#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 416 of 407
creamy shits:
why plus? You had $e^{ix}$.
Gonzo17:
don't think about it as "adding multiples of 2 pi"
How would you express 1 as $e^{ix}$ ?
Gonzo17:
yes, precisely because the period of cos is 2pi
you can look at the graph of cos, see where the 1s appear
yes
it has to be even
what's the general form of an even number ?
well you just wrote it
2n
where n is an integer
creamy shits:
so now we want the general form of how a 1 would look when written as $\cos(x)+i\sin(x)$
Gonzo17:
\2 in e^
creamy shits:
Gonzo17:
creamy shits:
creamy shits:
Yup
creamy shits:
the "not 0" makes the mmultiplicative group a group
no you first need to figure out which elements are torsion
and in this case which are those?
I advise you not to use n since it's already in use
creamy shits:
is that the condition for z to be in torsion?
cause... it's not
what z with the group operation applied m times?
creamy shits:
which do what?
you want an elemnt z with the operation applied m times to give out identity
for some m
what's the group operation?
what's the easiest way you can represent the condition of z being in torsion?
in 1 equation
but that's just the general representation of 1
say you have any z
and it's order is 5
what would it mean (in 1 equation)?
$z^5=1$ is what it means
Gonzo17:
in general $z$ is in torsion if $z^m=1$ for some m>0
Gonzo17:
and ofc integer m
so we already know z must have radius 1
so we can represent it as $e^{ix}$ for some $x$
Gonzo17:
the trigonometric form, but radius is 1
Let's sum up what we did so far
we went from $z^m=1$ for some $m$ wondering how we can get what z satisfy this
Gonzo17:
you found that z must have radius 1
and then we said we want to use the trigonometric form to represent numbers
we figured out the general form of 1 is $e^{2n\pi i}$
Gonzo17:
and now we want to represent z^m similarly
we know it has radius 1, so it's equal to $e^{ix}$ for some x
Gonzo17:
Gonzo17:
so what would $z^m$ be in this case?
Gonzo17:
$e^{ixm}=e^{2n\pi i}$
Gonzo17:
so now the function $z\to e^z$ isn't injective anymore
Gonzo17:
it is injective up to adding $2\pi i$ (because $e^{2\pi i}=1$)
Gonzo17:
but we already took care of it
by representing 1 in the general form
okay basically you'd do something like this:
$e^{i x m}=e^0$
Gonzo17:
which means $ixm=0+2\pi n$ for some n
Gonzo17:
or also recall that you proved all possible numbers $\theta$ such that $e^{\theta}=1$ are of the form $2\pi n i$
Gonzo17:
not just that $e^{2\pi n i}=1$
Gonzo17:
so if $z^m=1$
Gonzo17:
which means $e^{ixm}=1$
Gonzo17:
then $ixm$ must be of the form $2\pi n i$
Gonzo17:
what we're looking for here is x
m and n are just any integers
we've shown that "z is in torsion" is equivalent to "xm=2 pi n for some n and m"
Yeah it's just saying there exists an m
we've shown that "z is in torsion" is equivalent to "xm=2 pi n for some n and m"
so $x=\frac{2\pi n}{m}$ right ?
Gonzo17:
for some m and n
I just divided by m
which we assumed to be >0 cause it's the supposed order of z
creamy shits:
$z=e^{ix}$
Gonzo17:
and we know what x is
creamy shits:
for some m>0 and n in Z

btw we can try getting it into the form of $e^{i \pi q}$ for any rational $q$
Gonzo17:

${\frac{2n}{m}: m>0 ~\text{and} ~n\in\mathbb{N}}=\mathbb{Q}$
Gonzo17:
do you see why?
Yeah but for equality we would also need every rational to be representable like that
${\frac{2n}{m}: m>0 ~\text{and} ~n\in\mathbb{N}}=\mathbb{Q}$
ok to clarify we already found an expression for the torsion:
${z: z=e^{i\frac{2\pi n}m}$ for some $m>0$ and $m, n\in \mathbb{Z}}$
Gonzo17:
if we’re raising z^m can’t it be written as e^i2pin
It's kinda like as if you got a set ${n+3, n\in \mathbb{Z}}$
Gonzo17:
it's just the set of integers
now we also have a set that can be "simplified", idk if you wanna do it or nah
That set is just ${z: z=e^{\pi i q}, q\in\mathbb{Q}}$
Gonzo17:
creamy shits:
nice
it can't be a finite group
because every element of a finite group has finite order
and so the torsion part is the entire group
if it's self-inverse it has order 2
well
technically order 2 unless it's the identity, in which case order 1
the question is to find a non-abelian group G such that the elements of finite order don't form a subgroup?
hmm
I can't think of any off the top of my head
I've not done much with infinite groups
mniip:
with two permutations: $\alpha = (01)(23)(45)\dots(2n\ 2n+1)\dots$, $\beta=(12)(34)\dots(2n+1\ 2n+2)\dots$
mniip:
. Let f : R → R be a continuous function satisfying f (x) = f (x + √
2) =
f (x + √3) for all x. Prove that f is constant.
Show that infinitely many powers of 2 start with the digit 7
I think they're talking about integer powers of 2
@chilly ocean
Check out this group:
(a, b)| a² = e, (ab)² = e
a and ab are part of the torsion. But a×ab = b is not.
Sorry, I mean:
Take two elements, a and b.
Form a group with them, such that a² = e, (ab)² = e
Note that b to any power is in this group, so it's infinite
This is actually called the infinite dihedral group, I believe.
Nono, this is a group with infinitely many rotations. Think D∞
Like a corcel
It's impossible to really visualize, but the algebra underneath isn't too bad:
s² = e, (rs)² = e
r^(1408) is part of the group, as is any power of r
So r is not part of the torsion
i don't like that presentation
i like <a, b / a^n = e, b^2 = e, ab = ba^-1 >
for Dn
where a is rotation, b reflection
@stone fulcrum have you seen my Perm(N) example
Wat be perm(N) tho? I'll look it up
the group of N<->N bijections
@chilly ocean it means generated by a and b
with those relations
ab = ba^-1 because if you rotate and reflect, it's the same as reflecting and then rotating the other way
So note b can take on any power, b has infinite order
Although I might have gotten the (ab)² = e part wrong, and with @thorny slate's correction, I might have to change the argument
Know how it might go, Jacobian?
what argument
@chilly ocean it's just a definition of a group
as a quotient of the group with 2 generators a, b
you can also define it as actual operations in a regular polygon
since Dn is the group of symmetries of the n sided polygon
We're trying to show that the elements of finite order don't form a group
The one you presented, lol
oh this is D^infty
the one I presented is finite
it's Dn
your presentation of D^infty is fine
ab = ba^-1 is the same as what you said
Ok! That makes the argument easy then
a and ab are part of the torsion, but a×ab = b is not. So, not a group.
Oh no. We're confusing all the presentations
I mean, for this:
(a, b)| a² = e, (ab)² = e
This is a group presentation. It means "Use elements a, b to form a group, such that a² = e, and (ab)² = e"
Note I didn't give any conditions on b alone, so any power of b is possible
Yus. But a²b = b is not finite order
a × ab = a²b = b
And b has infinite order
Cuz there's no power of b, such that bⁿ = e
No closure at all. This is the kind of thing therapists live for
Yus, b = b
That's always true
Infinite
There is no n, such that
(b²)ⁿ = e
If you remove a, then the torsion is {e}, or the trivial subgroup
I'm not sure what you mean
You probably could, there's likely infinitely many ways to break closure here
I found a × ab = b to be simple, but probs not the only option
You only need one counterexample to show it isn't a group
Yes, we just say "infinite order" for something that will never loop back to the identity
Because the group it generates has infinitely many elements
We've defined the group such that it can't. a² = e, (ab)² = e, but there's no restriction on b alone
Yeah, pretty much "fine picking" what needs to happen such that the torsion isn't closed
my example isn't a free group with equations
might be easier to understand
@chilly ocean so consider $Perm(\mathbb{N})$
mniip:
the group of bijections $\mathbb{N} \leftrightarrow \mathbb{N}$
mniip:
yes
yes
this is clearly a group, under composition and the identity bijection
yes
the set of all bijections is a group yes
It's quite an important group
probably not Perm(N) but yeah, Perm(X) for an arbitrary X is an important group yes
Yeah I meant the family
do you not see why it's a group?
Yeah
Permutation group/symmetric group are just different names
Apparently it depends where you get taught
The symmetric group on infinite elements, another way to think of that, I think?
the symmetric group is usually for finite sets I thought
rather, for a very specific finite set: {0 ... n-1}
or {1..n} idk
Fair enough!
okay now, consider the function alpha that swaps 2k with 2k+1
i.e alpha(2k)=2k+1, alpha(2k+1)=2k
no
Perm(N)
alpha : N -> N
alpha is clearly a bijection, right?
I think when you say permutation group it's meant to be a subset of the symmetric group. But most people use them interchangeably
alpha is its own inverse
that means alpha^2 = e
now consider a different function: beta(2k+1) = 2k+2; beta(2k+2)=2k+1; beta(0) = 0
also bijection and self-inverse
alpha and beta are clearly torsion, but look what happens when we compose: beta composition alpha
beta(alpha(2k)) = 2k+2
for all k
(beta composition alpha)^n (2k) = 2k+2n
creamy shits:
creamy shits:
what
creamy shits:
no
nonono
$(\beta \circ \alpha)^2 = \beta \circ \alpha \circ \beta \circ \alpha$
that doesn't matter
what matters is that (beta alpha)^n is never e
identity in Perm(N)
yes
alpha and beta are torsion but beta.alpha is not
creamy shits:
so that it's a function N -> N
because it has a clause alpha(2k) =2k+1
that covers zero
creamy shits:
it is here
no
well it doesn't matter but I thought 0 in N was commonplace in the US
that's not a correct use of \mapsto
creamy shits:
yes
$\mathbb{N}\cup{0}$ ?
0 isn't in N for some people
I mean that notation is not used just so N subscript 0
creamy shits:
it's like the "arrays start at 1" vs "arrays start at 0" but in maths
I mean either way works
Realky
My prof say with 0
If they dont start with 0 then they trash

Continuing your proof by induction
Idk
🖕
@chilly ocean give me 1 reason naturals should start at 1
natural numbers in peano axiomatization have much nicer inductive definitions for addition and multiplication
when your base is the zero
so?
variables were invented only a few hundred years ago
admit it you're just too rarted to understand what 0 is
you mean isomorphic to S3?
"|G| = 6 => G abelian or G = S_3" sounds true
are you able to show that all groups of order less than 6 are abelian?
you have to prove that all groups of order 5 or less are abelian
do you?
well in this task you have a table of order 6
that's not what you're proving here
it's supposed to be obvious that it cannot be both
what you're supposed to prove is that it has to be one or the other
no
can you read?
no it doesn't
what "ways"?
and then what?
no?
you haven't proven what the question asks to prove
no you haven't
no you just can't read
there's no such thing
forall G, (G has order 6) -> (G is commutative) or (G is isomorphic to S_3)
the both part is fucking irrelevant
assume arbitrary G
use its properties
conclude it's either abelian or S_3
where φ is a homomorphism , φ:D8→D8 where φ(r^is^j)=s^j and 0≤i≤3 , 0≤j≤1 how is φ(r^i*r^j)=e?
Because e=s^0.
G=S3, H=<(12)> find the left cosets of H in G
I got H={e, (12)}
how do i find the others?
left coset is gH right
am i doing (12)H
that gets the one above
how do I find the others?
right so
I have to do the ones that are of 2,1 order
(12)(3)
(23)(1)
because the generator is of that order?
type is probably a better word
oh
eH, (12)H, (13)H , (23)H, (123)H (132)H?
ooooh yes
that makes sense
(123)H = (13)H
your definition of commutative is wrong
a group is commutative if ab = ba for all a,b in the group
so a group is not commutative if there exists a,b such that ab =/= ba
ya
ya
I don't know for sure
but I would guess that
you should start with a group of order 6, assume it isn't abelian, and show that it is the group S_3
ye
that won't work
because S_3 isn't abelian
so there won't be an isomorphism
all that proves is that S3 isn't abelian
you want to prove that any group of order 6 is abelian or isomorphic to S_3
so take a group of order 6
an arbitrary group of order 6
if it's abelian, then clearly it's abelian or isomorphic to S_3
if it's not abelian, then we need to show that it's isomorphic to S_3
this covers all the possible cases: a group is either abelian or not abelian
so we've covered all possible groups of order 6 and shown that for any particular one of them, either they're abelian or they're isomorphic to S_3
we're splitting the problem into two cases
when the group is abelian, and when it isn't
if it's abelian, then there's nothing to do
because we want to show that either it's abelian or it's isomorphic to S_3
correct
:^)
creamy shits:
creamy shits:
well, what are the possible orders of elements in a non-abelian group of order 6?
creamy shits:
the orders must exist in a finite group
but ya each element in the group has order 1,2,3 or 6
if the group is not abelian, can you remove any of these possibilities?
yes
I don't think so
the fact that the element is a generator if it has order 6 shows something more
so what kind of group is G6 if there's an element of order 6?
the entire group is generated by a single element
so it's a cyclic group
because that's the definition of a cyclic group
For these types of proofs, if it's commutative you don't need to say anything. Just show that it's isomorphic to S3 in the other case
ya that's what we're doing
a cyclic group is one that has a generator i.e. an element that generates the whole group
ya
exactly
the only element with order 1 is the identity in any group
Identity elements are always unique
so we know that all non-identity elements have order 2 or order 3
do there exist any elements of order 3?
you're right :^)
ok I've got an idea to show there are necessarily elements of order 2 and order 3 in G_6
ya nice
what if they're all order 2?
besides identity
if a,b are non-identity elements
what is the inverse of ab?
generally in a group (ab)^-1 = b^-1 a^-1
so if every non-identity is self-inverse
then b = b^-1 and a = a^-1
so (ab)^-1 = ba
however (ab)^-1 = ab because every element is self-inverse
because ab is itself an element of the group because of closure
so we have ab = ba
wut
Order 3 is what you have
how did you get elements of order 2 have no inverses 🤔
I have no idea how you got that from what i said :^)
Yeah that's what's just been shown
what we just did showed that if every element is self-inverse then the group is abelian
so there must be an element of order 3
See if you can get to the end from here
ya
I don't know if the orders of the elements of a finite group being the same is enough to say that they're isomorphic but it's definitely necessary
ya
If you had suppose you take 3 elements of order 3
Now a^2 = a^-1
b^2 = b^-1
c^2 = c^-1
creamy shits:
Yeah I'm not sure it leads anywhere
well we need to show that an element of order 2 and an element of order 3 commute
lets call the elements in the group something
say
{e,a,b,b^2,c,c^2}
now ca =/= c because a isn't the identity
and ca =/= e because a =/= c^2
also ca =/= c^2 by left-inverses that would mean a = c
if ca = c^2
then c^-1 (ca) = (c^-1) c^2
so a = c
but this isn't true because we've defined them to be different elements
c^2 = cc
c^-1(cc) = (c^-1c)c = ec = c because we have associativity
because they're elements of order 3
ok I'll go through how I defined the set of elements in the group
e is the identity
a is the self-inverse i.e. a^2 = e
b is an element of order 3
thus bb = b^2 is in the group
closure
b operated with itself is always in the group if b is
the closure property is that if you take any two elements of the group (that could be the same but don't have to be) and operate them in either order, then the result is an element of the group
yes
and c =/= e and c^2 =/= e
if c is in the group
then cc is a valid way to choose two elements of the group
ye
so we got to ca = b or ca = b^2
it doesn't really matter which because (b^2)^2 = b^4 = b
it doesn't matter which for reasons you'll see in a minute
similarly we can see that c^2a = b or c^2a = b^2
but we know that ca =/= c^2a
so ca c^2a = bb^2 or ca c^2a = b^2 b
but both are equal to b^3 = e
so (ca)^-1 = c^2a
however (ca)^-1 = a^-1c^-1 = ac^2
so c^2 and a commute
however the same argument goes to show that any element of order 3 commutes with the element of order 2
c^2a = b or c^2 a = b^2
same reason ca = b or ca = b^2
you do the same argument to show that ba = c or ba = c^2
and b^2a = c^2 or b^2a = c
ya the above argument works for any element of order 3 and the element of order 2
but then after that you need to show that b and c commute ye
but that one's not too hard
you just need to show that bc = cb = a
creamy shits:
creamy shits:
{e, a, b, c, d, d^2}
creamy shits:
well in the group S_3, ab = c
You can define your isomorphism explicitly
It's not elegant but it gets the job done
do the orders of the elements specify a unique group?
don't you need to specify a subgroup for conjugacy
Conjugates are just two elements where a = kxk^-1
So a and x are conjugates
But its kind of pointless using conjugates now because it would have made the whole question a lot quicker
Since at one point you knew the group had 6 elements. Since it's non abelian you know that the only conjugacy class of size 1 is the identity
Then the only way to partition the group in to conjugacy classes is a class of size 2 and a class of size 3
But I think @raw moth had a better way
since the size of a conjugate class is the index of the normalizer subgroup of that element hmm
that's nice
Yeah so it must divide 6
ya
But it feels a bit cheaty
o I guess for individual elements it's the same as the centralizer
the centralizer subgroup of an element consists of the set of elements that commute with the element
I think
Centralizer of an element ya
I always get centre and centraliser confused too
Centre is just intersection of all centralizers
I think centralizer = commutes with one element centre = commutes with everyone
ya
Yeah me too
It'll come up later
They were just like "eh, intersect these centralizers, you'll be fine"
Pretty much ^^
Although centralisers aren't that special in a group but non trival centres are
They sure have some neat properties you can bounce off of
And normalisers are basically just the "is pepsi okay?" of groups
Yeah.
Just e -> e_s3
a -> (12) etc
a morphism from one group to another is just a function from the elements of one group to the elements of the other one
I'm not sure if the order of every element makes the group unique up to isomorphisms
I think it's more proving it's isomorphic
Since you need to show that f(a * b ) =f(a) • f(b)
You could copy down the proof to Cayley's theorem and adjust it
Because it basically does thst
Errr it specifies that it's a subgroup of S_n doesn't it?
Well now we've shown it's the whole group S3
So there would still have been work to do
But I assume the purpose of that work wasn't to get you to look up Cayley's theorem and nuke the question
So maybe don't include
It
cayley's theorem just says that the group is a subgroup of S_6 I thought
right, but then you need to prove that there are no other non-abelian subgroups of order 6
creamy shits:
Also why \mathfrak{} it's just a regular letter?
I see
Fair enough
Any Greek letter at A Level was pretty high tech NGL
I remember thinking that trig was the 'end' of maths at GCSE
creamy shits:
And then the hyperbolic bois^^
love hyperbolics
Really I felt like hyperbolics were easier
comes from the definition of the unit hyperbola
Because you could always break them down in terms of exp(x)

Just twist it 45°
Try and bullet point your arguments
also no need to copy paste the whole thing every time 🤔
Also when you prove something
Do it at the middle
enumerate > itemize
Same thing ¯_(ツ)_/¯
Not even
Yeah
,tex \lipsum[2-4]
Jichael Mackson:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
Riperoni
textmode vs mathmode
Jichael Mackson:
Nah renderer is still borked
,tex ao;sidjfasdhfasdhg;asdhgalsdhgkasdhglkahsdashdlahsd;fajsdfaijdf;ajsdf;ajdf;aosdijfa;doifjas;d $$asdofiajs;dofiaj$$ aosidfjaoi;sdjg;aosdj;aiosdjf;oasdf;ioasd;fioajsdo;fja;doifja;sdojf;aosdjf;aosdjf;oaisdjf;aoisdjf;o
Jichael Mackson:
,tex $$\text{\frac{new}{line}}$$
TheFornicatingFalcon:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
:^)
Tf you just do
put a fraction inside a text
¯_(ツ)_/¯
fractions aren't supposed to be used in textmode
Haha grats on discovering that
Nah
shift and enter
It is actually centered but the extra space is cropped
creamy shits:
,$ 5 \ 3
Jichael Mackson:
,$5
3
5 \\ 3
o I guess the tex newline also works
$$5 \newline 3$$
It is but only the full image
Jichael Mackson:
I think newline is supposed to be used in textmode
Jichael Mackson:
That's effort
@yes Get texmaker, you bleb
What the devil you trying to do
Lol
Viva la revolucion!
Trying to align equations to the cropped centre @delicate chasm
Mathbot doesn't even have equation mode
You can use texw if you really really want the full width
Add it to your own preamble if you want it
I can modify my preamble?
Yes
I should just read the docs shouldn't I?
Yes
That's why the bot is fantastic
Where can you read the docs? Help command?
,help
,align
a &= b\
c &= d
Puerøsola:
Lovelehh


Oml
°ω°
I'm glad you like it btw Tuong :)
( ^_^)
So yeah
Now awaiting approval
Is it downloading the package or something?
Texmaker oof
Which one?
dafak is this software
why are the integrals so small, why no consistent italic, o god why why D:
Please migrate to a real editor sometime
er ask and hopefully someone chimes in.
Yeah! Feel free, here to help
What about it?
The identity in An is the "do nothing" which is an even permutation
the group operator for the sign is multiplication
I would guess so
just guessing from context tbh
It's a homomorphism. It takes an element from Sn and returns an element from {-1, 1} under multiplication
Depending on odd/even
The identity of {-1, 1} is 1, obv
Lel
Ker(sgn) = An
implebian sounds like a group property
No that's fair, you're getting used to the notation
You're figuring out your implebain
Note the important fact that An is always a normal subgroup of Sn. And seriously, that becomes important.
If you take Galois anyway
Whew
Let's say g generates the group
gⁿ for some n gives any element in the group you may want
φ(gⁿ) = φ(g)ⁿ cuz φ splits over the group operation
if φ is a homomorphism, then φ(ab) = φ (a) φ(b)
this is what is meant by splits over the group operation
= φ(a) φ(a) φ(a) ... φ(a)
So φ(gⁿ) = φ(ggg...) = φ(g)φ(g)φ(g)...
φ(gⁿ) = φ(g)ⁿ
So if you know φ(g), you can get φ(gⁿ) for all n, and thus you get φ of any element in the group
Everything's determined
True as well if there's multiple generators, similar proof.
if your set of generators is {a,b,c} for example
every element is a finite product of a,b,c in some order
That's exactly the proof we did just now
The group has to be cyclic if it has a single generator
And they define it to be a morphism. I don't know why they're asking you to prove that
Yay
💪
Yeah, that's a mapping
@chilly ocean imagine you mean S_3 not S_6
not Cayley's theorem?
cayley's theorem says every group of order 6 is isomoprhic to a subgroup of S_6
no
it has to be a subgroup of order 6
of which S_3 is one
the cyclic group of order 6 is another
and if there was another non-abelian group of order 6 it would be that as well
so I don't think that it actually helps with the question
unless there's something you can do that I'm missing
but anyway, next part of the question
it is but it doesn't prove it
creamy shits:
$\mathbb{Z}_7^\times=\mathbb{Z}_7\setminus{0}$?
Z/7Z without the class of 0 seems fair
Its the multiplicative group of units
also happens to be the group of inversibles for ×
ain't they like, the permutations of {1,...,6}?
you wanna map generators to generators
think about what the generators of the multiplicative group are :)
1*1=1 mod 7
ya that'll work then just from that I think
are there any others 
now what can you conclude about 6?
why
it's not an ordered set 
also 6=2*3
also consider that 6 =7-1
so it's like -1
meaning?
what's its order :^)
what's the order of -1
👏
there's a lot of tricks here 
6x6 = (-1)x(-1) = 1 mod 7
okay, now try to solve the problem keeping in mind generators of cyclic group
1-1
2-4-8-1-2
3-2-6-4-5-1-3
4-2-1-4
5-4-6-2-3-1-5
6-1-6
you got this boi
@chilly ocean i'm with you buddy!

oh
um
do you know what the generators of a cyclic group are?
1 is a generator always
since cyclic is just addition
what else though
um
they don't have to be common
you can map one generator to another generator
but you're sorta onto something
a hint is that
you can easily classify the generators of cyclic groups, in general for all natural n
(the multiplicative case is slightly more nuanced)
consider divisibility and stuff
like if m<n and m|n can m be a gen of C_n
why or why not
umm
consider 4 in C_{2^10}
how about like 3 in C_{70}
so you don't want to assume that all groups will work like small order groups like Z_6
3*23=70-1
i guess it doesn't 🤔
um
you'd want 3*71
no, since 3*24=2 mod 70
cyclic group is addition
so the things 3 generates are of the form {3,3+3,...n*3} not {3,...,3^n}
but in any case it can only generate at most 1/3+1/2 = 5/6's of the elements of C_70
no, because it doesn't generate every element 🤷
then 0 would be a generator
if n is odd i think 2 works as gen for C_n
ya
nah, since if m|n you're already boned
um
consider like 3 in C_27
you just would get stuff like {3n \mod 27}
ya ummm
might need a moment to think about this 😄
you can still solve the problem you have with what you're given since C_6 sm0l boi
and since 0,2,3 divide C_6 you know anything divisible by those won't be a generator (hence why you know a priori 4 will not be a gen for C_6)
but you know 1 and n-1 will be generators
um
ya you're right should be 1
yeah, and n-1
(since it's basically -1)
ya
so ya...each has 2 generators i guess
pls sum1 walk me thru dis
The only proper subgroups are nZ. Does that help?
what is a proper subgroup
a subgroup not the group itself
And not the trivial group
what is a group
most general math object right
from which rings fields and all are derived
whats the defintion tho
So a book or a YouTube video may give everything you need here
ur right
SA was reading from this
It's advanced, but you should be able to get some of it, then ask questions

keep reading SA
what's a Z-module tho
so you know what a vector space is right?
Think a vector space where the scalars are integers
oh nvm
and a Z-algebra just means you can "multiply" vectors
Z modules are abelian groups
they're like "vectors" over the group elements, with coefficients in Z being the exponent on the elements
you can write them in this fashion cuz it's abelian
exactly
explain last sentence
torsion elements are the elements of finite order
this is a definition
yeah it's not a result, it's a definition
idk the fact that they form a subgroup is a result
well it's straight forward from commutativity
define subgroup
ya
it's a subset that's also a group
kk
subset of elements of a group that form a group with respect to the same group operation

and in general you can concatenate words, or take out a convenient word to make it sound nice
for general math words
so basically taking the elements that have finite order form a subgroup
vector space, subset that's also a vector space, → subspace
yes
note that u need commutativity for this, without that you can construct counterexamples
🤢
commutative addition, subtraction, multiplication, division (by Nonzero), mult distributes like normal

any system where you can do the normal arithmetic operations
it's a commutative group in both operations, with your usual distribution
like R
kk
some people have their field def have a commutative mult, some other people don't
This reference is great, I like the speed. I just wish it didn't reference stuff that you need to have passed group theory to know
which reference ?
gib basic thing for me to proof about groups
prove that |ab|=|ba|
|a| = ?
where a,b are arbitrary group elements and |ab| is finite
Take an element of a finite group, multiply it by itself until you get the identity. Prove the elements generated this way makes a subgroup.
|a| is least positive integer n such that aⁿ = e
oh the order of a 
if it's infinite then it's infinite
I guess it's not a positive integer
you don't really write it down then, you'd just say it's infinite
a better definition is the order of the group generated by it
which is what kaynex wrote
$n \in \mathbf N: a^n = e; \text{moreover for all } m \in \mathbf N: a^m=e, n|m$
mine is a bit more involved of a proof, but group theory proofs are basically just puzzles
flimflam:
you don't really need to know anything to do them, just problem solving skills
and good at puzzles
and if u don't have those then lots of patience and persistence
ya, especially if you restrict to finite/countable groups
either way works
for most questions you'll encounter, it's not like there's some op theorem that'll overkill it
it's just called being a god at puzzles
which is what I like about group theory tbh 
XD
$b(ab)^n=(ba)^nb$ (induction + associativity)\$b(ab)^n=(ba)^m(ba)^{n-m}b$\$be=e(ba)^{n-m}b$\$be=(ba)^{n-m}b$\$be=b(ab)^{n-m}$\$e=(ab)^{n-m}$
Simple_Art:
I think this proves that $m\ge n$ and we can do the same for $m$
Simple_Art:
sec
ur late
um
well that shows that |ab| divides |n-m|
Let n = |ab| and m = |ba|
it doesn't really matter if it's positive or negative unless u have a double inequality
think it'd be better to show that n|m and m|n
bounding on both sides
since elements are invertible negative exponents are just powers of the inverse
but didn't you say that n = |ab| is the least positive integer such that (ab)^n = e?
ya
i didn't say that 
and m = |ba| is the least positive integer such that (ba)^m = e
well I did :P
this means m > 0
Ya
If n-m > 0, that means I've proven that n-m = |ab|
why?
or rather, n-m is less than n
and satisfies "(ab)^(n-m) = e"
and n-m is a positive integer
Which contradicts the definition of n
ohoh that I guess is a misunderstanding
you can have (ab)^k = e
where k is negative
Yes, I know
that's why I said n-m must be ≤ 0
to avoid the contradiction
hence n ≤ m
and you can do my entire argument again to prove n ≥ m
=> n = m
like it probably works but I am slow and skeptic 🤔
i c mupkip
hi
$a(ba)^{2n}=(ab)^{2n}a$\$a(ba)^{2n}=(ab)^n(ab)^na$\$ae=e(ab)^na$\$ae=(ab)^na$\$ae=a(ba)^n$\$e=(ba)^n$
this proves that |ba| ≤ n < 2n = m which is a contradiction
wait typos
I think this one can be nuked
u can be nuked
no nukes
ya no nukes tho !!
Simple_Art:
ok u can DM me 😄
for abelian isn't $(ab)^n=a^n b^n$
flimflam:
I never used that
yes @solar wyvern
you should 🤔
but it's not abelian
but I think this should prove that |ba| ≤ n < 2n = m
which is a contradiction
meaning we can't have m = 2n
maybe up to something like m=-n
ok then you're probably good


