#groups-rings-fields
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you need to think hard and long
How long do you spend on individual problems
before finding the tricks
idk
Yeah
try for atleast 30 mins
it took me like 30 seconds to find the iso that i told john about
and john told me its trash
and then i just gae up and asked heree
yea shamrock told me same buit
its just hard to believe that
i will get it
like its not there at all boys
just try spending more time on problems
the trick that is
yea but i think
i do
๐
I once spent 2 weeks on a single problem
i mean you dont know that unless you try a problem lol
maybe ith elps? idk
math is hard
as fuck
^
really its so hard
I don't think I've ever spent 2 weeks on a problem
Most problems I'm working on are for classes, where I have 1 week to do them
I mean if it weren't for quarantine I wouldn't have
i am like genuinely terrified of how math can be difficult in like
grrad school
lmfao
And also it wasn't like constant work
Oh yeah I mean it never is
is it normal
that you guys go from literally 0 ideas to solve
a probleml
to the right idea?
like I've spent days working on a problem, but really I mean I've spent days with it in the back of my mind
mo2men it like, happens sometimes
There are some problems that I actually spent days on like almost nonstop
But research problems
Yeah
why did no one tell me this
yeah im curious too
i forgot how to do like
change of basis stuff
in transformations
do i need to review that
But anyway mo2men
okay liquid im doing lin algebra uptill jordan
As least I get to draw pretty pictures
You are far to early to be stressing about these things
i am just stressing about problem solving
i once heard that like the purpose of UG is just to teach u how to solve problems
not the specific conent
which was weird for me
Eventually you will be good at problem solving
I mean I feel like some of the specific content is also pretty important
Problem solving for research is very different than regular problem solving
you dont need rudin for LA?
i meant like
for learning math
ig there is a reason ug starts with analysis
and lin alg
i mean its comp math
also like, same principle
just be willing to spend hours on a problem lol
cool boys
can i use another li nalgebra text?
rather than HK
i want something new
i mean id advice sticking with it
Yeah stick to what you're doing now
@solemn rain the last thing you want to do is switch around and get nothing done
(see NC)
Question about this
Part b
I dont' really know how to show that the normalizer of T is PT?
Like I see that the normalizer is gTg^{-1}, and that because T is diagonal it.. has a basis that's just made up of elementary basis vectors, and that it must be equal to something in the permutation group becaus ethe permutation group is simply a ... permutation of said basis vectors?
But I don't know how to show that?
I tried expanding it out but I'm not really getting anywhere?
Also like PT is just going to be the set containing all the products of permutation matrices with all the products of diagonal matrices right?
I dont' know how to show that the normalizer of T is PT
Like I see that the elements of PT are the elements of the normalizer but I don't know how to prove it
- show congugating by a permutation matrix gives you another diagonal matrix. Therefore PT is inside the normalizer
- Show that the matrices which normalize the invertible diagonal matrices are exactly the ones which map basis elements to nonzero multiples of other basis elements
And by "T is normal in PT" you mean "show that tPTt^{-1} = PT"?
And by 1), you mean conjugation a diagonal matrix by a permutation matrix correct?
Yeah
1 is obvious because of what you said
But you can do it concretely also
With lots of indices
Okay so the diagonal matrices are the ones so that for each basis element e_i, D(e_i) is r_i e_i for some nonzero constant r_i
Yes
Okay now suppose a permutation matrix maps e_i to e_j
And the permutation matrix is just [sigma(1) .... sigma(n)] right?
Then $Q^{-1}DQ(e_i) = Q^{-1}D(e_{\sigma(i)}) = Q^{-1}(r_{\sigma(i)}e_{\sigma(i)}) = r_{\sigma(i)} e_i$
And that's it
That actually wasn't so bad
Liquid:
Yeah
The matrix associated to sigma
Wow I actually was able to write those indices on mobile
And didn't make any mistakes
Does that make sense @shy bluff
I think so
Um
I'll try writing it out aggain but this time using what you gave me and see if I get it
Thank you!
๐
Oh my step 2 is bad
Let me change that
Okay @shy bluff fixed my step 2
The step 2 I wrote before was just step 1 lol
I basically described PT in a nicer way
oooh ok I gget what you did now!
You went and showed it using the standard basis vectors instead of only using the matrices
Makes sense!
Thank you!
Question, is this a valid function?
$$\phi: PT/T \rightarrow T$$ such that $\phi(a) = \phi(ptT) = p$ for some $a \in PT/T, p \in P, t \in T$?
Liria ^(;,;)^:
You have the output to be p, an element of P, whereas the codomain is T. This should raise a problem
@shy bluff
Wait I meant to P not to T
Sorry
Uh $$\phi:PT/T \rightarrow P$$ is what I meant I think
Liria ^(;,;)^:
Then this seems to be okay
Okie thank you!
Let A be a ring, let M be an A-module, and let ${M_i}_{i \in S}$ be a family of submodules of M. How do we distinguish (notationally) between
๐๐ธ๐พ๐ท๐ฝ๐ช๐ซ๐ต๐ฎ:
${\sum_{i}(m_i) | m_i \in M_i}$ and the direct sum ${(m_{i}, ... ) | m_i \in M_i}, because I have seen these both written as $\sum_i (M_i)$ ?
Thank you!
for some reason Hungerford uses \sum for direct sum, but using \oplus definitely makes more sense to me
i think that notation is used in some places
and the sum coincides with \oplus if for example nothing intersects
(and we take the sums in M)
so if the M_i are all disjoint, yeah that makes sense
coincides as in isomorphic as modules right (I think I can prove that, just making sure I get what you mean)?
yeah
thanks!
It's not if they're all disjoint
(or more properly if they all intersect at the identity)
Take A = Z, M = Z/2Z (+) Z/2Z, and M_1, M_2, M_3 the district nontrivial subgroups, so M_1 = Z/2Z (+) 0, M_2 = 0 (+) Z/2Z, and M_3 = {(0,0), (1, 1)}
these sum to the whole group and the pairwise intersections are trivial
shamrock:
oh yeah i see
oops i was thinking of the case with 2 submodules and didnt think far ahead
Yeah np I've made this mistake before
I changed a problem set at the last minute and put the incorrect statement on it
which is extra yikes
rip
Might be a weird question, but has anyone ever thought about developing an algebra for emotions?
It seems a monoidal structure exists. e.g. insecurity โ fear = jealousy
Also, see this standard wheel of emotions
Seems like there are natural inverses, and therefore could constitute a group?
er
i guess you could find a monoid that corresponds to some "chart" of emotion "combinations", if you wanted?
just take an existing monoid that satisfies your properties and rename everything
i'm not sure why you'd do this.
(i'd also assume "an algebra" here doesn't mean a literal algebra, since "emotions", however ill-defined the differences between them may be, certainly dont fit the structure of an algebra)
Hey could I have some help with these 3 problems? I just have no idea how to really start them outside of 2 which I have fine. It's really just 1 and 3.
As for 1, I found this online but I don't fully understand what it's saying.
We need to ensure that phi(x + y) = phi(x) + phi(y) for all choices of x and y in Z_24 when getting output in Z_18, and the easiest way is to work from the identity because its properties are the nicest (and that it always has to be in the mapping; the image of Z_18 is in fact a subgroup). They're using Fermat's Little Theorem/Euler's Theorem to say that anything to the 18th power is going to be the same as (congruent to) itself mod 18, and then deducing that, for example, x^6 can't be e (otherwise it's no longer a [in this case cyclic] subgroup).
They play with a few more possibilities until they get that bottom part of text where if everything works out, then the power y^k that works as homomorphism if and only if 18 divides 6k, which gives that they have below
Okay that makes sense. Where did they get y^k from though?
Like how did they know to use that?
And further, what actually is y and what is k?
Oh wait never mind. I see what y is.
For 3, the image is just by taking all those classes and seeing their result mod 15. [a] x [a] = [a^2 mod 15] in this case. Those a that map to [1], the multiplicative identity, are what gives us the kernel.
Wait hold on I still don't get 1 yet. Like where do they get y^6 from?
I believe in general it's easiest to work with the lcm of the two moduli because that (6 here) can be raised to a power in either side to yield the identity
You could pick a number like 12 and produce the same argument, but more complicated
But the identity for Z18 is x^18 and for Z24 it's x^24 right?
How is 6 the identity?
It's not, they're arguing there that the for <e, x^6, x^12, x^18> to be a subgroup which must be, x^6, x^12, and x^18 must either be all the identity (trivial homomorphism, so phi(x) = x^6 = x^12 = x^18 = e) or all not be the identity
I get how x^18 is the identity but how is x^6 and 12 the identity?
For the trivial case y^6k gives the identity, but this is just one unique homorphism formula
When they're all not is when we produce the case work that they show
Sorry I guess I'm still confused on that. What's a trivial case and what's a homomorphism formula?
A homomorphism formula is just phi(x) = some function of x
The trivial case is my term for when the subgroup is just the identity
You may have heard the "trivial group" be just the identity
Okay I get that now. So how is y^6k the trivial case? Because 6 goes into both 18 and 24?
y^6k has two possibilities:
1.) For any integer k, y^6k is the identity, so e = y^6 = y^-6 = y^12 = y^-12 = ... so our image aka subgroup of Z_18 is just {e}
2.) Using case 1, we argue that now they all must be different. But by the properties of a homomorphism giving the image of something from Z_18, each 6k must divide 18. This is where we get the "multiple of 3" idea.
But how is y^6 the identity in case 1? And how is it equal to y^12?
Or is that the point that it's not the identity?
Because lcm(24, 18) = 6, we put our attention to the subgroup {e = x^24, x^6, x^12, x^18}. If all the elements are equal, clearly e = e^2, etc., so y^6 = y^12 = (y^6)^2, etc.
So for the top case, we're really just finding out what the trivial homomorphism has the form of.
To find any other forms/formulae, we now know they'd have to be different, and that's where our argument comes into play that each 6k divide 18
We now try to find other cases where y^k = phi(x)^k gives us the identity
We get that k is a multiple of 3, so phi(x)^3, phi(x)^6, phi(x)^9.
But wait the lcm(24, 18) is 72.
Ooooooh okay
12 and 15 fail because they don't divide 18, which is the max order of any element in Z_18
Now I sleep
Okay cool. And what you typed for 3 is all I need to know right?
For 3 they might want the image also as the name of a group
So whatever you get after checking 1, 2, 4, 7, 8, 11, 13, and 14, maybe there's a name for that group of integer classes left doing a -> a^2
Besides that, yes
Okay.
Are there generators of (R,+)?
Equivalent would be "is there a smallest real number?"
there's a generating set of (R,+)
yes, the smallest generating set of (R,+) is uncountable
there aren't any single generators of R
Any generating set must have exactly the same Cardinality as R itself
Wouldn't {0} be a trivial generating set?
no because the subgroup of R generated by {0} is {0} and {0} is not R
So like R is a commutative ring with 1.
And R has exactly one maximal ideal
Need to show that set of all non- units forms an ideal .
I'm getting stuck, how do i show that this is closed under addition
if a and b are two nonunits
you need to use the fact that the ideals (a) and (b) are both contained in the maximal ideal m
also sorry zoph haha
i saw you typing just as I started
I just started typing too its fine
Ok I'll try thanks
is it a thing that every permutation polynomial on a finite field gives you a different permutation of that field
If I'm understanding you right, no, the polynomials x and x^p would give you the same permutation for example
@red imp on F_p
oh I meant to say polynomials of degree less than p-1
Yeah, since if two polynomials gave the same permutations, then you could subtract them, and you'd have a polynomial of degree less than p - 1 with p roots, which implies that its 0
This is a pretty common idea that's used a lot
yeah but I'm a noob to algebra so it's like black magic
You maybe should think a bit more about why a polynomial of degree n has at most n roots over a finite field
This isn't super obvious, since for example the polynomial x^2 + x over Z/6Z has 4 roots
okay that's the main issue I've been having in my algebra class
what the hell does a quotient ring look like
I have zero intuition for them
is there a resource that's like "quotient rings for dummies"
well, I guess the way that I'd explain it for groups is like
6Z (the multiples of 6) is a subgroup of Z
or replace subgroup with ideal
So you have {..., -12, -6, 0, 6, 12, ...} = 6Z
but you also have translates of this subgroup/ideal in some sense
oh so the group analogue of an ideal is just a subgroup?
so you can consider like 1 + 6Z { ..., -11, -5, 1, 7, 13, ...}
Yeah
(well, maybe normal subgroup)
oh yeah
And so you have 6 of these translates
0 + 6Z, 1 + 6Z, 2 + 6Z, 3 + 6Z, 4 + 6Z, 5 + 6Z
and you can ask if you can put a group/ring structure on these 6 elements, that kind of reflects the group/ring structure of Z
In other words, you want (n + 6Z) + (m + 6Z) = (n + m) + 6Z
so like (1 + 6Z) + (2 + 6Z) = 3 + 6Z
ah yes I have seen how addition is defined in these rings
So your quotient ring is just the 6 translates
:o
and you can put corresponding addition/multiplication operations on these 6 cosets they're normally called
so Z/6Z just has 6 elements and that's it?
yeah
well that has been far more complicated in my mind, that simplifies it a bunch
appreciate it
I mean, in this case, you can of course think about it as just the integers mod 6, and this translates to the cosets of 6Z
is R/{0} isomorphic to R
as rings? groups?
rings
How are you putting a ring structure on R/ {0}?
I dunno I just thought of the ideal {0} and wondered what R/{0} was gonna be like
Oh, that's quotient
trying to gain some familiarity
Yeah, it is
ohkay cool
I mean, going back to our example
Z/{0}
its translates are basically just {1}, {2}, {n}
You mean like Z[x] modulo a polynomial right
yeah I think so
The other way to think about quotients is that
In like Z/6Z, you can think of sending all of 6Z to 0
so that in the new ring Z/6Z, everything in the ideal 6Z becomes zero
And the same thing happens in Z[x]/(p(x))
you're essentially stating that p(x) = 0
So like, for Z[x]/(x^2)
you're stating that x^2 = 0
So x^3 = 0 as well, since you can multiply both sides by x
or x^n = 0 for any n > 2
so you're only left with linear polynomials in some sense
woah
or, as a more typical example, if you have Z[x]/(x^2 + x + 1)
you're stating that x^2 + x + 1 = 0
okay yeah I've been missing that "equivalent to 0" throughout this whole class
or that x^2 = - x - 1
so you can take like x^3 = x(x^2) = x(-x - 1) = -x^2 - x = x + 1 - x = 1
Yeah, its partially because you can think of ideals (or normal subgroups) as kernel of homomorphisms
or if you want something that looks sort of like that 6, you can have Z[x, y] with the ideal generated by x^2, xy and y^3 for example
somewhat analogous to 3*2=0
I'm trying to get how that works
so that ideal is the smallest ideal that contains x^2, xy and y^3?
That's one possible definition yeah
there's another definition of ring generation?
for example <x,y> = {x f + y g | f,g \in Z[x,y] }
kind of all the "linear" combinations of x and y in some sense
the 2 defns are equivalent
No thats just F(x) -{0}
hmm better to use \ for that
Thank you
what is deg(fg)?
try to make final argument more formal maybe
Oh that was rough i was just solving
Like if i need to show that 5 is prime in Z[โ2].
I know something like norm function can be used
bertwit:
do you understand why this helps?
I think i do
๐
i am not sure what ur saying. but its because R/I is integral domain iff I is prime ideal
Yes i have
good
norm can be used to prove that a given element is irreducible
for ufd that implies prime
bertwit:
and ofc euclidean domain imples ufd
Then if i prove Z[โ2] is Euclidean domain then the element i want to prove as prime
No no
Um i actually got confused
I need to show that Z[โ2] /(5) is I.D
Then it is proven by implication
Why would modding out by (5) show that the original ring is Euclidean?
https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/328208536029102081/721853355936186478/unknown.png
HI was told to move this here ๐
But yes, one group has an element of an order the other does not
so they cannot be isomorphic because isomorphisms preserve order
[Of course what that order is, I'm leaving to you]
But for example, if I was asked to show that D_12 and A_4 are not isomorphic, I might note that the rotation in D_12 has order 6, but A_4 has no elements of order 6
different (tangentially related) meanings of order
the order of a group is, indeed, the number of elements of that group
the order of an element of a group is how many times you need to apply the group operation to that element to get the identity
i.e. the order of $a$ is the smallest positive integer $n$ such that $a^n = e$
Namington:
i'm surprised you're doing this sort of problem but haven't heard of this concept before - maybe you know it by another name?
Hey so for this problem, I already have the answer I think. All we need is that first part. We just need to prove that it is a homomorphism. Is that not just the phi(a+b)=phi(a)+phi(b)?
Like this is the version from the book. Our homework version is the same thing but without everything past "Prove that phi is a homo."
the group operation of $\mathbb C^\times$ is multiplication
ariana:
so prove ฯ(ab)=ฯ(a)ฯ(b)
Woah I just assigned this problem as homework
wts lol
Oh dang cool XD Do you teach at University of South Carolina?
dox dox dox dox dox nvm
zoph already doxxed themselves as an anime girl
Not quite
lol coincidence then kek
yea
i mean to soulgiver not zoph
I can send you the pdf for our homework. I am curious if he jsut got it from some sort of teacher resource or something off the internet <->
Anyways though, would it just be proving that phi(a+bi)=phi(a)+phi(bi)?
But then what is the a and b replacing?
phi: C --> R
where C is the multiplicative
gr
group
and R is the same
so you would want to prove that
phi(ab) = phi(a)phi(b)
where a and b are in C
if u know basic complex numbers
thats just the magnitude of acomplex number
Oh wait so is it literally just like phi(ab)=a^2b^2 then?
So what is b?
any complex number?
b = f+ji for some f and j in R
arbitrary complex numbers
and the operation defined on this group is multiplication
Sorry I feel really dumb for asking this but what is a complex number? I just haven't heard that term before.
so u want to show that this map preserves this operation
complex numbers are numbers of the form x+yi
for x and y in R
and i^2=-1
R is real numbers
Oh so imaginary numbers.
Okay so i isn't another variable.
Okay yeah I remember that.
Okay so a and b are both in C which means they're both in the form x+yi (but they can be different so we have a=x+yi and b=g+hi or some other variables. Correct?
nothing says they must be the same
u have to pick totally arbitrary
complex numbers
and show that phi preserves the structure
ie a homoo
So it would be phi((x+yi)(g+hi))=phi(x+yi)phi(g+hi)
Sorry mistype.
cool
so yea
for any x y g h in R
show that this is true
and then find image and kernel
I don't need to do that for mine so no worries on that. He said we don't have to learn that for right now.
and describe the fibers geometrically
I just need to prove it's a homo.
I mean sure, I don't mind. But I also wanna get this homework done asap because I am already super tired.
Thank you ^^
np
Well my book is called Beachy and Blair and itโs in 3.7 for mine.
Also I feel like my math is off.
Sorry for my horrible handwriting but this is what Iโm getting for this part.
But for the other part phi(a)phi(b), I got this.
Erm
tbh i cant understand
can u just write it out
it should be clear if u just write it
in text here
I can it'll take me a second though.
tyt
You're trying to show that these two things end up being equal:
phi((a + bi)(c + di)) = phi((ac - bd) + (ad + bc)i) = (ac - bd)^2 + (ad + bc)^2
phi((a + bi)(c + di)) = phi(a + bi)phi(c + di) = (a^2 + b^2)(c^2 + d^2)
So your algebra hopefully shows this
I was 1 variable off but yes.
I'm trying to show that (ac - bd)^2 + (ad + bc)^2=(a^2 + b^2)(c^2 + d^2)
Okay never mind. It's right.
It was that one variable.
Here \mu is the mobius function. Can someone help me to understand how the last step in this equality comes to be?
take n = 6
I can iterate over the divisors like d = 1,2,3,6
but n/d is 6,3,2,1
which is the exact same set of numbers
What would happen if f failed to be irreducible in K[x]?
oh actually I think I have an example where f isn't irreducible. K = Q and F = Q(i, 2^(1/13)), and f(x) = x^10 + 4
sorry I was assuming F/K was Galois for some reason
Is 1+3i a prime element in Z[i]
@knotty mason its not a prime element right
[Q(i, 2^(1/13)) : Q] = [Q(i, 2^(1/13)) : Q(2^(1/13))] [Q(2^(1/13)) : Q]
No, it's not
correct
@knotty masonokay thank you
First one is 2 because Q(2^(1/13)) is contained in R, second is 13 since x^13 - 2 is irreducible by Eisenstein
(1 + 3i) = (1 + i)(2 + i)
@mild laurel okay
it's possible that x^10 + 4 factors but I don't think so
it's irreducible mod 11, which you can check by brute force
oh yeah sorry
the point is that Q(i, 2^(1/13)) is a degree 26 extension of Q over which the irreducible degree 10 polynomial f(x) = x^10 + 4 factors
yes
x^10 + 4 = (x^5 - 2i)(x^5 + 2i)
oh for some reason I didn't want f to have a root but I don't think that matters
you could take f = x^10 + 1
why are you deleting your posts?
I believe that if a is a root of f(x), then f(x) irreducible in K[x] means K(a) (the composite of F(a) and K) has degree 10 over K
but this is not necessarily the case since 10 and 26 are not coprime
this is true, but it also wouldn't tell us much if they were coprime
it could factor without having a root in F
(as in the x^10 + 4 example)
your example doesn't seem to contradict my point though
based on your example, if we let a be a root of x^5-2i then [K(a) : K] = 5 but [F(a) : F] = 10
and I didn't assume the root was in F (or even K)
if they were coprime, [K(a) : K] would equal [F(a) : F] so f(x) would be irreducible in K[x]
Remember that a^41 = a
the ideal generated by 105 and x^2+2x+2
do you have a charcterization of maximal ideals in Z[x]?
I'm not sure if you can do that here, can you?
all maximal ideals of Z[x] are of a specific form
yea
@warm pawn do you have a definition of maximal ideal?
me?
@warm pawn every maximal ideal is in the form (p,f(x)) where p is prime
and f is irreducible
in mod p
think of this
Hey so I just want to be sure I'm going this right. I need to check if this is a homomorphism.
I'm on d right now and I made 2 matrixes,
(a b)
(c d)
represented by x
(f g)
(h k)
represented by y.
And phi(x)phi(y)=abfg
So it's not a homomorphism right?
Lol I wasn't sure how else to do it XD
do you know latex?
Actually I could do it in excel and screenshot it and not really.
Like I know some things but not matrixes.
$\begin{pmatrix}
1 & 2 \
3 & 4
\end{pmatrix}$
Oh okay.
you can format it to make it a bit more readable
How do I do phi?
maximwebb:
$\phi$, or $\Phi$
maximwebb:
or even $\varphi$
Zef Klop ๐ ๐ฟ ๐ป:
or even $\mathbb{\phi}$
maximwebb:
maybe not that last one lol
So for c. I did $\phi(
\begin{pmatrix}
a & b
c & d
\end{pmatrix}
\begin{pmatrix}
f & g
h & k
\end{pmatrix}
)$
Soulgiver831:
double backslash
$\phi \left(
\begin{pmatrix}
a & b\
c & d
\end{pmatrix}
\begin{pmatrix}
f & g\
h & k
\end{pmatrix}
\right)$
lol the map in d) isn't even well-defined
maximwebb:
$\phi \left(
\begin{pmatrix}
a & b\\
c & d
\end{pmatrix}
\begin{pmatrix}
f & g\\
h & k
\end{pmatrix}
\right)$
Oooooh okay
if you look at the tex, discord covers up the backslashes
Okay so I have to do, for c, $\phi(x+y)=\phi(x)+\phi(y)$ right?
Soulgiver831:
if you want to show that phi is a morphism then yes you have to show that this is true
Okay cool.
the implicit group laws of M2(R) and R are addition
Almost done with my homework, on the last problem now and I kinda get it but I'm not fully sure. I think it has something to do with proving the two groups are abelian first maybe.
Nah, the groups don't need to be abelian. What's your definition of a normal subgroup?
A subgroup that is normal I guess XD Sorry if I misunderstand.
What does "normal" mean, then?
There's a lot of different ways to define the term "normal subgroup", so it's good to know which one your lecture is working with
A normal subgroup means that for g in G and n in N then gng^-1 is in N. That is, when N is a normal subgroup of G.
what a coincidence, you have to show that for every g in G and h in H there are some h1 or h2 in H such that things
such that things?
Yeah, so so this kind of definition fits very nicely to the problem that we have; the problem tells us "for every g in G and h in H, find some h_1 and h_2 in H with some properties". The definition of a normal subgroup tells us that for every g in G and h in H, we find that ghg^-1 fulfils some property
So you don't have to go that far, just play around with the definitions a bit
I mean, you have to show a statement of the form "forall g in G and forall h in H there is h1 in G such that ....", and the normality of H in G says "forall g in G and forall h in H, ... is in H"
it's almost the same
well you have to figure out how to get h1 and h2 from what the normality of H gives you
Let's say I gave you a g and an h. Then h1 is an element such that
gh = h1g
Natural question, does that even exist?
Well that would have to mean h1 is equal to h right?
um no ?
But what makes you say that?
Or wait that would only be if it is abelian.
I'm still getting used to the mindset that ab doesn't always equal ba.
Well, what is h1 equal to?
Some element in H
Well you just divide both sides by g right?
In a sense yes. But we don't really talk "division" in groups. Instead we talk about "multiplying by the inverse"
Yup lol. Can you finish the logic from there?
I think so ^^
Silly question but I can't get a clear answer from the google,
Let F be a field, am I correct that F(x) := Frac(F[x])?
ty
smart
no u
what axioms do left group actions have to satisify
So we want to go and show that e dot x = x right?
yea thats the first axiom
So we need (g dot f)(e) = .... What does that equal?
so the group G acts on X and Y
so define the group action g* f(x) = g* f(g^-1*x)
for x in X
yea
and i think g^-1*x is the action of G on X
Wait question, the second dot, g^{-1} * x, is that dot the group product or is that actually the action?
Ok so it is again an action
Yea idk
Wait so what I'm tyring to show is that if g = e
Then we just get x back?
Like uh if g = e, then we have f(x) = f(x) lol
show that g*f(x) = f(x) for g being the identity in G
Ist' it specifically for g = e*?
Oh
e being the identity
Yea
Issok
Oh, ok so we're assuming that we already have a left action of G on sets X and Y
yea G acts on X and Y
g^-1*x is the action on X
g*f(g^-1 * x ) is the action on Y
f(g^-1 *x ) is in Y
as f:X-->Y
got it?
Yea I think so
cool
Lemme type it up and I'll send it
cool
i have to go do something
so gl but surely some1 will help u if u still have any problems
@solemn rain like this?
cool
For some reason I can't figure out how to show that conjugation from a conjugacy class to itself is a bijection
Lol
How are the Fibonacci numbers related to the Golden Ratio?
closely
Wrong channel @worldly nexus
which one then?
A general question one maybe
can u not just help me here?
#help-8 seems to be open
Ask in there
Anyway @silk drift it is a bijection because there is an inverse
Oh wait
I am dumb wow
Okay so since its a bijection then it acts as a permutation on the members of each conjugacy class of finite groups
ye
Which means that the sum of the elements of the conjugacy class is in the center of RG which is what I was looking for
Okay I am officially braindead omg
) Let K = {k1, . . . , km} be a conjugacy class in the finite gruop G.Let R be
a commutative ring.
(a) Prove that the element K = k1 +ยท ยท ยท+km is in the centre of the group
ring RG.
Man
What am I even doing
No I mean
I think I got it
how does this work
with questions btw
Wait
Group conjugation is invertible?
That can't be right
At least not 2 sided since conjugacy classes exist in the first place right
Wait never mind
Um what exactly does this look like?
Does this basically just make a binary string
And the binary string is 1 if x is in S, 0 if x not in S?
yes
No shortcuts yea? just show injectivity + surjectivity?
you could explicitly show an inverse
I dont' know if explicit inverse is what they want, I'll just do invjcetivity and surjectivity ๐
lol
as in find a way to 'recover' the set S from the function
Ye
but injective+surjective works as well
@shy bluff dm check
Hey so I'm having some trouble understanding this.
Like I have a basic understanding of what cosets are from the last problem.
basically for each element x in D_4, you multiply {e,a^2} by x from the left and right
so e.g. a{e,a^2} = {e,a^2}a = {a,a^3}
and then you list all the distinct sets obtained this way
the number of left (right) cosets of subgroup H in G is |G|/|H| btw
(in a finite group G)
Wait what are the elements in D4 though?
Symmetries of a square
you know the flip and rotate operations in D4 right
if f is flip and r is rotate then the elements are 1, r, r^2, r^3, f, fr, fr^2, fr^3
Sorry okay now I'm here.
Okay so, am I multiplying both of them by 1, r, r^2, ... fr^3?
Or by a?
well, letters do not matter
i can have ๐ฅ instead of r and ๐ฑ instead of f
well, it depends onwhat you want to have as r and what as s
(s is reflection through the axis of symmetry)
Just make yourself a square out of paper and use that.
@half nebula have you figured out the problem?
I am a bit confused on this one bit though. So on the first one, I'm multiplying the subgroup by ab. That would make it (ab, aba^2). Can I just make that (ab,a^3b)?
With the subgroup (e,a^2).
yeah usually for a group like D4 you want to write everything in its canonical form
so instead of ba you'd write a^3b
I know but can I just like take the ba^2 part of aba^2 and make it a^2b (it turns into a^-2b which equals a^2b)
yes
ba^2 is equal to a^2b
they're the same
so you can use them interchangably
sry that sounded aggressive
I know, I just didn't know if I can make aba^2 into a(ba^2), like split it up like this.
And nah you're good ^^
basically this is what associativity is for
abc is equal to (ab)c which is equal to a(bc)
you can do that all you want
Oh so each um element of v?
yh
i.e, we have k distinct elements of v, each of which occur m_i times, meaning a total of n elements
Ok that makes sense
Ok, then what is G_v? Is G_v = P_sigma(v)?
i dont think v is a set so idk if it's fair to say element of v btw
i would guess G_v is the stabilizer of v
ex: if v=(1,2,3,2), then v is only stabilized by the identity permutation and (2,4), so |G_v|=2 = 1! 2! 1!
does this question make any sense
Yes
okay cool
i am having a very bad hard time
is this a ring : Z/4Z x 4Z
?
i am supposed to find the char of this ring
in a test
and i just cant even find its identity element
(1,1) doesnt exist
Doesn't seem like a ring to me because multiplicative identity doesn't exist like you said
If you define product and sum to be component-wise
uh isnt (1,1) the identity?
wow I didn't realize 1 was a multiple of 4
Oh wait 4Z oops misread
i kept thinking Z/4Z x Z
rip
then yea 4Z isnt even a ring to begin with
yea cool
Given an equality of two finitely generated ideals (x1,..,xn) = (y1,...,yn) in an R-algebra, what can we say about the relationship between xi's and yi's ?
I donโt think you can say much in general. If n = 1 then x1 and y1 are the same up to a unit, but you canโt say anything in general. Like what if theyโre both the unit ideal, but none of the xi are 1, but y1 is 1 and the rest of the yi are just randomly selected, totally unrelated to each other or the xi (take R as an algebra over itself for this example)
Just by definition you know the yi can be written as linear combinations of the xj, and vice versa, but past that I donโt think you can really extract much in general
Let V and W be vector spaces over a field F. Prove that if a linear transformation
f : V โโ W is one-to-one then, {f(v1), f (v2), . . . , f (vn)} is a linearly independent
subset of W whenever {v1, v2, . . . , vn} is a linearly independent subset of V
Any help please
This is really #linear-algebra , but you want to use the fact that if a linear transformation is one to one then it has trivial kernel.
@chilly ocean Don't post the same question in multiple channels. I've already given you an outline of the proof.
@somber rivet oh okay
Does this basically just say that you can gog and "factorize" a finitely abelian group the same way you can prime factorize integers?
yeah
i.e, if |G| = x, where x is some integer, then we can write it as being the direct product of ... integer groups of the size of each prime factor?
Oh ok
thank
it's not exactly the same
What is different? I dont' really understand b)
Yea but aren't those all isomorphic?
they are distinct groups, C_8 has an order 8 element and none of the others do
I see
But we can write G as being any of those right? And that they're all isomorphic even thouggh they're distinct groups? Like C_2xC_2xC_2 won't have an element of order 8 but there is an element that the element of order 8 will map to/from in it right?
sorry when I said distinct groups I meant the stronger statement that they are non-isomorphic
they are completely different groups
there are 3 different abelian groups of order 8
Oh, they're not isomorphic?
as permutations you can see C_8 as generated by (1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8) and C_2 x C_2 x C_2 generated by 3 permutations (1 2),(3 4),(5 6)
If G is an abelian group of order 8 it is isomorphic to one of those 3 groups
yeah
you could search for an order 8 element, if it has one it's C_8, otherwise search for an order 4 element, if it has one it's C_2 x C_4, otherwise it must be C_2 x C_2 x C_2
Oh I see
you can do the same process for any abelian group of order p^r
So basically it lets you go and classify groups? Like "Groups of order 8 are isomorphic to one of these, groups of order 10 are isomorphic to one of these, etc etc"?
yes it completely classifies the finite abelian groups
Be warned that C_3 x C_4 is isomorphic to C_12
?
So, if m and n are relatively prime, C_m x C_n is isomorphic to C_mn. That's called the Chinese Remainder Theorem.
well, C_4 x C_6 isn't isomorphic to C_24, for instance
I see
For this question, part b, I don't really understand how to prove it? Like I dont' really see why that's true either
The uh action that they're referring to is this
Like um so say for example thatwe have X = {1, 2, 3, 4}, and that we have G = S_4
And say that we have S = {1, 2}
And that we have g = (1 2 3)
Then we have that $\chi_S(1) = 1, \chi_S(2) = 2, \chi_S(3) = 0, \chi_S(4) = 0$ right?
Liria ^(;,;)^:
Then we see that $(g \cdot \chi_S)(x) = (1 2 3) \cdot \chi_S((3 2 1)(x))$ right?
chi_S(2) can't be 2
Liria ^(;,;)^:
yes
But how do I show that this is equal to $\chi_G \cdot S$?
Liria ^(;,;)^:
Like what is $\chi_g$?
Liria ^(;,;)^:
this question is just a matter of using all the definitions
chi_G ?
who ever talked about a chi_G ??
Liria ^(;,;)^:
probably
Wait that doesnt' make sense though? S is a set, not a function right?
But also like if we have that $g \cdot S$ just means "application of g onto each element of S, then $\chi_{g \cdot S}$ is 1 if $gs \in X$ and 0 if $gs \not \in X$ for all $s \in S$
Liria ^(;,;)^:
Whereas like $g \cdot \chi_S$, using the left action from the previous question is $g \cdot \chi_S(g^{-1} \cdot x)$, which would mean....applying the left action of $g$ on either 0 or 1?
Liria ^(;,;)^:
S is a set yeah
g.S is {g.s ; s in S}
usually
it's not in one of your copy pastes so I could be wrong about that but the chance is low
no ; chi_(g.S) (x) is 1 if x is in g.S and 0 if it's not
you are not applying the definitions correctly
What am I doing wrong?
chi_(g.S) is a function from X to {0;1}
you can't say it is 1 if gs is in X
that makes no sense at all
instead
you copy paste this
but with replacing S with (g.S)
so chi_(g.S) (x) = 1 if x is in g.S and chi_(g.S) (x) = 0 if x not in g.S
and that's for all x in X
Liria ^(;,;)^:
you also copy paste the relevant definitions to simplify (g. chi_S) (x)
Like we have that $(g \cdot \chi_S)(x) = g \cdot \chi_S(g^{-1} \cdot x)$ right?

