 407
Into one with objects you know better
And you can do this by having isos such that everything commutes like in this case
But I gave advice that when messing tensor products you should try and show isomorphisms via universal properties
is that what you meant by natural isomorphisms?
Sort of
A natural isomorphism is an isomorphism of functors
The natural iso gives you that sort of diagram for free
But you can get it by just showing it manually sometes
oh okay
I’d suggest proving things are iso using universal properties usually
But then EXPLICITLY FIGURE OUT THE MAP
Because like in this example, you neeeeeeed the definition of the map in order to show the diagrams commute
If you build up this stuff in your head about how things are isomorphic it’s really good because then you can reduce complicated problems like “injectivity of f (x) 1” into easier ones like “injectivity of f”
Eventually you’ll get muuuuch better at looking at some diagram of tensor products or whatever and just knowing it commutes
Alright thanks
Maybe what I said is confusing, but I’d just keep it in mind
I think I get the gist of what you're saying
Yeah my take away is simply
someone said something similar a while ago
That try to argue with arrows and diagrams instead of sets
Remember how things are isomorphic whenever possible
^^^^
This is basically me relating my experience
In AG I got a lot of maps like “the unique map making blah diagram commute”
The good thing with algebra is most of the isomorphisms are very straigtforward
Then I got a unique map in terms of that
And one in terms of that
So now the only way I can show this map is equal to something else
Is to show t makes some whack ass diagram commute
That has like 50 arrows everywhere
oof
But THE MAP HAD AN EASY DESCRIPTION
In terms of elements
I just got so wrapped up in “haha I get map for free” I never bothered to figure out what it actually was lmao
Don’t fall into that trap is all I wanna say haha
did you use atiyah macdonald too?
Usually the maps are quite simple, it’s the intuitive thing, the difficulty is showing that the intuitive thing actually gets you what you want
Sort of
I’ve done some@work out of it
And jumped around
But rn I’m going through Matsumura
I'm trying to get into algebraic number theory once I'm done with A-M
Gotcha, I’d talk to Zoph-Chan once you wanna do that
I don’t do NT at all
I just do AG
though universal algebra also seems very interesting
I did talk to him a while ago actually
Also Zoph started typing as soon as you said ANT lol
Yeah, anyway I’m off to bed, hope that cleared things up for ya.
Yup. Thanks
If you have other questions just post em in this chat and I’m sure me or others will swing by
And hopefully someone will answer
gn
Can someone show me how this diagram being commutative and f being injective implies that f (x) id is also injective?
Here A is the ring we're tensoring with
if f is injective and the diagram commutes, the other path is injective
so each part of it is injective
All I can see is that the restriction of f (x) id on the generators n' (x) a is injective
I can see the other path being injective from N' to N, but I don't see how commutativity implies f (x) id is also injective
This diagram is commutative and the bottom map is injective, but clearly the map at the top is not
oh my mistake, sorry!
np
I understand based on my discussion with magician why it must be injective, but I don't see how to prove it using the diagram
Let (G, ∗) be a group. Prove that the map π : G −→ G defined by π(g) = g ∗ g is a
homomoprhism if and only if G is abelian.
Can someone help me with the first part
π(ab)=ab*ab right
@vestal snow the vertical arrows are isomorphisms
But how do i continue to get π(a)*π(b)
@chilly ocean you're assuming π is a homomorphism, right?
I am assuming G is abelian first@latent anvil
Oh okay
Well, write down what π(a)π(b) is using the definition of π
And try to show that equals abab
First thing i did was
π(ab)=ab*ab
How to continue to get π(a)*π(b) is the problem
@latent anvil here
Yeah, that's why I'm suggesting you look at what π(a) π(b) is
It might give you an idea for how to show it's equal to π(ab)
What does it mean for a group to be abelian?
π(a)=aa
π(b)=bb@latent anvil
right, so π(a)π(b) = aabb right?
So what you're trying to show is that aabb = abab
Does that make sense?
There is the star operator
So π(a)= a star a
π(b)= b star b
So π(a)π(b) per what you're saying will be (a * a)(b * b)@latent anvil
Oh okay
Yeah makes sense
@latent anvil thanks. That makes sense
In general if you have a square like that with vertical maps bijections, then the top will be injective iff the bottom is
You can replace bijection with isomorphism and injective with monomorphism too
this is why the thing magician was saying works
Maybe this is a signal I should head to bed
Tensoring with it preserves exactness
@latent anvil take a look at the picture please
But the book I'm using gave alternate definitions as well
Looks good to me squash
And I was using one of those
@latent anvil thanks
Okay, so given a functor F which sends 0 to 0, we say F is exact if when you apply F to an exact sequence you get an exact sequence
Usually F will map modules to modules (more generally it can go between "abelian categories")
given a module M, tensoring with M gives a functor A-mod -> A-mod, and M is flat iff this functor is exact
What magician was saying works because if two functors are isomorphic, and one is exact, the other is as well
I think I get the general idea of what you're saying and I'll look at it more closely tomorrow morning
sure
I'm a fan
Let $\phi$ be a continuous automorphism of $\mathbb{H} = \bR ^4$ which I've shown fixes the real axis so $\phi(r) = r$ for any real number. $\phi$ is linear so $\phi(a+b) = \phi(a) + \phi(b)$ and analogus identities for subtraction, multiplication and division have been proven
\
How would I show that $\phi$ preserves the dot product for purely imaginary quarternions
\
That is $\phi(q\cdot p ) = \phi(q) \cdot \phi(p)$
Cosmicrayz:
@errant drum have you shown that phi permutes {i,j,k}?
it's not hard
you can show phi(i)^2 = -1 so phi(i) is in {i,j,k}
similarly for the others
it follows trivially from this
Are i,j,k the only square roots of -1
yes
Surely any rotation through any angle would satisfy this property
well -i,-j,-k
also work
but that's it
Surely any rotation through any angle would satisfy this property
why
no it wouldn't
rotation through 20 degrees definitely doesn't satisfy it
But rotation through 20 degrees is an isometry that is linear + satisfies the other rules?
Let me message you in a bit I'll read through my notes I might have confused myself
nvm
i might be wrong
yeah x^2 = -1 uniquely charaterises unit quaternions
so you get that phi maps unit quaternions to unit quaternions
doesn't the fact that phi(qp)=phi(q)phi(p) follow from the assumption that phi is an automorphism?
what definition of automorphism are you using here?
@errant drum
Yeah it does
I was saying division and subtraction also work
And yeah there are infinitely many square roots of -1
For instance (i+j+k)/sqrt (3) is another one
Also from the way the questions were structured if first asked me to prove phi preserves conjugation and phi is an isometry
If that helps
yeah, I realized that all unit quaternions are square roots of -1
and vice versa
so is the problem solved?
I'm still not sure how to prove it since obviously I could cite the fact isometries preserve inner products but I feel like that's not in the spirit of the question
Everything else was proven from quarternion arithmetic or using the fact phi was an automorphism
what definition of automorphism are you using here?
right, so why doesn't it follow from this?
i don't understand what else you want to prove
we've shown that phi preserves purely imaginary unit quaternions and we have that phi(ab)=phi(a)(b)
what else do you want?
Can you explain how phi(a dot b ) = phi(a) dot phi(b)
I'm completely lost here
Like what is the exact argument you're using
phi sends purely imaginary quaternions to purely imaginary quaternions, do we agree on that?
x^2 < 0
Yes
this is by comparing both sides of phi(x) = Re(phi(x)) +Im(phi(x)) = phi( Im(x) + Re(x)) = phi(Im(x)) + phi(Re(x)) = Re(x) + phi(Im(x))
Re(x) + phi(Im(x)) = Re(phi(x)) +Im(phi(x))
ok so everything makes sense... until the last line. how did they jump from b(a(x)) which i undertand, to "now start with 1 and trace out the cycle (12534).
the previous approach they described was the "pure cycle approach" and the answer was (12534)
is the "function list" approach dependent from the answer from "pure cycle approach"? what's going on here
so ok
look, b(x) is permutation which sends 1 to 2, 2 to 3, 3 to 4 and so on
a(x) is permutation sending 2 to 4 4 to 5 and 5 to 2
in b(a(x)) they produced a composition
so look b(a(x)) sends 1 to 2, 2 to 5, 3 to 4, 4 to 1 and 5 to 3
ok so you basically skip when there are the same two numbers in a row: so 12534
but then why not continute to 153 after 4?
bc then the numbers repeat and you just stop at the first 4?
ok fair enough, thank you @scenic sage
sorry
interned dead
@chilly ocean
1 to 2, 2 to 5, 3 to 4, 4 to 1 and 5 to 3
cyclically decomposed
Is (12 because 1 is sent to 2
(125 because 2 is sent to 5
(1253 because 5 is sent to 3
(12534) because 3 is sent to 4 and 4 is sent to 1
ok, got it thank you 🙂
Let $M,N$ be square matrices of order $r<4$. If both M and N have same characteristic polynomial and minimal polynomial then prove that M is similar to N.
Manas:
Hint: Two matrices are similar if they have the same Jordan Canonical Form.
where would algebraic structures go?
I think my professor made a mistake on this problem?
`Find the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of a linear transformation f of a vector space A = R^3 having in the standard basis in the following matrix:
|1 2 3|
|2 1 0|
|1 0 1|
Vectors:
|-2| |0| |2|
|2| |0| |2|
|1| |1| |1|
Values:
-1,1,3
Since they have provided both the vectors and values, that is what I'm supposed to solve for,defeating the purpose of the problem?
They provided all 3 of those?
Also this is linear algebra so it’s a better fit there
they provided everything above... I'll move it
I hope there won't be a next time lol
I think the point is to associate the eigenvectors to their specific eigenvalue
So you can compute that by just multiplying them into the matrix lol
right, so weird. Thank you
Can someone verify if my proof outline here is correct?
Prove that if p is a prime ideal of A, then p[x] is a prime ideal of A[x]
There's a few things I haven't justified:
- The A-module homomorphism is also an A-algebra homomorphism
2 Maybe the last past where I prove that A[x] (x) p is prime might be incorrect
I forgot to mention, we already know from a previous exercise that p[x] is isomorphic as an A-module to A[x] (x) p
I... think this right? The issue with going to elements is it becomes kinda grody
I feel the easier way to do this is to just note that (A/p)[x] is isomorphic to A[x]/p[x]
This is covered in like, D&F
And you can probably even get that statement in terms of tensor products
Just using commutativity and associativity of tensor products
dang
I guess the problem with trying to show that in terms of tensor products is you have to show everything actually works as algebras
Which isn’t really hard per se, but just extra work
yeah you're right
I think it suffices to just show it’s multiplicative on the product of any two simple tensors
And then you know how the map is defined + algebra structure is defined on both tensor products so it’s immediate
Got it
I was thinking about what you said yesterday and instead of working out the details as I go along, I'm leaving them for once I'm done with all the exercises of this chapter
That’s a bold move, but maybe a good one.
A lot of the details repeat. For example, tensor of direct sum is the direct sum of the tensors
I could see it going well, or going horribly tbh
even when the direct sum is not finite
Oh yeah for sure
A lot of stuff with tensor products for me
was like doing exercises and in the exercises you come across some sort of thing where you want something to be iso
Like the tensor of direct sum thing
And so you prove it once, and show that it makes a diagram commute the way you want it to
And then you sort of have added a tool to your toolbox
These sorts of tensor product rules are super useful
And just building up as many as possible is what you wanna do
Knowing how to write localization in terms of a tensor product
How to adjoin a variable via a tensor product
Etc
I guess the difference between your approach and mine is that I'm crossing my fingers that by the time I'm done, the tools I've used are actually true
That’s why I said it could go badly, or well
Honestly most of the time if it seems true, it is
In my experience
The beauty of algebra
I think it has something to do with tensor product being universal
Plus, I can always ask someone on here to verify it for me
The fact that it’s impossible to work with with elements most of the time means the only way you can work with it is via these sorts of “obvious” stuff
Where obvious is the math version where obvious doesn’t mean you saw it immediately
But that after you see it you go “okay yeah, that’s the only way this could’ve gone”
"it looks too good not to be true, therefore it is"
Practically haha
unfortunately, I learned the hard way this doesn't apply to nigerian prince scammers
Well, thanks for the help. I'll get back to math
👍
um could someone guide me on what to do for all three parts?
like for a, list permutations that correspond to rotations thru angles 120 or 240 degrees
um, how do you know what's 120 or 240 degrees?
if $0\to M\to N\to L\to 0$ is exact (modules) and $M$ and $L$ are free is $N$ also free?
Mathemagician:
I did this proof and part (a) was to show something, and part (b) something else
I had the above situation
and it would've finished part (a)
instead I did some whacky other thing and proved a lemma to get (a)
and my lemma is part (b)
lmao
Oh the lemma is, assume that M is finite, N is finite presentation, then L is finite presentation
nope
given the same exact sequence
pick a presentation for N
yeh
Add in the generators of M
yeah
tfw you see it immediately...
I wrote out a diagram
and its cooler because the presentation
I mean yeah I would prove it with a diagram
becomes diagonal maps 😎
You are
research is too hard
:^)
this is true lol
fucked up algebra, but algebra nonetheless
Oh you meant my research
Maybe
It doesn't feel like algebra
It feels like category theory
lies
I emailed the person who wrote the book
That was confusing
it feels bad to do this
like with a question on a proof?
Oh yeah, dude I've been there
The difference is
you can't just text Mannigfaltigkeitsbegeisteter and ask him why it's true
since you're Mannigfaltigkeitsbegeisteter
Let M,N be finitely generated modules over a principal ideal domain A. Which of the following conditions imply that M and N are isomorphic?
(i) $M^n$ is isomorphic to $ N^n$ for some positive integer n.
(ii) $M \oplus P$ is isomorphic to $N \oplus P$ for some finitely generated A-module P.
Manas:
both imply it
Do you have any ideas for how you night prove i? @opal vale
It's worth noting that both can fail for A not a PID or M, N not finitely generated
I think i have to use fundamental theorem
yeah, that's probably a good idea
Semetey?
?
nvm
Semetey
Commutative algebra is kinda cool. If you have a faithful module (Ann(M) = 0) over a commutative ring A which is Noetherian, then A is Noetherian since you can embed it into M^n
More generally if M is noetherian then A/Ann(M) is Noetherian
that makes sense
This is a little dumb
but I can't seem to be able to proof why the order of g^x is p-1/gcd(p-1,x)
I know its true
but I don't know how to reason through it
wdym
what does it mean by invertible? multiplicative or additive
what you know is that 7 = 0
if its additive then
so you also have stuff like 4 = -3
1+1+1+1+1+1+1 = 0
so keep removing 1's
and u will get ur 5 invertible elements
right?
i think so yeah
yea
but for multiplicative
i tried to htink
every element is just a sum of 1s
but then 7 is prime so
u cant like have two things multiplied together (of 1s)
it's not true that every element of a ring will be 1+1+..
and go to 7 ones aka zero
for examples the Z[i] ring
uh oh
yea i have no idea for multiplicatrive
but for additive i think its what i said
whats 3 and 5
just 1+1+1 and 1+1+1+1+1
how do u know those are in the ring
oh
yea i was thinking about this
but i missed it
i was thinking (1+1+..)(1+1...) some times
yea yea cool
R contains an isomorphic copy of $(\mathbb{Z}/7\mathbb{Z})^\times$, and all of its elements have a multiplicative inverse
some username:
Suppose $N_0$ is a submodule of $N$ and $\sum m \otimes n'$ is $0$ in $M \otimes N_0$, then $\sum m \otimes n'$ is $0$ in $M\otimes N$
Is there a way to prove this without using the construction of the tensor product
Using just the universal property
Where does N_0 come into this?
Whoops my bad
Just edit the original message
Suppose $N_0$ is a submodule of $N$ and $\sum m \otimes n'$ is $0$ in $M \otimes N_0$, then $\sum m \otimes n'$ is $0$ in $M\otimes N$
Is there a way to prove this without using the construction of the tensor product
Using just the universal property
Have a Banana Bitch:
Given that the $n'$ are contained in $N_0$
Have a Banana Bitch:
I guess my intuition would be to draw the diagram for the tensor product of $M\otimes N_0$ with a balanced product $M\times N_0 \to M \otimes N$
Liquid:
This induces a map $M\otimes N_0 \to M \otimes N$
Liquid:
Maybe we can do it using the fact that every bilinear map from M x N can be restricted to a map from M x N_0?
And then we can think of the natural inclusion of M x N_0 into M (x) N as a bilinear map that must factor through M (x) N_0
Oh my bad I didn't see your messages earlier
Lol
Was that what you were saying?
Isn't that the universal property of the tensor product?
that any bilinear map factors?
if we restrict any bilinear map from M x N to M x N_0, we'll get what we need, won't we?
Okay actually the map from $M\otimes N_0 \to M \otimes N$ does it without any special consideration
Liquid:
Because the bilinear map $M\times N_0\to M \otimes N$ sends $(m, n)$ to $m \otimes n$
Liquid:
Is this what you're saying
We are just defining the map as the restriction of the map M\times N \to M\otimes N
the different i represent the canonical mapping into the tensor products
Yeah
alright
From the fact that the diagram commutes you get that the simple tensors in the above one get mapped to the simple tensors in the below one
So that gives you that the sum of simple tensors in the M \otimes N_0 get mapped to the corresponding sum in M \oplus N
So if the sum is 0 in M \oplus N_0
Then it is 0 in M \oplus N
The last part is just using the properties of homomorphisms right?
Yeah
I'm not convinced the map is an injection though
(cause you drew the injection arrow)
Yeah I was thinking about that. Good thing we don't need injectivity
Yeah!
Do you have an example?
I can't think of an example, but here's how I can justify it. If you remember during the construction of the tensor product, we mod the free module of M x N by a submodule D which is generated by a certain kind of elements
let D_0 denote the submodule corresponding with tensoring with N_0 and D denote the submodule tensoring with N.
Okay I see the problem that may come up
yeah
In general, D_0 does not equal D
so you get things not getting killed mod D_0 that get killed mod D
seems like after a week of banging my head against the wall, tensors, exactness, and flatness are starting to click
Thanks for your help though
have a banana, you're basically proving that M (×) — is functorial
And then applying that to the inclusion
That’s have a banana bitch to you
Spectral sequences r easy right, it’s just like reading pages of a book
I can read books
🤔
they're a not too complicated idea utterly ruined by the fact that you have to write them down 😛
not on functions!
You know, I have worked through a bit of A-M, and a bit of Matsumura, and I must say I prefer Matsumura much more
I think Matsumura assumes more, or at least some stuff A-M develops in the start of the general theory of modules is relegated to the appendices of Matsumura, but I like the amount of stuff Matsumura covers. I find it much more interesting
I'm basically gonna throw every cool result from Matsumura in here primarily so Shamrock can see it lmao
If $I_1,\dots,I_n$ are such that $A/I_i$ is Noetherian and $I_1\cap\dots\cap I_n = (0)$ then $A$ is Noetherian
Mathemagician:
It's sort of like saying Noetherian is a local property, but in a different way then the "every localization at a prime is..."
I think it might be a bit tough to explain what division algebras are. You need to talk about rings and fields, and then talk about algebras over fields
and then division algebras are special examples of algebras over fields
Yeah
It's the set minus operation, it means Q without the 0 element
It seems like they do it because you can't divide by 0
@hot bridge yes the nonzero elements in the isomorphic copy of $\mathbb{Z}/7\mathbb{Z}$ (there are 6 of them) are invertible
some username:
Could someone check to see if this proof makes sense to them? $\$
Let $A$ be a local ring such that the maximal ideal $\mathfrak{m}$ is principal and $\cap_{n > 0}\mathfrak{m}^n = (0)$. Then $A$ is Noetherian and every non-zero ideal of $A$ is a power of $\mathfrak{m}.\$
Let $\mathfrak{m} = (s)$, then $\mathfrak{m}^n = (s^n)$ so it suffices to show every non-zero ideal of $A$ is a power of $\mathfrak{m}$ to show $A$ is Noetherian. Given any non-zero $a \in A$, there is a maximal $n$ such that $a \in \mathfrak{m}^n$, if not then $a \in \cap_{n > 0}\mathfrak{m}$ and would be $0$. This implies that we can write $a = us^n$ where $u$ is a unit i.e. not in $\mathfrak{m}$ else $a \in \mathfrak{m}^{n + 1}$. Let $I$ be a non-zero ideal, and take any non-zero $a \in I$, recall we can write $a = us^n$, now let $n$ be a minimal such $n$ so that there is a non-zero $a \in I$ with $a = us^n$. Every element of $I$ can be written as a multiple of $s^n$, so that $I \subseteq \mathfrak{m}^n$, but we see that $u^{-1}a = s^n \in I$ so that $\mathfrak{m}^n \subseteq I$ so that $I = \mathfrak{m}^n$, and thus we are done.
Mathemagician:
they're a not too complicated idea utterly ruined by the fact that you have to write them down 😛
@olive mirage
that's such a mood with my research stuff right now
You should Google the operad axioms if you have a moment (especially if you state them in a general category...)
Turns out the thing that's been blocking me for a week is that the book I'm reading had a typo in its indices
Fun times
Also magician the Matsumura posting is appreciated lmao
@next obsidian proof looks good to me
Swag
Shamrock, another cool thing. If A is a noetherian ring then any surjective ring endomorphism is an isomorphism
Also here's something, A is noetherian iff all finite A-modules are of finite presentation
Why do we need noetherian?
Oh a ring endo might not be an A module endo
that's pretty sick
Both of those
Can you give a proof sketch or are they messy?
So like one direction of the noetherian iff result is obvious
The other is spookier
because you need finite generation to apply it in the first place
No it's easy easy
Oh okay
So for the first one, simply look at successive ker phi^n
if it doesn't start 0 it keeps growing
Ahh yeah I've done this in linear algebra
(To make it easiest I actually did phi^{2^n})
For the latter, for one direction you use this lemma
if 0 -> K -> M -> N -> 0 is exact, K is finite, M is finite presentation then N is
Right, we talked about this earlier
If something is finite it is surjected onto by A^n
Which is Noetherian
so K is finite
And A^n is finite presentation
Assume Noetherian
yeah I got that
I saw the finite => finite presentation immediately
Assume A not Noetherian
right
I not f.g.
Take M = A/I
Lemma
0 -> K -> M -> N -> 0 is exact
N being finite presentation and M finite
implies K is finite
Yes
Oh I missed the I in the first line
And that A is not Noetherian
I just read "take not finitely generated"
Take the sequence 0 -> I -> A -> A/I -> 0
Right
Oh I didn't realize that held
Finite presentation => any presentation is finite?
Err, not exactly
because you can add extra generators
Actually that is true
If M is finitie presentation
for any surjection A^n -> M
the kernel is finite
not free
but finite
Ah
I was saying F -> F' -> M -> 0 might have F not finite rank even if F' is
because you can add extra generators
But if it's exact at the left
Then the left thing is f.g.
Ahhh yeah yeah
so the extra generators have to be kind of redundant
That would be ridiculous yeah
Yeah so like
Look at this
I was literally just reading this before hand
But look at Brian Conrad's answer
It is mega not simple
But he describes some like general process I'm gonna take a more careful look at later
It seems like something that will eventually be a useful technique
who is we
and which result?
@sarah_zrf @mathemensch @BiCapitalize off topic but here's a fun (read: not fun) problem: If G is finitely presented, that means it has a presentation with finitely many generators and finitely many relations.
Prove that ANY presentation of G with finitely many generators al...
Ah unfortunately one person has gone private
so it's a little hard to follow
Yeah I understand why I didn't get the connection
Because this was for groups
Compact didn't mean compactness theorem though!!
Yeah, I kind of
read a bit
and was like "okay wtf"
and just left out of the thread
I do not understand everything I read on Twitter
I'm emailing the author of a textbook two days in a row
Because I think his correction has flaws
tfw
Gonna be embarrassing when he does a very simple computation and resolves it all for me
I mean
If this stuff is so new and niche
I think he might be happy to have someone care about it
And maybe even more to care enough to be that careful about it
¯_(ツ)_/¯
Did you see I shared my like favorite problem
And it turned out to be a legitimate error
and it was S^G
No I didn't
And zoph freaked out haha
Where was this?
i forget maybe chill?
Had he seen it before?
Lolllll
and brought it to his math club I think
Then I said James Baxter posted it originally after you posted it to reddit
Lmao 10/10
and then it devolved into James Baxter said he likes casual sexism for like 3 min
or something to that effect idk
I thought he was banned like last week
They said they think so too
And maybe he came back in on a different account or something? idk
But like
Liquid made a hella funny joke that he got banned for asking very specific analysis questions
loooool
and I was like "I could see that given what I've seen on FB"
I'm gonna keep Matsumura posting
so I guess you're gonna see highlights of Comm Alg
h*ck yeah
Fractional ideals make my brain bleed
oh wait one thing first
I don't like them, they're weird
people were talking about my research topic in AGS!!!
I saw that
also, don't those show up in ANT?
I didn't know that's what you did but i saw your reply
I think Thomas told me that's what the class group was or smth
that's the most basic way to describe them
But there's better ways to think about them
Maybe haha
For help understanding them
Idk if they'll continue showing up
Like, for what I'm doing rn
If I do ANT and they crop up there
I'm sure I'll just get used to them there
And I don't think AG uses them really? At least for what I'm currently doing so I'm not sweating over it
But like apparently invertible fractional ideals are projective
and like
🆗
I should start doing AG again
I just haven't wanted to figure out that one problem
We discussed like a week ago lmfao
That's awesome!
I like it a lot more than A-M
It makes me actually excited to be learning comm alg
It's pretty fun
I just like seeing all the like upgraded versions of stuff
that like normally would be like "one can prove more generally... but this is beyond the scope of this text"
Lmaoooo
And all this like "if this, then A is Noetherian"
I now know many more ways to show something is Noetherian
Which is like, cool
Yeah I am probably putting algebra in general on the backburner next year
Damn
Which is sad
So like, just 508 and 509 right?
oh unless
you graduate early
in which case ???
Well yeah my current plan is no 508 which is such a meme
Because I wanted to take that so badly
RIP
Is 548 the riemannian thing
oh
I think I will take 509, but I could take complex instead...
Which one?
umm
like it's the complex that's a part of the series right?
Since they flipped when they happen
So like
But Lee won't be teaching it
you do cover more than 336 did
But the first half or so of it is stuff you saw before
but from a different development path
The thing is, it'll be two years since I took 336
True
I've already forgotten most of it
Tbh
anyways this schedule looks pretty reasonable on paper and I kind of want to shoot for it
I wouldn't be TAing
or doing research or anything
Don't take CS next year
Take all of algebra next year
Maybe do research instead idk
ANT, AT, senior thesis
Like, what, do combo?
Maybe AG take 2
Hmmm
and also CS
Yeah gabe I'm taking bundles next winter
Not AG bundles
diff geo bundles
Oh yeah lol
Manas:
If M and N is finitely generated module over the local ring (A,m), can we say $$ (M\otimes N)\otimes A/m = (M\otimes A/m)\otimes (N\otimes A/m)$$
so aren't you basically asking if $A/m \otimes A/m = A/m$ ?
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻:
Are you tensoring over A or A/m on the right hand side?
Ok got it. Thanks
Suppose M be a module over a Noetherian ring A and $ Ass M = Ass A$. Then have M to be a free module??
Manas:
Suppose M be a module over a Noetherian ring A and $ Ass M = Ass A$. Then have M to be a free module??
<@&286206848099549185>
what is Ass?
Set of all associated primes
doesn't every elliptic curve defined over a finite field have complex multiplication because of the frobenius endomorphism?
yes
and if i understand correctly by the classification of the endomorphism algebra, the endomorphism ring has at most 1 other independent endomorphism. is there some way to determine what that morphism is?
the dual of frobenius ?
yeah. the classification is either Q, an order in an imaginary quadratic extension of Q, or an order in a quaternion algebra over Q. the second case would be just frobenius, but i'm wondering what the other endomorphism is in the third case
can't the dual of frobenius be equal to frobenius?
under that classification iirc the dual of frob would be the complex conjugate of frob in whatever imaginary quadratic extension
I don't remember if I have seen cases with a quaternion algebra
it's a quaternion algebra if and only if the curve is supersingular
which can certainly happen
which was Serre's proof you couldn't get a cohomology theorem for curves over finite fields with coefficients in Z
so how do you find an endomorphism $\psi$ that's $\mathbb{Q}$-linearly independent over the $\mathbb{Q}$-algebra generated by frobenius and 1? for a supersingular curve over positive characteristic
Auvera:
you mean if I is a monomial ideal and is generated by pure powers then it is irreducible ?
yes
Silly question, can someone explain why in F[x], (x) intersect (x + 1) is nonzero (where F is a field)? Does this depend on the field or is it nonzero for any field?
it contains x(x+1)
Who wants to help with some (maybe hard) commutative algebra?
Here's the setup, we have integral domains A,B and A is a subring of B
We know that there are finitely many primes of B which lie over (0), and that B is a f.g. A-algebra
Show that Frac(B) is a finite extension of Frac(A)
I think I can show that Frac(B) is algebraic over Frac(A)
Lie over A means contains A?
Whoops
I meant lie over (0)
As in p \cap A = (0)
So showing Frac(B) is algebraic over Frac(A) is easy since any element is a/b with a,b in B, so they are integral over A => algebraic over Frac(A) => quotient is algebraic over Frac(A)
But now I need to somehow show that the extension is finite :/
Maybe I can do something like, show that any set of n linearly independent elements of Frac(B) descends to n unique primes of B which lie over (0)?
That would give it to me
I doubt that's true
I don't really see any other way to go about this haha'
And apparently this statement is true since someone told me this is how I solve a Hartshorne problem 🙃
Grub help me
Do you have examples of integral domains A contained in B such that B has more than just the zero ideal lying over (0) in A
(i) = Z[i]
wut no
Because i is a unit
hmmmmmmmmmmmmmssssssssssstttttttttttttttttt
Oh yeah
true true
what about (2i)
Isn't prime
wait no it is
Intersect Z is (2) which isnt (0)
yeah
Fudge
These things must exist, otherwise the whole concept of generically finite seems really stupid
At least between integral affine schemes
Okay this is really contrived but what about (0) inside of any ring?
Or like a field contained in a ring?
You can't intersect the field since then you'd contain a unit
Or you can consider like Z[x], there are prime ideals corresponding to irreducible polynomials and they intersect Z trivially
By dimension stuff
In fact that is an example with infinitely many primes lying over (0) I think
Just take (x - a) over all a in Z
I see
;w;
I think Frac(Z[x]) is Q(x)?
Either that or Z(x), but I'm pretty sure it's Q(x)
If it is Q(x) then this shows the hypothesis about the finitely many primes lying over (0) is needed
Since Q(x) is transcendental over Q even though Z[x] is a finitely generated algebra over Z
What about (Z/pZ) and (Z/pZ)[x]
I think it's the same thing
there are infinitely many primes in (Z/pZ)[x] right?
I think?
Actually yeah it does, F[x] always does
you can just emulate Euclid's proof of infinitely many primes in Z
if F is finite then F[x] has an irreducible polynomial of eveery degree
(this is equivalent to the existence of finite fields of all prime power orders)
(I'm not arguing with @next obsidian 's correct proof, btw. Just giving a stronger result)
x^n-1 is never irreducible
Wait, then how do you form the finite fields
Oh is it cyclotomic stuff?
I am really bad with finite fields
well, use an irreducible polynomial of degree n.

but a trick is if you want to make the field with p^n elements, then x^(p^n)-x splits in that field by Lagrange's theorem
and, not so hard to prove, it is the splitting field of that polynomial over F_p
yeah, it depends what you're already assuming you know
but that is one way to prove existence and uniqueness
that set has order p^n and is a field, inside kbar
but you can use that plus mobius inversion to get a formula for how many irreducibles there are of each degree
Hm nvm
When I was an undergrad I was reading Berlekamp and they give an incredibly tedious proof of the existence of irreducibles of each order, and I found the mobius inversion proof and wrote it up and sent it to one of my profs, and was very heartbroken when he replied with "Yes, this is correct, this is the standard proof!"
😦
I remember on the first day of calculus I went home and read the textbook and noticed how they used limits, so I just tried to emulate it and found the derivative of x^n and when I told my prof he told me that that's a derivative and I'm not allowed to use it on tests until we showed that rule
lol
tbf it's annoying, but it kinda makes sense
I always isolate one test where people can't use derivative rules, because it is annoying for students, and I want to minimize the torture.
for our discrete maths course, we weren't allowed to use the fundamental theorem of arithmetic for a lot of our proofs which while annoying, forces you do do things without assuming a more powerful theorem
(even if you already know the proof)
it is really hard to appreciate that the fundamental theorem of arithmetic is highly non-trivial and has a multipart proof.
we covered the proof in our class
but understanding the parts of the proof leads to a lot of neat stuff
yeah I was just talking about it pedagogically haha
tbf the more egregious tool that we weren't supposed to use to begin with was induction lol
urm
what axiomatization of the integers were you using
that doesnt have induction lmao
it was a bit of a strange course, and we did use it in later proofs
or was it just a matter of "dont do it for now, we'll cover the methods later"
ye
??? lol
but i personally think it's too fundamental to leave out for that long lol
i mean its literally an axiom of N
Unless you construct the integers explicitly and show induction is valid
(or a bunch of axioms)
the course is run by the CS department, it's a bit of a mess as it currently is
hard to get more fundamental than that
I don't see how that benefits anyone lmao
so it's less about starting from the minimum assumptions and working up, and more about teaching compscis to write proofs 🤷♀️
yeah but surely induction should be one of the first proof techniques covered
^^^
Hell compsci people do induction
on like binary trees or something I don't really remember
yeah tons of things
I just remember my comp sci friends telling me about it
Guys
yeh sry
Wrong channel
will move to #discussion
I think this implies the only ideal lying over (0) is the zero ideal in B
Say P is an ideal lying over (0)
And x is an element of P
x is algebraic so satisfies a minimal polynomial f(t) with coefficients in A.
If the constant term of f(t) is 0, then B contains zero divisors, as you can write f(t) = t•g(t), and 0 = x•g(x).
So the constant term is some nonzero element of A, call it a.
But then f(t) -a=t•g(t) for some g(t) nonzero, and x•g(x) is in the ideal generated by x, and is equal to -a which is nonzero.
So P actually lies over more than (0), contradiction.
@next obsidian
I dont know why finitely many primes living over (0) would be an assumption in the exercise if uniqueness of ideal lying over (0) can be proved from algebraic
Does that make sense?
Oh shit, I realize my proof is mega wrong for the fact that Frac(B) is algebraic over Frac(A) lmao
I erroneously used finite type extension => integral but that's just straight up wrong
That's only true for a finite extension, i.e. finite as a module
Take like Z[x] over Z, Z[x] is generated by 1 and x over Z as an algebra, but clearly x - 1 is not integral over Z, it doesn't satisfy any non-zero polynomial in Z[t]
let alone monic
So your proof holds if B is a finite extension of A because then you know that x does actually satisfy a polynomial with coefficients in A
@uncut girder
Also sorry I was taking a jog
This is the snake lemma
How do I prove that Ker$(d) \subseteq$ Im$(\tilde{v})$
List of things I really don't understand yet: Exact sequences
Okay so banana
You know how the map is made right?
oh wait that part isn't too hard I think
Showing exactness at the first map from the cokernel is harder I think
Wut
Have a Banana Bitch:
Do you know how the map is defined?
I think this is epsilon less general actually
Yeah
you don't need two of the 0s
but then you don't get the 0s at the end of the les
Yeah this is a thing where I'd prefer to have it as two separate statements
Same, but A-M do it that way
Yeah I'm criticizing A-M here
It sort of can matter tho but I'll just tell them. So for the first row, you don't need that first 0, but if you don't have it the LES doesn't start with a 0
Likewise you don't need the last 0 on the second row, but then the LES doesn't end with a 0
Suppose $m''\in$ Ker$(d)$. Then $f''(m)=0$ for some $m\in M$.
$f(m) = u'(n')$ for some $n'\in$ Im$(f')$. Say $n'=f'(m)$ for some $m'\in M'$
Have a Banana Bitch:
We need to somehow show that $m$ is in Ker$(f)$
Have a Banana Bitch:
Oh so for this sort of thing there's a nice diagram you can draw
Oh tbh I didn't even see that extended exact sequence with ker(f) and coker(g') lmao
so a is in C, then you pull it back to something in B up to something in ker g, so call this element b
I just saw them say "Oh if f is injective then the map ker(alpha)->ker(beta) is
I prefer this tbh
Packages everything in one go
You then map it to $\beta(b)$, and you know that $g'(\beta(b)) = 0$ by commutativity so that you can pull it back to something in $A'$, call this element $c$
Mathemagician:
Now we know $c$ maps to $0$ in the cokernel
Mathemagician:
@next obsidian Are you defining the map $d$?
Have a Banana Bitch:
Yeah I'm working through how it's defined
since the next step involves going back up
I already know the definition
Sure, but I had to set it up
Oh okay
$c$ maps to $0$, so that it is in the kernel of that map to the cokernel, but by exactness there exists a $d \in A$ such that $\alpha(d) = c$
Mathemagician:
Now remember we had a $b \in B$, note that $g(b) = g(f(d))$ by commutativity
Make sense?
We pulled back our original $a \in \ker\gamma$ to this $b$, and $b$ is defined UP TO SOMETHING IN KER $g$
Mathemagician:
This last point is mega important
One second I'm having some trouble parsing this stuff
Sure, try and work it out until you agree with what I've written so far
Mathemagician:
I edited something since I actually fucked it up a little
When you pull back something from C to B, how do you know its in Ker g?
Mathemagician:
so there exists something which maps to $a$, but I mean it's only well-defined up to something in Ker $g$
Mathemagician:
So I got a $b \in B$ such that $g(b) = a$, but actually if $k \in \ker g$ then $g(b + k) = a$ as well
Mathemagician:
This means I can sort of wiggle $b$ up to something in the kernel
I don't get what you mean by "well-defined up to something in Ker G"
Mathemagician:
and everything works fine
Ah so you can add by something in the kernel without changing where it maps to?
Yup
So I show we can actually WLOG that $b$ is mapped to 0 by $\beta$ by adding something onto $b$ such that it now maps to $0$
Mathemagician:
so i can replace b with b + that something
and everything still works fine since b + something still maps to a
But you'll see what I mean in a sec, this is why I took the time to grab some $d \in A$
Mathemagician: