#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 442 of 407
MaxJ:
$\sum f^{-1}(\alpha_i f(b_i))=0$
MaxJ:
and then?
$\sum \alpha_i f f^{-1}((b_i))=0 \implies \sum \alpha_i b_i=0 $
Katydid:
are all equal to zero
And that's what we needed to show!
i dont get why $ f^{-1}(0) = 0 $
Katydid:
if $f$ is linear then $f(0)=0$
MaxJ:
oh that was the key
$f(0)=f(0+0)=f(0)+f(0)=0$
MaxJ:
and since it's bijective only f(0) = 0
Yeah
Fun fact
The amount of things that f sends to 0 for any linear function f
measures exactly how "not injective" f is
this only works in vector spaces and similar structures, tho
isnt that the "f is injective if kernel(f) = {0} "
To see why: if $f(a)=f(b)$ then $f(a)-f(b)=0$ and $f(a-b)=0$. If $a=b$ then $a-b=0$ and this makes sense. But if not, then $f(a-b)=0$ means something extra gets sent to 0$
and yes
i never thought about it like that
Also the statement that if $f:A\to B$ then $\text{image } f \cong A/\ker f$
MaxJ:
where / is a quotient, dunno if you have seen those
It's the second isomorphism theorem
that will be helpful
this was really really helpful too
i really appreciate the help, many thanks
np anytime
the intuition there by the way
is that image f should look like A
except sometimes f isn't injective
the kernel deals with that
im f = A / ker f
is the first isomorphism theorem 🤔
Wait is it
oh fuck lmao
my b
I've always thought of it as the second for some reason
Anyone know Bézout’s identity?
The number of intersections of 2 curves in CP^n is the product of their degrees, counting multiplicity?
Why is S3 a subgroup of S4?
Because Sn is the group of permutations of a 4 element set. Consider those that fix the 4th element of this set.
This subset forms a subgroup and is isomorphic to S3 in a natural way.
@hazy flint technically it's not
Let $V, W, K$ be irreducible representations of $S_n$, $S_m$ and $S_k$. I want to show that: $Ind_{S_{n+m} \times S_k}^{S_{n+m+k}}( Ind_{S_n \times S_m}^{S_{n+m}}(V \otimes W) \otimes K) = Ind_{S_n \times S_{m+k}}^{S_{n+m+k}}(V \otimes Ind_{S_m \times S_k}^{S_{n+k}}(W \otimes K))$. Do you have any hints?
emme:
S3 can be identified with a subgroup of S4
in a lot of higher math we tend to talk about structures up to isomorphism
The number of elements in $N(Z_n)$ is one, which is the element 0, as only $0^k =0mod n$. Is this correct ?
Otoro:
Then is it m elements ?
Also no @winter vigil
Any hints? I think I dont understand what the question is asking, sorry
Have you done the proof step?
Let m=4. Then 2 is in the nilradical
But for example 1 is not
1 will never be in the nilradical for obvious reasons
So no unit is in the nilradical
Think about the nilradical for prime powers
@winter vigil these are just some things to think about
Is this proof correct @mild laurel
No? How do you get that n divides m?
@winter vigil
2^2 = 0 mod 4, but 4 doesn't divide 2
Maybe he doesn't know that unique factorization doesn't hold in Z_n for n not prime
But then doesn't unique factorization is all primes ?
@winter vigil What are you asking?
Wait I mean, m is a multiple of primes ??
Well if m is a multiple of primes, then one of the prime divides m doesn't it
one of what primes
Prime in the uniqur factorization
unique factorization of what
Wait, sorry, is a certain amount of primes from n, divide m, then it is in the nilpotent set ?
But as n is a multiple of primes, then Z_n is the integers mod p right ?
Prime
what prime
Wait sorry, mod of the product of the primes
The product of what primes
The primes of n
You really need to be more exact with your language
I'm sorry
It's still not mod the product of the primes
You have to take the primes to the correct powers
Causr I don't really understand what I am doing to be honest
Then you should figure out what you're confused about and try figuring that out?
Instead of trying to do a problem where you have no idea what's happening
Well, here goes.
So n is a just a number represented by primes. m is a number where m^k=0mod n. As m^k is divisible by n, m^k=jn. Then m^k=j*(p_1^k_1 p_2^k_2 ... p_m^k_m)
Therefore m^(k-1)m = j(p_1^k_1 ... p_m^k_m).
Hence p_k divides m for all k=1,2,...,m.
Is this ok for "only if" ?
Yeah this still definitely doesn't work
you should try to not give m two different meanings
also the question has a typo where they have a m instead of j
Oh so the amount of primes, j, is an element itself in the nilpotent rings ?
Its alright haha, um its is from where m^k for some k, is divisible by n ?
what are you even saying
Well he said that there is a typo. So what I'm saying is that the m is replaced by a j, thus j itself as an element is divisible by primes from p1 to pj ??
(Q/Z)/Z = (Q/Z) right?
It depends what you mean by Z as a subgroup in Q/Z?
Uhhh
So i'm constructing a homomorphism from Q/Z to the multiplicative group of unity
such that
$\phi(\frac{p}{q} + \mathbb{Z}) = e^{ \frac{i2\pi p}{q}}$
And the kernel of this is Z itself, and I want to show that Q/Z is isomorphic to the multiplicative group of roots of unity in C^x
in this case if i quotient Q/Z by the kernel, is it still Q/Z?
Victoria:
The kernel of your homomorphism isn't really Z itself
It's the element 0 + Z of Q/Z
Which is just the 0 element of your group
And obviously if you quotient your group by the trivial subgroup, it'll stay the same
So yeah, writing it as (Q/Z)/Z isn't really accurate
Yeah kinda
The notation is a bit weird here but
Maybe (Q/Z)/({0 + Z}) would be a bit better
Also since the kernel is {Z}, where Z is the 0 of Q/Z, you could directly say Φ is injective
For this question, the orbit of S_3 on (1,1),(2,2)(3,3) is just (1,1),(2,2),(3,3) and the orbit of S_3 on (1,2) is everything else
Does that mean that the orbit of S_3 on any other element which isnt (1,1)(2,2)(3,3) is equivalent to the orbit of S_3 on (1,2)?
@fringe nexus yes because the orbits form a partition of the set (and each element is in its own orbit), so if two elements are in the same orbit their orbit is the same
In other words being in the orbit of is an equivalence relation
okie
i dont understand
what it means, find the cycle decomposition
im so confused
Each element of S_3 represents/is associated through the action to a permutation of the set Ω which has 9 elements
It asks to find for each σ in S_3 the cicle decomposition of the permutation in Sym(Ω) associated to σ
ok say we let a_1 = (1,1), a_2 = (2,2) a_3 = (3,3)
oh wait nvm i dont think i understand this
is this what it should be
Yes something like that, I don't know the full labelling you used so I can't compare results
ok that makes a lot more sense
Can i have some sort of hint for 2)?
idk why its so small
Stupid quick question, but if I show that this group is commutative , I can assume that it's abelian, right?
abelian means it's commutative
Ok
Yeah, I did a big dum where I went "I proved that this group is communtative... how do I prove that this is abelian?"
:P
@woven delta Liquid
How does unique factorization not hold for Z_n for n not prime
hmm...
So all ideals are principal, because we can easily Euclidean algorithm.
So the ideals are just (a), where a is a positive factor of n.
(p) would form maximal ideals, where p is a prime factor of n.
and this isn't even an integral domain due to all the zero divisors
You probably exclude 0 from factorisation, right?
but yeah, maybe we can consider the factorisation of a zero divisor...
There is no way of factoring zero right ? I mean zero with a nonzero object is still zero
That's not what factoring means
how do i apply homomorphism decomposition theorem on a homomorphism? what exactly do i have to show?
What decomposition theorem are you talking about?
thats the thing im not sure what it is it just says apply homomorphism decomposition theorem. from what i see i have to define some sort of diagram
cant find anything online
will do
@winter vigil Hint: look at Z_6
Probably the decomposition theorem is that you can decompose a homomorphism as a injection and a surjection or something
Which is true because of the first isomorphism theorem
You quotient out the kernel to get the image, and then imbed that into the space
So I guess it's a surjection, then an injection
@sweet moat does that help?
What was the question actually?
Is the additive group of Q isomorphic to the multiplicative group of Q^+?
Well Q^*
is that positive Q or non zero Q
Non zero Q
non zero Q includes -1
so 1 = (-1)^2
if theres an Iso then theres some b in Q
f(b) = -1
1 = f(b)^2 = f(2b)
but 1 = f(0)
that implies b=0
so f(0) = -1 and f(0) = 1
Ok 👌
@smoky cypress did you discover anything else?
😅 not really
I figured out that Z can't be isomorphic to the multiplicative group of nonzero Q
That's true...
for a rational r, can you solve 2x = r in Q?
Yes
ok, and if you have an isomorphism with the multiplicative group of positive rationals, what happens to this equation?
f(2)+f(x)=f(r)?
no, f(x + x) = f(x)*f(x)
yes but I meant to apply the equation 2x = r on the additive side not the multiplicative side 😂
it tells you that the image is closed under taking any kind of roots you want
?
oh wait the right side is always positive
and x+x can take on all the values over rationals
because 2x=r is solvable
so the isomorphism is not surjective
for example if f is an isomorphism, let f(x) = 2, then f(x/2)^2 = f(x/2 + x/2) = f(x) = 2
Oh sick we learnin abstract
which you know is not possible
@smoky cypress there is actually a first order sentence which tells apart (Q, +) and (Q^+, *)
Which I guess is what Seoin just said
So in particular they are not elementarily equivalent in terms of model theory
Which implies they are not isomorphic
Whether you can find a first order formula that distinguishes 2 structures is something that is well studied
w h a t
@tame bear what?
@tame bear yeah I don't speak metamath either 😂
model theory
more like lmaodel theory
yay model theory
I'm surprised that you can find a first order formula to tell two structures apart
Something like that seems a lot more difficult
I did some searching and the only other way I found to distinguish (Q,+) and (Q^+,*) was that the latter has a minimal set of generators given by the positive primes, but the former has no minimal set of generators
You can't always
For example Algebraically closed fields of the same characteristic are all elementarily equivalent
Also lowenheim skolem tells you that there are elementarily equivalent structures of every infinite cardinality
Model theory is useful though
I wouldn't call it just metamath
So my friend asked me a question that I thought was initially poorly formed, but might have some more interesting implications.
He wanted to know what the average value of the real numbers was.
Now, I told him that this was poorly defined, and that you couldn't really assign a meaning to that.
But then I got to thinking.
Sure, the real numbers or the rationals didn't have a meaningful average, but could you reasonably define an average for other fields? Could only finite fields be assigned a meaningful average, or could something be formulated for fields in general? Could it tell us anything interesting?
What does the average even mean for a finite field
it can't be calculated in the field
I mean
if you add up every element of a finite field... each element is going to cancel with its additive inverse 😂
and you still divide by 0 afterwards
Huh, inverse elements would pose a problem
which doesn't make sense inside the field itself?
you're going to get 0 before you even have to think about division
Itll be like 0/|F| where 0 is the 0 of the field cuz every other element have a unique additive inverse
but |F| is not in the field
I mean, maybe you could do addition in the context of some other field structure? Like for the integers mod 5, sum up all the values as if they were regular numbers, and take the average from there?
well, problem is poorly defined
yeah
I have an idea. We give each element with a weight of 1. Then the average is 1. Yay!
xD
Or you can take the average of the orders of each element, that might be interesting
sounds like burnside if you ask me
Burnside?
in spite of all this sillyness
I actually do remember a professor using some kind of averaging over elements of a group
it was in the context of representation theory I think
I haven't thought about it for a few years so I've totally forgotten, but I know something like that was used
Burnside's lemma, sometimes also called Burnside's counting theorem, the Cauchy–Frobenius lemma, orbit-counting theorem, or The Lemma that is not Burnside's,
sum the squares
Here's an interesting input I have. Let's say you have the average of a set
A = (a + b + c +... n) / |n|
Then you want to add another into the set and know the new average.
(a + b + c +... n + m) / |n + 1|
= (n + 1)A/n + m/|n + 1|
My notation is terrible here but I hope I'm getting the idea across
$\frac{\sum_{a\in A}a}{|A|}$
Element118:
Could we use this to show that, as we add elements a certain way, we can get the average to go anywhere we want?
If $b\not\in A$, then $\frac{\sum_{a\in A\cup{b}}a}{|A|+1}=\frac{\sum_{a\in A}a}{|A|}\times\frac{|A|}{|A|+1}+\frac{b}{|A|+1}$
Oh yeah true, we can't add the same element back in again
Because this looks conditionally convergent to me
Element118:
There @stone fulcrum
yeah, I know, but I really prefer numbers to be lowercase
But yeah if we let |A| be the number of elements in the average then that's what I was getting at
It's likely impossible to add the reals like this though, since uncountable and stuff
hmm, maybe we need a probability distribution and a mapping to reals
band: Peste Noire Song: Dueil Angoisseus Album: La Sanie des siècles - Panégyrique de la dégénérescence
How do I imitate these vocals
For music 2
Sure

This is abstract
hey guys me and my friend have a problem. we have a permutation described as: a*xmod(54). This gives back a set {0,...,53}. My friend then asserted that this was even because it could broken down into an even amount of two cycles. However, the textbook im reading asserts that subgroups of the symmetric group can be a product of 2-cycles. This isnt such a subgroup and the presence of 6 inputs that map to themselves(those inputs would be 0,9,18,27,36,45) makes me suspicious of even claiming that this permutation group is a product of two-cycles. If you guys could help me understand what's behind this and if it's even representable as a product of 2 -cycles that would be great.
Just because the permutation you have isn't a subgroup doesn't mean it can't be an even permutation?
yeah can you explain that pleas
please
like what's the proof and or test and where can i find it?
aight nvm found the identity stuffs thanks for that though i was very lost in the sauce
so how do I get the conjugacy classes of a group of order n (e.g. n = 6)
It depends on which group it is?
Hey guys, the positive reals under * where a*b = sqrt{ab} isn't a group, right?
my reasoning being a inverse would have to be a, b inverse would have to b b, etc
so there isn't one inverse
or am I way off
why do you think a inverse would have to be a?
whoops, I'm thinking identity I think
I need an element s.t a * i = a for all a in the positive reals
Right
Yeah in that case, your reasoning is correct
But you'd have to show that, under the group axioms, the identity is unique
Since each element is its own identity, does it fail on that alone?
I'm not doing a great job of explaining where I'm coming from I don't think, but I think I can show everything else I'd need to
So really the nice way to think about this is that sqrt is a group isomorphism
Forgive me if I'm off here, new to algebra, but it seems like you're implying that the positive reals do form a group along with this * yeah?
Yeah
so it's completely fine to have the identity of a =a, identity of b = b, etc for all a,b in the positive reals
it doesn't have to be one element that does it for all of them?
That's what I thought, but I don't see a global identity here
that's why i think it fails the group axioms
the identity is just the element itself (I think)
Yeah you are right
I thought that because sqrt is an automorphism you can just impose the structure on the group through that
But it doesn't work out
Oof
The induced group structure doesn't agree with the structure you're given
I guess I'm getting caught up in the wording, I just need to figure out a way to say that because the candidate inverse of a would be a, the candidate inverse of b would be b, etc it fails to have a unique inverse
I see what's going on that screws up the group structure
but I cant really manage to phrase it
think it would fly just to word it like that, maybe a bit more formally then?
Say if it is a group it must have a unique identity globally
But you can find 2 local identities
So you're done
Not even local
Pointwise
There we go! That's a really helpful word here
I can show a inverse = a, b inverse = b and just run from there
thanks man!
👌
oh
Element118:
(Bmin*Bmin-4*(Amin-1)*(Cmin-1))%4
You know all the values that we're getting has remained -3 or 0
If b is even then remainder is 0 if b is odd then remainder is -3
So, the question looks like if B is odd what values within the given range gives remainder -3
else if B is even what values within the given range gives remainder 0
@fading wagon They represent the same values, f(x,y) is the reduced form of other one
So I think I saw a couple different definitions for ideal,
I know we're a subset of a ring closed under exterior products
but I saw somewhere say that we need unity to be closed under addition, but isn't that its closed under addition and subtraction anyway?
an ideal of a ring is a subset closed under addition and under multiplication by a ring element
ok ty
So I found this equation for class number of a group but what is the C(g) (because i dont think its the same thing as Cl(g)) (yes I tried to find it online but I didn't see that notation anywhere else)?
what's the class number of a group ?
what do you think?
No
unless its surjective I dont think it'll be the case
But I dont know how to reason it
If no, provide a counterexample
Element, do you think a formula exists for that question?
which question?
One we were solving
oh yours?
Yep, I have optimized to the best
You sure?
Yep, I am not iterating* anything in excess
Prefix sum included?
prefix sum?
yeah
element is it true?
You can't find a counterexample?
I am talking about inequality one
try different cases out
What do you mean by prefix sum?
I agree with you
So, I should take 3 parallel arrays, find out the maximum of A,B,C from them. Then, compute the counts for each in one iteration of A,B,C?
what is this about ?
what happened to my question?
@fading wagon Tried that, still TLE.
class number is the number of conjugacy classes of a group @hot lake
can someone answer my question?
C(g) might be the subgroup of elements who commute with g
alright ty
@fading wagon I can't think of a counterexample and im starting to think its true
can you please correct me if its false?
look at left and right shifts of infinite sequences
Bazout identity is by far the most annoying thing to compute
Computing is painful
Is so annoying I get lost
normally i see this definition of a Group:
Why is it that the book I’m reading gives a different-looking one?
No, it encompasses a lot more
hmm
the book does go on to prove the existence and uniqueness of the identity element and of inverses using this definition
i see
Yeah, and it's obvious that if a group satisfies the group axioms, it satisfies those conditions
The biggest brain one is a group is pi_1 of a Topological space
Then you just reconstruct group theory using Topology
or as a specific example of a lawvere theory (or a model of one, more accurately)
which is like
shit tier big brain
a group is just Aut of a graph
What about infinite group?

Cayley is that a finite group embeds into the symmetric group on its generators iirc
or was it on the whole set
i forget
fuck it, going with whole set, since generators is too small
So every group is a subgroup of some symmetric group
Don't even need finite
And yeah you definitely want on the whole set
S_n is generated by two elements
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Frucht's_theorem
infinite groups are fine
Finally, Johannes de Groot and Sabidussi in 1959/1960 independently proved that any group (dropping the assumption that the group be finite) could be realized as the group of symmetries of an infinite graph.
they do
and since Aut of any graph is contained in Aut K_n = S_n
where n is the order of the original graph, thats Cayleys theorem
I like the much easier theorem that every group is the automorphism group of some structure
very vague
🤔 in Jacobson it is said that every group, finite or infinite, is isomorphic to some group of transformation
@fading wagon https://discuss.codechef.com/t/lapd-editorial/38085
The solution
@golden pasture nowhere does it say finite
Well for first one
Symmetric groups are just finite transformation group
Also I said each group is isomorphic to some group of transformation
Which can be a symmetric group
o right
Hi guys, could you tell me about some good resources, books or whatever to abstract algebra in my own? I know basics of group theory, what they are, lagrange's theorem
Pick a textbook
Which one depends a lot of you
Things like how comfortable you are with rigorous math, or exactly what material you want to cover
i did olympiad training, i understand most proof methods, and i like proofs
i suppose i want rigorous
cause i'm not interested in learning something i can't prove
what textbook do you recommend?
for example: i do algorithms stuff, and it's quite usual to find algorithms without proof, i always try to find a proof i can understand, i don't like to use things i can't prove (sometimes i need to do it)
Algorithmic proofs are much, much different than mathematical proofs
Idk it's hard to say
The usual recommendation is Dummit and Foote
I've heard good things about Fraleigh
I think Pinter is on the easier side of things
i know it's not the same, but i also did math olympiad training and i was really interested on learning more
I mean you could look at higher level math competitions
Like the putnam or the IMC
But it depends why you want to do more math olympiad training I guess
That kind of stuff isn't really super applicable anywhere else
yeah but i know about all topics of math olympiad (however i'm not really good solving those hard problems)
but now i want to keep learning math and do it like a mathematician, no like an engineer just taking some formulas and using them without really understanding
Then math olympiads aren't really that relevant
i know
it's quite specific, elemental math but hard problems
we never used calculus, linear algebra or group theory
i would like to learn as much as i can in a similar way a mathematician would do
since i can't study math in university at this moment
Yeah your two goals aren't really that related
I mean you can definitely just do both
how do i prove Z_6 is isomorphic to Z_2 x Z_3
Hint: What are the generators of Z_2 x Z_3?
Finding a generator is an explicit isomorphism
What are you confused about @proud ore
idk how thats the thing 😂
why R ⊆ X x X and x, y ∈ X not R ⊆ X x Y x ∈ X, y ∈ Y? Is it possible for the infix operator to denote this?
you can also define a relation on the cartesian product X x Y, where X != Y, yes
but that has nothing really to do with abstract algebra
hmm so if I define my relation as so I can use the infix operator?
you can define whatever you want
right thanks
wait one more thing doesnt R ⊆ X x X imply that the domain and codomain of a relation is the same?
i don't think the words domain and codomain are used in that regard, but yes
nvm, they are used
I cant imagine it to be rare to find a relation with a differing domain/codomain so why would that example use R ⊆ X x X is it just being formal?
the graph of a function is a relation on X x Y
where X and Y can differ
your example uses what it uses, because it doesn't need more
ah ok thank you
generally definitions are more or less arbitrary
Thanks
How can I show that $\text{Hom}_{\mathbb{Z}}(\mathbb{Q},\mathbb{Q}) \simeq \mathbb{Q}$?
Markus:
you have to explain what you're talking about
what is the star?
what is "noted multiplicatively"?
what is E?
- is a law of internal composition , noted mutliplicativley is when the law is the $\times$ operator and E is a set
life > Random:
might have different termiology here
ok I guess I see now
well you said you can cancel the x's
if p is bigger than q, just cancel q of the x's from both sides
you can't do that
yes, that is the definition of the regular element.
what happens if you take y = xy and z = y
(bad notation because I'm using y in two different ways)
but like, in particular if xy = xz implies y = z then for example xxy = xy implies xy = y
xxy = xy is what your top picture says, and xy = y is your bottom (goal) picture
it's just that, iterated
yeah that's what i'm tryna to understand, how did they manupilate x^p and x*^q to get x^*(p-q)
cuz we do'nt know nothing about * except it's assiciative and being a LIC
I'm not sure which part isn't clear
as far as I can tell, it's just what I wrote
I wrote it for p = 2 and q = 1 but the idea is the same
just apply that cancellation law you said holds q times
if you start with p copies of x on the LHS, then after you do that you'll have p-q of them left
i'm not sure if i get it yet.
if you want to prove it formally you can use induction
how can i do that ?
and also i want to understand how they did it
also how did they do this ?
cuz * isn't commutative
assuming that the first one was right
how can i do that ?
induct over q
also how did they do this ? cuz * isn't commutative
I don't know, we would need more information about what this (E,*) is
all i got is (E,*) being a magma
so * is LIC
and * associative
and E is a finite set
the question is : let * be a assocative LIC over E, E being a finite set and x is a regular element, show that E has an identity
what is LIC?
- LIC appilication that goes from E X E to E taking (x,y) and outputing x*y
x*y is in E
i think it's called closure
different terminlogy i know :(((((
I see
so I guess you somehow use the fact that E is finite to find p, q so that x^p y = x^q y
maybe ur familiar with this ?
yeee
so i used this function
f(n) = x*^n
f : N -> E
f being non injective
since E is finite and N is infinite
so u get this : $x^(p) = x^(q)$
and assume q > p
life > Random:
so you can do that from either left or right
and for any y
so you get, for every y
x^p y = x^q y
and
y x^p = y x^q
by applying those cancellation laws q times to these two equations you get
x^{q - p} y = y
and
y = y x^{q-p}
so to answer your original question, you don't use any kind of commutativity
what cancellation laws
you just start from the other equation
yeah ok but how did u get to x^*(p-q)
just apply the cancellation law q times like we discussed earlier
there is only one operation on E
yes
x^p can not mean anything besides x^*p
when u say that u also assumed that it's commtative
I did not
we started with yx^p = yx^q
and apply the cancellation law q times
no no
that gives yx^{p-q} = y
what did you start with?
using that one gets you x^{p-q} y = y
ok how did u get that ?
that is one of the things you need for x^{p-q} to be an identity
but you also know that yx^p = yx^q
did u divid by x^q ?
and this gives the other part: yx^{p-q} = y
did u divide ?
I have told you many times
I used the cancellation laws ax = bx implies a = b and xa = xb implies a = b
but you also know this yx^p = yx^q
no
you assumed that these hold for x at the beginning
yes, you know that
it follows trivially from x^p = x^q
omg yes i'm an idiot yes yes
lol
but i still don't get this ?
cuz if u divided with x*^(q) then it's impossible
cuz u can't simplify
this was the very first point we discussed
you know for every a and b, that xa = xb implies a = b
yes that is true
in this case, take a = x^{p-q}y and b = y
you know that x^py = x^qy
without loss of generality we are assuming that p > q
so we can write this as
x^q x^{p-q} y = x^q y
do you agree so far?
urs has two q's
they cancel
yes
I am only using the fact that x^p = x^q x^{p-q}
ok so x^q x^{p-q} y = x^q y
now use the cancellation law to get
x^{q-1} x^{p-q} y = x^{q-1} y
ok true what you wrote wasn't wrong then. but still lol
do you agree with the last formula I wrote? I just used the cancellation law to remove one x from the left of each expression
xa = xb implies a = b
this says you can remove a factor of x from the LHS of an equation
it's all I'm using
well we had x^q on each side
then we removed one x
so do that over and over again
✌
GG bois we did it

first off is i'mm gonna screenshot this whole discussion so even if i forget how to do this i'll comeback to it
lol
I think the more common setting for this argument is to show that a finite domain contains an identity
there you have a little more structure but from it you automatically get the cancellation property for every nonzero x
OH MA GAAAAAAWD
i get it
like fully
THANK U SO MUCH !
yeah the only thing that i missed or was keeping me back was x^(p-q) * x^(q) = x*(p) which should've been a no brainer
This is not the right channel for this material
The version of bezout's identity for a general UF?
Yea integers
Yeah, so if you know anything about rings, we can actually generalize bezout's
I’m not there there 😢
then (a,0) would be in the product
ah yes thanks
does anyone know how tensor algebras work
I can't understand how we quotient them to get symmetric algebras an exterior algs
dunno
yes but how do we quotient by e.g. v tensor v
like T(M) is the tensor algebra
so how do you quotient that by ({v tensor v for all v in V})
since the elements of T(M) look like (r, m, m tensor n, m tensor n tensor o, ...)
@woven delta
So we have the symmetrization maps
You quotient by the kernel of that
Similarly for exterior Algebra
I'll describe that once I get off the train
ok thanks
Also there's something your missing
You should think of the Tensor algebra as finite sums of k-tensors
There's a difference between the direct sum construction and the direct product construction
You're thinking of the direct product construction
@chilly ocean
oh yeah right
its infinite
so it looks like m tensor n + m tensor n tensor p ... m tensor m or something
Yeah, something like that
So you can just define the symmetrization map on the k^th tensor product
by symmetrization map you mean the quotient map onto T^k(M) / A^k(M)
oh so v |---> v tensor v
So far I’ve done ever single one and this one is confusing. Anyone help? Bezout identity?
,rotate -90
yeah I guess
There's 2 ways to view the kth symmetric tensor power
,rotate 90
but the way it was defined for us is that you quotient out by some submodule
Either as a submodule or as a quotient
oh so you say it is the quotient of the symmetrization map
hmmm
That works for kth symmettric powers
And you you extend that map
To the direct sum
yeah
Using the universal property
right
Well first you imbed that map into the tensor algebra
In the natural way
Then you extend that map from the tensor Algebra to itself
But you get the idea
Then the quotient will be the symmettric Algebra
You can similarly define the exterior algebra
With the antisymmetrization map
Which uses alternating sums instead of regular sums
@chilly ocean is that good?
yeah I'm still not comfortable with how to think about tensor product elements though
is it correct to say that M tensor N = {m tensor n}/~ where (m tensor rn) ~ (rm tensor n)?
i.e. the tensor product consists of all the elements m tensor n but you can move ring elements around
it's not clear to me that all these quotients will work out, i.e. can i say m tensor n tensor p goes to n in the exterior algebra (since we kill m tensor m)?
You can get some intuition for this from working with vector spaces
Cause they're very nice
@mild laurel where should it be ? cuz it's algebra.
Let E be a set provided with 2 operators
we assume that e is the identity for the * operator and f is the identity for the • operator
Finally, suppose that for all x, y, u, v in E : $(H): (xy)•(uv)=(x$•$u)*(y$•$v)$
- show that e=f. (my idea was to either prove this directly or show that e and f have the same effect, i failed at both)
- prove that * and • are identical. (no idea how to do this)
life > Random:
life > Random:
look up eckman hilton argument online
yeah that helps
but is my proof correct ?
also thanks
also also, for second one i think i can say since we proved that $e=f$ and we know that the identity has to be unique that means that the operators are identical ??
life > Random:
i still don't know how to prove that both operations are identical
well i did prove it but idk if it's right
<@&286206848099549185>
life > Random:
what's the missing operation in the left hand side of H ?
ok
the idea is if i can prove that e and f have the same effect
that means that they are equivalent
so i started from this
$e$•$f=e$
life > Random:
and from (H) i can say this : $e=(ee)$ and $f=ef$
life > Random:
and i also can say this :
this is where it'll come in
$e$•$f=e$ with H i can say that, that is the same as this : $(e$•$f)*(f$•$f)=f$
wait that's wrong let me fix it up
life > Random:
How exactly are you applying H?
still doesn't involve H
It would be more productive if you broke down what you're doing in more depth over text
also it's 1:36am where I am so I'm not going to go on voice /shrug
f = f•f = (e*f)•(f*e) = (e•f)*(e•f) = e*e = e
life > Random:
which doesn't lead to anything
Yup
Damn i was so sure
What you want is some kind of symmetry
Your approach looked off because you have 3 es and 1 f
yee
thanks
what about 2?
saying that since e=f then the operators have to be the same
Nope
f(x,y) = x+y and g(x,y) = (x+1) * (y+1)
operations can't be groups
We can add these as integers mod 4 or add their digits mod 2
00 is the identity in both cases
What do you mean?
Oh you were nitpicking my terminology. Where the operations both induce group structures on the underlying set
mine were also from groups, but on R and R \ {-1}
Ah yeah good point
Well hang on, no. The question is about operations on the same set
ye
ah yes
Anyways the klein four group and the cyclic group of order four can be thought of as two different ways of adding bit strings of length 2
Both with identity 00
For the second bit, we can get x*y = (x•f)*(f•y) = (x*f)•(f*y) = (x*e)•(e*y) = x•y
ok so relying on the identity is not a factor that determines that * is different from •
I'm not sure what you mean
Two distinct operations can have the same identity
Does that answer your question?
yeah homework
It has a cool application
yeeeee
Do you know anything about homotopy?
Nope Nope Nope
Ah well
Basically there's some groups that algebraic topologists care about called homotopy groups
For n > 2, we can combine these elements "vertically" and "horizontally"
And they satisfy this kind of interchange law
So that argument proves that they're really the same operation
And that this operation is commutative
Oh commutativity is x*y = (f•x)*(y•f) = (f*y)•(x*f) = (e*y)•(x*e) = y•x = y*x
gotta go back to lab and look this stuff up
I'm a fan of alg. top
Algebra is a lot easier if you're bad at visualizing things lol
I'm mostly joking but it's important to be able to think in an abstract setting without geometry
yeah, i heard a teacher once say that we shouldn't trust proofs that rely on that
geometry*
one more question
if i need to prove that e = f
is it right to think that i need to prove that e and f have the same effects on the set ?
That's one way of doing it
does part 2 in the first answer here for for infinite direct sums?
Oh hey @latent anvil I've seen your username before XD. Are you in the MathFuN workspace on Slack?
@zizek yup, you can apply first iso to the map which projects each factor onto its quotient
@signal frost hi
@latent anvil thanks i wasnt sure if bijecitivity works the same in infinite case
Hi. I guess that's a yes.
How many binary operations are in a set with n elements?
and how many of those operations are commutative?
umm..
i don't even know where to start
like as many as you want ?
and as many as you want as well..
cuz the human creates the operation
try some examples, n=1
yeah in that case
there are n many operations ???
even if n = 1 i can define as many operations as i want
say for example $E={1}$ i can say that * in E is for all x,y x*y=1+xy and i can say • is for all x,y x•y=0 so on and so forth
life > Random:
<@&286206848099549185>
If x•y = 0, it's not an operation on {1}
Same problem for *
An operation on E is a function E×E -> E
Does that make sense @static robin ?
ye ye ye i'm dumb
but i can define what every operation to just get 1 at the ed
end*
x,y => x*y => x-y+1
Those are the same operation
oh
When we talk about sets or functions or whatever, equality is "extensional"
so n operation it is ?
This means that if two sets have the same elements, they're equal, even if they look different, and if two functions (or operations) give the same output for each input, they're equal
It's not n
For the case n=2, you can find 16 operations
If I solved this problem right
Have you heard the concept of a multiplication table of an operation?
Also, you should try and solve this yourself. What I said up there is a hint but it won't solve it for you
Are you guessing?
pretty much
Do you know about modular arithmetic?
idk, i could know about it under a different terminology
Where are you coming across these problems?
Teacher's website
Modular arithmetic is usually the first example of an algebraic structure you see. The integers mod 4 is the set {0,1,2,3} where addition wraps around
So 2 + 2 = 0 and 2 + 3 = 1 and 3 + 1 = 0 and so on
nope, he didn't tell us that, first example of an algebraic structure was the magma
That's very odd. Modular arithmetic isn't a special kind of structure though, it's a family of examples
we no he didn't tell us anything like this
The integers mod n, written Z/nZ is a magma/monoid/group/ring/etc
Oh okay
but we haven't done the course of arithmetics in N yet
Number theory?
he just gave us like a hint or something too look forward too
idk if it's called that let me check
nope i don't think it's that
What does it cover?
If it's about arithmetic in N (primes and whatever) then it's what I mean by number theory
Anyways, the "multiplication table" for Z/4Z looks like
Ignore the yellow and red, I didn't make this image
Divisibility, Gauss's theorem, Bézout's theorem, lower/highest common divider
Yup
oh


