#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 414 of 407
as nx - mx is never an integer for any n, m in Z if x is irrational
(unless n = m haha)
so you only need to look at subgroups where all elements are rational, i.e., subgroups of Q/Z
Does anyone in here know about affine group schemes?
„Does anyone in here know about affine group schemes?“
I know what an affine group scheme is, but I think I can only answer rather elementary questions about them.
The category of affine group schemes is equivalent to the opposite of the category of cogroup objects in the category of rings.
So, up to a category-equivalence, an affine group scheme is a ring A, together with ring homomorphisms μ : A → A⊗A, and ι : A → ℤ, such that some diagrams commute.
while a morphism of affine group schemes, is just a ring homomorphism between the underlying rings going in the opposite direction
what do you have to know about affine group schemes?
Nice question
so how could a generator look then
creamy shits:
yeah but in terms of $n_k$ and $m_k$
Gonzo17:
@hollow comet I know a little bit about affine group schemes but I'm not an expert!
well not necessarily
at least that's not a property we're interested in
we want the generator multiplied by an integer (and then fractional part of it) to be any element H
1/3 * 2 = 2/3
no, you multiply a fraction by integers
I mean, the group operation applied n times
if the generator is $\frac{1}{4}$ then we want $H\subset {0, \frac{1}{4}, \frac{2}{4}, \frac{3}{4}, }$
Gonzo17:
if the group is $H={\frac{m_1}{n_1}, \ldots , \frac{m_k}{n_k}}$
Gonzo17:
then what could a viable generator be?
what if m1/n1 = 1/2 but m2/n2 = 1/3?
what? no you don't need to
have you ordered these in some way?
like $H={0, \frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{3}{4}, }$
Gonzo17:
1/2 doesn't generate it
ok but working with the smallest element would be really hard
we don't care right now if the generator would even be in H
what? the generator of a subgroup is always contained in that subgroup
we just want sth that definitely would be a generator if it was in H
yeah I want to show that a specific element $f(m_1, m_2, m_3 ... , m_k, n_1, n_2, ... , n_k)$ that we set up to be a generator is in H from properties of groups
Gonzo17:
so like $\frac{1}{n_1 \cdot n_2 \cdot \ldots \cdot n_k}$
Gonzo17:
this would definitely be a generator if it was in H
maybe I missed something but I feel like you've already solved the problem. if H is a finite subgroup of Q/Z (or equivalently R/Z), then H is cyclic and generated by the smallest nonzero element of H
and you can prove that statement in that form
yeah it isn't that's the problem
what isn't?
ok now I look like an idiot
let me just feed you this step
consider $\frac{1}{GCD(n_1, n_2, ... , n_k)}$
Gonzo17:
@chilly ocean the smallest element of H is obviously contained in H
but gonzo why would you do it that way?
you can directly work with the smallest nonzero element of H
let K be the subgroup of H generated by the smallest nonzero element x of H. We want to show that K = H. Suppose not. Let y be an element in H but not in K
there is a unique minimal n such that nx > y. Then 0 < (n-1)y < x is still in H, but that contradicts the choice of x.
no nonsense with gcds required
and tbh even I overcomplicated it; I never needed to even give K a name. I thought I would need to reference it again but I didn't haha
and it wouldn't be that much longer
I mean I'm not saying it wouldn't work, but you have to all of a sudden worry about things like reduced forms of fractions, gcds, maybe some kind of euclidean algorithm
yeah that's way easier I can give you that
like even proving that "if n_1, ..., n_k are denominators of reduced forms of elements of H, then their gcd is, too" is gonna be a little icky
depending on how precise you wanna be
not really
I guess youre right, you could do it by induction or something
there's always x, y such that $n_i x+n_j y=GCD(n_i, n_j)$
Gonzo17:
because you want to show that the smallest nonzero element of H generates H
by my definition, the smallest nonzero element of H generates K, because K is the subgroup generatd by it
we know that K is contained in H since x is
so to say that H = K (or equivalently that H is contained in K)
is saying that every element of H is some multiple of x
which is what we want
creamy shits:
creamy shits:
y is not in K, so by assumption it's not a multiple of x
since the multiples of x are precisely what K is
so there is some smallest multiple of x that is larger than y
or equivalently, some largest multiple of x that is less than y
what do you mean? both are true?
I called the first one n and the second one n-1
what? y is some finite rational number between 0 and 1
so is x
why isnt my message sending >:(
multiply x by 99999999
for some suitably large 99999999
and it's obviously gonna be bigger than y
what
what
what has to be in H
that's not relevant here
what???
that doesn't matter here
forget about K and H
do you agree that given two rational numbers x and y in [0,1), there is a smallest n such that nx > y
you're not forgetting H and K lol
but in any case that diagram isn't accurate
you should think of H as some finite scattering of points in [0,1) and K as some regular scattering of poitns contained in that
start with x, it's smaller than y
look at 2x. maybe it's bigger than y in which case you're done
if not, look at 3x. maybe it's bigger than y in which case youre done
if not, look at 4x
etc
eventually you have to get bigger than y
like if x = a/b, then b*x is larger than 1
but y was less than 1
so clearly bx > y
so somewhere between 1*x and b*x
you had to go from "less than y" to "greater than y"
test what
which set? you're correct that the set {nx : n in N} has no maximum inside Q
yes
true but not relevant
what i'm talking about now is happening inside Q, not inside Q/Z
again I'm working in Q, not in Q/Z
forget about H and K for a moment. Forget about Q/Z. I have two rational numbers x and y with x < y
do you agree that there is some smallest n such that nx > y
as rational numbers
yes but right now I want specifically the smallest one
great, so we can write (n-1)x < y < nx
now subtract (n-1)x from all terms
0 < y - (n-1)x < x
great. now this is true as rational numbers, and everything involved is between 0 and 1
so now the same statement is true in Q/Z
Q/Z is literally just Q but you forget integer parts of things
it doesn't matter if you forget the integer part before you subtract or after you subtract
I mean if you're really concerned about this, just remember that (n-1)x is also less than 1
because it's less than y
uhhhhh I woudln't really go that far
well it could be equal to 1 a priori
but (n-1)x is certainly less than 1
because it's less than y
so the equality 0 < (n-1)x < y < nx \leq 1
is true in [0,1)
now subtract (n-1)x from everything
that's true in [0,1)
and NOW you are allowed to remember H
and you say "wait a minute, x was the smallest thing in H, but y - (n-1)x is in H and smaller than x!"
okay
the order on Q/Z is EXACTLY the same as the order on Q, as long as all of the integer parts of the numbers in question is 0
the integer parts of x and y - (n-1)x are both 0
the fact that there is no maximum in [0,1) really isn't relevant here
maybe you're not thinking of Q/Z in the best way
just think of it as Q intersect [0,1)
except you wrap around back to 0 once you hit 1
oh shit it's 11:30 i have to go
yeah sorry to rush out
here is another related problem that you might have done: Prove that every subgroup of Z is cyclic
how do you prove that? You say "let H be a nontrivial subgroup of Z and let x be the smallest positive element in H"
and then you prove that H msut be generated by x
in exactly the same way we're doing here
try working through that logic
and then see if you can apply that logic to this problem
(that same logic being: if y is in H but not a multiple of x, then there is a smallest n such that nx > y, but then y - (n-1)x is in H but not 0 and also less than x, contradiction)
good luck!
feel free to keep posting your thoughts here, I wont see them for a while but I will respond at some point, and maybe someone else will see them and can help as well
see you!
I haven't read the question but closure under addition?
So when you combine two things in the group you get something else in the group
Exactly
Remember if y-(n-1)x = 0. Then y = (n-1)x so y is in K
That's why we have the restriction 0<y-(n-1)x
I'm just pointing it out lol
Wait idgi that proof is fine
What part are you stuck on?
Yes
if (n-1)x = y
then y is in K
Because (n-1)x = x + x .... + x n-1 times
It's a proof by contradiction so y-(n-1)x is not in K
No.
If (n-1)x = y then y is generated by x.
creamy shits:
If y = (n-1)x = x + x.....+x (n-1) times
Correct?
So then y is generated by x. Everything generated by x is in K
Do you agree that y = (n-1)x implies that y is generated by x?
So we cannot have y = (n-1)x
Remember K is the group generated by x. So if we had y=(n-1)x then y is in K
For our proof by contradiction we're selecting some element that is in H but not in K
There's no mention of G
But H is a subgroup and K is the group generated by the smallest thing in H
You're trying to prove H is generated by x
So you're doing it by contradiction
By assuming it's not generated by x
There might be more generators but you're taking the smallest one
It doesn't matter if there's 2. If you have a finite set of numbers one of them will be the smallest
Exactly
Which means the group generated by x = K is the same as H
Your proof doesn't matter if there are 2 generators in K.
Because one of them will be smaller than the other
You're showing that it is cyclic
Wait I just re-read the question K is cyclic
Because it's defined as being generated by x which is the smallest member
That means H is cyclic
If K is generated by x and K = H. Then H = <x>
Yeah but it was a proof by contradiction
You assumed that K = \ = H. And then show that it leads to a problem
The problem is that you can find an element smaller than x
Yeah
No
Let me explain
-
x is the smallest thing in H
-
Let's assume H =/= K. Then by our assumption there must be a y which is in H but not in K
Do you follow so far?
K is the group generated by x
H was a group of rational numbers wasn't it?
Okay and G is a group of what?
So H is some subset of G.
creamy shits:
And H has a least member
Okay we know that H has a least member
Which is called x
And we also know that we can generate a group with this x
Yes
Now let's assume that they're not equal so K must be smaller than H
And we'll generate K by using x as our generator
Now because H > K there has to be at least one element y that's in H but not K
Yeah
And you know K is a group
Yeah it's easy to prove
You don't need to
Anyway by our earlier argument
(n-1)x <y < nx
Yes?
So if y = (n-1)x
Then y is generated by x
We're taking something that is not in K which is the group generated by x
Now to get from (n-1)x to nx. We add an x
So to go from (n-1)x to y
We have to add something smaller than x
(n-1)x + x = nx yes?
So because (n-1)x < y and because (n-1)x and y are both in H
then y-(n-1)x is also in H
This is the closure property
Yeah because K is a subset of H
Exactly
Now because (n-1)x < y < nx
I'm going to subtract (n-1)x from this inequality
So 0<y-(n-1)x < x
Again because of closure
Everything in this inequality is in H
Let t = y-(n-1)x
Now t<x
And t is inside H
Which means that t is the smallest member of H
But we said that x was the smallest member
So we have a contradiction
There we go ^
Hence K = H
Yeah
I've been going through the chatlog a bit; you mean finite subgroup, right?
marvellous
(though the order of the two sentences is still a bit wonky)
how about (potential) infinite noncyclic subgroups?
@chilly ocean
it just says any subgroup.
I'm just reading off the problem statement you posted
creamy shits:
Your assumption was that x was the smallest but it turns out y-(n-1)x is the smallest.
In fact you could say t = y-(n-1)x
And then do the whole thing again
And create something smaller than t
@chilly ocean it means that under the assumption H =/= K. H can't have a smallest member but we know H does so that assumption of H =/= K is wrong
Now either H = K or H = \ =K
Sorry typo
:^)
creamy shits:
u there @chilly ocean
what's "smallest element in H" mean
smallest as in with respect to R?
"set generated by..." should be group?
Omit In addition to H being a subgroup, this is already assumed.
might seem trivial, but u might want to point out that the subgroup <0> is cyclic congruent to C_1
also I'm not sure you can use a minimality argument since G and therefore its subgroups, do not have any order on them
consider $x=\dfrac23,y=\dfrac34$.
$2x = \dfrac13, 3x = 0, 4x=x; \therefore nx<y, \forall n \in \mathbf N$
flimflam:
yo im back
@solar wyvern as I said a while ago when you're finding n, you're working in Q, not in Q/Z
the proof is correct
what counterexample?
that's not a counterexample?
take n = 2
2*2/3 = 4/3 > 3/4
I dont see the issue...
did you work through the other proof I told you about? that every subgroup of Z is cyclic?
I told you how to do it though
yes
let H be a nontrivial subgroup of Z. let x be the smallest nonzero element of H
we want to prove that H is generated by x. suppose not. Then there is some y in H that is not a multiple of x
let n be the smallest number such that nx > y
then 0 < y - (n-1)x < x
and y - (n-1)x is in H, by closure
and it's nonzero because y is not equal to (n-1)x, because we chose y so that it wasn't a multiple of x
this contradicts our initial choice of x
QED
not sure
:)
the proof you're doing now is literally the same argument
nope
the only place you need the finiteness assumption in the Q/Z case is to guarantee that there is a smallest element of H
because finite sets have smallest elements, whereas infinite subsets of Q need not have a smallest element
however we don't need that assumption with Z because it's just true that every subset of the natural numbers has a least element
(by the well ordering principle)
I have to go again
if you're still struggling I recommend just stepping back for a bit
you've been at this for hours and I know with me, if I stare at the same thing for too long, it gets super twisted in my head and I can't keep things straight anymore
I mean you can work on another question
I have to go again
ya sorry i goofed
I mean if all you care about is the grade then I've already given you a proof to write down lol
so why not move on to another question and try to understand that one?
maybe a slight change would be beneficial
Grades are for nerds smh
in any case I have to go now, gl
okay, so how about trying n prime first
so you have an abelian group G
yes.
also since it asks about elements with the order dividing n u can restrict yourself to elements with finite order
🤷
a group of order n generates a subgroup iso to C_n
no just cyclic group of order n 😄
okay u seem like u need brek
Puerøsola:
It's also the order of the broup it generates
THe order of a group is just the size
$\langle a \rangle = {e, a, a^2, a^3, \dots} = {e, a, e, a, e, a, \dots } = {e,a }$
Puerøsola:
Yep!
Yep
Lagrange says that every subgroup of your group has order dividing the order of the group
So in particular every element has an even order except the identity, as you stated
So, every element $a \in G$ with $a\neq e$ satisfies $a^{2n} = e$ for some $n > 0$
Puerøsola:
Helps to write things out in symbols sometimes
It does in this case
What you are looking for is an element $b\in G$ with $b \neq e$ such that $b^2 = e$
Puerøsola:
How do you mean split the power?
Write that out, don't just say it
Yeah, but write it down :P
Yep
creamy shits:
Puerøsola:
creamy shits:
Um
creamy shits:
creamy shits:
creamy shits:
YES
Then you're done :D
Want me to write the proof as a whole?
Sometimes helpful to see
Sure! And you did most of the work :P
Nah the key point was Lagrange's theorem xD
And seeing that it implied elements had even order
You were so close with $a^na^n$ lol
Puerøsola:
I was like that's a square
Power rules like that should be ingrained in you.. just takes practice, is all :)
You'll be fine

@chilly ocean C3 a subgroup of C12
creamy shits:
@chilly ocean every H doesn't have to be even order (at least not from whatever you've said), but you can show there exist even order subgroups by demonstrating even order elements
like I said
You'll need it, but first you need to be a bit more careful
instead of saying all H are even order, you want to show there exists H even order
try by contradiction that no even order element exist
note this won't immediately net you an order 2 element
Not sure if this is too obvious, but I'll spell it out once:
The order of $a \in G$ equal to the order of the cyclic group $<a> \leq G$
flimflam:
leq meaning subgroup
what proof are you working on now?
not true
also: what is H?
a random subgroup of G or a specific one?
it's not true that "all subgroups of a group of even order also have even order"
for example, Z/3Z is a subgroup of Z/6Z
I'm not sure if lagrange will help you
creamy shits:
oh, yeah, that's basically lagrange's theorem haha
so I guess it is helpful!
also wait a minute
nvm thats not true
It would be true if you had $\exists n > 0$ instead of $\forall n > 0$
Buncho Bananas:
saying an element has order 2n means that a^(2n) = 0
no quantifiers
what IS true is the following statement:
wait a minute nvm im still being dumb
no quantifier on n at all
let me try again hahaha
what is true is the following:
If $G$ is a finite group (which it is in our case) then for all $a \in G$, $a^{|G|} = e$
Buncho Bananas:
what you wrote at first is not true
because it would imply that every element of G had order 2
which is clearly false in most groups with even order
yeah but then it's trivial because it follows from what I wrote, just taking n to be |G|/2
forget what I said about "change it to exists"
so maybe we should back up a bit: can you go over again what your plan of attack is for this problem?
what is H
H is a subgroup of G
but which one? just a random one?
how does taking a random subgroup of G help you here?
how does taking a random subset of G help you here?
correct
:)
yes
a^2 = e
well that's the whole problem haha
what do you mean by a being even or not?
but G is a random group
what does 2n mean in a random group G
Oof
but what does it mean for an element of G to be even
I know what it means for the order of G to be even
that's what you're trying to prove
Yah
I can see how to prove it with Lagrange
The standard way is a counting argument
Oh no I think I inadvertently found the nerd chat. But it seems we're talking group theory
Lol
It's trivial xD
@delicate chasm i actually can't see a lagrange proof lol, I can only see the counting argument
Every group of even order has an element of even order
Sorry I didn't check that before crem xD
@chilly ocean >the order of G to be even just means that the number of elements it has is an even number
yes, the definition of "the order of G" is "the number of elements in G"
element of order 2*
so if one is even, then the other is too, because they are the same thing
Oh okay I was about to say, that's def a Lagrange argument to just say even order. I mean I guess you could also use Lagrange here as well
That was also my first thought, but...
is there even a lagrange argument to give even order?
maybe im just being dense but lagrange only tells you that the order divides an even number
Oh right whoops
but like, for example, what if you had a group of order 10 but all the elements happened to have order 1 or 5
I don't think lagrange is helpful here
Well you can just apply Cauchy and be done with it lol
Lel
I mean that's obviously not the intended solution
Yeah
you could say that about any homework problem haha
"just apply the fact that it's true"
:P
Yeah I had a problem like this, I think on my very first algebra pset, far before we did Cauchy
"if it weren't true then you wouldn't have assigned it, QED"
Lol
With at least one professor here that argument wouldn't hold...
XD
I can think of several haha
Like with low probabiliyt
Same
The guy who taught analysis last winter would ask students to start the pset early to find inevitable mistakes
Don't google it
I guess you have to go for the standard counting type argument
It's a standard problem
The guy teaching algebraic geometry last semester had several problems on the pset which started with "fix the following problem and solve it"
Yup same problem
I suppose no Lagrange for b?
Nope
@chilly ocean my honest recommendation is that you should call it a night and tackle it again tomorrow
you've been at this for like 12 hours now
at least haha
don't worry, it's pretty subtle if youve never seen it before!
thats a good goal!
Is this for a pset or are you just kinda doing random problems at your own pace?
Either way it's prob a good plan, just curious in general
Excellent
i luv u euclid😚
can anyone explain to me the general idea of orbits/stabilisers and thus burnsides counting theorem?
creamy shits:
Okay, that is a lot to read
Can you make a summary of where you're at?
Stay strong
Hahaha
Okay, what are you trying to prove?
Okay
I think you are almost there from what I read
Waaaaaaaait
creamy shits:
I don't think that a proof by contradiction is the way to go
So for starters the group has even order, so it has at least two elements, right?
So at least you have one element which is not the identity
Sure
Take that element
What does Lagrange theorem tell you about its order?
Sure, you are right
Wait
Wait
Let me start again xD
What does it mean for an element to have order 2?
Yes, but maybe you have to put it another way
creamy shits:
This is the proper definition
But what are the important things in groups
Okay
Let us think about inverses
What would be the inverse of an element of order 2?
Nope
It is true
But I mean something more concrete
creamy shits:
Well...
I don't mean exactly that
You can literally say which one is the inverse element
Nein
That's it
An element of order 2 is always its own inverse
(how does this work xd)
,$ a a = e
edelopo:
Do you see why?
So you agree that an element of order 2 is its own inverse, right?
Is the converse also true?
Exactly
So that is what we are going to look for
To find an element of order 2, we are going to find an element which is its own inverse
Does that sound good?
ehmmm it's not equivalent
It is
$e$
Gonzo17:
Okay, you are right
is it's own inverse
Apart from e
ok then
The proof I'm thinking is based on that
No, he is actually right, it is important to point that out
We want a non-identity element which is its own inverse
Cool
So back to the order of the group
We have an even number of elements
And we don't want the identity, so we forget it
We have 2n-1 elements
Yup
Every element has an inverse, right?
Now we go with the contradiction
Let us assume that there are no elements of order 2
Sure
You got it?
creamy shits:
?
No, it is not that
Any element has an inverse, and if there are no elements of order 2, this means that there are no elements that are their own inverse
Right?
So we may make pairs of inverses ${g, g^{-1}}$
edelopo:
But making pairs always gives an even number of elements
And we have an odd number of elements
So this is not possible
I would suggest trying to word it more carefully, but yes
My personal suggestion is to never say "if all group axioms hold"
Nope
Again
You cannot talk about "the order without the identity"
Order is a reserved word for the number of elements of the group
If you remove the identity you lose the group
The idea is there
But it is not true that you are always left with only one element
Maybe there are more elements of order 2
Maybe all elements are of order 2
It is just the fact that IF THERE WERE NONE, then you would end up with an even number of elements
And you know that there is an odd number of non-identity elements
At this point you are proving more things, which is cool
But it is not necessary
You just say, assume that no element had order 2
Then you could make pairs
But this is not possible
So some element must have order 2
Done
Hahaha
Good luck with that 😃
@chilly ocean ?
creamy shits:
Congrats

just some advice for when you use TeX. every symbol should be in math mode
so you should say a finite group $G$" and not a finite group G"
Buncho Bananas:
So, given that you'll be checking a lot of "H is a subgroup of G" type statements, it's probably useful to find which criteria you have to check and don't have to check
So here's an exercise
Let G be a group and let H be a non-empty subset which is closed under multiplication and contains the inverse of each element. Then H is a subgroup of G
(In fact, if H is a non-empty subset such that a,b\in H \implies ab^{-1} \in H, you're good, but that's not usually easier to check)
Alright then, go for it. You already saw the most important part of my exercise which is that associativity is free
We can relate ❤
Rip. Well, whatever your current abilities are or what your assessment of your abilities is, what matters is you learn
creamy shits:
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creamy shits:
what in the world is going on in here
creamy shits:
Isn't G an arbitrary abelian group
?
Then why are there coefficients coming from Q?
An element of H is not a multiple of n
n is an integer
we don't know what the elements in our group look like
If a is in H we just know that a+a+...+a (n times) = 0
Well it doesn't really matter, but additive notation is common for abelian groups
you could write it a^n=e if you want
The easiest way to do this is to write down a homomorphism f where H=ker(f)
kernels are automatically subgroups
so you would be done
Do you see what the homomorphism is?
Oh okay
well you can do this problem the long way if you want and just check the group axioms
Yeah. The map will just be from G to G
If you have an element g...what's the obvious thing to do to it (given that you want any element with order dividing n to go to 0)
Not an isomorphism
that would have trivial kernel
we want the kernel to be H
I think you'
re
on the right track
The image does not need to be H
just the kernel
The image does not matter at all
We're just using the fact that the kernel of a homomorphism is a subgroup
Which is easy to prove...and any abstract algebra would go over it or put it on the homework within the first couple of weeks
No
It doesn't have a name
Like it's too obvious to have a name
It's just a basic fact from group theory
It could be way more than the identity
It could be the whole group
The proof is this: you have a map f:G -> K
If a and b are in the kernel, then f(ab)=f(a)f(b)=ee=e, so it's closed under multiplication
If a is in the kernel, the f(a^-1)=f(a^-1)f(a)=f(a^-1 a)=f(e)=e, so it's closed under inverses
that's the whole proof
For this particular problem, yes
No you want a function where the elements that are sent to the identity are exactly the elements of H
Yes
Yes kernels are normal
but this problem is about abelian groups, so there's no need to make a normal/non-normal distinction since every subgroup is trivially normal
You don't need to worry about the normality stuff
Here, I'll write down the map
the kernel being a subgroup part?
f: G -> G is given by f(a)=n*a
(n*a is just shorthand for a+a+...+a (n times))
Do you see why this works?
So every element in H has order dividing n
which means if you take a in H and add it to itself n times, you get 0
so f(a)=0 if a is in H
f just takes everything to the nth power (or in additive language, "multiplies" the elements by n)
So the image are the "multiples of n"...but this is not the kernel
No! a subset of the domain
the image is a subset of the codomain
the kernel is a subset of the domain
In our case they might overlap or something
because our domain and codomain are the same
but again, we don't care about the image at all
We just care that we have a homomorphism whose kernel is H
we have to check that it's a homomorphism, but that's basically just f(a+b)=n*(a+b)=n*a+n*b=f(a)+f(b)
where the second equality uses that the group is abelian
(Have you done linear algebra? You might just not be ready for group theory. It will just get way harder from here, and it helps to have a certain degree of mathematical maturity)
An example when n=2: 2*(a+b)=a + b + a + b=a+a+b+b=2*a + 2*b
That's where the swapping happens
remember the multiplication is just notation
so the fact that it distributes over the addition needs to be proved
and the proof will use that the group is abelian
you can use an inductive proof, right? for integers, at least
Yeah I think induction is the most rigorous way to prove it
But it's a simple enough fact that most people just mention that the operation commutes and move on
yes
Yes that is the kernel...and you want it to be equal to H
The kernel is a subset of G
H is a subset of G
You want them to be the same subset
Yes
I told you the function
It takes in an element g and spits out g+g+...+g (n times)
or if you like, it spits out n*g
no. ker(f)=H
@chilly ocean it is not, just be patient and plow through it
The kernel is not a homomorphism...f is a homomorphism
the kernel is a subset of the domain associated with a homomorphism
yes
what is the question, again?
by associated with I mean for any homomorphism it has a kernel
so it's a subset you get by looking at a homomorphism
what
Yes
why morfisms?
It's just the set of elements sent to the identity in the codomain
sorry, I don't mean to interrupt
@chilly ocean The identity in G will always map to the identity in G'
@yes do you have the definition of morphism, etc. in front of you? it should help a lot
the kernel of a homomorphism is a subset of the DOMAIN
you really must look at the definitions, write them down on your own etc.
i feel you. it will come with time
haha. happens
i have a book I really enjoy
what is the current problem?
prove that in an abelian group G the set of elements whose order divides a fixd integer n is a subgroup
apparently
I have no idea how it went from here to morfisms
Yeah
unless I'm really missing something
yeah this is a problem where you just kinda do it, nothing fancy required
That's just using the properties of a subgroup
which part are you stuck on
Show it's closed
let's start at the beginning. Let G be an abelian group, let n be some positive integer, and let H be the subgroup of elements of G whose order divides n
Okay can you show it's closed?
so therefore the identity is in H. Done.
1 divides any fixed integer n
oh I see! you were trying to prove it's a normal subgroup by showing it is a kernel
don't use kernels for this problem
like, literally, just show that H satisfies the subgroup axioms
but guys, let's try and not message the channel too much or else it will be more confusing for @chilly ocean
hold on
what do you mean "multiples of n"
what? if n = 3
1 divides 3 but 1 is not a multiple of 3
exactly
write it all down, @chilly ocean, and you'll start to see where you are falling off
and in any case, there is a difference between saying "an element is a multiple of n" and "the order of an element is a multiple of n"
the second statement makes sense but the first one is nonsense if youre working in a random group
yes you can
you've done one third!
does 1 divide n?
okay!
so therefore e is in the subgroup
because the order of e divides n
WAIT
do you know what "divides" means in this context?
"a divides b" means "b is a multiple of a"
not "a divided by b is an integer"
I just told you what it meant lol
"a divides b" means that "b is a multiple of a"
so 2 divides 4 but 2 DOES NOT divide 5
yes, that is the point of the definition
anyway, let's not lose track!
what do you mean? we're not losing track, we're making progress lol
@chilly ocean didnt even know what "divides" meant until now lol
not only does it have to be smaller than n, it has to be a factor of n
so let's go back to the identity
what is the order of the identity?
is 1 a factor of n?
okay, so e is in the subgroup
yes
now let's do inverses
(inverses is so cool in this particular case)
if the order of x is k, what is the order of x^(-1)?
[you might have to think about this one]
before you try to answer, first you should ask yourself: what would a resaonable answer be
hold up
that doent make any sense
what does it mean to raise something to the 1/k power?
see, that's not resaonable. so let's try agian
the order of an element is a positive integer (or infinity)
yes!
okay, now can you prove that?
WRONG
you can prove it :)
anyway just to add something I think is important for the sake of organisation,
I'd structure this particular case in this way:
we want to prove for a given x in H, then x^-1 is in H
take some given x. Then x^k = e
so you know the 'form' of any x in the subset.
this problem solves itself as soon as you try to inverse this x
let's start with our x of order k
what does that mean? it means x^k = e
(and k is the smallest postiive integer that makes that equation hold)
so now we have x^k = e. we want to get some statement about x^(-1)
(namely that its order is also k)
so can we manipulate x^k = e in any way to get a statement about x^(-1)?
how could we try to introduce x^(-1) into that equation?
@chilly ocean just overdosed on algebra
@chilly ocean, you could just assume x^-1 belongs in the subset and prove, by manipulation, it has the same order
Hint how would you get from x = e to x^-1 = e
the only think you know about x^(-1) is that when you multiplhy it by x you get e
we have an equation with x^k = e
Yeah
No
The order is always an integer
it's frustrating, i can agree with that
orders are positive integers
So if I asked you x^2 = e. Prove that x^-2 = e
How would you do that?
That's the idea
@chilly ocean, there are many ways to do this but one very elegant way that highlights the importance of the exponentiation properties is to just take x^-1 and play with it a little
You have the idea in your head but you haven't written it formally
(i have to leave again... hopefully you can finish this problem soon! gl!)
say you assume x^-1 exists, and there's an integer you suspect could be its order
(what? x^(-1) always exists. there's nothing to assume.)
^
yes, but not in the subset.
creamy shits:
creamy shits:
Now you need to sneak in h^-1
How could you do that?
You know h^-1 exists
It's a group
@chilly ocean because it's in the group
problem is, @chilly ocean, you know x^-1 exists but you must prove it is in the subset
h^-1 exists but we don't know if it's in our subgroup yet
one way to prove this is to take x^-1 and prove it belongs in your specific subset
Okay maybe we'll try with an example
I think the most elegant solution i've seen to this problem is take x^-1 and raise it to n
@chilly ocean take x^-1 and raise it to n
you get x^-1^n, right?
is it a fair statement?
now, you know, or should know, a^b^c = a^bc = a^cb = a^c^b
in other words, you can do a lot of gymnastics with exponents
so if you take x^-1 (which we know exists) and raise it to n (just our hypothesis for its order),
x^-1^n = x^-n = x^n^-1 right?
but we know x^n is e
and 1^(-1) = e
so we proved the order of x^-1 is n
which means x^-1 belongs in the subset, for any given x
what part wasn't clear?
well, you raised an element to n and the result was e
no
to be fair, you don't know that is the order -- you know the order of x^-1 is n or a multiple of it
but that is the requirement to belong to your subset
not a multiple, a divisor
(sorry I'm just sitting here watching this saga unfold)
hah it's cool
@chilly ocean stay with us
no
but that was not what we did
look closely, I'll write it as if I were writing on my own exercise
We want to prove that, for any given x in H, there exists x^-1 in H:
(also, we know x^-1 exists, because G is a group and x is in G <-- important!)
Take x^-1, the inverse of x, which we know to exist. Let's raise it to the arbitrary power of n.
So, (x^-1)^n.
But, due to the properties of the exponentiation, we know (x^-1)^n = (x^n)^(-1) (this part is were we solve the problem)
And so, since x is in H, and H is the subset of elements whose order divides a fixed integer n, then x^n = e (this is the hypothesis!!)
so, (x^n)^(-1) = e^(-1) = e (any power of the identity is the identity)
and so, x^-1 is also an element, just like any x in H, such that if raised to n, it returns the identity
are you convinced?
no
to be fair, I considered x^-1, and then arbitrarily raised it's power
but that's a legal move, lol
this strategy is very useful when proving subgroups whose defining property relies on a special exponent
i'm sorry if I can't be of any further help, but this is the process I find more elegant
errr
it's basically your way of saying "I think this element, if raised to the n power, is the identity"
and it's fair game!
like, I can obviously see your point that it's somewhat stretching the rules
but you didn't break any rule for the subgroup, so to say
no
this process is like
I have a guess for a power n, and then I used the very strong hypothesis which is that if x is in H, then x^n = e
that is really what you should be considering as the boldest claim
my tip is: every time you prove subgroups, closure and inverse start by assuming there is an x in the subgroup. And you usually must prove something using the property x has to belong to the subgroup
no it isn't, it's fairly different
I know
you're confused and its normal
just be strong and plow through it
eventually it will start making more and more sense
we're here to help
What do you mean when you say the proofs are cop outs?
@chilly ocean i've been failing algebra for the past three years
this year it is finally clicking
yes
and you proved that it has the same property x has critical to belonging in the subgroup
For the record, protsac didn't define the inverse to be in the subgroup. He wanted to prove that for every x in H, x^-1 is also in H, which is the same as proving (x^-1)^n=e
So he took an arbitrary x in H and proved that (x^-1)^n=e. This is a standard way to prove a "for all" statement
No x will not necessarily equal x^-1
No, this is a specific x
that is wrong
Like there are two fixed objects. x and x^-1
in the same way 2^2 and 4^2 doesn't imply 2 = 4
you know something about x, you know something about the relationship between the two, and you want to prove something about x^-1
I really did not in any way shape or form assume x = x^-1 and you can tell that on your own by just stomping your head against the proof
it's more in the vein of
I know x is in the subset, and I know x^-1 must exist. I want to prove x^-1 also belongs in the subgroup
also, it might help you understand if you take for a fact that the order of x and the order of it's inverse are the same, always
you don't have to take it for a fact, it's simple to prove
well, at this point it's best if you just take this proof, copy it in your notebook and return to it later
and just advance
$({x^{-1})}^{o(x)} = x^{-o(x)} = {(x^{o(x)})}^{-1}$ then show no lower power inverts $x^{-1}$
were here to help anyway
flimflam:
@chilly ocean ic ur making progress :>
yeah
um
something which divides o(x)
I like to avoid actually using ordering 😄
pops in How's it going?
Is that approx 20 questions or the additive inverse of 20 questions? 
lol
avoiding using ordering meaning I'm trying to avoid using something like "the order of x is the smallest integer such that x^(on) = e"
You sound like you're having a blast :D
you're using the same variable..
proof isn't hard: assume o(x^-1)|o(x) and differs by nonunit, then plugging back in you'd get a smaller order for o(x) which is a contradiction.
since you want to show the order of the inverse is exactly the order of the element
it's the order of x^-1
order of x^-1
this is assuming you know o(x) already
which means that for $x^n =e, o(x)|n$
flimflam:
by def
that is something you want to keep in mind for cyclic subgroups which you'll see later
x raised to powers of the order will yield e, but the converse is not true at all
pretty sure you need to show this--it's clear enough that the order of the element kills off the inverse too, but you want to know it's the legit inverse
@delicate chasm am i doing something unnecessary here
any group is closed under operation
so you can raise any element to whichever power you'd like
n is an integer
$n \nin G$ 🤔 ng:
flimflam:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
It's a Z-module
creamy shits:
$2x = x+x \in G$
Puerøsola:
exactly
@delicate chasm thats what i told him
$x^2 = x\cdot x \in G$
exponentiation is just addition glorified



