#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Β· Page 411 of 407
this channel should get a new name
Not a lot of people know what abstract algebra is, you're probably right.
What's the new name?
Group/Ring theory? But then nobody will talk about fields
Oh thanks Kaynex
Im guessing my question don't belong here
from my understanding this is abstract ?am = n/p?
abstract algebra is a field of pure math
that has to do with abstract algebraic structures
and their properties and so on
your question is a practical problem
I see
It's a common mistake. Same with linear algebra, which is actually a study of vector spaces.
Math isn't named well
So, did the hint help? Feel free to ask if you have any other problems with it
yeah, but now im trying to fugire out how to convert my sum into a number
I know fractions have a very special process for things like this
Try cross-multiplying
1/12 + 1/10
= 10/120 + 12/120
= (10 + 12) / 120
= 22/120
= 11/60
Together, they tar 11/60 roofs per hour. So, they will take 60/11 hours to tar a roof.
That's just under 6 hours.
im taking note, of your process, I just added them together then tried to round it off, but how did you get = 10/120 + 12/120
Mines (12 + 1) (10+1) = (13 + a = 12) = (13/12 % 2) (12%2=2) (13%2=6.5) 2/6.5
then I converted that to a decimal and rounded the sum
no need to tell me ware I went wrong, my guess I made it to complex
Note that 1/12 = 10/120
And that 1/10 = 12/120
@uneven arch
If you are allowed to work in decimals, then maybe you can forget fractions.
Well thats just how I was tought to do them, i don't get it but thanks
taught
OH i get it
10/12 = 1.2 x100 = 120
life just got a tad bit easier
i know 10/12 = 1.2
Wrong way up
if you do 1.2 x 100
10/12 is less than 1
god hates me
Maybe they hate each other and they'll take forever to tar the roof
$\frac{10}{12}$
$\frac{1}{12} =\frac{1}{12} \times \frac{10}{10} =\frac{10}{120} $
Mathbot was better
How? π€
Because you could type =tex and it would just work. Now we got this Texit bullshit.
,$\frac{1}{12}
Space
I had an emotional connection to Mathbot okay
Lol
wo
, $ \text{Bring Mathbot back}
That's a battle you already lost.
@earnest valley Can't win with an attitude like that
the owner and developer of mathbot is not in the server anymore
And that's why mathbot is dead xD
lmao
heres another equation same type of problem
working alone it takes dan 10 hours to harvest a filed. julia can harvest the same field in 16 hours. if they work together how long would it take them?
1/10 + 1/16
10%16 = 1.6
1.6 x 100 = 160
26/160 = 16.25
@chilly ocean One day Mathbot will come back and when he does he'll realise your betrayal
lol I am actually banned from the mathbot server for triggering the owner
I'm too edgy for my own good π
not sure how to deal with the multivariable division algorithm
i know that x(f2)-y(f1) = x^2 - y^2 but i dont know how to find the positive remainder
oh wait
is it just g(x) = -y(f(1)x+x(f2)?
and +x is your positive remainder?
and -y is like your q?
you need a monomial ordering
to carry out the algorithm
any way you do it though, the remainder should be 0
I don't know any abstract algebra, but I have a random question. Is there a full proof way to factor polynomials of arbitrary degree known to have rational roots (that doesn't involve guessing)?
nope
oh okay, thanks lol
you just have to guess with the rational root test
@thorny slate my instructor said the remainder shouldn't be zero
maybe I miscalculated then
the remainder should be -y^2 -y, i have my prof's work (went to office hours) if youd like to see @thorny slate
I think I understand the first and third part. still really not sure how to deal with coset addition
by coset, i mean ideal. we are relating cosets to ideals
im still struggling quite a bit with cosets and stuff
anybody know any good resources on that. of course my textbook, but anything thats like exceptionally good>
The part i is easy, iii is consequence of I being an ideal.
you just need that an ideal is a normal subgroup
The best way to understand it is to actually use it. Take the cosets formed by the homomorphism Z β mZ. Then the cosets form modular arithmetic.
Take the homomorphism Z β 3Z. The cosets are:
|0| = 0, 3, 6, 9, 12, 15...
|1| = 1, 4, 7, 10, 13, 16...
|2| = 2, 5, 8, 11, 14, 17...
Note that the cosets themselves (which I've labeled |0|, |1|, |2|) form a group of three elements. Some examples:
|1| + |1| = |2|
(any elements from coset 1 added together give an element from coset 2)
|2| + |2| = |1|
(any elements from coset 2 added together give an element from coset 1)
So the cosets themselves form the group Z/3Z.
@timber bay
With that in mind, any questions about how it works?
So this is enough to make statements like
7 + 11 β‘ 15 (mod 3)
7 from coset 1
11 from coset 2
15 from coset 0
Teach me something
A normal subgroup was a group built out of cycles which could be decomposed into an even amount of subcycles, right
And that had to do with alternating groups?
i dont think necessarily cycles
a normal subgroup is just a subgroup that is commutative
I might be confused with alternating groups
maybe a finite group
thanks @stone fulcrum that makes sense. I think I have up to that part understood. its the harder stuff that's throwing me off. stuff for my algebra class
If gH = Hg for all g in G then it's a normal subgroup
yah
So not only commutative with itself, but also all elements outside the subgroup π€
Any reason why these boys get a special name
theyre very useful
outside the subgroup yeah, all elements in the group, hence gH = Hg
I guess because you can faff around with conjugates
are any <@&286206848099549185> able to help me with part 2 of my problem?
and "normalize" o: them
Like gHg^-1
yeah
Prime groups?
i think if a normal sub is finite then it is of prime order or cardinality or something
That's definition of order of an element yeah
n is prime
That's so weird
im not sure if any of this is correct
You sure though?
im doing it based on memory
so i may be confusing stuff
i think z/pz is normal
not sure if its iff
Might just be that you're thinking of lagrange's theorem
And the fact that subgroups divide the order of the group
Do we call abelian groups normal too?
Well, makes sense, because gG = Gg
And G is a subgroup of G
Proper ones
left cosets = right cosets => normal
Or all
probably all
Can't really find anything about the order thing you said
But what you said can't be true then
Because suppose we have a group of order 4, that's abelian
Then trivially it's a subgroup of itself
Suppose it's generated by 1 element, like r
Then we'd have {I r, rΒ², rΒ³} which trivially are all commutative
Hence H is a normal subgroup
But |r|=/=p
@timber bay can I look at your problem?
its in the caht
my screenshots
okay maybe it is proper then
idk
i could look at it later, but right now im pretty busy with this hw
we should talk later about it though
have you not had an algebra class?
nobody able to help with my problem?
what porblem
@timber bay
Sorry, what I posted was for a group being quotiented by a normal subgroup
I'm afraid I don't understand. Isn't this just like part 3 of my question? @stone fulcrum
Closer to 2, since addition forms a group
Basically, you know that the addition of cosets of a normal subgroup is well defined.
Think of an ideal as an additive normal subgroup (because addition is commutative in rings). Then the above is the exact proof
x + 1 = x + 2
When do we call things an additive group or a multiplicative group if their binary operations aren't addition or multiplication?
Additive because it reminds us of commutativity and multiplicative if it isn't commutative.
strange dichotomy π€
It holds for matrices, and I guess similar structures, so for those it "makes sense"
Yes.
@placid egret DON'T LOOK SOLUTION SPOILER
i put it in this channel cuz this proof works for any ring
whoops i forgot to add the binomial coefficient in the last sum
What's up? Have an example?
chances are it's not
Anyone have any suggestions? I'm supposed to show:
Let G be a group such that G != {1}. Show that G is simple if and only if, for every group H and homomorphism f : G -> H, either f is trivial (i.e., Im f = {1} ) or f is injective (i.e., Ker f = {1} ).
I already showed that simple => trivial or injective
having a harder time showing the converse
so far, i have:
(<=) Assume either Ker f = {1} or Im f = {1}.
Im f = {1} <=> f(G) = 1 <=> Ker f = G.
So either Ker f = {1} or Ker f = G. Know Ker f <| G.
Hint: Assume G is not simple, so that it has a normal subgroup H. Can you construct a map from G to something with kernel H?
ok, thanks! i'll try to think about and do tah
so a proof by cont
H is a new subgroup in G thatβs unrelated to the H in f:G->H, right?
Iβm also not really sure what Kernel H means
yeah it's a new subgroup
it means a map f : G -> K with Ker(f) = H
think about normal subgroups and what you can do with them
oh okay got it
for uh
i'm checking to see if i'm thinking of the problem correctly. the goal is to show
(x^n)h1 * (x^m)h2 = (x^m)h2 * (x^n)h1, where h1 and h2 in H?
Yes
@sick acorn I mean you're almost there
oops got it
Thanks!!!!
By closure, x^n, x^m in G.
Know H <= Z(G).
So we have h1h2 = h2h1,
h(x^n) = (x^n)h, and
h(x^m) = (x^m)h.
Then (x^n)h1 * (x^m)h2
= (x^n)(h1 * x^m)h2
= (x^n)(x^m * h1)h2
= (x^n * x^m)*h1h2
= (x^(n+m)) * h1h2
= (x^(m+n)) * h1h2
= (x^m * x^n)*h1h2
= (x^m * x^n)*h2h1
= (x^m)(x^n * h2)h1
= (x^m)(h2 * x^n)h1
= (x^m)h2 * (x^n)h1.
I'm trying to prove a result in Galois theory:
Let f(x) be a polynomial in F[x], where F is a field. Let E be the splitting field of F. Any automorphism in Aut(E/F) is defined by the way it permutes the roots of f(x), thus inducing a group embedding Aut(E/F) -> S_k. PROOF: Since E = F(a_1, a_2, ... , a_L) = F(a_1, a_2, ... a_(L - 1))(a_L), it may be shown by induction that E is the set of multivariable polynomials in a_1, a_2, ... a_L over F, and therefore any automorphism of Aut(E/F) is determined by where it maps those roots, and since it also permutes those roots, we have that it is uniquely determined by the way it permutes the roots.
I don't feel like this is a legitimate proof, can anyone check ?
dunno looks fine
Hi, I'm having a little bit of trouble with inner and outer semidirect products
Based on the wikipedia article it appears that they are different things, but I'm not entirely sure. Is the inner semidirect product a way to write G as the semidirect product of N and H when you already have G where as the outer semidirect product is a way to define G as the semidirect product of N and H when you already have N and H, and (you choose which one you want to be normal in G)?
yes
the short answer to that question is "yes" -- some remarks:
-
just a reminder that you need an action of H on N by automorphisms (or the other way around, but by convention N is the thing we call the normal subgroup), which typically ("in the wild") distinguishes between H and N. Like, you don't normally get to "choose" which subgroup is normal, because typically you'll only have an action of one on the other
-
as you suspect the difference between "inner" and "outer" is mostly "pedantic" here. like, the claims "G is the (inner) semidirect product of H and N" sort of implies that H and N come to you as subgroups of a group G that you already have, whereas "G is the (outer) semidirect product of H and N" suggests that G has been constructed from groups H and N and an action of H by automorphisms on N.
the definition for inner is easier because the action of H on N is just conjugation
that's the only difference
(i worry that is misleading to call that a "difference". the action of H on N becomes conjugation inside the (outer) semidirect product. one might just say that the outer semidirect product is an inner semidirect product of the (obvious inclusions of) H and N)
yeah it's not a real difference
@covert seal @thorny slate Ah, thanks guys!
can someone help explain to me part c
(1) is the identity, the permutation where nothing changes.
(23) is the "switch 2 and 3" element.
These make a subgroup because (23)Β² = (1)
You can find the left cosets by taking elements in S3 and multiplying them on the left of {(1), (23)}
This example is a bit more interesting, since S3 is non-abelian
The number of left cosets you may find is the index. This number should divide 6
So are they all not left cosets
You can't reduce a subgroup of two elements into one element
i thought left coset just meant you take an element in the group G and left multiply it by the elements in the subgroup H and that is your left coset
Yes
so if there are 6 elements in G that must mean there are 6 left cosets since each element creates its own left coset
For example
(123)H = {(123)(1), (123)(23)}
= {(123), (12)}
oh but wait
yeah cause two of them can be equal to each other
so is it only the unique left cosets
So {(123), (12)} is a left coset of {(1), (23)}
oh
Left cosets should partition the group. So you will have 3 left cosets of 2 elements each
To cover all 6 elements of S3
ok i think im starting to get it
Cool cool, feel free to ask if you have any more questions!
thanks
how do i work out the elements in H?
i dont know what to composite what with :/
<(12345)> means the group generated with powers of (12345).
Keep multiplying by (12345) until you get the identity
oh right ok
you should also be able to spot a "pattern"
is there a quick way of doing this, or do i just keep plugging the vals
oh right ok
as in, knowing how many times you have to multiply is something you can figure out easily
but is the question really asking for all the elements?
just keep plugging
(12345)Β² = (13524)
can explain how u got the ans pls?
ive forgot permutations havent done them in so long ;x
(12345)(12345)
We read the right one first. In that, 1 β 2. Then, we read the left. 2 β 3. In total, 1 β 3
oh right
Then look at 3. It is sent to 4, then is sent to 5
Then 5 is sent to 1, which is sent to 2
ah okay, thanks, i think i remember it now , great
Hey, I just got back from an algebra exam and I'm feeling a little bit unsure of myself
I was wondering if my proof is correct for this problem
Let G be a group with normal subgroups H, K such that H intersect K = 1. Then show that hk = kh for all h in H, k in K
I said that due to H, K normal and H intersect K = 1, G ~= HK ~= H x K
And since in H x K, elements (h,1) and (1,k) commute, the corresponding elements h, k in G must commute
that's true
but it's kinda circular
when you prove that due to H, K normal and H intersect K = 1, G ~= HK ~= H x K
one of the steps is actually proving that hk = kh
maybe look up the proof of this fact
ah shit
I was also wondering another thing
if you are trying to find the number of groups of order 5 x 7 x 11 up to isomorphism
can you deduce that 7 is normal, find the semidirect product of 7 and any sylow 5-subgroup, deduce that the only result is Z_35, then since 11 is normal, find the semidirect product of Z_35 with Z_11 and use the result from that as your answer
I think its standard to do Z5 semidirect product with Z77
you're definitely supposed to use the sylow theorems like that
let's see
the 7 groups divide 55 and are 1 mod 7
so yeah that's 1
so 7 is normal
and the 11 groups divide 35 and are 1 mod 11 so that 1 too and 11 is normal as well
but Z5 and Z7 don't have semidirect products
Aut(Z7) = Z6 doesn't act on Z5 nontrivially
so yeah the only result is Z35 there
Yeah thats what i did haha
and Aut(Z11) = Z10 can act on Z5
Then you find homomorphisms from Z35 to Z10?
so you have what, Z7 x Z5 lx Z11
Yeah
and that should be it
yeah you have to classify actions of Z10 on Z5
which is just actions of Z5 on itself
Its only trivial and then x -> a^2, a^4, a^6, a^8 (all of which correspond to same group up to isomorphism) right
yes
not sure if all of them are the same group
2 and 8 probably are the same, same for 4 and 6
nor sure if 2 and 4 are the same
you'd have to compute it
Yeah I put into wolfram it said all them are the same
yeah I think so
I just wasnt sure about my approach
guys how do i do this
you need a matrix which is its own conjugate transpose and inverse
can you think of one?
huh we havent done matrices in this class that im in
all the numbers that are relatively prime to n and smaller
but it probably means (Zn)x?
smalle than n
lmao ok
i found a source online but i only understood the explanation up to a point
what do they mean when they say phi(2) = 1
they're using the multiplicativity of the euler totient
phi(2) = 1 clearly right?
in general phi(p) = p-1 for primes
oh ok
and you can show that phi(p^k) = (p-1) p^{k-1}
but you don't need to do anything so complicated
the question just asks you to find an element of order 2
the second answer in that link has a solution in that way
oh i see it
On the other hand, for n>2, the order of nβ1 in U(n) is 2.
wow i didnt know that cool
just compute it
ok thanks i think i got it
Quick question, looking at the definition of an algebra (vector space A over a field F with a bilinear map m), and noticed:
-
The definition here also requires a unit 1 such that m(1,a) = m(a,1) = a http://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/octonions/node2.html
-
Wiki however omits this unit
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algebra_over_a_field#Definition
Is this just an author preference thing like with ring theory (e.g. subrings may or may not require unity?)
Preliminaries
In mathematics, an algebra over a field (often simply called an algebra) is a vector space equipped with a bilinear product. Thus, an algebra is an algebraic structure, which consists of a set, together with operations of multiplication, addition, and scalar multiplication by...
you call it unital if there's a unit
a lot of people assume their algebras to be unital associative
Hmm.. I feel like I've gone down a rabbit hole, but trying to show for an algebra A over a field F:
if ab = 0 implies a = 0 or b = 0 for all a,b in A...
THEN
A is a division algebra (i.e. all a,b in A, b non zero, there exists a unique x,y in A such that a = bx AND a = yb)
I've shown uniqueness:
Suppose a = b(x1) & a = b(x2) with x1 =/= x2
Then x1 - x2 =/= 0
Hence b(x1) - b(x2) = b(x1 - x2) = 0 due to our multiplication being bilinear
But then b =/= 0, so our assumption fails
is that even true? isn't k[x] a simple counterexample?
Hmmm, maybe the statement requires the algebra A to have finite dimension as a vector space?
if that's so I think I know the proof
I think you're right https://proofwiki.org/wiki/Division_Algebra_has_No_Zero_Divisors
This threw me for a loop n.n;;
yikes
Okay, looking around the internet for definitions concerning Algebras is starting to get annoying - anyone know a source/textbook which has most the definitions I'm looking for?
-algebra
-unitary/associative/commutative algebra
-division algebra
-normed division algebra
-*-algebra/involutive algebras
what for
Trying to gather enough of a background to play with the Cayley-Dickson construction
but I'm constantly fighting against an author's preference to use/omit units xD
and the last thing I want are definitions were.. don't actually work :c
Hmmm, the first book they listed mainly goes over intro group/ring/field theory without much focus on algebras by themselves. And the second book seems to be locked behind a paywall T~T
but thanks for looking
actually, looks like my university library might have that one :DD
What results are there in algebras that are more than results on their vect space/group/ring?
How can I show that even though 1 is a gcd of 3 and 2+β(-5). There are no a,b in Z[β-5].
Where 3(a) + b(2+β(-5)) = 1
I think I got it
Hi, I'm hoping someone can help me with some of my group theory problems?
"Prove that the action of the symmetric group S_n on the set of its transpositions is primitive when n != 4"
@marsh rose what's up?
@covert vector I'll send you a picture of the proof in a sec
But basically it's a proof that a kxk matrix is invertible if rank = k
But when I look at it I just get so lost
It's probably not that hard it's just I've been slamming my head against it for too long
Now it won't send the picture
Ignore everything below example
There we go
wait
what does AA^t have to do with anything
usually the definition of rank is the number of linearly independent columns in the matrix = dimension of column space
and invertible means there exists an inverse matrix B such that AB = BA = I
indeed
I get why it's the case too
Like I understand how rank and invertibility works
But this proof
It makes no sense
And what the hell does it have to do with QR Factorization
@covert vector so I'm not alone
It makes sense why it would be invertible
But this proof makes no sense
yeah, the "proof" is dumb
Cool thanks
We have 1 more class before the final. I'm going to ask him to explain it
What does it mean for a ring or element in a ring to be unique?
each element is unique?
it doesn't mean anything
that there is a unique element satisfying P means that there's only one element satisfying P
you'll often see this in the context of like "the identity element is unique" meaning that any element satisfying the properties of the identity must be the identity element itself
I'm looking at this theorem that says
"If a ring has a unity, it is unique. If a ring element has a multiplicative inverse, it is unique"
Is that the same context?
Ah okay, I misread the wording, I thought it was saying that the ring and the element was unique
Thanks so much
Is this actually true?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1253237/
Lots of sites I'm reading require the algebra A to be unital, finite dimension, AND associative (see https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/division+algebra )
it's not only true, there's several proofs there
oh
algebra means unital associative
and they say finite dimensional too
see now, in their proofs I can't see associativity used o:
that's what I'm struggling to find
I mean, the fact the algebra multiplication is bilinear is used, many times..
maybe I'm interpreting associativity wrongly as bilinearity somewhere :c
For simplicity, I'm trying to find where/if associativity is used in Robert Lewis's response
https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1253297
what
it's used a bunch of times
explicitly
in (1), in (7)...
7 might be bilinear
dunno
(1) is associativity of the ring/field elements
(7) pretty sure is bilinear + maybe power associativity
yeah
I guess it works then
dunno how non associative algebras work
is a^2.a = a.a^2 even?
maybe you don't have that
so a^n doesn't make sense
That's power associativity.. which I guess is implied here?
But what worried me is:
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/division+algebra
The first bullet point in the definition, contradicts the proofs on math.stackexchange
power associativity is a weaker condition o:
I see
but maybe it's enough for the proof
since it's about polynomials in that particular element
oh you need more
you need like
a(a^2 + a) = a^3 + a^2
oh
this is distributivity
yeah I don't know how algebras work
but you get the point
I see that power associativity is required for the proof,
however what concerns me is that the ncatlab site says:
"It's easy to construct nonassociative unital finite-dimension algebras over R, such that A has zero divisors BUT each element a in the Algebra, there exists a^-1"
which contradicts the proofs on the math.stack exchange.. which say
If A is a nonassociative unital finite-dimension algebra
A has no zero divisors iff every a in A has a left and right inverse
it is an iff o:
the otherway is easier to show
Let A be an unital finite dimensional Algebra
Statement 1:
For all u, v in A, uv = 0 implies u = 0, v = 0
Statement 2:
For all a,b in A, b nonzero, there exists a unique x & y such that
a = bx
a = yb
The proofs on the stack exchange show (existence) Statement 1 => Statement 2
Proof of Statement 2 => Statement 1:
ab = 0
if a = 0, then we're done
if a =/= 0, then there exists a unique b in A such that ab = 0
we also know by the zero vector a0 = 0
so by uniqueness b = 0
Hence ab = 0 => a=0 or b=0
QED
Proof of (uniqueness) Statement 1 => Statement 2
for a, b in A, b nonzero
suppose there exists an x1, x2 in A (with x1 =/= x2) such that
a = b(x1)
a = b(x2)
then x1 - x2 =/= 0
also 0 = b(x1) - b(x2) = b(x1 - x2)
then b = 0
Hence by contradiction x1 = x2
(same argument for y1 & y2)
QED
<@&286206848099549185>
I don't think you're gonna get much
it's unlikely that nlab is wrong
so the proofs use associativity somewhere
I really don't wanna comb through the full proofs line by line
but you probably have to
I've tried combing through the proofs line by line though qwq and I honestly don't see where associativity is used...
damn
maybe try to find a counterexample as nlab says
construct one or look for it
and then try your proofs there
I wouldn't know where to start looking for one I'm afraid n.n;;
like google I mean
but yeah it might not be easy to find
dunno man I feel like your pain
but I don't wanna get into it because it looks very annoying lol
T~T
omg xD why do so many sources say different things...
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CayleyβDickson_construction
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/Cayley-Dickson+construction
Both have (a,b)(c,d) = (ac - d*b, da + bc*)
http://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/octonions/node5.html
Has (a,b)(c,d) = (ac - db*, a*d + cb)
The Cayley-Dickson Construction
Hmmm, nvm, turns out there're 8 equivalent definitions for the Cayley Dicksons product o.o
https://www.researchgate.net/publication/290219081_The_Eight_Cayley-Dickson_Doubling_Products
I figured out the proof
I'm an idiot
Rank is equal to number of linear independent rows
A^tA is a kxk matrix
So rank = k means k linearly independent columns
So the whole thing is linearly independent
But to prove that we need to show that A and A^tA have the same Nullspace
Since if they do that means they have the same nullity
And if they both have a nullity of 0 then they both have to have a rank of K
@covert vector I figured it out
IDK if your interested
Oh shit the username changes on every server lol
are u a pickle
It's Pickle Rick Dabbing
It's a joke on another server
We generalized that all athiests are probably Rick and Morty fans
That's why it was Pickle Rick and my username was God Is Not Real
all rick and morty fans are atheists but not all atheists belong in the subset of rick and morty fans π
Okay umm, Galois professor is mean and wants us to find all the normal subgroups of the dihedral group order 12:
D12 = { (r^n)(a^m) : n=0,1 & m=0,1,2,3,4,5 }
Obviously D12 & {1} are normal
Also every subgroup of index 2 is normal i.e. <a>, <a^2, r>, <a^2, ra>
And I'm pretty sure <a^2> & <a^3> are normal too
Am I missing any? n.n;;
<@&286206848099549185>
Hello guys! I have a problem in a question. May I ask for you help?
Number 9
So far, I've used the Lagrange theorem to establish that the order of a group element must divide its group order; and then (Kg)^n = K(g)^n = K
So Kg has order n.
Is this correct? Then obviously n divides n
But I think it's too easy and I might be falling short somewhere
(Kg)^n=K
but that doesn't imply that the order of Kg is n
it does directly imply that the order of Kg divides n though
Hmm
in general if $g^k=e$ then $k|\ord g$
Can the order of Kg be smaller than the order of g?
Gonzo17:
I thought about that Gonzo!
But other than that, do you agree with the reasoning?
Can I conclude the exercise?
yeah it's good
I'm just trying to think of an example where the order of Kg isn't n
oh
Yeah, I tried that but didn't go too far in my thinking
But the order of g is fixed as n
Wait.
Hmm
I don't see it
My question is: if g has order n, can the order of Kg be less than n?
right, but for example if $2\in\mathbb{Z}_6$ and we take the normal divisor {0, 2, 4}
whereZ6 is {0;1;2;3;4;5} with addition
Gonzo17:
then {0, 2, 4}2={2;4;6}={2;4;0}
so the order of Kg is 1 because Kg is just K
and the order of g is 3
Oh I see! Thanks
I'll add that to the exercise as a side note
Let me just check if the exercise is nice
I don't have to relate to G/K in any way?
I don't think so. It's good
Thanks for you help @lyric falcon
no problem π
(what do you mean by normal divisor?)
oh sry I meant normal subgroup
Okay! Thanks
they do mean the same thing
I havent mad much progress in the ex 10. @lyric falcon
Do you have any tips?
I know there are m distinct cosets of K in G
sry I was afk
G/K is a group with |G|/|K| = m elements. Each element's order in G/K divides m, so g^m = e in G/K.
That only happens if g^m = K in G
Maybe, that makes sense
after all $g\in G$ and $gK\in G/K$
Gonzo17:
Can we salvage my line of thought?
I agree with Gonzo here
since $g_1K=g_2K$ implies $g_2 {g_1}^{-1}\in K$
Gonzo17:
and we have g^mK=(gK)^m=K
I mean to take the coset that g belongs to, that coset^m = e
Example of nontrivial field of fractions?
Can you make an integral domain where the multiplication is function composition?
If so what does the field of fractions look like
if the multiplication is composition, what is the addition? @uncut girder
and what is the additive identity
IDK you tell me
For example consider the set of linear functions F(x) = ax +b.
Then I think this is a field.
@covert vector
but let f(x)=ax+b, g(x)=-ax+b
f+g=2b
constant
but this is not invertible under composition
and is Nonzero
take f(x)=x-2b
g(x)=2b for all x
then f(g(x))=0 for all x
f,g nonzero
so not an integral domain either ^^
im trying to find the left cosets of a subgroup of S_4. i don't really know how to find them without going through lots of mindless computations. anybody got any tips?
which subgroup
probably gonna be ugly anyway
but you can exploit symmetry to make it faster
im very rough with cosets, but i understand the definitions
hardly know how to use them
so you were propably told a specific type of groups, which are always normal subgroups (if subgroups)
do you recall anything like that?
it's cyclic groups
oh okay
There's only 6 such left cosets. May be a little ugly, but you can find them I'm sure
yeah i dont know how to begin this
would it be fair to say that the integers over addition is a finitely generated infinite group?
you can keep adding 1 to get all integers but its infinite
Infinite group that is finitely generated, yes
sick
Note that the identity is (always) in your normal subgroup, so the left coset will include the element that you multiply with.
Don't use (12)(34), (13)(24), (14)(23) or else you'll get that normal subgroup back. When you find a new coset, all of the elements in that coset are then "used".
You only need to perform 6 multiplications to find these 6 cosets.
yeah i just dont know how to do it unless i try all of the other 18 elements of sv
s4
No. Try an element that is not in the subgroup. You'll find a new coset. Every element in this new coset is "used". Don't multiply with these.
You only need to do 4 multiplications, actually.
You already have one coset
4 multiplications to find 4 more
Whatever is left is also a coset.
oh okay
so ill choose one element outside H, then multiply all elements of H by that element, and that will give me another coset, and rinse and repeat
Yus yus. But don't use an element that you already know the coset of, or else you'll just get that coset back
cool thanks! that's a good start
i remember doing the group operation tables before with these permutation groups. do you know what it means by asking me to write the multiplication table for the quotient group? like what would I have on the y column and the x row? @stone fulcrum
You can multiply any two cosets together. Take any element from coset a, any element from coset b, multiply to get an element from a new coset, which you can call ab
Note that coset multiplication is only well defined if N is a normal subgroup
The six cosets will form a group which you can call S4/H
Note the lovely fact that there's only two groups of 6 elements, Z6 and S3. So S4/H is isomorphic to one of those.
is Z6 the same as Z/6Z?
whats good book on abstract algebra
i don't have a wide breath of experience, but: as an undergrad i used Gallian, which is fine but certainly missing a lot of important stuff that you would want to know, like, coming out of first-year grad school (he barely touches on modules and has not much on galois theory); as a grad student we used Dummit & Foote which was fine and has later served me as a fine reference
i have the vague impression that Dummit&Foote is the "standard", for whatever it's worth. both gallian and d&f have a lot of exercises so that's nice
is there a way to find fixed points and stabilizers of elements in S4 without going through all the multiplication?
doing conjugation
I'm used to Fraleigh's abstract algebra, it was pretty good to me.
@timber bay
Yes those are the same thing
what are the same thing?
oh, the fixed points and stabilizers of conjugation are the same thing, arent they
hmm
No no, Z6 = Z/Z6
I don't know off hand what stabilizers and or fix points are
oh okay
@cerulean rune but im undergrad
@chilly ocean hodgy?
So, question about field extensions. Suppose I have a polynomial of degree 5 that is irreducible over Q. Now suppose that in some field extension of Q, it partially splits onto a quadratic and a cubic, but that's it. What if anything would that tell me about the degree of the field extension in which this occurs?
(Assuming this could happen at all)
I'm studying for my final Monday, and trying to fill in some remaining holes on my understanding.
Oh hey @thorny slate
This is an effort to try to generalize that question I asked about a few days ago.
Interesting
Get an idea how partial splitting works in general, if that's even a thing.
If it helps, the original problem that motivated this was to factor x^16 - x over F_4 and F_8. When I did it over F_2, there were some irreducible quartics, which over F_4 all split into quadratics. When I did it over F_8, none of those quartics split.
So if you take that field extension F where you split into a quadratic and cubic, and then look at the splitting field E, I think E should be the composite of the splitting fields of the quadratic and cubic over F?
Well, you guys have probably already thought of this, but you should get an elementary bound for the degree of the partial extension F by observing that to split the polynomial requires a further extension of degree at most 3!*2!=12.
maybe that doesn't work out so well idk
If that's the case, then E over F should have degree divisible by 6 and at most 12, and E has degree at most 120 over Q. So this gives that F has degree at most 20 over Q
Partial snipe lmao
nah I was writing out more details but then deleted when you started typing along similar lines lol
There's probably something more you can say if you note that picking up the two roots of the quadratic in the decomposition you get in F is gonna be an extension of degree at most 20 which strictly contains F. So actually that suggests F has degree at most 10?
Okay so remind me... what do you mean by composite
That was VERY briefly mentioned in my class
But not in any detail
So basically, let's say you have two subfields of a given field, their composite is the intersection of all fields containing both
Wouldn't that be just the intersection of the two subfields themselves?
No
The intersection of all fields containing both in particular will contain both of the subfields.
The intersection of the two subfields themselves only has this property if the subfields coincide.
(So its the smallest common extension he is talking about, whereas you are talking about the biggest common subfield.)

so any ideas on the polynomial which splits with no roots added?
really nags my noggin
Gomez, you're right. Because the fields themselves don't contain each other.
What exactly are you looking for an example of @thorny slate ?
irreducible polynomial in field K which in an extension E|K factors into things but has no linear factor
x^4-2 in Q
adjoin sqrt(2)
and you can factorise into the product of two quadratics
(difference of two squares)
but you still don't get any of the roots
oh sorry I want it to factor into degrees p+q coprime
ah
Well I didn't realize I'd asked such a bizarre question. XD
@thorny slate so, let's say you take an irreducible polynomial of degree 5, adding a root requires a degree 5 extension of Q, so if you were to have a degree 6 extension of Q inside the splitting field I feel like the polynomial will have to partially split, but it can't have a root
is there such a thing?
I would think the degree 6 extension only becomes available after you did the degree 5 one
oh
that can't be, can it
I mean, if you have a polynomial whose Galois group is S_5
Then you'd be looking for an index 6 subgroup I think
so
quintics with exactly 3 real roots
x^5 - 2x + 1
that's one
what do
wtf this isn't one
idiot blogpost
Lol 1 is a root
yeah
I grabbed it out of a blogpost
ugh
2x^5 - 5x^4 + 5
ok
so we try to get degree 3 and 2 factors somehow after adding roots
then add only roots of those to Q
and that should do what we want?
well no
well yes?
cuz they are prime
and coprime to 5
can you build the extensions of this guy
:))))
It'd be tricky to pull this off explicitly, this guy can't be solved in radicals
@spark plank
yeah but you can just add a special root
and express things in terms of that
simpleart knows how to do that
But its complex roots come in conjugate pairs. Let's say the complex roots are $\alpha$ and $\overline{\alpha}$. I think $\mathbb{Q}(\alpha + \overline{\alpha})$ would do it
Daminark:
Well busy rn ttyl8rs
:(
yeah I think their product isnt in Q
so what, add their product too?
Q(a + a*, aa*)
I wanna say that works
one of them should be degree 5 and the other degree 2
no
probably not
I mean this is definitely gonna split it into a degree 2 and something else
but I suspect it's a degree 2, a degree 2 and a degree 1
wanna check?
:^)
Lol I've been toying around to see if there's an easier way to do it but I can't think of any nice explicit example
Anyway it turns out some people I know have acquired Smash Ultimate so I'm prob gonna head over and play some to procrastinate even more on grad apps
But at least this gives us an inexplicit way to pull this off, in general if an irreducible quintic has a Galois group that has a subgroup of index 6, then the fixed field of that subgroup is gonna field extension of Q of degree 6. If I'm right that the polynomial can't remain irreducible, then it'll factor there and not have root. If I'm wrong then π
Lol @whole basalt your question led to a fun talk for sure π
someone compute Q(a + a*, aa*) for 2x^5 - 5x^4 + 5 where a, a* are the complex roots
it might be an example

do it
like
factor the polynomial
into the degree 2 factor made of the complex roots
and the rest
Yeah it's work let SA do it
Why are pi and sqrt(pi) not independent transcendental numbers over Q?
pretty sure they are Q-linearly independent
but they're algebraically dependent
cuz x^2 - pi = 0 is satisfied by sqrt(pi)
so that sqrt(pi) is algebraic over Q(pi)
Because Q(sqrt(pi)) contains pi by multiplicitive closure?
I mean sure
certainly pi isn't trascendental over Q(sqrt(pi)) because it's contained in there
the zeros of a cubic polynomial over a field F of characteristic 0 can always be obtained by means of a finite sequence of operations of addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, and taking square roots starting with elements in F
True or false. i know its false because my professor told me, but I just cant think of a counter example. I was damn sure it was true until he corrected me
taking square roots means adding a root of an equation x^2 - a = 0
which means an extension of degree 2
adding a root of an irreducible cubic is an extension of degree 3
do you see the problem?
maybe. are you implying that if that question said "taking cube roots" instead then it would be true?
with T/F questions that are false, i always feel like theres a little tweak that could be made that would force it to be true, so im tryin to figure that out too
yes
I am
well not really
only irreducible cubics
and uhh
not even then
you might still need square root too
the degree of the splitting field of a cubic can be 1, 2, 3, 6
depending on which it is you need square root, cube root or both
np
i don't understand immediately why every subgroup of a solvable group is solvable? My professor mentioned it kinda like an aside, and looking it up i'm seeing all these intersection proofs, which i dont quite understand. can anyone shed some light on this?
i want to just think that if G is solvable, then there is a series of normal subgroups which has abelian quotient groups(that are adjacent)... and so a subgroup H would just land somewhere in that series, and thus all subgroups below it would still be normal and all that
It's a consequence of the second homomorphism theorem. Maybe a proof in a book
okay i'm staring at that theorem in my book right now, and i like how it has all the pieces like a subgroup H and a normal subgroup N of G.... but hell, I'm just not seeing how to apply that
take a composition series for G
intersect everything with H
this is a composition series for H
basically if N is normal in G then N n H is normal in H
so you can go down with the same sequence of normal subgroups
Jacobian did the heavy lifting, I just barely remembered
smallest possible case for the incomplete factoring problem: deg(f) = 8, factors into degrees 3 and 5
[Frac(f):K] divides 3! 5! = 5 3^2 2^4, where K is the field with the splitting 3/5, 8! = 7 5 3^2 2^7, and we would have for a root r of f, [Frac(f):K(r)] divides 5 3^2 2
we had 3 and 5, and they must split further, otherwise we can keep adding roots of f until they do, here we can't add any more roots
we also have that 3 5 = 15 divides [Frac(f):K] since we have polys of degrees 3 and 5, therefore these degree 3 and 5 polynomials can't split, contradiction
wanna say it's impossible in general, let me generalize this proof
oh
adding a root of f here doesn't necessarily give an extension of degree deg(f)
just dividing deg(f)
but that's ok we can keep adding roots nvm
Statement: let f be an irreducible polynomial in K[x] such that in some field extension E|K f splits as f =gh. Show that deg(g), deg(h) cannot be both coprime to deg(f).
Observe that deg(g) deg(h)| [Frac(f):E] | deg(g)! deg(h)!
Let r be a root of f and consider E(r), which is an extension of degree dividing deg(f) as no roots of f are in E, that is, [E(r) : E] | deg(f). The factorization of f in E(r) includes a linear factor, so that we have added a root of g or of h, giving [E(r) : E] | deg(g) deg(h), a contradiction
@gentle pendant
In fact, if either deg(g) or deg(h) is coprime to deg(f), add a root of that one, so that [E(r):E] | deg(g), say, a contradiction
nice π
therefore both deg(g) and deg(h) have common factors with f
so I suspect that the only way of it happening is your example
which means something like
hm
@whole basalt
some generalizations of your question btw
Oh awesome
I'll read when I get up
Like I said I didn't expect it to be such a vibrant discussion XD
the general statement is the one up there
Statement: let f be an irreducible polynomial in K[x] such that in some field extension E|K f splits as f =gh. Neither of deg(g), deg(h) can be coprime to deg(f).
Wait a second, throughout this it appears you are using:
If f is irreducible over F and has a root in E then [E:F]|deg(p). The order should be the opposite no? deg(p)|[E:F].
@thorny slate
I'm using the fact that adding a root of a degree k polynomial is an extension of degree k
why is that true?
oh
my bad
the reason we don't have equality and only [E(r) : E] | deg(f) is because the equality is achieved in [K(r) : K] = deg(f)
instead we recover only divisibility from:
however the second one [E(r) : E] = deg(g) is equality
ah okay, I see
nice, that makes sense
cool
π
so we have like, deg(g) and deg(h) divide deg(f) and sum up to deg(f) so the only case is (2,2)?
that's pretty intense
oh it can be (3,3)
or (n,n) for deg(f) = 2n
but they have to be the same I guess
is this general? like a bunch of numbers add up to n and divide n
what do they satisfy
no 1 allowed
I guess not much you can have like 2, 2, 4
but do they have like a comon factor
I wanna say the come from a cheap x -> x^k
like in your example
hello! I need a bit of guidance in a question.
Show that, if A is a non-empty ring such that aA=A, for every a in A{0}, then A is an integrity domain.
so far, I've concluded that the multiplicative identity belongs in A, since aA=a implies a1=a; and also that there is only one element such that a0=0, and so A is a domain with identity. For it to be integral domain I must prove A is commutative
that's where my trouble is: how can I prove commutativity? I've thought about having aA=bA, but I don't know how much further I can go with that
I don't really get what's your plan
to prove integrity, you usually start with two elements a and b of the ring such that ab=0 and show that one of them is 0
hmm
well, if there is only one element such that the product can be 0, then it is necessarily a domain, right?
my thought process is a bit convoluted, i'll admit to that
I don't even get what you mean by "there's only 1 elem such that the prod can be 0"
since we have aA=A, my point is that there is only possible element such that a*x=0, and it is x = 0; or else, the two sets wouldn't be equal
let me see if I can rephrase that
if there was any other element x such that a*x = 0, other than x = 0, then the two sets wouldn't be equal
I'm having some trouble explaining what I mean, but say A has 5 elements, if there was any other element such that a*x = 0, then aA would have 5 - 1 elements
because there would be two different elements such that a * x = 0. one would be zero, because it necessarily exists, and the other would be some other zero divisor
Who said A was finite? let alone countable?
The exercise is simpler than what you think
I see what you mean though
thanks for pointing that out
can you point me in some other direction?
start with a and b such that ab = 0
you want to show that at least one of them is 0
if b is 0, well no problem
if b isn't 0...
show that a is 0 :p
Show that, if A is a non-empty ring such that aA=A, for every a in A \ {0}, then A is an integrity domain.
a will never be 0; lets see what I can work out
mhmm should've used other letters
Start with x and y in A such that xy=0
Show that one of them is 0
if y is 0, no problem
if y isn't 0, show that x is 0
and where in your process does the aA=A hypothesis come in?
Well in the case yβ 0, you have yA=A
And there's a very particular element of A that should be of some use
which I suppose would be the multiplicative identity element
Yes
and where is your x in all this?
i'm sorry, I'm a bit confused
i need only one element y in A \ {0} to prove there is the multiplicative identity
1 is an element of A and A=yA, so there exists some element z of A\{0} such that yz=1
Do you see where it can be useful?
ermm
let me think
i'm completely lost here and I'm afraid i'm wasting your time. let me think for a bit
No problem x')
I suppose your last point is only possible after concluding the 1 element is in A, right?
the 1 element is obviously in A, otherwise A wouldn't be a ring
damn. i'm so dumb
I thought the multiplicative identity was not necessary. allright
i mean, I thought it didn't come along in the ring definition.
so we can jump straight into
1 is an element of A and A=yA, so there exists some element z of A{0} such that yz=1
Yep
z is the inverse of y in this case?
Not really, it's just an element that happens to have the property yz=1
There aren't always inverses in a ring
ok so let me see if I follow
we take the property A = yA, for some y in A \ {0}; and in particular, there is z in A such that
1 = y*z
Yes
okay
Oh well, more like because yβ 0, yA=A
You have xy=0 and yz=1, there's something you may want to do to the first equality
x must necessarily be 0?
That's what you want to prove
hmm.
xyz = 0*z <=> x = 0?
xyz = x(yz) = x1 = x
xyz = (xy)z = 0z = 0
x = 0
Yes
i know I couldn't go with my first process (since A is not necessarily finite nor countable)
but it seemed way more straightforward
I'm not sure what was the point here...
so we take two elements x and y in A; we must prove x*y=0 iff one of them is 0.
additionally, from the hypothesis yA = A for some y β 0, we take yz = 1.
now we have xy=0 and yz = 1
xyz = x(yz) = x1 = x
xyz = (xy)z = 0z = 0
then x = 0
so we proved that for any x and y in A, the product will be zero only if one of the elements is 0
well I can see that. but is it not necessary to prove it is commutative as well?
Something's missing
You forgot the y=0 case, without which the proof has a hole
the whole yA=A thing only takes place in the yβ 0 case
Tuong:
(what a nice bot)
, tex what you want to show\
$xy=0\iff x=0$ or $y=0$
Tuong:
well actually only $xy=0\Longrightarrow x=0$ or $y=0$
Tuong:
'cause the other implication is quite clear
yes
so you study different cases that are possible, namely,
y = 0 and y β 0
at least one of these cases happens
In the case y = 0, we're all good because we wanted to have x=0 or y=0
In the case y β 0, you can use the property given by the exercise, i.e. yA=A, etc.
and in this yβ 0 case, you find x=0, which is good because we wanted x=0 or y=0
hence the implication
brute force is what it's called
It doesn't give commutativity :p
but isn't it necessary for having an integral domain?
hmm
my book even goes as far to say xy=0 => x = 0 or y =0 guarantees domain only
O wait
are you sure? I suppose I must have ab = ba somewhere

