#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 419 of 407

it's so weird that there are people who consider rings without multiplicative identity
who are they and what are they up to
say you have a ring and you consider it without its multiplicative identity. to prove the center of the ring is a subring, what would be the most obvious way to show it's not empty?
because it's trivial with the identity
zero is in there tho?
commutes with everything
in both operations
@sonic current
Oh, sure. Good eye!
👌
having a unit is kinda great tho, and aproximating an unit or building a bigger space (distribuitions) where there is an unit is a thing you see a lot
physicists don't care tho, they just write diracs all over the place like it was in L1
Hi, do you guys have any recommendations on material for learning about Abstract Algebra?
Also another question, I'm working on a problem where I'm trying to test whether a binary operator is associative or not and I found this: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Light's_associativity_test
Let a binary operation ' · ' be defined in a finite set A by a Cayley table. (...)
Can this problem be solved without knowing A?
will repeat question in algebra channel
guys, I have an interesting problem that is supposedly a bit hard
Let A be a non-empty ring such that, for all a in A \ {0}, there is a unique a' such that aa'a = a.
Show that A doesn't have zero divisors, other than 0
the catch: A doesn't necessarily have the multiplicative identity
(I know, but my teacher uses this definition)
so what I did was
aa'a = a
aa'a -a = a -a
a(aa' - 1 ) = 0
which is probably a stretch since we don't know about the existence of 1
aa'a -a = 0 so maybe this is the most we can go
Commutative ?
A proof by absurd ?
oh! a friend solved it
actually it was in a book
it's absurd surely, but a very fancy one
Can anyone link me to a proof that the octonions have no zero divisors ??
<@&286206848099549185>
I think I can break this problem down into showing any subalgebra generated by two octonions R(a,b) is isomorphic to the quaternions (more importantly, is associative)
but I kinda need help with that qwq
http://etheses.bham.ac.uk/4349/1/Ghatei13MPhil.pdf
page 9 has a theorem on it, but I don't really understand it :<
...Okay, understoof most of thm 1.1 (part 2) up till "multiplication by i or j are orthogonal maps" on page 10 (7 lines up)... why is this??
the sides of a 13-gon can be colored red or blue. Two colorings of the shape are considered identical if one is a rotation of the other. How many distinct colorings are possible?
Hint: group action.
1/13 (2^13+2*12) = 632
if you know burnside that should make sense
otherwise
¯_(ツ)_/¯
yeah I got it using Burnside
OK TIME FOR AN EASY LINEAR ALGEBRA PROBLEM
YAY
we have W a subspace of R⁴,
W = span{(6,2,-4,-1), (0,3,2,-2)}
and a point x = (-7,-4,7,6)
how to determine closest point in W to x?
Me and company are struggling far too much on this 
ok so the strat was
that span is orthogonal
and uhh
Pick some vector that goes from x to a point in W. Find the projection onto W. This forms a right triangle with a leg being the shortest distance
Ok what we did now is project x onto W
from Graham schmidt
and so instead of us all being crazy
the web assignment is glitched
and it's wrong

Why Graham Schmidt? Should be able to find a protection with the dot product
Oh you found an orthogonal vector
(psssst it's gram schmidt and not graham schmidt (i have nothing more worthwhile than that to contribute))
TIL ^
Indeed now I know
yeah but I will still mispel anyway 

er ... different type of question than is usually asked ... What is at the forefront of Abstract Algebra research?
Galois theory, especially when it comes to rings, is incomplete.
Universal algebra is a lot more open ended. What are some other, more exotic algebras? Can they do anything new? If so, can we generalize concepts our regular algebras don't cover?
@oak perch
math is never complete
I think so yeah, but they aren't really important
I dunno there's a lot of stuff that could be considered abstract algebra that just goes under more specialized names.
Representation theory is a wildly active field. Galois theory is very much active. Certainly a large chunk of abstract algebra research is the commutative algebra side of algebraic geometry.
Lots of homological methods all around.
speaking of which I really need to study for my galois theory exam
The identity has order 1 and 1 divides any n. So, the subgroup has identity
The order of the inverse is the same as the order of the element. The subgroup has inverses
@chilly ocean
there's a nice proof for that last bit in an abelian group
let a have order x
or I guess a simple proof for what is necessary is
let a have order x, then e = (a a^-1)^x = a^x (a^-1)^x =, so order of a^-1 divides x and hence divides n
You can also think about the cyclic subgroup. If a generates it, then so does a¯¹
This also can be done pretty easy without assuming it's Abelian, a^-x = e a^-x=a^xa^-x=e, and for any smaller natural number y, a^-y = ea^-y = a^x a^-y = a^x-y != e because a is order x, and 1<=y<x. I think it's valuable to see this because it's a useful property to have generally.
hey i have a question thats probably really easy, but im stuck
its for a review on sets for my analysis class

can you go in voice?
idk how to start with b and d.
i don’t understand how i would begin that proof
give me 1 min
Hmm. Let me think about how to put it rigourously
If you take the intersection of sets, then map them, that's the same as mapping the sets then intersecting the result
@rare geyser
Hmm. I'm really not sure why lel that's always something I've taken for granted
∀i, y ∈ Ci
Yeah. That's essentially what you said just now
i'th set
That's an easy way to think about it. You can just say the sets are C1, C2, C3, then ∩C is their intersection
But sure, go ahead
T and S are linear transformations such that T: V -> W and S: W -> V. How do I prove that (S + T)* = S* + T*?
How do you add two transformations? What does * mean?
I'm boggled myself
@cyan quarry composition
if composition means g(f(x)), then I don't think that is what it means
as I have a different symbol that denotes that
oh is that dual?
yeah
only thing I've found online is http://algebra.math.ust.hk/vector_space/12_dual/lecture3.shtml
Dr. Min Yan is a Mathematician in Hong Kong University of Science and Technology. He teaches linear algebra in this semester
nothing regarding the proof
do you know what a dual space is
what have you tried
I proved composition stuff in the previous question
here since V and W are different vector spaces
of unknown dimensions
I can't try to say something with their matrix equivalents
and their transpositions
okay, what's your definition of a dual space
Given a vector space V over a field F, the dual space is the subspace of linear transformations that take V to F
or maybe linear functionals is more correct
how is that a subspace
it's a subspace of all the linear transformations
the linear functionals obey additivity and.. homegenity? (not sure how to spell)
right wait then
so it should be that (T + S)(v) = T(v) + S(v)
(T + S)*(l) = l o (T + S)(v) by definition
creamy shits:
You should mention that p|n and k|n
i don't see any n's in there @chilly ocean
ord(g)|n <=> g^n=e.
Let g,h in H. Then (gh^-1)^n = g^nh^-n=e^2=e, hence gh^-1 in H and we can conclude H is a subgroup.
gomez got tired of yes O:
Gomez with his god tier skills 😭
not tired, just showing you can be more concise.
Tfw you still prove subgroups like a pleb
that's cool, you don't have to do it that way. the important observation is the first line.
How often do you change your mathecathematiican names
Get rid of inverses in my second line and that is the proof of closure.
Pretty often recently lol.
Aren't you worried you'll run out xD

All great mathematicians were actually cats, so I think I have a good supply.
I suppose you'd have to state the identity was in H
Yes, if H is a nonempty subset of G and for every g,h in H we have gh^(-1) in H, then H is a subgroup.

Ahhh that true
That's why it is a tiny optimisation and saves a little time.
But its not something essential.
meow
sure
so u know what a normal subgroup is now, I take it?
uh
um
aHa' and a'Ha are subgroups for all a?
okay so first show that
OML ADORABLE SLIMES
either implies the other
you don't need both afaik
and wait
you want aHa' = H for all a in G (assuming a' is inverse)
another way to look at it is that it's a subgroup which is invariant under conjugation by G
oh okay
so try showing that either one implies both
and by okay, I mean, okay gimme a few minutes while I slime
also that those are equivalent to aH = Ha
you will see
i don't tho?
anyways, the next thing to do is show that there's a minimal normal subgroup containing S⊂G any sub_set_ of G
you will tho
(actually you can do something similar for any subset S to make it into a subgroup (not necessarily normal)
actually u might know that already
I'm a bit late, forgive me
maybe I'll upload on the Chinese New Year
@solar wyvern wait isn't aHa' pretty trivially a subgroup?
I like it
I mean when u multiply elements, the left and right's cancel
And idk wut u asked
@solar wyvern
okay
so in an abelian group that may be true
@spark plank what nonabelian groups do u kno
(preferably on the smaller side)
using something like D_4 or S_3: construct a subgroup, then conjugate by each other element of the group to check for closure.
I don't remember tbh
there's nothing to remember
Also holy fork I looked in the mirror
rip SA
My eyes are hella bloodshot
get some sleep?
Probably
kek
I swear I only removed like 3-4 hrs of sleep from my daily schedule
I'm sure that's healthy
Anyways ttyl8r
nani
oof
nandemonai

sekrit group notations
left hand side is generators, right hand side is relations (constraints basically)
night
Also oof tfw not on pc so can't upload Rimuru sleepy pic

Uhh, what's with the string of Anime pics. xD
y not
yoneda calm down with all this slimy anime
The identity and inverse follow from the the fact
f(ab) = f(a) * f(b)
You can try prove that $$f(e_G) = e_H$$
Cosmicrays:
Cosmicrays:
Now combine that with what you already have
H is a group
You know that it must have an inverse
For you to prove that $f$ is a homomorphism you need to have groups:
$(G,\circ)$ and $(H,*)$
Cosmicrays:
Like you need those groups to exist before you can say that f is a homomorphism
creamy shits:
$e_G?$
Cosmicrays:
creamy shits:
Yee
creamy shits:
yes
Hey Cream. How's it going? Exam soon?
Hey, happy to hear it
Hopefully that's true?
... Hey, uh I'm glad to hear you're all prepared and uhm nothing is wrong
youre gonna do great
I'd give you 100
:P
Good luck!
Gib me D4/{e, r²}
whats the best way to check if set is a subgroup of a group ?
i'm thinking: let H be a set, and G a group
H is not trivial
for all a,b in H, ab is in H
the inverse of H is the same as the inverse of G
nah this is not it
welp, the general one is to show that H is a group, and H is a subset of G and the identity element and the inverse of H is the same as G
H non-empty, a,b in H implies ab is in H, a in H implies a^-1 is in H
I wish someone told me this earlier tbh Parts (1) and (2) are respectively the First and Second Isomorphism Theorems. They are the translation into normal subgroup language of two straightforward facts: restricting a homomorphism to a subgroup yields a homomorphism, and composing two homomorphisms yields a homomorphism
Like understanding these theorems in terms of homomorphisms makes a lot more sense
Never seen this before 
That's much better than the explanation my prof gave which was "one of em is a triangle and the other is a diamond"
but G/ker(f) isn't a subgroup of G
im not quite sure how to interpret this statement
The numbering used here is a bit different than Ive seen in other sources
The first and second are actually the second and third on the normal ordering
I didn't notice this right away when i posted because the definitions of (1) and (2) were written above
so they’re saying that $$SN/N \cong S/S\cap N$$ follows from restriction to a subgroup and $$(G/K)/(N/K) \cong G/N$$ follows from composition?
Sascha Baer:
basically whenever you want to prove a statement of the form A/B = C/D
what you want to do is find a map from A to C
compose it with the quotient map C --> C/D to give a map A --> C/D
prove that map is surjective
and then prove that the kernel is B. then by the isomorphism theorem (A / ker = image) you get A/B = C/D
(or maybe switch the roles of A/B and C/D. i.e. instead of the above, start by finding a map C --> A...)
so for the first one, try finding a map S --> SN to start
and for the second one, start with a map G --> G/K
and follow the steps I outlined
@somber bramble
$ let \ R \ be \ a \ relation \ in \ \mathbb{R} \ defined \ as: \ \forall \ x,y \ \in \mathbb{R} , \ xRy \ \leftrightarrow \ \exists \alpha \ \in \ \mathbb{R} , \ x = y\ + \ 5 \alpha $
Fibi The Enthusiastic:
i've never seen a relation like this, like "that uses a third variable alpha"
what i'm supposed to do here?
say i'm checking for reflexivity
$ xRx \ \leftrightarrow \ x = x + 5 \alpha \ \ \alpha = 0 \ \in \mathbb{R} $
Fibi The Enthusiastic:
so i'm solving for alpha, and alpha must be in R ?
to check if R is symetric:
$ xRy \ \leftrightarrow \ \exists \alpha \ \in \mathbb{R} , \ x = y+ 5 \alpha \ yRx \ \leftrightarrow \ \exists \alpha \ \in \mathbb{R} , \ y = x + 5 \alpha $
Fibi The Enthusiastic:
what do i do next ?
basically the question is: instruction (or human algorithm) to show that R is relation of equivalence (of this type of stuff where there's a third external variable alpha)
well to show something is an equivalence relation you need to show reflexivity, symmetry, and transitivity
so you need to show transitivity
with what
Brian spins a fair spinner numbered 1 - 5 and flips a fair coin.
What is the probability of obtaining a 2 and a head?
i know that ixseft
i just don't know how to work with this type of relations
usually its x = y + number
probably should ask in a different channel @chilly ocean this is for abstract algebra, that is a question about probability
anyway I just said that to start since you didnt mention that explicitly
so to be transitive means that: $xRy \land yRz \Rightarrow xRz$
ixsetf:
I would start by writing down what that means for this particular relation
ok, lets work for R to be symetric
if i understand that then its not hard to figure out the rest
i already wrote it
$ y = y + 5\alpha + 5 \alpha = y + 10 \alpha $
Fibi The Enthusiastic:
so 10alpha = 0 then alpha = 0
uh not quite
so in symmetry
you have the top part
$ xRy \leftrightarrow \exists \alpha \in \mathbb{R} , \ x = y+ 5 \alpha$
ixsetf:
xRy must be the same as yRx
that is the condition for symmetry yes
your starting point is xRy
you need to show this implies yRx
the implication becomes equivalence because x and y are arbitrary
the hint is to solve for y starting with this equation
so xRy is $ x = y + 5 \alpha \ and \ we \ need \ to \ show \ that \ it \ implies \ yRx \ which \ is: \ y = x + 5 \alpha $
I've got a question about functions
like this ?
Fibi The Enthusiastic:
What are the weakest conditions under which a set of complex valued functions form an integral domain with respect to poinwise addition and multiplication?
(Whenever someone gets a chance though, no rush)
$ x = y + 5 \alpha \ y = x - 5 \alpha \ put \ \alpha_2 = - \alpha \ y = x + 5 \alpha_2 $
Fibi The Enthusiastic:
correct
np
one trick for something like this is to think through concrete examples
for example 0R1
because 0 = 1 + 5(-0.2)
so for symmetry you would need that 1R0
so 1 = 0 + 5x
thus x (alpha 2) must be 0.2
this question needs words
transpoptart?
(joke)
but yeah idk it looks like you have a handle on what you are doing
(x,x^2) -> (x,x^4) 
creamy shits:
I really don't think "transport of structure" is a real thing. I kind of think your professor is an applied mathematician who thought he could do group theory, and this problem is a weird amalgamation of the two fields. You generally need to show that something is a group before you can do any group theory onto it
Tbh his prof sounds like a bit of a mathmagician
transport of structure I think is real but this seems like a weird context to apply it
the wikipedia page for transport of structure talks about isomorphisms between vector spaces
and defining an inner product on the later by the isomorphism
Heh, instead of getting caught up in the minutae
Are you just looking for
,$ f:(\bR,+)\to(X,\oplus)?
Jichael Mackson:
have you learned the definition of a homomorphism
ok thats good at least
basically the idea of this concept he's trying to give you
is that most properties of groups are preserved under isomorphism
yep
Basically isomorphism just relabels your elements
Isomorphisms preserve everything. Homomorphisms are lazier
This weirdly sorta becomes the foundation for algebraic topology
. Trying to find "related bendy functions" that work up to homotopy.
Nice sneak prof.
You actually might want to try to get through the first few pages of Hatcher
This problem gets a lot more interesting.
Probably what says "define:" no?
nah
hes describing a procedure
so he's just listing steps
so everything is the definition
he's defining a procedure
and those steps together make up the procedure
the place where he proves this procedure works doesnt seem to be there
but its very plausible it is proved elsewhere
this is probably one of the intuition traps that is easy to fall into when youve done a lot of math
its one of those things that is going to seem "obvious" to him
so he probably though he could skip proving it
its not too hard to prove for any particular property
the idea is like
if I take a group
and that group has some property defined independent of the labels
like for example abelian is defined as $\forall (g,h \in G)(gh =hg)$
forgot the name of the forall
i dont have to write it that often in proofs
anyway
because it is just referring to a generic g and h
and doesn't consider the specific labels that the group uses
when you "relabel" the elements of a group by isomorphism
the property of Abelian-ness doesn't change
if you take any property like that
like order of the group
or the order of the center
or whether the group is simple (if you dont know this yet you can ignore for now)
then a relabeling wouldn't impact that property
?
all groups have a trivial subgroup
a simple group has no normal subgroups that arent trivial
if you dont know what that is you can ignore it
but yeah like
that is 100% not a rigorous argument, but you don't have the tools available in that class to do a rigorous argument for more than one property at a time
ok looking at this more carefully that last line is pretty garbo
the part about $\forall A, B \in X, A + B = f^{-1}(f(A)*f(B))$
ixsetf:
like its highly unclear what the take away from that should be
Hang on, isn't this just screwing with homomorph defs in the isomorphic case?
yeah it is but he didn't make that clear at all
I mean it sounds like he more poorly explains a single concept badly in a lot of ways
Which is just symptomatic of intuition overload. He wants to go jedi with people who've never seen this stuff before.
yeah intuition overload is one of the worst mistakes you can make
short of like doing drugs in class or something
Tbh - I'd actually tell your prof this - he needs to condense his notes for noobs. Just follow Artin's proofs or smth ffs
is he roughly following a textbook?
that was opposite day
You'll probably survive better if you treat them as textbooks and then just follow his weird little procedures
you should read that as do use them as textbooks
Tbh - I'd get mad for college tuition
This is bad teaching
We're slowly ironing out definitions and proving
my main question is how people like this both get PhDs and jobs
But we're making up for a full undergrad class lmfao
(((escape into academia on research merit)))
Anyway - you already know what I suggested - Fraleigh for super friendly approach, Artin for a bit more aggressive, D&F if you're feeling like the math queen
Tbh - I have met guys who don't give a fuck about the teaching
Bruh
they would just say to define an isomorphism between the groups
and that preserves structure
Legit
"If you wanna prove it - look it up on Math.SE you lazy fucks"
But that reading list is ecclectic as heck
coding theory
combinatorics
what the fuck is this course called
my impression is that this might be one of those half and half courses
did you learn what a graph was
What the actual course title/description?
then half of those books dont apply to literally anything
Right
ok so it is a half and half
oh is this a yearlong course?
probably counting as in combinatorics thing
That would make more sense
enumerate number of ways to do something
Computability theory intro
why?
It's actually taught really badly in the UK
oh nice
idk
Any who
You literally learn combinations and permutations and they're important for something
And then: the end
That's the best you're getting from highschool
ye thats too bad
No stars and bars or anything
but like imo, combinatorics is a really easy subject to get intuition for
if its taught remotely close to right
Combinatorics is super cool - but I never invested the energy
And I haven't used it except in probability theory in my entire degree
So Idk what's going on there 
I did a lot of graph theory but only a bit of general combinatorics
that said a lot of ideas that come out of combinatorics are close to physical concepts
Graph theory was available but seeing as how I would've graduated without doing ring theory - I figured I'd pass.
I actually never covered rings in my undergrad
Arguably enumeration is the most natural part of math out there, so it makes sense.
algebra was 100% focused on groups
ring and field theory I just figured out as needed for the classes when I got here
(UK msc)
Hm. It irks me that I'll be graduating and we will have only touched upon algebra 
Are you a PhD now then?
no doing msc
the way it works here is you write your thesis over the summer
you dont pick topics until feb-march
Ah
And UK MRes - is there any point if you didn't go to Oxbridge?
And what are you considering for a topic, etc. etc.?
well I'd like to do something that extends my undergrad project in some way
to get something thats not on "the list"
I have to pitch the idea to someone
so once im done with exams I'll look for someone who has research interest closest to what I want to do
Fair enough - are you considering taking it to a research degree afterwards?
probably not, I think next year I will go try to get a job
my interest in writing software is now fairly even with my interest in math
and the quality of job opportunities for something like that seem better than they would be if I was trying to do pure mathematics in academia
that said if I end up not liking how things end up with that path
I will try to apply for something next year
Fair does. Sounds like a good plan of action.
I'm just looking at various MSc's flip-flopping between geometry and biomath
theres also the benefit with that that if I do succeed with job stuffs then I can also pay down student debts
best option I'd say depends on what you want to do after
Math, not starve, my needs are fairly simple. But I worry my work ethic is crap and I'll have to let reality take the wheel
Ah-hah
but ye like
im pretty sure like
the quality of your research is going to matter a lot more than which of those topics you choose
in regards to the % chance of not starving
Here's hoping I'll know what I'm doing 😬
quality of research is a function of like
effort, aptitude, luck
so like
try to choose whichever of those maximizes your aptitude
and your motivation
since that will influence your effort
if one of those makes you more lucky somehow you can also pick that one
Biomath is due some pretty big breaks in luck
But that's only because the biology has come far enough to make it formalizable.
creamy shits:
g(a,b) -> (a+b,(a+b)^2)
g^{-1} (a+b,(a+b)^2) -> (a,b)
It's not 1-1 for starters
2-1, 3-2, 4-3
Yours ain't
let a=2,b=-1, and a=3, b=-2
They shouldn't be mapping to the same point
when he asked you to prove uh
creamy shits:
heres something you can do if you want to piss him off
Why's your function mapping pairs from IR?
creamy shits:
|R| = |R^2| ?
and define the rule by that thingy of $f^{-1}(f(A)*f(B))$
Oh wait
ixsetf:
It's a curve in R^2
Alright
Now that son
Is bijective
Both onto and one-one
Yep
Yep yep
You'll be using info like (-2,4) =/= (2,4)
im going to point out that this is a stupid exercise
because without defining a rule you can do like basically anything you want
Ye
lololol
The thing is bijective - but y'all gotta show it's a homomorph
g(x)
Then ur don
I think thats the point of "transfer of structure" or whatever
you do the procedure thing he said
then you get isomorphing by default
Cuz the info needed to make a bijective map is contained in x
have you heard of the axiom of choice?
All you've done is added some flavor to the real line and stuck to it IR^2
Cartesian product of non-empty sets is non-empty is a good one imo
Consider a group G and a set X
with |G| =|X|
then by the definition of cardinality you have a bijection from G to X
because you are defining your own rule
@chilly ocean Ye
you can use that bijection to define it
f(x) = f(y) implies x = y is def. of injective
ye
Yep
I think i get what he was trying to say in those lectures now btw
Surjective just show the domain and codomain are same cardinality kek
so like
if you have a bijection between G and X
say f
for any a, b in X
you have some g, h in G with f(g)=a and f(h)=b
then you can define your rule for a and b as a+b = f(g+h)
yeah exact
ye
but yeah like
once you have the bijection
you can find your g and h by the inverse map
so f(g+h) = f(f^-1(a)+f^-1(b))
which is what he was trying to say on the slide
so you can then use a+b = f(f^-1(a)+f^-1(b)) as your rule
and you get a homomorphism out of your bijection "for free"
you get what i mean?
Less operations
More homomorphin
Usual way of thinking of homomorph is f(a+b) = f(a)*f(b). So he flips it on its head
Eyup
Without having to use the * operator
It's a nice lazy approach tbh
(it would have been nice if like, he explained any of that though lol)
To show there's a homomorph
Ye - it comes from an abused version of the homomorph definition
Ye
you basically are writing the definition of homomorphism as your rule
so as like a simple example
Z2 consists of the set {0, 1}
with an operation sending 0*0=0, 0*1=1, 1*0=1, 1*1=0
\ for esc
ye forgot lol
\*\ * eg
\\\
so lets say I want to transfer of structure to {a,b}
then i define f mapping 0 to a and 1 to b
I can simply swap the symbols in my definition of the rule
so instead of 0*0=0
I have a*a=a
and 0*1=1 is a*b=b
you see whats going on there?

right
so how do you know how to relabel?
given b*a, how do you know what that is?
well you know the inverse of f applied to b is 1, and the inverse image of a is 0
so thats where the f^-1s come in
you then apply the original group operation to 1 and 0
and get 1
but you have to translate that back into {a,b}
so you apply f to everything
by doing that you are getting a relabeling of the result
since otherwise no f^-1 exists
injective might suffice for inverses - but you can't guarantee closure of the group on the codomain
uh it has to be bijective
because if its not surjective the inverse isnt defined over the whole domain
Inverse can just be defined over image no?
I'll have to check
I just take inverse to mean - I know how to get back to my preimage
if you dont require surjectivity
you lose the ability to do things like f^-1(f(x))
because the codomain of f is larger than the domain of f^-1
Riiight
Okay, gotcha
I was thinking that no surjective => codomain of f < domain of f^-1
fun pattern btw
since you can define a function as a relation with some properties
a function being surjective means that the relation xRy that defines it is a injective function when transformed into yRx
By the same R?
So creates an equivalence relation on equivalence relations 
then R' is an injective function exactly when R is a surjective function
what do you mean?
R ~ R' when aR'b = bRa
Yeah I thought it was a little weird
A relation between two sets is a collection of ordered pairs containing one object from each set. If the object x is from the first set and the object y is from the second set, then the objects are said to be related if the ordered pair (x,y) is in the relation.
from the first website on google
Ahhh
And equivalence just stipulates stuff like
for each x, (x,x) has to be in there?
yeah an equivalence relation is a relation that is reflexive, symmetric, and transitive
Alright, this illuminates stuff a bit more
a function f:A->B is a relation with the property that for all x in A, there exists a unique y in B such that (x,y) is in f
So aRb defines an injective function being a relation with the added condition for each x there is a unique y such that (x,y) is in the relation?
Right.
I think the wording got scrambled there a bit
there are too many uniques to make sense
updated version is the definition of a function
Right
that definition is just a function in general
Okay, because we can still have (2,1) and (3,1) in there just fine
to be injective you need that for each y in there is a unique x such that (x,y) is in the relation
Okay
and to be surjective you have that for all y there exists some x such that (x,y) is in the relation
I think you actually caught me making a mistake here tbh
I mean I'm having a lot of fun learning about relations
We just get taught about equivalence relations for proofs
I'll drop the actual fact that is related to these though
to make up for the first one being a dud
a relation that is both a function and an equivalence relation is a bijective function
Okay
thats an if and only if
Hang on, but if xRy then I need (x,x) to be in the relation for all x?
I'd get a straight line on every bijective function
if f:IR -> IR
Anyway this is neat
@chilly ocean You are ready for AT my chile, come
alright i should study more and stop getting things wrong about functions
Some how I learnt pointset without relations
Follow his procedure
It's right
Since g is bijective
relations are important foundationally but they arent that important in like actual research fields
other than equivalence relations
Which we use for proofs
ye
but ye im off
Jichael Mackson:
On your group (X,o+)
Right
Would it not be easier to give it
(a+b,a^2+b^2)?
(If you have any choice)
Right we'll just use this then
,align (a,a^2)\oplus (b,b^2) &= f(f^{-1}(a,a^2)+f^{-1}(b,b^2))\ &=f(a+b)\&= (a+b,(a+b)^2)
Jichael Mackson:
Jichael Mackson:
,$ a\in (\bR,+), (a,a^2)\in (X,\oplus)
Jichael Mackson:
So
We show that the homomorphism is there
Since 1) f is bijective
- Is satisfies the definition of a homomorphism
Although a butchered one made especially under the presumption that you've found a bijective morphism
So yeah - you did the thing
Isomorphism = Bijective Homomorphism
And we're done
What's got you confused?
Well homomorphism is $f(a+b)=f(a)*f(b)$ right?
Jichael Mackson:
Jichael Mackson:
Jichael Mackson:
Normal way is just
- Prove is homomorphism
- Prove is bijective
This way is just
- Prove is bijective
- Prove inverse is homomorphism
- Therefore is isomorphism
The latter way has an advantage since you only have to think in the original group operation
That is + from (IR,+)
Rather than fuck around with o+ and +
No explicit computation is required for o+ and thats its advantage
Just show that each (x,x^2) has been mapped to by x
creamy shits:
Yep
P much.
If you wanted to get rigorous you could a double inclusion between the image of g and intended codomain.
Ye
,$ A\subset B, B\subset A \implies A=B
Jichael Mackson:
normal subgroup
And then you're there kiddo
cosets of*
But ye, das fine
Anyway - we should do fundamental groups some time
Is easy, trust
I mean I'm hardly surprised - it sounds like the teaching is trash
At least you were able to get out there and find other ways to learn
It's kinda ironic that you have to get a level of intuition from doing a good course in group theory - to follow his course in group theory kek
Anyway yis - don't let this put you off algebra - it's very pretty when it works.
Seriously recommend Fraleigh
creamy shits:
Alright
Line 1
Bijection is the cause of your implication - state this explicitly
Line 2 you show that applying the inverse function and original groups operator that you yield the correct product using oplus
So all definitions are satisfied and thus the morphism is valid.
To get it more rigorous in your head
If the second line wasn't true - then there'd be no inverse homomorphism
Therefore no isomorphism.
Which would be pretty weird
It just means that it satisfies the definition of homomorphism
,$ f^{-1}(a\oplus b) = f^{-1}(a)+f^{-1}(b)
Jichael Mackson:
^ is true if there is an inverse homomorphism
If we assume this is true and knowing f is bijective:
,$ a\oplus b = f(f^{-1}(a)+f^{-1}(b))
Jichael Mackson:
We confirm it is true by computing $a\oplus b$
Jichael Mackson:
Jichael Mackson:
If we recover it from the RHS - we confirm that f^-1 is indeed a homomorphism
Yep
You defined it
,$ a=(c,c^2), b=(d,d^2) \implies a\oplus b = (c+d,(c+d)^2)
Jichael Mackson:
That the definition of $\oplus$
Jichael Mackson:
What $a\oplus b$ is - is known
Jichael Mackson:
What $f(f^{-1}(a)+f^{-1}(b))$ is - is not
Jichael Mackson:
If the inverse is homomorphic and f bijective - they are supposedly equal
We find by computing the latter - that they are in fact are
And since we already know f is bijective - this means that the inverse is homomorphic
If the inverse is homomorphic - then f must be isomorphic.
What doesn't follow from my explanation?
You get to pick it, right?
Actually
You have.
creamy shits:
Alright
Is oplus defined in 26?
Does it follow from that definition that, $A\oplus B =(a+b,(a+b)^2)$?
Jichael Mackson:
This diagram was on the question paper?
that diagram seems very wrong btw
imagine if you had A and B in a horizontal line
Yeah that won't be (a+b,(a+b)^2)
That'll be the solution to x^2 = (b^2-a^2)/(b-a)x
imo just skip the diagram if you arent required to provide it
O wait
(b-a)(b+a)/(b-a) x = x^2 => a+b = x

=> A o+ B = (a+b,(a+b)^2)

Kk
So is defined
Right?
Damn, I just would've skipped straight to the symbol pushing
So ye
o+ is defined by solving that thing
:l
Nigga
You defined it
What was the point of this run around?
I'm angry
And hungry
Brah this is the transport of structure
You show that the groups are isomorphic and that you can build the latter groups structure from the first group and a bijective mapping between the two who's inverse is a homomorphism
That's the entire strategy
This is the point of skipping actually using the latter's operation as you normally would in a: 1) show homo 2) show homo bi
This is
- find bi map, 2) show backward bi map is homo 3) imply isomorph
Yeah
In way - it's pretty elegant
But it's just a different/less direct strategy to achieve the same thing
find an isomorphism
I think you can actually simplify the proof a bit if you go backwards with step 2 btw
you start with the definition of homomorphism
and then do iff steps to construct your operation
then you have a bijective homomorphism
thus isomorphism
It's interesting to note that it doesn't matter which direction you decide to prove is homomorphic - you'll arrive at the same conclusion.
ye thats worth noting
yeah
its slightly deeper than that
basically a bijective homomorphism implies that the inverse map also has homomorphism properties
f bijective => (f(a+b) = f(a)*f(b) <=> f(c*d) = f(c)+f(d))
where statements hold for all a b, and all c d
H = G/Ker(f)?
1st iso theorem was always the easiest for me to remember
f(gxg^-1)=f(g)f(x)f(g^-1)=(because x in kernal)=f(g)f(g^-1)= e, => gxg^-1 in kernel
yeah the whole group is normal
reposting because I still think this is cool
Parts (1) and (2) are respectively the First and Second Isomorphism Theorems. They are the translation into normal subgroup language of two straightforward facts: restricting a homomorphism to a subgroup yields a homomorphism, and composing two homomorphisms yields a homomorphism
the first and second are actually second and third
A restriction map is a map of known restriction sites within a sequence of DNA. Restriction mapping requires the use of restriction enzymes. In molecular biology, restriction maps are used as a reference to engineer plasmids or other relatively short pieces of DNA, and someti...
Le oof
they didnt consider the first one to be good enough to exist i guess
Got a function f:A->B, got a subset of A, C: f|_C is then the restricted function from C -> B
Where f|_C = f(x) , x in A as it would be in f:A->B
yepo
Homomorphism is just a function - so the magic is, restrict the homomorphism on your group to the subgroup - it's still a homomorphism.
this is from Stewart btw
Good old Stew
you said you were going to pick that up right?
Galois theory specifically
ye thats the one
ive read good things
although tbh I wish I gave up on the lecturer earlier
the class this was for was spilt between like group theory and galois theory
and the TA taught the galois theory bit

