#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 468 of 407
I don't know what a galois conjugate is
Yeah I'm talking to zoph, sorry
Yeah I made the same mistake
anyways, what does that simplify to
oh you're talking about the norm
Yup
a^2 - ab - abω + abω - b^2 ω - b^2 ω^2 = a^2 - ab + b^2, right?
So the norm is N(a+bω) = a^2 - ab + b^2
@cerulean siren do you know about norms?
In the context of euclidian domains
but not how to find one without having it given
Ah yeah this isn't a Euclidean norm
The general defintion for a number field (thing which you get by adjoining finitely many algebraic numbers to Q) involves Galois theory
you can adjoin multiple things to a field?
Yeah exactly
And it's really the same thing
Instead of polynomials in the one thing you adjoin, you look at polynomials in both
Anyways, we have a function N(a+bω) = a^2 + b^2 - ab on Z[ω] which is multiplicative (you can check this explicitly)
Oh sorry using ω for zeta_3 is pretty common
And N(7) = 49, so if 7 = (a+bω)(c+dω) then we'd have to have N(a+bω) = N(c+dω) = 7
So in addition to the equations above we get c^2 + d^2 - cd = a^2 + b^2 - ab = 7
oh right you need 4 systems of equations to solve for 4 variables
now I have no idea how I was supposed to do this lol
ac - bd = 7
ad + bc - bd = 0
a^2 + b^2 - ab = 7
c^2 + d^2 - cd = 7
Just so we can keep track
Nah from here, you can just see that you can get an element with norm 7 since 3² + 2² - 6 = 7
Oh okay sure
wat
So 3+2ω has norm 7
oh I see you're using the last equation
And 2 + 3ω
I'm confused where you got equation 2
and 3 and 4 I definitely couldn't have gotten on my own
Equation two comes from multiplying (a+bω) (c+dω) and setting the ω coefficient to 0
And yeah 3 and 4 are pretty magical unless you know more stuff
Anyways, (2+3ω)(2+3ω^2) = 4 + 6ω^2 + 6ω + 9 = 13 + 6(ω^2 + ω) = 13 - 6 = 7
Zoph was using more Galois theory to say it suffices to find any non-real element of norm 7, and this is the explicit example
I still don't see how I could have done this on my own 🤷 but oh well hopefully the professor will have it in the solutions
nah not your fault
I spent like 2 hours on this so I'm glad to know it wasn't something silly lol
Definitely remember the comparing coefficients trick
Also I can teach you about norms if you want, they're pretty cool
sure, why not
So suppose you have an irreducible polynomial f(x) with rational coefficients
And that it factors over C as (x-α1)...(x-αn)
Then we get a field F = Q(α1,...,αn) by adjoining all the αs
So the elements are polynomials in the roots of f
This is the smallest field containing Q over which f factors completely
Does that make sense so far?
so F is a subset of C?
Yup
ok I think I'm with you
Okay I just realized this is way too hard to explain except for n = 2
So I can explain norms for quadratic extensions
Does that make sense?
quadratic extensions means 2 factors? sure
So we have an irreducible polynomial f with roots α, β
And actually to get F we only have to adjoin one of them
why's that?
Since f(x) is divisible by (x-α) in Q(α)[x], meaning the other factor (x-β) is in Q(α)[x] as well, which means β is in Q(α)
I think you can do it with the quadratic formula too
Yeah, we're using the fact that some bigger ring where f factors completely, like C[x], has unique factorization
So because α and β are both roots of the same irreducible polynomial, we call them "Galois conjugates"
?
irreducible implies it has no roots, you're talking about two different fields at once
Oh, sure
So the fact that they're Galois conjugates implies that there's a bijection σ : Q(α) -> Q(α) such that σ(0) = 0 and σ(1) = 1 and σ(x+y) = σ(x) + σ(y) and σ(xy) = σ(x) σ(y) (this says that σ is a "field automorphism") and finally σ(α) = β
Explicitly, since any element of Q(α) just looks like p + q α, we must have σ(p+q α) = p + q β
my professor was talking about how all transcendentals t, s form an isomorphism under Q[t] <=> Q[s], this sounds kind of similar
err I think that's what he said I have to reread my notes
That is true, but I'm not sure it's related
well it's the same idea, you're forming an isomorphism between all the roots adjoin Q
Oh yeah that's a good way of looking at it
And actually there's a much nicer way to say that
Where f might not be quadratic
p is an element of Q?
If α is a root of any irreducible polynomial g with Q coefficients, then Q(α) ≈ Q[x]/(g(x))
So if you have two different roots, you can compose the isomorphisms to get ones between Q(α) and Q(β) swapping the generators
Yeah, p is an element of Q
ok you've lost me now, what does Q[x]/<g(x)> have to do with it?
Define a ring homorphism φ : Q[x] -> Q(α) by sending x to α. This is clearly surjective, right? What's the kernel?
This isn't what I was talking about, it's just a tangent based on the stuff you brought up
well it's the same idea, you're forming an isomorphism between all the roots adjoin Q
@cerulean siren
I'm saying this idea works even if f isn't quadratic
And so Q(α) and Q(β) might be different fields
ok I see what you're trying to prove, I'm just a little confusd by the ideal you introduced
let's go back to galois theory 😆
Sorry
Okay the so the "norm" I mentioned above is the function N : Q(α) -> Q given by N(x) = x σ(x). Explicitly, N(p+q α) = (p+qα)(p+qβ) = p^2 + pq(α+β) + q^2αβ
So there's general Galois theoretic reasons that this lands in Q, but you can also see it explicitly
Can you see why? Try to prove it!
you would need alpha+beta and alpha*beta to both be in Q, right?
they're both roots of g
what was f?
Oh sorry g
I think I originally used f
And then used g for the tangent
About Q[x]/(g(x)) ≈ Q(α)
ok ok we know that g is irreducible in Q
(x - alpha)(x - beta)
Right
so that gives you back a function with coefficients in Q!
Yeah!!!
so we know -alpha * -beta is in Q
Right
and also that x - beta -x - alpha is in Q
which is the same as -beta - alpha is in Q
and you can just factor out -1
Yup
oh that's so cool!
can you teach my class 😆
If α, β are the roots of an irreducible polynomial f(x) = x^2 - ax + b, then we have a function N : Q(α) -> Z given by N(p+qα) = p^2 + apq + bq^2,
Now if you believe that the σ above is a multiplicative, it's really easy to see N(x) = x σ(x) is multiplicative
You should also be able to check it directly I think
Because the definition of σ is σ(p+qα) = p + qβ
And I just expanded (p+qα)(p+qβ) out to give the nice explicit definition
Does that make sense?
shouldn't that say p^2 + alpha*pq + beta*q^2 then?
you wrote a and b
(also, how are you typing greek letters?)
So I said f(x) = x^2 - ax + b
Wait hang on, I think you made a mistake
It should be p^2 + (α+β)pq + αβq^2
Right?
I just copied what you wrote 😛
Oh gosh
Sorry
Oh no you didn't
I'm being careful
So -a and b are the coefficients of f
But - (α+β) and αβ are also the coefficients of f
Right?
Since f(x) = (x-α)(x-β)
wouldn't it be (-alpha - beta)/2 ?
wait hold on
I'm bad at multiplying lol
yeah no you're right
ok, so -(alpha + beta) = -a and alpha*beta = b
I'm with you
ahhh and that's how you normally factor over the integers anyway
So we have this nice norm function
Which can be expressed in terms of the coefficients of f
And it's multiplicative
In the case of Q(i), which you've probably seen, this is the usual norm N(p+qi) = p^2 + q^2
Right?
Since the polynomial is f(x) = x^2 + 1
So a = 0 and b = 1
ok, I'm with you
Alternatively, σ(p+iq) = p - iq, so N(p+iq) = (p+iq)(p-iq) = p^2 + q^2
because our original formula was p^2 + apq + bq^2
Right
oh and this is why multiplying by the complex conjugate always gives you something in R!
never understood that before
Yeah that's a nice observation
Another better way to see it is Galois theory
But you'll get to that
So there's other stuff about the "ring of integers" which I'm not going to explain, and which let's us look at a subring of Q(α) and say the norm of an element in that subring is an integer
And then you can do stuff about factorization
Like we did above with Z[ω]
Okay, I hope you found this interesting
I don't know though about this area
It's like the beginning of algebraic number theory
But it's on my list
What are you guys talking about 
The norm of an element in a quadratic number field
that's why you edited phi: Q(alpha) -> Z to say it was to Q before
@uncut girder starts here: https://discordapp.com/channels/268882317391429632/496784958430380033/692900697473286195
and then goes for ... a while
wow it's been more than an hour lol
I've been pretending to do spanish homework
oh you never did say how you were typing greek letters haha
you've been doing this from your phone ???
I guess if I can write code on my phone other people can write math 😆
I did get a small aws server so I could do homework on my phone a couple years ago
Coding on your phone is a great skill
Ooh nice
plus it's much faster than anything I'd be willing to rent on aws
is there an #offtopic channel somewhere?
I got a question about modules
So there's an example in dummit and foote which says that given a vector space V over F, the F[x] modules of V and the linear transformations of V form a bijection
The way I interpreted it, is that given any module module action • we can find a transformation T such that p(x) • v = p(x) © v
Where I'm using © to represent the action induced by T
Is the statement correct?
Yes, but you have to be careful
As in, what is the transformation (T^2 + T + 1) for example
T(T(v)) + T(v) + v
Are all vector spaces products of fields?
Yeah, thats the right idea
Okay well first, the product of two fields is not a field anymore
I think my book sweeps something under the rug
By abusing notation
It's dummit and foote btw
The abuse of notation is pretty common for this
I'll write down what I'm trying to say one sec
In a vector space,
- The vectors form an abelian group
- The scalars form a field
- There's a scalar multiplication that has a few other properties
@chilly ocean
yeah zoph u right the converse wouldnt be true I was wondering about that
thanks
Kanyex is there something obvious from the axioms I'm missing you mean to say ;-;
If you're asking if all vector spaces are isomorphic to F^n over F for some field F
then the answer is yes, if your vector space is finite dimensional
pog
you should be able to show this
if your vector space is over F and has dimension n, then it is isomorphic to F^n
that would be the proof true
Oh you are actually asking about a product of fields. Sorry, I misunderstood
wait is every vector space a product of Fs? That sounds fake
if we include the infinite case
isn't the infinite countable direct product much bigger than the direct sum?
I'm not being helpful, sorry
zoph only said finite d but I'd like to see the counterexample you have too
for the infinite case
actually this would be cool to know about in general because the only infinite-d vector spaces I know are isomorphic to infinite products of fields
so I don't have a lot of variety ;-;
let V be a countable direct sum of Q with itself, as a Q-vector space. I claim this is not a product. For dimension reasons it's not a finite product. If it were an infinite product, it would contain a subspace isomorphic to the countable product of Q with itself. Call this space W. Then dim W <= dim V. In particular, W has a countable spanning set {w0,w1,...}. For each n, let Wn be the subset spanned by {w0,...,wn}. Then W is the union over all n of Wn, by how bases work, and each Wn is countable, so W is countable. However this is false, since we have an injection [0, 1) -> W by sending a number to its decimal expansion or w/e
the problem is that direct sums and direct products don't coincide in the infinite case
the infinite direct sum of a bunch of stuff consists of all tuples where only finitely many are nonzero
To show that 1 = 2, I need that k°v = k•v for all k in F and v in V
And a word about the natural followup question, is every vector space a direct sum of copies of the field, yes if you assume the axiom of choice, undecidable without!
This is just a statement about the existence of a basis for an arbitrary vector field.
I think I used choice above too
Well for one thing I used dimension at all
I feel like you should be able to prove that a countable direct sum of Qs isn't a direct product of Qs without choice
Idk
thanks yall :)
yes, the former is countable, the latter is uncountable, no?
no need to talk about dimension I think.
Oh lol that's exactly what I did above yeah
I was just getting worried because I overcomplicated things
lol
I don't need to reduce to the case of a countable direct product
I mean, you'd need to show it's not a finite direct product but then you can use dimension
yeah, and no need to even formalise dimension for infinite dim vsps either, just mention existence of a finite spanning set, none can exist for the countable direct sum for obvious reasons.
Yep
Can one of you guys look at the image I sent earlier?
It's about modules and showing that there is a bijection between F[x] modules of V and the linear transformations of V
Yeah the thing you want holds by definition of your two operators, right?
It does?
Oh sorry I see
So you need to assume that the F[x] structure is compatible with the vector space structure
So the map F[x] × V -> V should be F-bilinear
Or rather the restriction to F×V should be the existing scalar multiplication map
Are we supposed to assume this or does it follow from the axioms of modules?
No you have to assume this
I mean, otherwise you just start with a vector space and then throw out all the vector space structure
Right?
Like, why assume it's a vector space at all
You could have two nonisomorphic vector spaces whose underlying sets are in bijection
And they would give a counterexample to this theorem
But you do use the vector space structure
When defining the action induced by the transformation T, you use scalar product with the coefficients of the polynomial
Right, so consider the following proposition
"Given a vector space V over F, the set of F-linear transformations V -> V and the set of F[x] module structures on the underlying set of V are in bijection"
Is that what you're trying to prove?
in the scratch paper you showed above, it looked like you started with both an F[x]-module structure and a vector space structure on V
Ah I think I see what you're trying to say
but in this page on dummit and foote, you start with an F[x] module structure and then construct both the linear transformation T and the vector space structure
I think this is an awkward way to present it tbh
I think of it as starting with a vector space structure on V and looking at F[x] module structure which extend that
but they're equivalent
neither is what you're doing though
if I understand correctly
So is it something like this
Given a F[x] module V, we can define operations to make V a vector space over F and define T a transformation on said vector space which induces the module action that we began with
I would say something slightly different
"Given a F[x] module V, we can define operations to make V a vector space over F and define T a transformation on said vector space"
and then "Given a vector space V over F and a transformation T on V, we can define a F[x] module structure on V"
and then that these processes are inverse
instead of trying to do it all at once
But this does not imply that the module structure at the end is the same as the one we started with
that's what I mean by "and then that these processes are inverse"
Oh okay
I'm just saying define both separately first
and then establish that they define a bijection
Okay so the idea is that one can define F vector space operations using F[x] module operations and vice versa
yup
if you can show that these are inverses, yeah
Thanks for the help
np
wanna see a gross but funny abuse of notation 👀
F^n = n^F (caution, just a meme don't hate)
If F is a field and n is a natural number, specifically a von Neumann ordinal, the n-th dimensional vector space over F is isomorphic to the vector space of functions from n={0,1,...,n-1} to F.
But the set of functions from A to B is written B^A?
oh fuck 😂
yeah I was wondering why it was the opposite of the cardinality for finite sets
the reason is its not and I just remembered it wrong lmaoo
too bad the notation is indistinguishable then so I can't make a shitty meme
Why is R^n/IR^n considered an n dimensional vectorspace over R/IR? Is it because R^n/IR^n ≊ +^n R/IR and if I is the maximal ideal then IR is also the maximal ideal of R thus R/IR is a field.
Since for a given ring R, R^n is a module over itself we have that +^n R/IR is an n-dimensional VS over R/IR.
what does +^n R/IR mean
The direct sum over R/IR n times: \oplus
What is considered an R/I-module?
R^n/IR^n
Well, because for a given ring K, K^n is a module over K. Set K = R/I = R/IR
Then we have that (R/IR)^n is a module over R/IR
Since R/IR is a field, we have that the former is VS
I mean you're identifying R^n/IR^n with (R/I)^n there, but yeah
And F^n is an n-dimensional F vector space
No. (R/I)^n is the set of n-tuples of cosets of elements of R by I, whereas R^n/IR^n is the set of cosets of tuples of elements of R^n by IR^n
Anyways, I'm not sure what your question is
Well I am supposed to show that R^n/IR^n is an n dimensional vectorspace where I is a maximal ideal in a ring R
Didn't you do that above?
Yeah that's what I was asking whether my explanation makes sense
Then yeah, R^n/IR^n is isomorphic to (R/I)^n as R/I-modules, with the obvious R/I-module structure on each. Since I is maximal, R/I is a field, so modules over it are just vector spaces
If I want to lay out the isomorphism it would be this right,
R/IR ≊ R/I
Then
R^n/IR^n ≊⊕^n R/IR ≊ ⊕^n R/I ≊ (R/I)^n
IR = I, so the first thing is just an equality
Oh yeah yeah! Sorry
Yes yes. Thanks!
Hello!
I am wondering if anyone know the idea behind general tensor multiplication of modules
in specific
M and N are R-modules
and the _S is extension of scalars
so the first step is normal
write extension by definition
associativity of R tensor products
then fron 2nd to 3rd expression we again use definition of extension of scalars
to get
((M_S \otimes_S S)\otimes_R N)
zavzav:
does anyone know a proof of why that is isomorphic to
,$ M_S\otimes_S(S\otimes_R N)
zavzav:
I only know associativity for tensors over same space
take the bilinear product : (m (x) s, s' (x) n) -> ((m (x) s) (x) s') (x) n
hmmmm thank you I will think about it and come back when I write it all out
so using this bilinear and it generates a tensor product
it's probably a natural isomorphism, then check for natural morphism you can write
I would like to understand these equations but there seems to be some abuse of notion I am not aware of.
I guess R is a subring of S and M and N are R-modules.
So then you have $M_S$ that is a S-module so $M_S \otimes_S S$ makes sense (by using S both for the ring and the S-module that it gives rise to). But then we should have $M_S \otimes_S S \simeq M_S$.
Then I cannot make sense of $(M_S \otimes_S S) \otimes_R N$
Since the left part is a S-module but $\otimes_R$ ask for a R-module.
nicolas-blanco:
if R is a subring of S, then any S module is canonically an R module by restricting scalars
M and N are R-modules by definition
M and N are S-modules by extension of scalars using phi: R->S
so the full question is
M extended to module over S tensor N extended to S
(M_S\otimes_S N_S)
zavzav:
and you have to check if you get the same if you do M x N as modules over R first
and then extend scalars after
Oh, of course! Thanks for the clarifications.
but R is not a subring of S here
just exists a map from R->S which we use
oh ok
erm, so I'm a but confused about this equality here :
what exactly is the group $$ (Z^{X}_n, . ) $$
Der Gegenstand ist einfach.:
(everything else is clear btw)
It's the group they just defined, U(n)
but what is Z^{x}_n ?
Maybe they had previously defined it?
I don't know
What reference is this?
(Great reference by the way ! Clear and concise with plenty of examples)
(It is made up of someone's math notes from when they were studying maths... he compiled all his TeX notes into a website)

@gilded trellis the x denotes the group of units of a ring
so, it is the integers mod n that have a multiplicative inverse in Z_n
Does anybody have a good practice problem for irreducibility criterion stuff? I'm trying to write a problem set and accidentally reused "find all irreducible polynomials of degree <= 4 over F2"
Most eisenstein's criterion stuff is too easy
The one nontrivial example I know is the cyclotomic one, which is done in dummit and foote
@final gulch heh, I haven't studied rings yet ... but I'll keep that in mind and go back to this when I do ! thanks 😊
This isn't helpful if they don't know what a ring is
this is the definition from page 226 of Dummit & Foote
I did say what it is in the case of Z_n
I'm just explaining what the notation refers to and what keywords they could use to look it up
oh, I was familiar with this notation : (G,x,+) (or smth like that)
(from what I've seen)
@latent anvil there are some rather difficult irreducibility problems here: http://yufeizhao.com/olympiad/intpoly.pdf. You can also probably make some stuff up involving Hensel's lemma.
@final gulch I'll leave that for later ... heh
I'm still struggling with groups... erm
stuck at the coset section again
Artin's Corollary 6.15
here :
I got confused at 6.14
and I'm currently looking for another resource that proves 6.15 (and elucidates 6.14)
what should I google for ?
First isomorphism theorem
Well hang on
Do you know that the set of cosets forms a groups?
yeah
Then yeah, first isomorphism theorem
only when you take a normal subgroup!
However, the kernel of a homomorphism is always normal
I get a lot of information overload whilst reading this so... It's hard to remember everything
but doing exercises would help me remember later when I finish reading
Usually when I feel like that it's because I'm rushing through without really digesting it
And forcing myself to do exercises helps
I've only done some of the exercises for section 1 of chapter 2 : groups
(and almost all of the exercises for chapter 1 : matrices)
should I do the exercises per section ?
or per chapter ?
I'm not sure how your book is laid out
If there are exercises at the end of each section, do them before moving on to the next
Is this Artin's algebra? Are you self-studying?
there are exercises at the end of each chapter
Is this Artin's algebra? Are you self-studying?
@cold flint yeah ...
I asked for a resource on Group theory
and someone recommended Artin's algebra
so I went with it .. heh
(we were supposed to study it but schools are closed ...)
(and our maths teacher is basically sending us notes and exercises and nothing else..)
That's tough
:""""(
heh, I'll try to do that from now on
even though it is a pain and I feel more like reading on whilst I'm doing them ...
You don't have to do all of them. I've used the book and I know there's a lot
yep
I think it's a very good book but very hard to self-study
60+ on the section on matrices ...
actually, I've also been using harvard's lectures (old ones) because they use the same book
but I've gotten so confused by them starting from lecture 6 (and 5 a bit) that I just decided to drop them
Joseph Gallian has a nice book which is probably a bit easier. Also, if you're interested in just reading a more casual, intuitive book on group theory, there's the book Visual Group Theory
I thought about switching books
but I'm a bit worried about losing motivation and just dropping it all together ...
(happened to me before)
I wouldn't suggest it tbh. If you're mostly self studying you need to be consistent
exactly !
It's easy to get wrapped up in this kind of stuff and never get off the ground
If you have more specific questions about coset stuff, we can try to help
I thought about switching books
gallian's text is good if you want handholding (but the majority of exercises aren't really helpful imo)
Hmm, I'll keep that in mind :3 (btw, you can just @mention me heh)
Hello, I am stuck on this problem. I is a nilpotent ideal in R and M and N are R-modules (not finitely generated!). The right implication is trivial, but I get stuck on the other one.
I have tried writing out some definitions, but all I can get is that for all (m\in M) exists (n\in N) s.t. (m - \phi(n) \in IM), and I'm not sure how to proceed from this (or if I even can)
Muf:
So you know all $m$ is in the set $\phi(N) + IM$. Show it is in fact in the set $\phi(N)+I^2M$. Then keep going and use nilpotency...
4c:
I see, I will try, thank you 😄
I dont understand what this is asking
how are the roots of x^p - x closed under addition?
cuz (a+b)^p=a^p+b^p in Fp(since it has characteristic p)
The roots of x^p - x are all contained in \overline{F}_p
so you just want to show that they're all actually in F_p
Should 22 have that R be commutative?
if G = p^a for a>=1 and prime p then G must have a nontrivial center
proof:
|G| = |Z(G)| + sum(|G|:C_G(g_i)) from i = 1 to n
where g_1 , g_2 , g_3 .. are representatives of conjugacy classes
p^a = |Z(G)| + sum(p^a:G_C(g_i)) from i =1 to n
p must divide sum(p^a:G_C(g_i))
and also p must divide |Z(G)| hence Z(G) is non trivial
i dont understand this proof
why must p divide them both?
Is there a way you can rewrite [G: C_G(g_i)]?
yeah, and what is |G|
p^a
for somea
oh okay lmao
yea yea
bad
and it must divide Z(G) cuz Z(G) is a subgroup or what?
or its bcause p divides p^a
so it must divide both the terms?
p divides p^a
yea
and it also divides the sum
i struggle with finding things directly
like i struggle with finding the center of some group
or the conjugacy classes
how would you do this in exercsies
for small groups mostly
ugh i struggle with 90% of problems is it just practice?
i get the content in the explanation but i just cant do problems
one of my homework problems asks me to find the complete factorization of x^27 - x over F_3[x]
In class we've already proven a nice theorem which implies that it's essentially x(x-1)(x-1)(all the degree 3 irreducible polynomials)
But how to find the (all degree 3 irreducible polynomials)? There are 81 potential degree 3 polynomials which are irreducible. And trying to directly factorize x^27 - x hasn't proven very fruitful (you can easily get a product of 2 degree 12 polynomials, but stuck there).
(I'm still a newbie to abstract algebra but I've found a similar question to yours in maths stack exchange : https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1160050/to-factorize-x27-x-over-mathbb-f-3 )
(I don't even know what irreducible polynomials are and what they have to do with divisibility but .. you know... heh)
@jolly crypt there’s actually not as many candidates. first you can restrict yourself to monic polynomials since otherwise you can just divide by the leading factor anyway. that leaves just 27 polynomials. And then to find all the irreducible ones you can just find all the reducible ones (which is easier cause they must have a linear term so it’s just the set of multiples of an irreducible linear poly times a quadratic poly). and then take the complement
it’s still tedious but far from undoable at that point
(i don’t know if there’s a nicer approach)
oh yea the answer in the stackexchange thread would be a bit faster to work through I reckon
what is the notation for splitting field of some polynomial over some field K
Is there a way to write that or do I have to say it like I just did everytime
I’m not aware of a standard notation but I’d just write $\mathrm{sf}_K(f)$
Sascha Baer:
leaving off the subscript if it’s clear
the answers to this are (a) , (b) and (d) right ?
yep
I've stumbled upon this document: https://sites.math.washington.edu/~colling/Teaching/402a08HW1sol.pdf which has a correction of that question and in which it is stated that (e) is a subgroup
which really threw me in for a loop
those matrices arent even in GL_2 (R) tho lol
and empty set cannot be a group, cause no identity
np
btw, do you listen to anything whilst doing maths ?
I've been listening to some music but I've tired of it recently
and audiobooks ... are difficult because it's hard to focus on them
depends on how im feeling, sometimes i like musik while math, sometimes i like the quiet
music while math? more like music is math https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=F7bKe_Zgk4o
audio: "Music is Math" by Boards of Canada, from their album "Geogaddi".
video sampled from "The Big Bounce", "20,000 Leagues Under the Sea" and amateur film footage of the 1939 New York World's Fair.
debatable but not here
Are both these answers correct?
these question don't really seem to have too much alg but it was in my alg book. let me know if I should post somewhere else
Maybe the analysis channel?
I remember someone asking the same question maybe a week ago
with the same page from the same book
maybe you can search and find their discussion
Given a left (unital) module A (which is also a ring w/ identity 1_A) such that r•(ab) = (r•a)b = a(r•b) for all r in R, and a,b in A, prove that f: R -> A defined by f(r) = r•1_A is a homorphism making A an R-algebra
Is the question missing the hypothesis that R is commutative?
Because I don't think one can derive commutativity from the given hypothesis and an R-algebra is only defined when R is commutative
@final gulch where?
quick question that might seem stupid but I need to be sure of something :
If H is a cyclic subgroup of G generated by two elements a,b... then is $$ H = { a^{m}b^{n} and b^{m}a^{n} ; m,n \in \mathbb{Z} } $$ ?
Der Gegenstand ist einfach.:
then is H what
?
oh you mean is that how H looks like?
a^m b^n yeah
thats fine
no need to add that 'and sth'
its already in the first one
I mean
if m or n is negative ? or ..?
if its cyclic its generated by one
cyclic means its generated by 1 element
so cant say cyclic generated by 2 elements I think
okay, so just to avoid the XY Problem
erm
here is the original question :
wait,
oh
I phoqued up
😐
😔
the question didn't mention cyclic anywhere... :3
yep thoght so
ok, then its set of all elements a^m b^n for m,n in Z
uwu
I agree
hh
@chilly ocean hmm: this maths stack exchange thread's answer defines H as follows :
oh yeah I mean its all combinations
yep it makes more sense that way
since we haven't proven the group is abelian (yet)
I mean
anyways, just wanted to let you know 😊
yeah right
ah
(It's just that I sent the message as soon as you said "I mean" so I'm sorry for interrupting you. Gomennashai )
lol its ok we cool mate
kay uwu
Show that if the center of a group G is of index n in G, then every conjugacy class of G has
at most n elements.
proof : the number of elements in a conjugacy class is |G|/|C_G(g_i)) where g_i is a representative of the conjugacy class ( an element in it )
|G|/|Z(G)| = n
Z(G) is a subset of C_G(g_i) ( smaller in size ig lmao )
hence |G|/|C_G(g_i)) <= n
is that right?
( i made a mistake i thoguht Z(G) is bigger than C_G(g_i) )
okay took me a little bit to see why the conjugacy class has size |G|/|C_G(g_i)| (it is probably a standard argument, ||conjugation action of G on itself||)
but yes that argument works
to show what you wanted
Let R be a commutative ring. Prove Hom(R,R) (over the ring R) is isomorphic to R as a ring
Are we supposed to assume that the left module action on R by R is just the ring multiplication?
thats what is usually assumed
Alright. Just wanted to clear that up
Is it possible to make R a module over R by defining the action as something else
I guess negative of the product might work
What kind of structure on R do you want to preserve?
Like, take any other module whose underlying set had the same cardinality
You can transport the structure of that
lol I didn't want to be rude
Scalar multiplication gives a map R×R -> R, which distributes over everything in the right way
But you already have such a map
Guess the lack of sleep is starting to become evident
Did you figure out your earlier questions about algebras?
Not really
I just assumed that the book forgot to mention that R is commutative
Though I would be really grateful if you could look at it and see if I'm right
I'm not sure about how to proceed with my proof here :
Let V and H be two cyclic subgroups of G. |G| = n and |V| = |H| = r.
thus V = < a^{v} > and H = < a^{h} > for some v, h in Z and a in G. (The subgroups of a cyclic group are also cyclic).
we have :
$$
(a^{v})^{r} = 1 = (a^{h})^{r} \Rightarrow a^{r(v-h)} = 1
\Rightarrow v \equiv h \mod n
$$
Der Gegenstand ist einfach.:
Can I just conclude because we're working with a cyclic group that V and H are equal ?
(here is my proof for there being at least a cyclic group of order r :
let G = <a> be a cyclic group of order n
|G| = n
thus a^{n} = e the identity element of G.
we have r/n => there exists k of Z such that n = rk.
a^{n} = 1 => (a^{k})^{r} = 1. as such we can conclude that there exists H a cyclic subgroup of G of order r;
H = <a^{k}>
)
(currently doing exercises for the subgroup section so I can't use LaGrange's theorem or morphisms)
@gilded trellis do you not have to prove that the subgroups are cyclic?
no
that was already proven in the previous question
so I can just use that result
Okay then do you not have to prove that if a has finite order n, then so a^s has order n/gcd(n,s)
I've proven that above ... heh (I think that's a good proof for it)
(here is my proof for there being at least a cyclic group of order r :
let G = <a> be a cyclic group of order n
|G| = n
thus a^{n} = e the identity element of G.
we have r/n => there exists k of Z such that n = rk.
a^{n} = 1 => (a^{k})^{r} = 1. as such we can conclude that there exists H a cyclic subgroup of G of order r;
H = <a^{k}>
)
this..
Can I just conclude because we're working with a cyclic group that V and H are equal ?
Why can you conclude that from the congruence relation?
I mean it is true, but something is missing in this proof
Because you have shown that a subgroup exists, though not this
Okay then do you not have to prove that if a has finite order n, then so a^s has order n/gcd(n,s)
That every element has this order
So that you can conclude this from the congruence
ah, okay, thanks ! I'll look into proving that statement and I'll get back to you. (I have something else to do, so I'll get to it once I'm done with that heh...)
Can somebody justify the “natural “ consideration
Secondly what do they mean by distinguishing N from the coefficients
it just means you don't take coefficients in S for elements of N yet
What do you mean by the natural question
I mean they say it's natural to consider the free Z-module, so , the collection of all finite commuting sums. I guess we need commuting to ensure the abelian structure in the image. Why the finiteness though? Is it so the sum remains well-defined (don't have to bother with convergence bs of the series)?
Also how does that distinguish N? I thought it had to do with the fact that writing sn as a formal product still leads me to have a copy of N inside S x N. But I wasn't sure
you always impose finiteness; e.g. in a vector space. For instance Z has no infinite elements...
I think you're overthinking the word distinguish; it's just meant to restate the "no relations" phrase
Oh and to get that part right as well, when they say no relations, they just mean there doesn't exist an s and n, such that sn = s_1n_1 +s_2n_2 right?
not exactly. It's just literally S x N. If you know what the direct product is then just consider it as an abelian group (i.e. Z-module) and you can forget whatever's confusing you.
Oh okay. I understand now. Thanks.
One more thing: if an author says the module S ⊗ N is generated as an S-module by elements of the form 1 ⊗n, what they mean is that for any element s ⊗n, we have s ⊗n =s(1 ⊗ n). Correct?
That is indeed true but not exactly equivalent to that statement
I'm having a bit of trouble understanding normal subgroups. Does anyone have any examples of them that might help me understand their purpose/use?
If I understand correctly, every element in a normal subgroup can be written as a conjugate by an element in the parent group?
Another alternative definition is that normal subgroups are exactly the kernels of group homomorphisms
And normal subgroups are the only subgroups you can mod out by
If you conjugate a normal subgroup (element-wise) by any element, you end up getting the same group. Conjugate subgroups can be considered "the same" in some sense; from this perspective normal subgroups are unique subgroups.
@cold flint So if I have something in a normal subgroup, it can be written as conjugate by an element in the parent group and stay in the subgroup. If I conjugate the element, it can still be written as a conjugate by an element in the parent group additionally and stay in the subgroup. So essentially I can conjugate elements in a normal subgroup by an element in the parent group as many times as I please and it stays in the subgroup?
@mild laurel So for any homomorphism, the kernel is a normal subgroup? As in, elements which get mapped to the identity can always be written as a conjugate by an element in the original group?
@ripe crest That's the next section in my text, so I assume it'll make more sense after I finish.
a normal subgroup is the kernel of some homomorphism
to make quotient groups you need normality
you need normality so that the operation defined on the quotient space is well defined
quotient groups are helpful to study groups ig
@toxic zephyr exactly. And saying the kernel is normal means if you take all those elements mapping to zero and conjugate them, they will still map to 0.
This is pretty easy to see, since if $f(g)=1$, then $f(h^{-1}gh)=f(h^{-1})\cdot 1 \cdot f(h)=f(1)=1$ (writing identity = 1).
4c:
Oh of course! That makes so much sense. Thank you!
Yep! This also shows why you can only mod out by a normal subgroup if you want to get a quotient group, because if $G/H$ is a group, then $H$ is the kernel of the natural projection $G\rightarrow G/H$.
4c:
Or, if you want a more concrete argument, if $H$ isn't normal, i.e. $gHg^{-1}$ contains $a\not\in H$, then if you want to define a group action on cosets as $g_1H \cdot g_2H = g_1g_2H$, then you will fail as $gH \cdot g^{-1}H$ contains $aH$ and thus $a$, but it's supposed to just be $H$ which doesn't include $a$.
4c:
if i have 2 permutations in S_n for some n ( x and y )
and both are conjugate
x = zyz^-1 for some permutation z
then both have same order?
and ig if both are conjugate
then they both generate the same orbit
am i right?
me new sorry
Any two conjugates in any group have the same order
Conjugation by a fixed element is an automorphism and automorphisms preserve order
It's not true that they'll have the same orbit. Let x = (12) and y = (23). Then (132)x(132)^(-1) = (132)(12)(123) = (23) = y, but x and y definitely don't have the same orbit
idk what automorphisms yet
okay
i got the second paragraph
i am abit fuzzy with classes and group actions in general
okay well
what wanted to get at
was pctually proving htis
Any two conjugates in any group have the same order
and my argument was like
using a cool theorem that i learnt ( and never saw its use )
that every group is isomorphic to a subgroup of S_n
@solemn rain actually, you don't need that, let them be a, b with orders n, m respectively, WLOG $n\leq m$. Then $a=cbc^{-1}$, so $e=a^n=cb^nc^{-1}$, so it follows that $b^n=e$, hence $n=m$ and we are done.
Element118:
oh
(xbx^-1)^n = xb^nx^-1
u shoudl ahve said that cuz im slow XD
but here is the important part
if cl(a) = cl(b)
where cl(a) = {gag^-1 | for all g is in G }
why is it that a and b are conjugate
if a, b are in the same conjugacy class, then they are conjugate
@solemn rain what's your definition of conjugate?
a and b are called conjugate if there exists a g in G such that a=gbg^-1
Hey guys, you can only partition non-empty sets right?
the empty set is a partition of the empty set
Is it the only partition
yes
I thought partitions were only defined on non-empty sets
depedns on definition i suppose, but i've always seen it defined such that the only partition of {} is {}
wikipedia agrees with me, and doesnt mention any alternative notion
What about an equivalence relation
Can you define an equivalencr relation on the empty set
You have to right?
Because every partition defines an equivalence relation
yes, the empty relation
(notice that the empty relation is vacuously transitive and symmetric, but only reflexive if the underlying set is the empty set)
I'm trying to prove using PMI that sigma from i=1 to n of (3i-2) equals (n/2)(3n-1) for all natural numbers n.
In the example my professor gave there was a series written out (1 + 3 + ... + (2n-1) = n^2)
And maybe it's just the notation that is throwing me off, but I'm really stumped with what to do
this is more #proofs-and-logic or maybe #discrete-math
Oh sorry, i'm in intro to abstraction i thought this was the right channel
i'll move
Oh okay. I understand now. Thanks.
One more thing: if an author says the module S ⊗ N is generated as an S-module by elements of the form 1 ⊗n, what they mean is that for any element s ⊗n, we have s ⊗n =s(1 ⊗ n). Correct?
That is indeed true but not exactly equivalent to that statement
@cold flint Can you expand on what it would be equivalent to ?
Or saying generates here just is equivalent to saying that a module is finitely generated over the ring S?
it also mean that every element of $S \otimes N$ is a finite sum of elements of the form $s \otimes n$
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻:
You mean 1 ⊗ n, correct?
no I mean $s \otimes n$, because as you noted, $s.(1 \otimes n) = s \otimes n$
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻:
Oh it also mean that, gotcha
sure, but -3=2 in Z_5 so that would make it easier
ohh so do f (2)
what does the remainder theorem say
no, I already know the answer
I want you to tell me what it says
not just copy paste from the book
ohh, hmm i have trouble explaining it in my words D:
in your solution, what are you testing for
like, what about the answer to that calculation would tell you "yes" or "no"
for the question
hmm
I'm not really sure how id go about this proof
"show that if an element of a ring has more than one right inverse then it has infinitely many"
i get that im probably supposed to do like, ua = ub = 1 or something, and then try to construct a new one out of a and b maybe?
but im not rly sure how id go about that
Maybe note that u(aub) = (ua)(ub) = 1
And keep generating infinitely many inverses this way
In other words, if x,y are right inverses, then so is xuy
Hmm what about u(a+a-b)? Which exists since (R,+) is an abelian group?
i mean, sure it exists but
how do we know its an inverse
:c
or
wait
ua + ua - ub
yes
so na - (n-1) b
np
oh wait
@tribal pasture what happens if your group is finite though
then theres a finite # of n for which na and (n-1)b are distinct
great does this mean i have to prove that if u is in a ring w/ two distinct right inverses the ring is infinite ._.
I don't see any reason why would it hold true in that case, because the right inverse must exist in your group which is finite. So you already have an upper bound
ye probs
Goodluck
yike
I think the contrapositive would be easier. Ring is finite imply that [ ua = ub =1 => a=b]

If my axes are (x=w, y=dB), and I have a point at (w=195,dB=19.4) how can I figure out when a line with a slope of +20dB/decade will cross y-axis at (w=1)?
this is not abstract algebra
see #prealg-and-algebra or a generic questions channel
Got you, thanks
all algebra is abstract
idk if i messed up the algebra please help
let G be a group
if phi is in Aut(G) and f_g is conjugation by g prove phi(f_g)(phi)^-1 = f_phi(g)
proof:
f_g = gxg^-1 for x in G
phi(gxg^-1)phi^-1 = phi(g)phi(x)phi(g)^-1phi = phi(g)phi(x)phi^-1phi(g) = phi(g)phi(x)g = phi(g)phi(x)phi(g)^-1 = f_phi(g) for some phi(x) in G ( surjective )
is that right?
iirc phi should map an element to its inverse
phi(f_g) ?
what
if phi is in Aut(G) and f_g is conjugation by g prove phi(f_g)(phi)^-1 = f_phi(g)
wtf is phi(f_g) ?
ah yes
correct?
f_g : a--> gag^-11?
yes
oh my god
just no
wtf is wrong
phi is an element
f_g is a function
please never write fg(something) or phi(something) where something is not an element of G
phi is not an element, it's an automorphism of G
fg is also an automorphism of G
okay
you can compose them
usually by writing a ° or a \circ
between them
but you can't apply one to the other
that makes no sense
you want to prove phi ° f_g ° phi^-1 is f_phi(g)
okay ?
no ??
so the thing on the left is one automorphism
and the thing on the irght is god knows what
well
if you want to prove that two automorphisms F1 and F2 are equal
the only thing you need to do
is to show that forall g in G, F1(g) = F2(g)
okay bad letter choice from me
is to show that forall a in G, F1(a) = F2(a)
g is already taken
you want to prove that phi ° f_g ° phi^-1 is f_phi(g)
so you have to show that forall a in G, ( phi ° f_g ° phi^-1 ) (a) = ( f_{phi(g)}) (a)
yea okay
i always have problem with this
knowing what this means
when there is literally no operation
is f_g ° phi^-1 f_g(phi^-1)?
phi^-1 isnt in G
so i cant say that
how am i going to do itt then XDDD
(f ° g) (a) is f(g(a)), that's the definition of composition
yeae
so you have to show that forall a in G, phi ( f_g ( phi^-1 (a))) = f_{phi(g)} (a)
now you use the definition of f_g and f_{phi(g)} since it's the only thing you can do
yes
whats fgh
like in the exercise
its just written phif_gphi^-1
what does this mean then
they omit the °
because it's clear from context
that the operation there is composition
I may not know the notation. What does φ_σ(g) represent?
the input is x
Oh I see
okay then why
no
@hot lake
I probably said no because one side was an automorphism of G with no input given and the other side was an element of G
fgh is an automorphism of G with no input given
i alwaays hve this fuckign prob;em
when dealign with permutaion groups too
it just says phi XD
no input nothing
and i get confused
f(g(h(x))) is the element of G that you obtain when you take x, apply h to it, take the result, apply g to it, take the result, and finally apply f to it
okay
okay
ty
another problem just wanan check
if G is an abelian group of order pq,where p and q are distinct primes, then G is cyclic
proof: suppose G is an abelian group of order pq where p and q are distinct primes
p | |G| and q | |G|
by cauchy there exists elements x and y such that x^p = y^q = 1
consier (xy)^pq
(xy)^pq = (x^pq)(y^pq) ( abelian )
= 1
hence G = <xy>
correct?
no o..o
ph my god

