#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 430 of 407
i'm not sure what a good cover is
the intersection of open sets in your cover is contractible ie π_1(U⋂V)= 0
(think I got that right)
maybe like if you're trying to look at some cech cohomology or something
but idk that's not really what i think about
true
oh yeah there's homotopy stuff
but it's less basic it seems haha
correct
(still interested in the cech stuff but probably gotta defer that until I understand basics)
um, so at this point it'd be tempting to say that if you can cover something with a bunch of copies of kⁿ then it's a scheme, but that definitely feels v wrong
idk, i dont think about that very much
there is some gluing condition you need
like there has to be some kind of compatibility with the overlaps
also i gotta head out now sry
affine schemes have a locally ringed space structure
if you can cover something with a bunch of copies of k^n in the affine scheme sense, then it's a scheme
this is stronger than just having open sets homeomorphic to k^n
because the structure sheaf must be the same
which imposes compatibility in the intersections
So I have (x, y) where x, y are members of a number ring that is not a PID.
How do I find the generator of x, y?
(I know for a fact that these x, y are principle ideals)
isn't the whole point of it not being a PID that you may not be able to find a generator
@bleak finch sounds tricky in general, you gotta use your proof that (x,y) is a PID to find a generator
if there's some finiteness condition (few ideals, many elements) then one of the x + ay must be a generator
@chilly ocean invariant under conjugation
i.e. $\forall g \in G$ we have $N=gNg^{-1}$
markus:
does the primitive element theorem imply that all alg extensions are simple extensions?
or is there an alg extension that would be adjoined by like finite elements?
um
simple extensions are either finite or transcendental
Primitive ext thm: a separable extension of finite degree is simple.
(separable means for every a∈E, its minimal polynomial f has distinct roots)
So is Q(e) isomorphic to Q(pi)
$\mathbb{Q}(e, \sqrt{d})$
Darkrifts:
@timber bay is the algebraic closure of Q simple?
np I'm going over similar stuff atm anyways haha
you taking an algebra course?
Answer my question
yeah, fields/galois theory
Is Q(e) isomorphic to Q(pi)
idk
iso to Q(s) for any transcendental s
Ok thanks
including the field of rational funcs over Q
lol @ "answer my question"
So there's only 1 simple infinite extension of Q up to iso?
i mean you just stick $x$ on it
Darkrifts:
and only x
Ohh
Im also taking a similar class. abstract algebra 2
Ok
flimflam
yeah
Yeah single extra thingy
yeah

(Q(x))(y), that is Q(x) adjoined with y
e: this is the same as Q(x,y), the rational functions in two variables
the functions of rational functions, of course
If G_1, G_2 are galois over K, then how do I show that G_1 \cap G_2 is also galois over K?
won't Aut(G_1 ⋂ G_2/K) be exactly the automorphisms of G_1 fixing precisely K restricted to G_1 ⋂ G_2 (and thus still fixing precisely K)?
That doesn't work. You can't restrict the automorphisms to a subfield since you have to restrict both the domain and codomain. In other words there could be an automorphism of G_1 that sends something in G_1 \cap G_2 outside of G_1 \cap G_2, but restricting it wouldn't give you that automorphism.
it's separable because yes
can you see why it's normal?
Representation theory:
Is it true that if we assume V is finite dimensional, then there exists G-submodule W such that V = U + W iff the vector subspace Z which is complement of U is a G-submodule ?
there is no canonical complement Z
you construct an appropriate one
e.g. consider complements of (1,0) in k^2
any vector (a,1) will do
trying to think of a proof that for y transcendental, y^2 is also transcendental
(y^2)^n + a_1(y^2)^{n-1} + ...
That's y^{2n} + a_1y^{2n-2} + ...
Which is now a polynomial in y
something with minimal polynomials i bet
check my reasoning, if F in E in K field extensions, trying to show that if y transcendental over F, then it isnt necessarily transcendental over E. E = F(y), which would be a valid simple extension that isnt algebraic over F but is algebraic over E.
yeah
cool
wait when is {E:F} = [E:F] = |G(E/F)|?
whats the condition?
finite normal?
anybody have tips on this/
you can try assuming the extension is not normal
and trying to get a smaller fixed field
based on the roots of a poly that doesn't split
what would assuming it is not normal entail?
assuming it is not a splitting field for a polynomial
the other characterization helps more
that there is an irreducible poly in F that has a root in E but does not split completely in E
that's a normal extension?
that's a non normal extension
or not normal
okay
so if it doesnt split completely not all the roots of that poly are in E
im kind of thinking out loud
that isnt in F
for example, if the poly only had 1 root in E, then that's the element you want
because the elements of G(E/F) can't move it
if its not in E, its not in F.
I mean, elements of G(E/F) send roots of irreducible F polys to themselves
so it has to send that root to another one that is in E
but there's only one in E
so it's fixed
if there's more than 1 root it isn't clear to me how it works
but you should be able to do something similar
oh so the fixed field would be F(that element)
it can be larger but yeah that's the idea
sure
I feel like you can do something like
add all the roots that are in E
that's an element that's fixed by G(E/F)
and it remains to prove it isn't in F
Wouldn't G(E/F) permute the elements that are in E?
but maybe that isn't true
I can't tell
but the rough idea should work
yeah it does
so if you sum all of them
the sum isn't changed
by elements in G(E/F)
so it wouldnt necessarily fix F(all those)
yeah it doesn't fix each one
ah yeah
but it fixes symmetric functions in them
ok
ill go to another page
it's basically following the idea through
let p be irreducible in F[x], with some roots ai in E and some bj not in E
then p = Prod(x-ai) Prod(x-bj) in E[x]
what can you say about the coefficients of the polynomial in the left?
Spoilers:
||1) they are symmetric functions in the ai so they are fixed by G(E/F).||
||2) can all of them be in F? ||
they can't
i'll let you figure out why
if Prod(x-ai) is in F[x] something bad happens
something about it being irreducible or normal?
that makes sense
So I have (x, y) where x, y are members of a number ring that is not a PID.
How do I find the generator of x, y?
(I know for a fact that these x, y are principle ideals)
how do you know (x,y) is principal?
@thorny slate I think it is assumed in the problem statement. My professor is bad at writing out his assumptions.
if it's just assumed then it sounds hard
if there's a reason you know, then you can probably use that reason
not that I know much algebraic number theory
maybe number rings are easy for this
i mean, you could compute the whole ideal class group, and the prime ideals
and check which ideals your ideal (x,y) factors into
and so on
Is their a bijection between the sets Z/mnZ* and Z/mZ* x Z/nZ* for relatively prime n and m?
I know that by CRT, Z/mn ~ Z/mZ x Z/nZ
An isomorphism is a bijection in this case so yes
How do I prove it?
prove what
That there is a bijection from Z/mnZ* to Z/mZ* x Z/nz*
Oh I didn't see the stars
Hmm
According to what I can find, there's only an isomorphism if m and n are prime
If not, you'll have to split it into a cartesian product of prime power modulo groups before you can say you have an isomorphism
they are iso if they are coprime
Can you provide a proof?
ex. 8 and 15
euclid algorithm
if x,y are coprime, there are integers a,b such that ax+by=1
1 will be the generator of Z/xyZ
Woog we're talking about the multiplicative group
I don't have a proof but I think I'll trust Wikipedia on this one 
then I doubt it for just coprime
Can you send the Wikipedia link?
t!wiki multiplicative group of integers modulo n
Scroll down to Structure and then General composite numbers
Alright thanks!
🍮
Actually nah primes are too strict
If m and n are prime powers with m =/=n, your statement holds
So for example like woog's example 8 and 15 wouldn't work, but 8 and 27 would 😄
There is a bijection from (Z/mnZ)* to (Z/mZ)* x (Z/nZ)* for n,m coprime but not necessarily an ismorphism
Since phi(nm) = phi(n)phi(m) whenever n and m are coprime
How do I prove that?
Yeah got it
ring isomorphisms send units to units
Thanks for the help
Hint: If this ideal is principal, you can determine what the norm of a generator must be (play with divisibility). Now look for elements of that norm and show that one actually does generate the ideal.
What does this mean?
i guess the norm will be the gcd of the norms?
@thorny slate no gcd domain
Jacobian let me explain
I have an extension of Z that is not a PID or a euclidean domain.
This is Z[sqrt(-5)] so I don't know what the norm is.
In this non-PID, I have an ideal that is principle (because a non-PID can have SOME ideals that are principle). This principal ideal is of the form (x, y).
Because it is principle, it has a single generator.
What is the norm of this generator??
the gcd of the norms of x and y
How can I computer the gcd in a non euclidean domain
the norms are in Z
also you should have said that your ring was Z[sqrt(-5)] before
having a concrete ring makes things much easier
but there is no euclidean algorithm
Z is an euclidean domain
Z[sqrt(-5)] is not
the norms are in Z
How does the fact that the norms are in Z let me compute the GCD of two elements in a non euclidean domain?
you compute the gcd of the norms of x and y
This tells me the norm of the gcd of (x, y) in Z[sqrt(-5)] of course. But then do I guess the elements?
I guess there's only a finite number of elements I have to search for.
yeah I mean the nonprincipal ideals are very easy to describe
they are like
uhhhh
whatever the factorizations of 6 are
(2, 1 +- sqrt(-5))
(3, 1 + sqrt(-5))
(3, 1 - sqrt(-5))
so it's the primes 2 and 3 that have issues
if your gcd doesn't contain 2 and 3
then you express it as products of primes in Z
and then you use those elements as your generators
so basically you know what all the prime ideals look like
and the fact that every ideal is a product of primes
Is the norm in Z[sqrt(-5)] x^2 + y^2 where e = x + yi sqrt(5)?
N(a + b sqrt(-5)) = a^2 + 5b^2
ok
I'm going to try my hand at this and see what happens.
So now I have a NEW problem.
Suppose I have the ideal (g). How do I know that it generates
(x, y)?
the ideal (x,y) is a product of prime ideals
the ideals of norm p^2 for p not 2 or 3 are (p)
I think
or something like that
so once you have the norm of g you can split it into primes
STEP 1: Norm((29, sqrt(5) ± 13)) = Norm(29) Norm(\sqrt(5) + 13)
STEP 2: Norm(29) Norm(\sqrt(5) + 13) = 174
STEP 3: Solve Pell's equation x^2 + 5y^2 = 174 has solutions (±13, ±1); (± 7, ± 5).
STEP 4: Figure out which of these solutions (e.g. the ideal (13 + sqrt(5))) generates (29, sqrt(5) ± 13)
how is it 174
also wasnt it sqrt(-5)?
I guess you meant 29^2 * 174
and yeah then you need to get the prime ideals
some of them dont split
wait what?
why are you solving that equation?
the gcd of the norms is 29
so I think you should be solving x^2 + 5y^2 = 29
Okay jacobian I got the solutions (–œ∑´®†¥¨ˆøπ“…¬˚∆˙©ƒ∂ßå¡™£¢∞§¶•ªº–––µ≤≥÷
umm ignore that
I got the solutions (±3, ±2)
How do I check if the ideal (±3 ± 2sqrt(-5)) generates the ideal (29, sqrt(-5) ± 13)?
try to get the generators from it
I mean, first you gotta pick one of them
for example (3 + 2 sqrt(-5))
and now try to get the others and try to get 29
you know 29 = (3 + 2 sqrt(-5))(3 - 2 sqrt(-5))
so you need to get 3 - 2 sqrt(-5)
and so on
just manipulation mostly
Jacobian in order to figure out whether (3 + 2 sqrt(-5)) generates (29, sqrt(-5) ± 13), I need to find a, b, c in R such that a(3 + 2 sqrt(-5)) = 29b + c(sqrt(-5) ± 13). This is Bezout's equation and I don't know how to solve it in a domain that is not euclidean.
(3 + 2 sqrt(-5))^2 = -11 + 12 sqrt(-5)
subtract 6(3 + 2 sqrt(-5)), you get -29 so you have 29
now uh
it seems like you can't get the other one?
something's wrong
oh
multiply by sqrt(-5)
to switch the parity
multiplying both of our things we get -11 sqrt(-5) - 60 and 3 sqrt(-5) - 10
and you get the idea
do some more linear algebra to get sqrt(-5) + 13
in fact you can right away add -11 sqrt(-5) - 60 to -11 + 12 sqrt(-5)
you get sqrt(-5) - 71
add some multiples of 29 and you're done
that's sqrt(-5) - 13
which is not the same as sqrt(-5) + 13 btw
they're gonna give different ideals
so be careful with writing +- so much
and you might say shit man, you're just throwing numbers around
and it just happens to work
but there is VERY little room for things here
the dimension over Z of things involved is like what, 2 at most?
torsion free Z modules are free
so you just generate two linearly independent elements
and then you can go and do linear algebra
if you notice you have a proper subspace, you multiply by stuff and you keep going
like when I noticed my parity was off
you only need to do this finitely many times
since Z is noetherian
etc etc
and yeah I only did one direction, the other one is easier
cuz you're in the field Z/29
i mean
the ring Z/29[sqrt(-5)]
you know what I mean
just one variable
whatever
if you have a ring extension with 2 things, say Z[sqrt(2), sqrt(3)]
is that all elements of the form a + b sqrt(2) + c sqrt(3)
or does it also include things like sqrt(2)sqrt(3)
the latter
ok cool, thanks
if you have a ring extension, it had better be a ring!
so you have to be able to multiply things in it!
killingform is that you?
How would you find the degree of a field extension like Q[sqrt(2) + sqrt(3)] ?
I know for Q[sqrt(2),sqrt(3)] you can find the degree of the extension from Q to Q[sqrt(2)] and then Q[sqrt(2)] to Q[sqrt(3)]
but can i do it the same way for this?
not really
you would need to find the minimal poly of rt(2) + rt(3)
which you can do by hand
or try to express Q[rt(2)+rt(3)] in a better way
in terms of elements you know the order of
We havent talked about finding minimal polynomials yet, is there a general way of finding it?
For sqrt(2) its simpler because we can just multiply by the conjugate
like x-sqrt(2) * x+sqrt(2)
do you just do the same process? like (rt(2)+rt(3) ) * (rt(2)-rt(3)) ... until you get a polynomial with the coefficients in your field?
well you would have to show rt(2) - rt(3) is in your field
and that's as hard as the problem itself
think of it this way
you start with rt(2) + rt(3)
and you are allowed to add, multiply
and your goal is to get an element of Q
Ok So i think the degree is four, but I'm not sure if the way i did it was valid
can i just like multiply (x - sqrt(2) - sqrt(3) * (x + sqrt(2) + sqrt(3))
and then multiply that result by its conjugate?
then you get a 4th degree polynomial x^4 - 10x^2 + 1
in Q
what kind of conjugate?
uh so the result of that multiplication is x^2 - 2sqrt(6) + 5
then we multiply by x^2 +2sqrt(6) - 5?
to get rid of the sqrt
alright so what you have done is guess that the other root of the minpoly should be the negative
and then after multiplying you guessed that the other roots should be the conjugate ones
the result is that you have a degree 4 poly which has what you want as a root
and this is a good thing
all you need to do is either reduce it or prove it's irreducible
and you're done
hm ok
this is also a valid technique
usually the goal is finding some polynomial with your thing as a root
and then you can try to reduce it and you're done
for big examples (the biggest you'll see should be degree 6 in extreme cases) you have to be resourceful
and play this game of guessing
Suppose I want to prove that (I) ⊆ (J, K) and (J, K) ⊆ (I). My professor said that one direction involves a simple proof by divisibility and the other side involves solving a linear diophantine equation. Which side is which?
DEMO OMAE WA MOU SHINDEIRU.
Suppose I want to prove that (I) ⊆ (J, K) and (J, K) ⊆ (I). My professor said that one direction involves a simple proof by divisibility and the other side involves solving a linear diophantine equation. Which side is which?
you have a bad habit of generalizing your questions so they become much harder than they need to be, the context is comparing the ideals (a) and (b,c) in a quadratic number ring
anyway (b,c) ⊆ (a) is divisibility
the other one is the linear algebra argument I carried out in gruesome detail for you before
@terse cradle
Yes?
I have a problem that x^(1/x)=a, a is a constant, x1=?, x2=?
i hope someone could help me. This problem make me confused all day.
@wispy leaf Please redirect your question to either #prealg-and-algebra or to a questions channel. This is not the appropriate channel for this question.
Someone remind me what was the factor group
@woven delta
Thanks now I shall prepare for the next semester
In Atiyah's commutative algebra book, he defines the submodule generated by an element x as the set of all multiplies ax, where a is in the ring. Don't we also have to consider sums such as x + x + x? Isn't there a chance the two sets could be different if the characteristic of the ring is not 0?
Yeah I'm dumb
I was thinking these two elements could be different if the characteristic was 3 or something, but the module axioms require them to be the same
module axioms don't care about characteristic
So I'm trying to show that M Maximal idea of R <-> R/M is field
For the R/M Is field -> M Maximal ideal of R
Since R/M is a field, every a + M has an inverse (a+M)^-1 S.t (a+M)(a+M)^(-1) = 1. Since we define (a+M)(b+M) = (ab + M) , we can define the projection homormophism
phi(a+M) = a
uhhh
Im actually not sure where I'm going here but im trying to use the fact that
Do you know the correspondence between ideals containing an ideal I and ideals in the quotient space R/I?
if a ideal contains 1, then its the whole ring
uhhhh
I dont think so?
Can i use the fact that a not in M implies a has an inverse, so a cannot be in the ideal
because (a+M) is in a field and the way we define multiplication of cosets
so when we have phi ( (a+M)(a+m)^(-1)) = phi(1) = 1' = phi( (a+m)) phi ( a^(-1) + m ) = a a^(-1)
Because R/M is a field
and R/M is the cosets a + M
by the way we define multiplication of cosets
we have (a+M) (b+M) = (ab + M) ?
im not sure actually
oh wait yes
then we have
(a+M) (a^-1 + M ) = M
uh
ok now im super confused
Ok so I guess I'm wrong 🤔
1+M is your identity
But I was trying to think of a simpler way to prove this fact
then the one provided in my book
yes I know that one
The fourth is the most important
Because it talks about the relationship between ideals in the quotient
phi(N) is an ideal of phi(R) if n is ideal of R?
No
It is if your map is surjective
There are some obvious counterexamples if it's not surjective
So the fourth isomorphism theorem
States that if you have a ring R and an ideal I
Then there is a correspondence between ideals containing I and ideals in R/I
It's pretty easy to prove actually
If you know that the image of an ideal under a surjective map is an ideal
And that the preimage of an ideal is an ideal
Once you know that theorem
The result that @fringe nexus is trying to prove follows immediately
Or at least it does once you prove that a ring is a field iff it has exactly 2 ideals
@fringe nexus does that make sense?
uhhhh
one sec
ok wait so I know how to prove that a ring is a field iff it has exactly 2 ideals
but Im still not sure how fourth isomorphism theorem helps here
So if there is an ideal containing M
so what it says is if you have a ideal I of a ring R, and you consider the factor ring R/I , an Ideal say A of R is an ideal iff A/I is an ideal in R/I ?
Then that corresponds to a nontrivial ideal in R/M
Yes
Assuming the ideal A contains I
Sorry wait
Yes, in general
But there is a special relationship between the ideals containing I and the ideals of R/I
So our R/I in this case is a field with ideals {0} and R/I. Then, that implies A/I is either {0} or R/I Which implies A = R or A = I?
i dont think thats right but
Your looking at it the wrong way around
Suppose some ideal A contains I
Then A/I is an ideal of R/I
ok
And it's nontrivial (why)
Yes
I'm saying
Suppose there was an ideal A
Then there would be a nontrivial ideal in R/I
Which is a contradiction
Yes
Stop deleting your correct stuff lol
Wait i thought i was wrong
so i deleted it
ok let me try this from the start
So We have R/I is a field which implies it has only two Ideals
to show it is maximal we will use contradiction and assume that I is contained in some ideal A
then by fourth isomorphism theorem there exists a nontrivial ideal A/I in R/I
but that contradicts the first statement
thus I is maximal in R
what am i missing?
Uhm
I showed it contradicted that I was not maximal right?
so that proves I is maximal
You could just be like "if an ideal J contains I then J/I is an ideal in R/I. It must then be either I/I or R/I"
Which means J is either I or R
But yeah, your argument seemed fine
for the other way round from maximal -> field
I think my original one was almost there
I just needed the fourth isomorphism theorem
so we have R/M where M is maximal ideal of R
pick some a not in M, and consider the coset (a+M), assume for contradiction a+M has no inverse
then, (R/M) (a+M) is a non trivial ideal
Its a proper ideal because it doesn't contain 1+M since a+M has no inverse
that implies that there exists an ideal in R containing M, contradicting the maximal assumption
@fringe nexus this is covered by the fourth isomorphism theorem, but why can't some ideal that contains I map to 1+I under the quotient map?
So if the image of an ideal A that contains I is R/I
Oh sorry I mean R/I, not 1+I
Then there is some element in A that is of the form 1 + a for some a in I
Then since a is in A
We have A=R
Did I see R/I 👀
hi 🅱/J
Hi Sascha
they have different characteristic
If Q was a field extension of Z_2, then Z_2 would imbed in Q
but Q has no element of order 2 as a group
while Z_2 does
Do you have any examples of field extensions of Z_2 then?
Can two fields be non isomorphic even if they have the same characteristic?
finite fields
Hmm ok
Consider Z_2[x]. That's a field extension of Z_2
Yes fields can be non isomorphic if they have the same characteristic. Consider the two in the example I just gave
Uh maybe I havent studied this enough but
is x just anything?
like when we say Q[sqrt(2)] we just mean Q/ <x^2 - 2>
but whats z_2[x] ?
its the ring of polynomials over Z_2
@mild laurel is that a field?
nope its not im dumb
a better example would be the field of rational functions maybe
Q[sqrt(2)] is isomorphic to Q[x]/<x^2-2> @fringe nexus
yes
For showing that every prime ideal I in a finite commutative ring R is a maximal idea, you can just prove it using R/I is integral domain -> finite integral domain is field -> I is maximal right?
||^3
yeah victoria
nani
For a set ${F_{α}: α∈ S}$ of $k$-algebras indexed by some indexing set $S$, we should generally be able to construct some big $k$-algebra $E$ such that $E$ is a $F_α$ algebra for all $α∈S$, right?
Regardless of whether $F_α$ is trancendental or $S$ is arbitrary?
flimflam:
@oblique river @thorny slate
their product? their direct sum?
idk if product works if S is uncountable
why not
it works
let E be the algebraic closure of k
what you want is something like E(xi) for xi whatever trascendental elements appear
in the sense that it's a free union of some trascendental bases for each Fa
that respect the relations in that Fa
I guess that should work then
but maybe unwieldy for lots of trancendental elements
wait nvm, elements of the overall closure will still be (finite) linear combinations a_1ξ_1+...+a_1ξ_n and we know how to invert those
so there's no problem 
there's probably some kind of axiom of choice nonsense floating around
but yes, that should be fine
if Φ_n is the nth cyclotomic polynomial over ℚ and F/ℚ is its splitting field can you typically say anything about
[F/ℚ:ℚ]?
@oblique river
it's a simple extension of course, but that's as a ℚ-algebra, not as a vector space right?
as a vector space its Q^phi(n)
so Φ_8 should be degree 4?
yeah
oh darn
was thinking Φ_3 had sqrt3 and i
but it just has sqrt(-3)
so it's degree 2
rip
thanks
jaco is correct
it's a theorem to prove that Phi_n is irreducible over Q
for all n
and it's degree is phi(n)
and once you have one primitive nth root of unity (i.e. one root of Phi_n) then you have all of them
and therefore the splitting field is exactly Q[x]/Phi_n(x) which has degree phi(n) over Q
not sure if I didn't screw this up, does this work?
for $f = x^n - p \in \mathbf{Q}[x]$ we have a splitting field of degree $φ(n)$ generated by $p^{1/n}ζ_n$, namely
$$\mathbf{Q}[(p^{1/n}ζ_n)^{\phi(1)},...,(p^{1/n}ζ_n)^{\phi(n)}]$$
flimflam:
@oblique river
that's not correct
for example, if n = 2, phi(2) = 1, but the splitting field of x^2 - p clearly has degree 2
I don't imagine degree phi(n)+1 would amend this
p^{1/n}ζ_n)^{k} should work for roots though?
p^(1/n), z^phi^1, ..., z^phi^whatever
those are the roots, yes
degree of the splitting field over Q should be n?
adding p^(1/n) is degree n
noooooo :(
then adding the other stuff is degree phi(n)
(unless p = 2 and n is divisible by 8)
ooooh
the splitting field has degree n*phi(n) except in the case p = 2, n = 0 mod 8
cool
in that last case, the degree is n*phi(n) / 2
what happens there
is this hard to prove?
zeta_8 involves a sqrt(2) already
ah
so if you wanted to add, say, 8th root of 2 to that
you only need to add 4th root of sqrt(2)
i.e. it's a degree 8/2 extension of Q(zeta_8)
I don't think it's that hard to prove. You basically need to establish that the intersection of Q(zeta_n) and Q(p^(1/n)) is just Q except in the special case
that is Q(zeta_8), yes
whew
just wanted to check I didn't mess that up
the rest....i will attack after dinner
thanks @oblique river @thorny slate
jaco's idea is right though. you have to realize that the splitting field is exactly Q(zeta_n, p^(1/n))
so you just need to check how zeta_n and p^(1/n) interact
OH WAIT OH NO

sorry, the p = 2 and n = 0 mod 8 case is not teh only special case
it is a special case
if p = 2, then the answer depends on if n is divisible by 8 or not
but for other primes weird things can also happen
for example, take p = 5 and x^10 - 5
Q(zeta_10) does contain sqrt(5)
so in that case the degree would be phi(10)*10/2
if your power is also prime it's fairly uncomplicated though, i.e., if you're looking at
x^ℓ - p?
alright so what's going to happen is that for x^n - p, you will get degree n*phi(n), unless n is even and Q(zeta_n) contains sqrt(p)
correct
if it's just x^l - p then you're going to be l(l-1) always
also can ℓ=p^n
in the case that n is even and Q(zeta_n) contains sqrt(p), then you will get degree n*phi(n)/2
yes if l = p you're still fine (edit: or if l = p^n as long as p is not 2, see the p = 2 n = 8 example)
but those are teh only two possible cases
it gets much worse when you want to talk about x^n - a
where a is not necessarily prime
but for x^n - p you only have those two cases
yeah...
maybe jsut focus on x^n - 2
that's still an interesting example and you get some cool stuff (like I said if n = 0 mod 8)
so if there are any degree issues will degree always be either n*phi(n) or n*phi(n)/2?
as long as p is prime, yes
as I said, there are 2 cases:
if n is even and sqrt(p) is contained in zeta(n), you get the /2 case
otherwise, you get n*phi(n)
okay, I think I have a fair idea what sorta badness can happen...just not totally convinced that's the only thing that could go wrong
(and furthermore, if you want to know when sqrt(p) is contained in Q(zeta_n):
if p = 1 mod 4, then it is iff p divides n.
if p = 3 mod 4, it is iff 4p divides n)
O:
here's the idea of how badness can happen:
if you have two fields K and L and you want to know [KL : Q]
where KL is the compositum
ok
you can use [KL : Q] = [K : Q]*[L : Q]/[K cap L : Q]
so basically it's like the product but you have to take into account their intersection
now here K = Q(zeta_n) and L = Q(p^(1/n))
we have to ask: What is K cap L?
well it's certainly a subfield of both K and L. All the subfields of K are galois over Q because Gal(K/Q) is abelian and thus all subgroups are normal
all of the subfields of L are of the form Q(p^(1/m)) for some m dividing n (you have to prove that)
but the only time Q(p^(1/m)) is galois over Q is if m = 1 (in which case it's just Q) or 2 (in which case it's Q(sqrt(p)))
so therefore the only time that K cap L couldn't be Q is if m = 2 and sqrt(p) is contained in Q(zeta_n)
(and thus n is even since m divided n)
and in that bad case, K cap L would be quadratic over Q and thus that's why you get the division by 2
subfields of K aren't necessarily simple extensions of Q right?
yah, prim el thm
the primitive element theorem really isnt explicit at all
like usually the primitive element of your extension will look kinda garbage
like for Q(zeta_n, p^(1/n))
the primitive element might be something like zeta_n + p^(1/n) or something
but like why would you ever consider that element lol
you wouldn't?
correct haha
I thought if you had like Q(a) and Q(b) with coprime degree in Q you might try like Q(a+rb)
even if the degree isnt coprime that works
yeah, in what what is true is that Q(a, b) will be generated by Q(a + cb) for all but finitely many rational numbers c
but finding c is hard/impossible
oh, that's what you meant
in my experience, the primitive element theorem is only useful in doing very general things
PET isn't constructive?
like sometimes it's convenient to be like "I wanna prove things for all fields over Q, so I can just prove them for things of the form Q(a)"
but if you're working with an explicit field Q(a,b), finding a primitive element usually isn't going to help you do anything at all
I dont think so, no
update: it can be made explicit if you know the minimal polynomials of a and b

Lol, so in the section that thankfully wasn't mine for Galois theory, the professor after the midterm gave a problem set with just one question
He gave a quadratic polynomial and said okay, the Galois group is S_4, no need to prove that. Find a primitive element for every intermediate subfield, and then the minimal polynomial of it
how does a quadratic have galois group S_4
@oblique river can one say anything about the splitting field of x^n - a over F_p? hazarding p not since just figuring out n=2 not completely trivial
but I have a long list of splitting fields to compute for psets so I'll try anything tbh
so every extension of F_p is cyclic
that's nice
the extension will certainly contain the nth roots of unity over F_p, and you can figure out the degree of that extension just using some modular arithmetic
other than that I don't see anything super nice off the top of my ehad
Wait, every finite extension of F_p is primitive bc it has necessary a finite number of sub-extension ?
So how do I show that the ideal p O_k ramifies in a quadratic field extension where p is a rational prime
Bump
yeah @wind steeple
that's nice
@thorny slate so I feel like this should be super basic but is there a clean way to show that every automorphism of an ordered field is trivial?
@oblique river
that's just not true though?
Q(sqrt(2)) is ordered
because it's a subfield of R
@solar wyvern
what do you mean
there are subfields of R with galois group Z/3Z
which is not an involution
do you want your automorphism to preserve the order?
cuz that's not what happens on Q(sqrt(2))
original question was for R, but I thought this might be a general prop for ordered fields
oh
yeah no it's just a theorem that Aut(R) is trivial
and it doesn't erally have anything to do with the order
well maybe you could use the order to help you
wait what's an automorphism on Q(sqrt2) which doesn't preserve order
does a + bsqrt2 to a - bsqrt2 work
idk
sqrt(2) > 0 but -sqrt(2) < 0
v confuse atm 
what
i just showed that that map doesn't preserve the order
with a simple example
it's an automorphism tho right?
😰
the map from Q(sqrt(2)) to itself that takes sqrt(2) to -sqrt(2) is the only nontrivial automorphism
i thought you knew some galois theory, maybe i just forgot haha
my b

wait you definitely do cuz you were asking about galois groups
sorry just freaking out since assignment due soon
you should know what Gal(Q(sqrt(2))/Q) is...
in any case if you want to prove something about Aut(R)
idk why you wanna go to the generality of ordered fields
cuz Aut(R) is trivial, period. not even just "any automorphism that preserves the order is trivial"
now, part of the proof will require you to consider the order
but there's no need to try to do some crazy generalization when the problem is only asking about the reals.
@solar wyvern maybe you meant Gal(R/Q) = {id}
that's where the order comes in
but yeah buncho explained it well
dont think about orders
Okay
mathDE:
a
okay
$\sigma = {0, 1, 2}$. A model of this signature is a triple of functions: $f_0 = 1 \to X$, $f_1 : X \to X$, $f_2 : X \times X \to X$, with more familiar names $f_0 = e$, $f_1 = {}^{-1}$, $f_2 = \cdot$
mniip:
then you start stating the axioms:
$\forall x_1, \forall x_2, \forall x_3, f_2(f_2(x_1, x_2), x_3) = f_2(x_1, f_2(x_2, x_3))$
$\forall x_1, f_2(f_0(), x_1) = x_1$
$\forall x_1, f_2(x_1, f_0()) = x_1$
$\forall x_1, f_2(f_1(x_1), x_1) = f_0()$
$\forall x_1, f_2(x_1, f_1(x_1)) = f_0()$
mniip:
the thing to note here is that you have a finite amount of universal quantifiers then an equality using the operations and the quantified elements
right
the reason this is nice is because if you're considering B a subset of A such that you can restrict f_k to B
then the axioms are automatically satisfied
🤓
i see
I don't have the rigor to prove that right now
but you can "see" it
the universal quantifeirs quantify over a subset of A
and all expressions stay within B
and equality of expressions in B is the same as in A
because it is a subset
ok so thus you have subobjects
yes
you also always have the terminal algebra
a singleton set where all f_k are trivial
oh yeah I didn't explain the fields
if you try the same with fields,
you will find that the trick fails
the axioms of fields, as usually stated, don't allow us to do this "subset" trick
because there's no terminal object?
nah
then
ok so suppose you have inversion in your signature
your axiom looks something like $\forall x \in F, x \ne 0 \implies x \cdot x^{-1} = 1$
mniip:
where $\cdot$, ${}^{-1}$, $1$ are the supposed operations
mniip:
so to begin with, in this formulation we can't say that $0^{-1}$ is not defined. All we can say is that we don't care it to be a specific value
mniip:
that messes with subobjects because you can't restrict inversion
you can say $0^{-1} = 0$ and then subobjects will be fine
mniip:
but then quotient objects will fail
quotient objects can't ``handle'' the implication from $x \ne 0$
mniip:
anyway back to terminal algebra?
in an algebraic theory, a singleton set (with trivial operations) is always a model
if * is the single inhabitant of the singleton set, then in any axiom, any universally quantified variable will be *, and any expression using those variables and operations will be *
and thus all equalities will be satisfied
for any algebra <A, f> there's a homomorphism to it, just send every element of A to *
h(f_k(...)) = *
g_k(h(...), ..., h(...)) = g_k(*, ..., *) = *
commutes, hence homomorphism
the homomorphism is unique because, well, any homomorphism is also a function, and there's only one function to the singleton set (it is terminal in Set)
the category of models of an algebraic theory has products
if you have models <A, f> and <B, g> then you can make a model on AxB
$fg_k((a_1, b_1), \dots, (a_j, b_j)) = (f_k(a_1, \dots, a_j), g_k(b_1, \dots, b_j))$
mniip:
axioms are again satisfied because of algebraicness
ok
these notes are really scattered in my scratchbook
the defining equation for fg_k is this commutative diagram
mniip:
you get "projections": homomorphisms into A and B
to see that they're homomorphisms ponder on this diagram
mniip:
and the last bit of magic is that given C with homomorphism C -> A and C -> B, you can take the function C -> AxB generated by the universla property of product in Set, and it will be a homomorphism
therefore the category of models of an algebraic theory has products
next we define a congruence on $A$ as a subobject of $A \times A$ such that when interpreted as a set it is an equivalence relation on $A$
mniip:
we can denote such a congruence by $\sim$ with a notation $x \sim y \iff (x, y) \in {\sim} \subseteq A \times A$
mniip:
yes
so is there something like quotient cats
yes? but that's beside the point here
just wondering lel
what we're about to do is construct quotient objects in the category of models
consider the set of equivalence classes $A/{\sim}$: it can be upgraded to an algebra: $[f]_k([x_1], \dots, [x_j]) = [f_k(x_1, \dots, x_j)]$
mniip:
it somehow turns out to be a function?


ah yes
trivial
suppose $x_1 \sim y_1, \dots, x_j \sim y_j$, then $(x_1, x_1) \in {\sim}, \dots, (x_j, y_j) \in {\sim}$, then because ${\sim}$ is an algebra, a subalgebra of $A \times A$, $ff_k((x_1, y_1), \dots, (x_j, y_j)) = (f_k(x_1, \dots, x_j), f_k(y_1, \dots, y_j)) \in {\sim}$, ergo $f_k(x_1, \dots, x_j) \sim f_k(y_1, \dots, y_j)$
mniip:
thus the equation up there for [f]_k is well defined
also [] as a function A -> A/~ is a homomorphism of algebras, from <A, f> to <A/~, [f]>
you also have images in this category
set-theoretical Im h, for some homomorphism h, can be shown to be a subobject of the codomain of the homomorphism
we need to prove that $g_k$ can be restricted to $\operatorname{Im}h$: given $y_1, \dots, y_j \in \operatorname{Im} h$, there exist $x_1, \dots, x_j$ such that $y_1 = h(x_1), \dots, y_j = h(x_j)$, thus there exists $x = f_k(x_1, \dots, x_j)$ such that $y = g_k(y_1, \dots, y_j) = h(x)$
because h is a homomorphism
mniip:
thus $g_k(y_1, \dots, y_j) \in \operatorname{Im}h$
mniip:
Honest question from lurker, is A^\sigma(k) in the diagram up there denotes product of A's?
Ok just clarifying since my notational memory is a bit bad
what's left is to show that uhhh
pullback of h along itself gives a congruence
that commutes with h
fuck that I'm gonna go play minecraft
oxide isn't listening anyway 
I should condense all of this into a seminar in the future...
Lol
You should make it up in a pdf
Or maybe Dropbox paper. The latex support is not bad
well I have started a series on abstract algebra themed category theory
for our reading group on abstract algebra
it's up on youtube too
there's a algebra reading group?
Didn't even know you have reading groups here
Hmm. I'm interested. What's the YouTube channel?
@mild laurel intro level abs alg currently
we're following Judson: abs alg: thry and apps
@void dragon I think it's the only one currently
wish we did more
Can't really commit into something like reading group but would be interested in category theory applied to algebra
yeah I'm actually studying commutative algebra out of atiyah rn so I could help out for now
$$\begin{tikzcd}
& & & & E \arrow[r, dotted] & \overline{k} \
& F_1 \arrow[rr, dashed] \arrow[rrru] & & F_1F_2 \arrow[ru, "m"] & & \
& & F_1 \cap F_2 \arrow[lu, dashed] \arrow[rd, dashed] & & & \
... \arrow[r, "1"] & k \arrow[uu] \arrow[rr] \arrow[ru, "n", dashed] & & F_2 \arrow[uu, dashed] \arrow[ruuu] & &
\end{tikzcd}$$
flimflam:
o hopefully this is less dumb and more comprehensible but what happens when n,m \neq 1 here (degree of the field extension):
(k is a prime field, kbar its algebraic closure, so all the extensions should be separable I think)
@oblique river @thorny slate if any of these aren't galois what sort of degree arguments do we have even
each extension besides E to kbar assumed finite
are you making the diagram complicated on purpose?
no, not especially
what's the question?
could be anything
what nice things happen when n=m=1
if m=1, F_1 is a splitting field for f_1, F_2 is a splitting field for f_2, F_1F_2 is the minimal field over which both split, right?
E could be a finite extension where those two (but maybe other) polynomials split in?
which you may know or be given?


