#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 386 of 1
there's p much no reason to ever define a map on a tensor product without using the universal property tbh
if you define it for simple tensors and extend linearly you need to show its well defined
which basically comes down to proving it comes from a bilinear map anyway
how does one even consider starting this? i guess find the order of all subfields of E of the form Z_p, then find a field of prime characteristic p and by a theorem we have that there exists a subfield isomorphic to Z_p?
The additive group of the prime subfield of E is a subgroup of the additive group of E
Then ||apply Lagrange||
and then somehow find the dimension
yeye
Z_p isn't a field
so we have the subfield of order 2,4,8,16,32 i think
wha
and then find which one has prime characteristic i guess
i think?
*Has prime order
Can you think of such a field? What characteristic does it have?
Right, so since the only subfield of prime order is Z/2, that is the prime subfield
It cannot be Z/3, Z/5 or any other prime field
Could someone help me understand this part of the text on K-Algebra, for example what are they getting at with the canonical map
Is a K-Vector space a vector space with field K?
they hadn't defined that but I assume its that
but what is a K-algebra structure
hm
i can see that actually yeah
A ring structure + a K-vector structure as described in the first paragraph
hm whats a K-vector structure?
like the ring A follows the rules of a vector space with field K?
A function
KxA -> A
that satisfies the axioms of a vector space
Together with addition etc
is KxA the binary operation x : K X A -> A?
or something along the lines of that
oh
I misread
I just repeated what u wrote lol ok I see
Like given an element lambda of K and a of A then
lambda a
is another element of A
That's scalar multiplication, which is the main part of a vector space structure
how would i determine the dimension of E over its prime field?
i dont exactly know what that means
i know what dimension means
a vector space of dimension n over a finite field of order p has order p^n
I mean it's easy to see, any vector space of finite dimension over a field k is just a product of ks
hm
a basis of V gives a linear map k^n -> V sending ith standard basis vector to ith thing in ur basis
right
And this is a bijection
so then i have to find the dimension of E in general and then have 2^dim E?
no wait thats dumb
Isn't the correct statement "any non-zero, non-unit factor of the image of f must be associate to x^2+1"?
Er, sorry, that's not right. Is the reasoning here that any quadratic factor of the image does not reduce (since x^2+1 has no roots in F3), meaning that the only possible factorisation of the image into irreducibles is into irreducible quadratics?
That's not quite right either
I can get myself to the same conclusion, but by more tediousness than the author seems to be using here
F3[x] is a unique factorization domain. So the only possible factorizations up to associates is f*1 and (x^2 + 1)^2
Any factor must be associate to some product of its irreducible factors.
The only way to make a quadratic polynomial out of multiplying together quadratic polynomials is to just pick one
Right, so we arrive back at my first statement I think: any irreducible factor (i.e. nonunit factor) must be associate to x^2+1
I mean that is also a true statement.
But not quite how the author is doing it?
I guess I'm not sure what you're asking anymore.
Do you feel there is something wrong with what's in the red box?
You mean that it's emphasising the wrong thing relative to what you need it for?
Yeah pretty much
I thought that you meant my statement was not relevant to the argument here
Yeah sure, I guess it's sort of taken for granted that you can check the polynomial has no roots
Either by doing it mod 3 or using the rational root theorem
I guess it's not really true that this means f would be the square of a quadratic either. Not sure what argument they have in mind there
Well suppose (x^2+1)^2=fg in F3[x], neither f nor g units. Then f and g factor into irreducibles. Since x^2+1 is irreducible, uniqueness of this factorisation show f and g are both associate to x^2+1
Yeah in F3[x]
And lifting that back to Z[x] ought to show that the original polynomial is associate to a square of a quadratic, but since the polynomial is monic you're done
AHh I see what you're saying
Why would it ought to show that?
Is your point that I could write the original polynomial over Z as something other than a square, and that would reduce mod 3 to a square?
Sure, like
(x^2 + 1)(x^2 - 2)
or whatever
Right
I'm confused-- is there a problem just with the boxed sentence or is the whole solution iffy? This seems to be a problem with it to me
I'm more concerned with what's after the box
Yeah, the lifting
The best statement the author could make is we would have a factorisation in Z[x] into a product of two quadratics, I think
I mean I'm sure you can throw some more computations at it and it would be fine. But I think they may have cut some corners
I've never seen an argument like this before
Anyway, you can prove this quite cleanly with Galois theory. Much less computation required
I mean I know that reduction mod p gives a criterion for checking irreducibility, but the author does this "the factorisation must be a square" trick a few times in course notes and assignment solutions
We have not gotten to the Galois theory part of the course unfortunately
Do you mean that you think there is some way to think about reducing mod 3 and showing that the polynomial is irreducible that way, or just that it is possible to verify that fact computationally?
Like expanding (x^2 + ax + b)(x^2 + (a+3m)x + b + 3n)
Well, I know the factors would need to be monic. But you can add that in if you want
The first equation would then just read
1 = 1+3k
Ok yeah
Is there some (non-Galois-theoretic?) underlying reason why the author does not seem to need to check they're not losing information about the factorisation while reducing? It happens quite a bit (twice in this image)
Where are you getting these notes? Are they solution sets to your homework or from a book or something else?
The first image are course notes, the second are solutions
I might ask your professor / TA / whoever makes these solutions then
(I might = you should xD)
do matrix row operations form a group?
right
invertible matrix row ops do, that's the general linear group
wait sorry i misread
i think usually we restrict the notion of elementary row ops to invertible ones
this is a problem on my chapter on rational canonical form
and honestly i really just dont know
i would try this for an RCF with a single block first
then try to generalize to an RCF with multiple blocks
i mean for a single block RCF you just get that the constant term is the top right element times some power of -1
but idk how its related to the determinant of A
is that jordan normal form
ok nvm i googled it and it's not
i could help if the field were algebraically closed
well wait
the determinant of a block diagonal matrix is the product of the determinants of the blocks
Yes so I get the product of the top right elements
so the thing you just mentioned can be used to say something in particular about the constant term of A
because of how the characteristic polynomial interacts w/ each of the companion matrices making up the RCF
Is it just that it annihilates them
I get that part but I still dont even remotely see where the determinant comes in
Maybe im forgetting a vital property of the determinant
so if i understand rational canonical form correctly, we write $A = PRP^{-1}$. note $A \sim R$ and so the char poly, trace, and determinant of $A$ is the same as $R$. write $R$ in block-diagonal fashion, like $R = \diag\{C_1, \dots, C_n\}$, where
$$C_i = \mqty[0 & 0 & \dots & 0 & -c_{i, 0} \\ 1 & 0 & \dots & 0 & -c_{i, 1} \\ 0 & 1 & \dots & -c_{i, 2} \\ \hdots & \hdots & \ddots & \hdots & \hdots \\ 0 & 0 & \dots & 1 & -c_{i, m_i - 1}]$$
note $\tr(C_i) = -c_{i, m_i - 1}$. do cofactor expansion about the first row of $C_i$ and you get $\det(C_i) = (-1)^{m_i} c_{i, 0}$.
Altanis
then you can relate the determinants and trace of each block diagonal (or companion matrix i think it's called for rcf?) matrix in R to R itself
by uh $\tr(R) = \sum_i \tr(C_i)$ and $\det(R) = \prod_i \det(C_i)$.
Altanis
Oh wait does the rcf of a matrix have the same trace and determinant
yeah
Oh I see it now
more generally that's true up to similarity
oh yeah det and trace are both determinable from eigenvalues, which similarity preserves
also, trace is preserved under cyclic permutation, i.e. Tr(ABC) = Tr(BCA) = Tr(CAB)
So you can say Tr(PRP^-1) = Tr(RP^-1P) = Tr(R)
ah nice
ugh i shouldve known that the whole thing bottlenecking me from solving this was just that i didnt know properties of det and tr
How do I prove vi)?
Prove X_f is isomorphic to Spec(A_f) is probably the nicest way
But icr if that book does localisations by now
No
I mean it’s a no to the implicit question “does the book do localisations by now”
honestly this is the most reasonable thing
Any other idea?
you could probably copypaste the proof of (v) for an analogue to (vi) because these are just essentially the same way lol
you have to fix some parts
for more hint: Spec A is just D(1), or D(u) for any unit u
this would require knowing that X_f is the spectrum of some ring
and a priori they do not know that
I assume
this one should be quick bc i think i know what to do but i just wanna make sure
its easy to see that $T^3 + T^2 - \text{id} = 0$ and so $p(x) = x^3 + x^2 - 1$ annihilates $T$
hiidostuff
furthermore $p$ is irreducible so its the minimal polynomial
hiidostuff
and even more, the invariant factors of $T$ must just be some repeated list of $p$ if anything because the invariant factors have to divide $p$
hiidostuff
is this right?
What is D?
since the X_f are a basis of open sets of X, for any X_f it's enough to consider an open covering of the form X_g with X_g \subseteq X_f. Now use the definition of X_f and mimic the proof of v)
hmm cant we just take principal open cover X_f\subseteq\bigcup D(f_i), and taking complement gives \bigcap V(f_i)\subseteq V(f) then we could apply the same argument no?
this is how I'd do it
But I am considering X_f \subset \bigcup X_g_i
take complement and then you can write f^n=\sum a_ig_i for some i's (and this is finitely sum)
then use X_f^n=X_f
I get V( {g_i} ) \subset V(f), how do I show f^n is finite sum of a_ig_i?
you can show V(a)\subseteq V(b) if and only if rad(b)\subseteq rad(a) by fixing (iv)
yeah this was my idea but I thought you were going for something else
Yes
I got it, thank you @fading acorn
For iii) my guess is for Hausdorff topological space the maximal irreducible components are singletons but I am not sure, I am saying because I can say for finite sets which has cardinality more than one, that set cannot be irreducible
Is there a name for the theorem that all subgroups of (Z, +) are of form Za?
Don't think it has a name, but a subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic would be the relevant theorem
euclide xd
If X is the union of two closed sets. What does that say about the complement of those two sets? Can you relate that to the Hausdorff condition?
Ah ok
okay i can say both are clopen sets
how would someone approach part a of 24? i know part b is showing uniqueness but im confused for part a
sorry about no cropping i am lazy to crop
clopen is a bit strong maybe.
But they are open, because complement of closed is open
i know this is linear algebra but it is in my abs alg book so i thought i'd send it here
Start by using the definition of a basis
you can write any elements in terms of linear combination of basis vectors, and you know where you basis elements maps
right but like what does "completely determined" mean?
That if you know phi(beta_i) then you know all of phi (i.e. phi(v) for all v)
hm
Part a is the "at most one" to part b's "exactly one"
yes but i can't see the connection it with Hausdorff
i dont really understand what im trying to prove then, like how do you prove that if you have one thing then you know the entire linear transformation? like what does that mean in a statement form
Alright, so before you see the connection you would need to answer the question.
If you have X the union of two closed sets, what does that tell you about the complements?
It means you're supposed to determine phi(v) given the vectors phi(beta_i)
they are open too
wait
ohhhhhhhhh
i am wrong here
Right, so the statement sort of contains two bits of information.
The sets are closed and X is the union of them
if they are disjoint then they are open
so like v = some linear combination and then apply phi to both sides and use linearity to get phi(v) in terms of phi(beta)
So far you've only used the first bit of information to conclude anything
Are you asking if the closed sets are disjoint?
i mean if X is the union of two closed sets then i don't think they are open too, if they disjoint then i can say they are open
but here maximal are disjoint so i can X is the disjoint union of closed sets
I'm not really sure what you're saying or what you mean is maximal.
What I'm trying to say is that being Hausdorff is usually framed as something about intersecting open sets, while being irreducible is framed as taking unions of closed sets.
So we somehow have to turn unions of closed sets into intersections of open sets. So we need a way to turn a closed set into an open set, and the complement is a way to do that
So if
X = F1 u F2
for closed sets F1 and F2, and their complements are U1 and U2, what is the relationship between U1 and U2?
are F1 and F2 disjoint?
No
The definition of irreducible is only about unions of closed sets, nothing about disjointness
I am using this definition
Well, then it's much easier.
You don't have to translate from closed sets to open sets, it's just immediate.
Just imagine a Hausdorff space with more than one point and notice that it's not irreducible
All I was saying before is that
X = F1 u F2
is equivalent to
Ø = U1 n U2
So if you can find two open sets that don't intersect you're done
Yss
NotKnow 
Yes De Morgan Law
Kiand123
So you see it?
Yes, so if a set Y is which has cardinality more than 1 then still it is Hausdorff then it shows there exists two disjoint open sets, hence it cannot be irreducible therefore singletons are the irreducible components in Hausdorff space
Thank you 
For iv) part, i observe that V(p) is irreducible for all prime ideal p, but for maximal I have to show p has to be minimal polynomial.
What I am thinking is somehow I can prove irreducible subset are the form of V(q), where q is a prime ideal then I am done.
I can only say irreducible subset are of the form V(I)
Somehow if I can prove...
So you may as well assume I is a radical ideal and use that
V(I) = spec A/I
Then figure out when spec R is irreducible
When the nilradical of R is prime ideal of R
Yeah, and what does that say about I if the nilradical of A/I is prime
Here are you identity V(I) with spec A/I
If I consider I as radical ideal then I is prime ideal
Thank you @rocky cloak 
What is your question?
How do I remember its matrix form?
It's slightly confusing
I can remember only identity
Well i is the one with i's on the diagonal, so that makes sense.
j is a 90 degree rotation so somewhat natural thing that would square to -1 and k = ij
I did not get it properly 😌
I'm new over discord and abstract algebra
Is this how we rotate?
,rotate
How do you get J? By rotation. Pls explain more
By multiple?
I'm not sure I understand what you're asking. In your book they write that j is given by
[0 1]
[-1 0]
which is the 2x2 matrix for a 90 degree counter clockwise rotation
Is it not counter clock wise matrix?
[0 -1]
[1 0]
Yeah, clockwise sorry
Well your i is also different
i has i, -i on the diagonal
ohh damn
Not i, i
How did they assume i?
diagonal should be same no?
I'm totally confused about how they are constructing matrices
The real span of 1, i, j and k is called the quaternions.
Then the typical way to construct matrices would be to pick some (right) C-basis, and just write down the matrices for left multiplication by 1, i, j, k.
I guess the basis that would be the most natural to me would be something like {1, j}, but that would give
[0 -1]
[1 0]
for j, so maybe they have some different basis or are thinking about right multiplication or something else
If you pick the basis {1, -j} you get their matrices at least
#help-28 message also fits here
we do not know algebraic independence of pi and e
A lattice is an abstract structure studied in the mathematical subdisciplines of order theory and abstract algebra. It consists of a partially ordered set in which every pair of elements has a unique supremum (also called a least upper bound or join) and a unique infimum (also called a greatest lower bound or meet). An example is given by the po...
So the pick for L was suboptimal..?
yeah choose an other L
In what way should you do that? Do you have some intuition behind it
it’s much better to use an algebraic field
Thats a field L so that L/Q is a finite field extension?
by algebraic field here I just meant a subfield of C generated by algebraic numbers
Shouldn't something like Q(pi+i) work
I think yes
I guess the easiest example might be something like ||Q adjoin a complex third root of 2||
yeah exactly the same example I had in my mind
That is at least the smallest example
how to draw the spectrum of a ring
Depends on the ring I guess
right yea. Well lets say Spec(Z) as a start. So Spec(Z)={(p)| p prime}U{(0)}
typically you draw each point by drawing it's closure
so the generic point you draw as a large line "containing" all the other points
because it's closure contains the other pts
more than one way to present it, in the specific case of spec(Z) you can alternatively visualize it is a tree with infinitely many branches coming out of it
what does generic point mean
The prime 0 in an integral domain I think b/c the closure is everything
Idk if it has a precise definition
closure of the point {P} is dense in your space
whats considered an easy example to visualize?
just read Eisenbud's geometry of schemes ch2 there are many examples lol
well the thing is that I am doing A&M commutative algebra
oh that one exercise?
asking how to interpret Spec Z, Spec R, Spec C, Spec Z[x] maybe?
an exercise says to draw pictures of the spectra of Z, R, R[x], C[x] and Z[x]
oh lol
so that's why you are not active these days
actually I am not active these days because I am not really studying these days, mostly wasting time
C[x] is pretty easy
why are you trying to visualise spec anyway
ok so for example maybe Spec(C[x]) is easy because you can associate each prime ideal to a complex number
well visualizing spec is really nice
since the prime ideals are (x-a) and (0) for any complex a
why wouldn't you try to visualize see it
so then this should be the complex plane plus some point at infinity?
it's not a point at infinity
its not point at infinity
just because its an exercise in A&M
oh yeah right i remember that exercise actually
well I didnt know what to do with (0) so i said what came to mind
it's funny I remember in that one Borcherds video on spec he actually mentioned that the first time everyone learns about spec C[x] they immediately think "oh it's just C with a point at infinity"
b/c you see C plus an extra point and neuron activation
the real C with point at infinity is ProjC[x,y] 
it's just the whole line
but a single point
it's very weird to think about it this way but tbh imo it's the best way to visualize non Hausdorff spaces
also another quirk with C[x] is that it's actually better to think about it as a line than a plane
which I find hilarious
"the complex line"
(0) should be close to all the other points since it's closure is everything.
So it's kind of a "generic" point, existing everywhere at once
so it traces the same curve/shape traced by all other points of the spectrum?
idk what you mean by traces the same curve
Sometimes ppl draw a line with some cloudy fuzzy point behind it to represent the generic pt
Q[x]....
I am not sure what that means too tbh, I am just not getting how to draw Spec(C[x]) or Spec(R) for any commutative ring R in general
yeah smth like this:
For general R you cant really draw it!
tfw R with arbitrary krull dimension 
You'd have a lot of thick and generic points
Since nilpotents are basically infinitesimal thickenings and generic points abound!
Like this is what Spec(Z[x]) looks like
So Spec(C[x]) is just C plus an extra point.
So you would just draw it however you want to draw C.
the joy of realising why those circles are drawn by the curve [(x^2+1)] there relating with factorisation of primes in Z[i] is great
"the complex plane is best visualised as a 4-dimensional euclidian space"
Right, how do you justify it though?
Show that pi-i isn't in the field :)
Can we say all elements are of the form r + s(pi + i) with r, s in Q?
God I wish
No it'll be polynomials evaluated in pi+i
So you can have arbitrarily high powers of pi+i
Oh, right
So we need to show that $\pi - i \neq a_0 + a_1(\pi + i) + a_2(\pi + i)^2 + \dots + a_n(\pi + i)^n$ with $a_i \in \mathbb Q$ for all $n \in \mathbb N$
ILikeMathematics
does anyone know what this restriction "s |_{Q_1}" notation means
its at the very start of chapter 2
and I searched through chapter 1 and couldnt find it
I mean I think they defined it in the parenthesis
what does restrict mean here
like as a function
idk how this books axiomatizes quivers but there's kinda only one interpretation that makes sense
tysm everyone for helping me earlier and sorry for disappearing suddenly but i had to go. I will keep everything yall told me in mind and try to look more into this later on to figure out how things work more clearly
I got it, thank you
have a great day/night!
I am a little bit not sure about this P(X) here, can anyone explain what we are doing here ?
K[t1,...,tN]/I(X) is the quotient ring, are we restricting our domain K^N to X?
Let $\pi\in R = \mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]$. Suppose $N(\pi)=p$ for p a rational prime. Show $\pi$ is prime in R.
The norm here is $N(a)=|a^2-2b^2|$. I've gotten to the point that I can say, for $\pi | xy$, x and y in R, $p | N(x)$ or $p | N(y)$. How do I 'get back' from the norms here to say that $\pi$ itself must divide x or y?
Bottlecap Desu~(Bottlecap Gang)
I think for one direction i don't need \phi has to be regular mapping
well, if ϕ isnt regular then the composition η ∘ ϕ isnt necessarily polynomial
Oh my bad
Does every ideal of A×B looks like I×J, where I is an ideal of A and J is an ideal of B ?
yes for rings
For vii), let K1 be the prime ideal in B then π_2(K1) is prime ideal in K, so π_2(K1) = 0 and also π_1(K1) = I is a prime ideal in A/p, so K1 = I ×{0}.
But A/p has only one prime ideal which is {0}.
So K1 = {0} × {0}
idk why i said "for rings" thats a kinda unnecessary addendum lol
no, moving prime ideals through rings is via quotients and preimages
Spec(B) should be the disjoint union of Spec(A/p) and Spec(K)
Sorry i don't get it
if I is a prime ideal then π1(I) isnt necessarily a prime ideal
it needs the condition ker π1 ⊂ I
Ah my bad
How?
How?
if q is a prime of B, then it is of the form I × J where I is an ideal of A/p and J an ideal of K
=> B/q = (A/p)/I × K/J
but an integral domain cannot be a product of two nontrivial rings (as those necessarily introduce zero divisors), so either J = K or I = A/p
if I is an ideal of R, then I = (1, 0)I + (0,1)I
Yes but how do I find K1 and k2 such that I = K1 × K2
think
Let me think
Noggin
I got it, thank you
is alpha^-1 in the set of arrows?
since s is a function from the set of arrows to the set of points
for every alpha in the set of arrows, there must be a alpha^-1 in the set of arrows right?
if so, then wouldnt every point be a predecessor of each other
only if there exists at least one path between that pair to begin with
its not yeah. the goal is primarily notational convenience here
does Cayley Hamilton theorem holds for modules?
its not a well-defined question for non-free modules but besides that i dont know
matsumura, commutative ring theory, theorem 2.1
if $M$ is a finite module over a (commutative) ring $A$ and $\text{End}(M)$ is considered as an $A$-algebra, every element $\phi$ of $\text{End}(M)$ satisfies a relation $a_0+a_1\phi+a_2\phi^2+\ldots +a_n\phi^n=0,$ with $a_i\in A$
finite module meaning M has finitely many elements?
qchs
finitely generated
yes.. that makes more sense
wait does the polynomial relation it satisfies have anything to do with some kind of characteristic polynomial of phi?
yes it is precisely that
you build a matrix wrt some finite generating set
and take char poly of that
consider abelian groups
many a fg abelian group that isnt free
no
really any proper fg ideal
but somewhat surprisingly, projective->free in local rings
matsumura isnt clear in the proof tho
read kaplansky's paper instead
what is this group about?
oh a dutch person
This is probably obvious but my brain just isn't parsing it for some reason. Suppose we have a group action of a group G on a set X. Suppose H is a subgroup and F is a subset of X such that the H orbits intersect F in a unique point. Show the same property holds for the cosets of H
that is, suppose Hx cap F is a unique point for all x. Then show (gHx) cap F is still a unique point
I don't think that (gHx) cap F = g(Hx cap F)... rather I think probably (gHx) cap F = g(Hx cap g^{-1}F)
so an equivalent version of this would be to show that the G translates of F also intersect the orbits of H in a unique point. But I'm also still unsure how to show this
it's clear that the H translates of F intersect the orbits of H in a unique point, and it's also clear that this property holds if H is a normal subgroup of G, but if H is a general subgroup I can't see it
Apparently it’s not necessarily true
i agree. for example take H = {e, (1 2)} in \Sigma_3 the symmetric group on 3 elements acting on the 3 vertices of an equilateral triangle via symmetries. if I label the points 1, 2, 3, then pick F = {1, 3} for example, the assumption is correct. however, if i pick g = (2, 3), then (gH)(3) = g({3}) = {2} which is not in F
i dont know what the most general thing you can say is, but you can get away with it if F is G-invariant instead of some random subset
or as you said if H is normal also works
If F is G invariant the statement is somewhat trivial, since then it is also H invariant and the assumption implies H acts as the identity on it
I’m trying to say something about the measure of SL(2, R)/SL(2, Z) by studying a fundamental domain for SL(2, Z) acting on the upper half space (namely that it’s finite)
But I really have no idea how
gl! my ability to be useful became even more trivial than the previous statement when you said the word "measure" lol
Fair lol
Is there a symbol denoting smth js a subgroup of another
Like how $U \le V$ is sometimes used to show U is a subspace of V
Altanis
Same question for subrings
that notation is also used for groups, with a variant for normal subgroups
$A \lhd B, A \unlhd B$
PKThoron
The \leq is for any algebraic structure
How to determine the minimal number of generators that can generate a particular group? Is that an NP-complete problem computationally? Is there a name for this characteristic of a group?
Oh cool
It's called rank, you can look up the rank problem.
(beware of the related, but distinct concept of rank of module/abelian group)
Nice, Wikipedia gives a summary in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rank_of_a_group
The rank problem is decidable for finite groups
And for many groups it’s even algorithmically undecidable! So afaiu it means that there can’t be any algorithm at all to give us the answer
Is it more common to denote the group identity as 0/1 or e
i'm team id
I am in process of switching from e to 1
If using + for the operation, use 0 for the identity
If using \cdot or juxtaposition, use 1
If using some other symbol, maybe rethink your life choices
What about $\circ$
micoi the group things
you don't really write circ for groups tbh
if the operation is composition just use juxtaposition
I mean if you're working with a specific group where the operation is composition go ahead
I only find myself using circ for like real valued functions or smth so it's not confused with pointwise product
Very occasionally (I’m mostly thinking of very early intro group theory, where people aren’t necessarily comfortable with “juxtaposition can be used to imply different operations when we have two groups floating around”)
what about * or whatever they use for joining two paths
should i also rethink my life choices if i use * for concatenation
x, *, \cdot and juxtaposition are all the same symbol in my book
But you might reflect on your life just in case
Regarding earlier
This seems to get messy
I'd still like to use this method because Q(pi + i) seems like the most natural pick
If you're able to turn this into a polynomial relation for pi you can use that pi is transcendental.
Oh yeah that should be doable, only looking at the real parts of both sides we would have something like (after subtracting pi): 0 = tilde a1 + tilde a2 pi + tilde a3 pi^2 + ... + an pi^n
And since pi is transcendental, this doesn't have a solution, so pi - i != (...) and we are done
Does that look right?
Thanks!
You or someone else suggested picking a third root of 2 instead of pi + i yesterday
How is that motivated/how would you think of that? [the objective was finding a field that is not closed under conjugation]
Well, Q(cuberoot(2)) is a well known example of an extension that isn't normal. Surgically that is to say it doesn't contain all the cuberoots of 2, just one of them.
But of course the conjugate of a complex cuberoot of 2 is another cuberoot
Ah, ok. Thanks
For (b), does it not suffice as a proof to say that any basis of L has this property?
Why wouldn’t it?
I don't know, but the book gives two fairly convoluted proofs
So I'm wondering whether there's a reason the book uses different proofs
I think the main content is showing they’re algebraic
That follows from (a), no?
Okay but how do you prove (a) lol
dim(L)=n, take n+1 powers of any of the elements and they must be linearly dependent
There's a nuance in this that I didn't catch at first, which is that these n+1 powers might not be distinct
Or at least it takes work to show that they are distinct
I think I will come back to that later since the book doesn't mention it and I have to do homework
If they’re not distinct, you immediately have a linear dependence
Between the pair that are the same
Oh, true
Why are the elements of K(A) of the form a0 + a1A + a2A^2 + ... + anA^n?
My definition of K(A) is it's the smallest field containing the field K and the set A
So shouldn't it also go backwards since inverses are allowed, A^(-1), A^(-2), ...?
ok since everyone likes 1 (including my textbook author) seems ill use 1
i like e though
as an alternative, pick a in L \ K. Then [K(a) : K] >= 2. Repeat (now with L \ K(a) and so on) until you can't anymore, then K(a1, ..., an) = L. Because the degree keeps increasing by at minimum a factor of 2 this will happen
Yes, in general elements of K(A) looks like f(A)/g(A) where f and g are polynomials with coefficients in K and g(A) is non-zero.
However if A is algebraic these can all be written as f(A) where f is a polynomial of degree less than the degree of A
As an example take K=Q and A=sqrt(2).
Then sqrt(2)^-1 = sqrt(2)/2
is this what ur referring to?
Oh. We didn't deal with how elements of K(A) look like at all in class, do you think there is a way to justify pi - i is not in Q(pi + i) without that?
this is called the structure theorem for cyclic groups right?
Probably not, right? We do need to represent elements somehow
or well the point in (c)
That name makes sense at least
I mean if you have
pi - i = f(pi + i)/g(p+i)
You can multiply by g to simplify. But if you don't know what Q(pi + i) is at all then I guess it will be tricky
I guess I could say this just trivially follows from field axioms
Well, rather, K[A] c K(A) and so Quot(K[A]) c K(A) but also the other inclusion holds trivially and so K(A) = Quot(K[A])
Could someone help me understand what the difference is between module and algebra
My book definse an algebra as: Let K be a field. A K-Algebra is a ring A with an identity and A is a vector space over the field K compatible with multiplication of the ring
Module is defined as: Let A be a K-Algebra. A right A-module is a pair (M, *) where M is a K-vector space and *: MxA -> M (m,a) -> ma, is a binary operation satisfying distributivity, associativity, x1 = x
well is there differene between A-module and module?
is a module always derived from some algebra?
My understanding of an algebra is a vector field that is also a ring where multiplication between the ring and field is defined an associative
thought im not sure if I understand exactly what a module is
I think I'll have to look at another source for modules, I think this book assumes some understanding of module already
A module is usually defined over some ring. You would say R-module to specify which ring when it's not clear. And R could of course be an algebra
an R-algebra is just a R-module with a multiplication
In general you have M be an abelian group instead of a vector space
book defining modules as being over an algebra instead of over a ring is a bit nonstandard I guess
It's not uncommon to focus on modules over algebras, so if that's all you're gonna deal with you might as well I guess 🤷♀️
But yeah, not the standard definition
Your understanding is correct if you mean vector space instead of vector field. And a module over a ring is basically just like a vector space, except the scalars are in a ring instead of a field
hmm I see, yeah I think I was getting confused because the definition online were different from the book
thanks for the help
yeah, just forget the definition in the book. Defining a module over an algebra is just confusing if you're just using the ring structure of the algebra anyways. And they've made it extra confusing by mandating that M should be a K-vector space instead of just an abelian group
I mean they are using the algebra structure when they require M to be a vector space. And that does actually simplify it.
Then you can think of a module as an algebra map A -> End(V) for a vector space V.
Instead of having to think about how the algebra structure induces a vector space structure on M (since you absolutely will be using the vector space structure of M alot)
Is it correct to consider a homomorpbjsm as a map for which applying the map and applying the group operation is commutative?
Is there a commutative diagram for this lol
hmm yeah, good point
yes, but you'll get lynched if you post it in this channel 💀
This is exactly a commutative diagram
Sure.
[\begin{tikzcd}[cramped,sep=scriptsize]
{G \times G} && {H \times H} \
\
G && H
\arrow["{\phi \times \phi}", from=1-1, to=1-3]
\arrow["m"', from=1-1, to=3-1]
\arrow["m", from=1-3, to=3-3]
\arrow["\phi", from=3-1, to=3-3]
\end{tikzcd}]
Kerr
A commutative diagram is just a nice way to write an equation. So yes.
The usual terminology is that the homomorphism preserves the group operation
i like to think of it as saying that applying the homomorphism is orthogonal to/independent of applying the group operation
in the commutative diagram they are literally orthogonal in a geometric sense
but they're also "conceptually orthogonal" in that they're independent processes which don't affect each other
group homomorphism is a functor between groups seen as groupoids with single object


I want to show that $$\mathbb Q(\sqrt 2 + \sqrt 3 + \sqrt 5) = \mathbb Q(\sqrt 2, \sqrt 3, \sqrt 5).$$ I showed before that $$\mathbb Q(\sqrt a + \sqrt b) = \mathbb Q(\sqrt a, \sqrt b)$$ and I thought about using that somehow. $$\mathbb Q(\sqrt 2, \sqrt 3, \sqrt 5) = \mathbb Q(\sqrt 2 +\sqrt 3)(\sqrt 5)$$ but this doesn't seem to help, we still need to show that $\sqrt 5 \in \mathbb Q(\sqrt 2 + \sqrt 3 + \sqrt 5)$
ILikeMathematics
How much Galois theory do you know? You can instead show that the degree of the minimal polynomial of sqrt2+sqrt3+sqrt5 over Q is 8, and the degree of the extension on the RHS is 8 (because it is a triple tower of quadratic extensions) as well so they must coincide
Nice
Ty all!
this same pattern works for all algebraic structures
you have "internal" operations like the group operation, or ring multiplication, or scalar multiplication
and "external" operations via applying homomorphisms
homomorphisms are defined to be orthogonal to/independent of the internal operations
Hm interesting. Do formal texts use this terminology?
Haven't covered any Galois theory at this point.
Hm, that's good, so both are degree 8 field extensions - but how does that help
not at the moment, but something close to it
Both are degree 8, one is contained in the other, so they’re the same
there's a categorification of orthogonality/independence called naturality
Oh
essentially the motivation for the invention of category theory
This is just linear algebra, right
Thanks!
If you don’t have Galois theory then I don’t see a way of doing this without brute force crunching the powers of sqrt2+sqrt3+sqrt5, which does not look fun
Only thing left is finding that degree 8 minimal polynomial of sqrt(2) + sqrt(3) + sqrt(5) lol
Yeah that’s kinda hard to do without some Galois theory
The alternative is probably messing around with 1/(sqrt(2) + sqrt(3) + sqrt(5)) just like how I showed Q(sqrt(a) + sqrt(b)) = Q(sqrt(a), sqrt(b))
I looked at that just now. Doesn't seem to get you anywhere good
That’s secretly the same as computing the minimal polynomial, lol
You can get it via a generalisation of that way
But I have no clue how to explain the generalisation without Galois theory
(I could explain the solution, but it would look like I’m pulling things out of thin air that happen to magically work)
At which point just use your favourite computer algebra system to get the min polynomial
How does the Galois theory way go? Haven't had that at this point but it's still interesting
Actually here’s a neat way to do it, which needs a fair bit of algebra but not more than the two square root case
Show that Q(sqrt(2) + sqrt(3) + sqrt(5)) has degree 2 over Q(sqrt(2) + sqrt(3)) = Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3))
Ie, show that sqrt(5) is not in Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3))
The main result here that my idea uses is showing that the minimal polynomial is exactly the product of (x ±sqrt2 ±sqrt3 ±sqrt5) where you have exactly 8 terms ranging over every possible sign permutation
Which isn’t that bad if you know a Q-basis for Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3))
It’s not… too hard to show that this is a polynomial in Q, but showing that this thing is irreducible does need a bunch of nontrivial theory
Actually no
Because my method needs you to already know that sqrt(2), sqrt(3) are in Q(…)
Why? It seems to me like it works out
To show that E has degree 2 over F you need to actually show that E contains F.
oh
Here E would be Q(sq2 + sq3 + sq5) and F = Q(sq2 + sq3)
I saw a way where they take (sq 2 + sq 3 + sq 5)^3, ^5 and ^7, compute all that, then set up a coefficient matrix and write A * (vector with all the roots) = (a, a^3, a^5, a^7), then show that A is invertible and so the roots are expressible in sq 2 + sq 3 + sq 5
But thats not better than CAS-ing the minpoly
That’s how I’d so it without Galois theory
I think you can do it not too bad:
As sq5 is not in E= Q(sq2, sq3) it must be that sq2+sq3+sq5 and sq2+sq3-sq5 share the same minimal polynomial over E. Then they do the same over Q.
Repeat replacing sq5 with the others and boom
Why would you take exactly ^3, ^5 and ^7? And not ^2, ^3, ^4?
I’d do the latter
And I don’t see the methods as meaningfully different
Ah
Maybe the coefficient matrix is not invertible or something in that case
Thanks!
share the same minimal polynomial over E.
Why? Is the justification Galois theory?
No, just observing that in general the for something like K(sq(t)) the minimal polynomial of a + bsq(t) is
x^2 - 2ax + a^2 - tb^2
So doesn't depend on the sign of b
ah
Or I guess said more simply: the minimal polynomial is
(x - a + bsqt)(x - a - bsqt)
I guess the one thing missing is that none of the
±sq2 ± sq3 ± sq5
are equal. But that shouldn't be too hard
What do you think about Fraliegh's first course in abstract algebra book?
i think it is good for first course
linear maps over vector spaces using + as the group operation are homomorphisms right
yes
i lowk don't know exactly how to start this. i know how to find the order of A_20 but my brain isn't fully working rn
They order of A_n is always n!/2, but that's not really relevant here. Use disjoint cycle decomposition to build a permutation of order 165=3*5*11. Argue the permutation you found is even and thus lies in A_20
ooo ok i'll try it
thanks!!
is this the idea in linalg behind how the induced map $\tilde{T}: V/\ker T \to \im T$ is able to equate cosets in $V/\ker T$ by shifting by some zero-element under addition (i.e. $T(v + w)$ for $w \in \ker T$ is simply $Tv$)?
Altanis
cuz this part isn't making a lot of sense to me yet
Oh you're comparing group theory with linear algebra.
Then yes, they are the same idea, one the incarnation of it in groups the other in vector spaces.
ok thatg'll be a useful analogy
quotients were a little rushed imo in the linalg book i read
many such cases
so artin defines $\bZ n$ to be the set of all integers divisible by $n$. for example, $\bZ (2) = {\cdots, -4, -2, 0, 2, 4, \cdots}$. but by this definition, isn't $2 \bZ = \bZ 2$??
Altanis
why did artin not just write it as nZ initially
(Zn is a subgroup of additive Z)
right this property is special
how so
should i read more before asking
but keyword is normality
this isnt even the section on cosets yet
like normal subgroups?
yes
yeah normal subgroups are useful and it's what you need to make sense of quotients
just wanna add that in general aH != Ha, and they're just writing this as right cosets instead of left because here they happen to be the same
the group needs to be abelian so that aH = Ha right
the cool thing is no
aH and Ha are both sets
well if the group is abelian then aH = Ha right
yes abelian is sufficient
play with S_3
artin explained S_3 really weirdly
or maybe im dumb idk
it was like
lemme get a ss brb
i understand symmetric groups but i dont fully understand what this arrangement of S_3 is meant to convey..?
do you have a chapter on free groups
the symmetric group is, by def, the group of all bijective maps f: T -> T (which are permutations)
so the symmetric group would just be all functions that would permute over some set T
for now you can play around with cycle notation or the weird matrix-like notation
S_3 is the group that describes how permutations operate on sets of size 3
{1,(12),(13),(23),(123),(132)}
Proving the group presentation of S_n and A_n was miserable
which ones
Arbitrary n for like the (1, i) and (i, i + 1) cycle presentations respectively
for (132), this cycle says 1st element -> 3rd element, 3rd element -> 2nd element, 2nd element -> 1st element, yes?
and thats what the function is
OH
iirc doesnt A_n only have elements of an even # of 2-cycle transpositions
i get S_3 now
correct
it's the set of 6 permutations that uniquely shuffles any set of size 3
Yes
another way to write these things is like I said with the matrix like notation. You order the numbers in increasing order in the first row
1 2 3
X X X
then in second column you right the corresponding number where it gets maps to
so (12) would be
1 2 3
2 1 3
for example
using array notation you would have to go from right to left i think
so for (132) would be
1 2 3
3 2 1
people usually omit the numbers in increasig order
i see
you just write 321 or 164523 or whatever
yeah (123) is equal to (231)
this is preferred notation in like algebraic combinatorics/rep theory
yeah worth mentioning for future uses of group theory, cycle notation (esp transpositions) are super helpful
one thing you can do is take an arbitrary element in S_n and see how to decompose it into adjacent transpositions
there is a nice geometry way to do these things and it comes up in algebraic combinatorics/knot theory
i actually dont know how to compose permutations without using array notation
whenever its written in cycle notation i always have to put it into array notation
(1 2 3) (1 2) is
1 |-> 2 |-> 3
3 |-> 3 |-> 1
2 |-> 1 |-> 2
so the permutation is (1 3)
oh it is the same idea
makes sense
i think that's right
so (1 2 3)(1 2) = (3 2 1)?
no read it correctly
yup
if you were to go from left to right of a permutation group of order 2 (S_2?)
that would still be the same as going right to left since the group is abelian right
how much structure does something have to have to have a notion of irrational numbers?
Do irrational numbers make sense algebraically in general?
is that a question for me?
i think you need all the rationals and ordering
and rationals imply you need a field so
i dont think u need a field
Nono, I’m curious for myself!
Why do you need ordering?
ok so first i think you would need a field because the def of an irrational number is something inexpressible as a/b, a,b\in Z
you can easily reword that without division.
you would need some notion of division no?
i dont see why you'd need distributivity and stuff for that
it seems like the "integers" could be anything?
i dont think it would be necessary to define a well ordering for all sets
could you say WLOG without needing to include zermelos theorem (no not the game theory one)
by the definition of a rational number isnt the set of rationals is closed under multiplication technically
I would feel uncomfortable about that. Wouldn’t we like integers to behave similar to how Z does? One big reason people care about it in the first place is to do number theory
So, we should surely give it a ring structure at least
an integral domain seems like the lowest structure to start with then?
Yes I think so too!
maybe we can venture into Rings of Fractions to avoid fields and still come up with the relevant notion of irrationality
idk
an integral domain would have to generate a field of fractions/rationals to determine what is/isnt rational right?
im thinking if you take an integral domain R, take F to be the field of fractions R generates, then any set E for which R and F are subsets of, E \ F is the sett of irrationals
if u start with a not domain. can we start with one
I think this set E should be obtained analytically?
take E to be the extension field or smth idk
do we really have to start with an integral domain
ive never heard of this
Related but you can work with algebraic numbers and these have a lot of structure
algebraic numbers are numbers that are roots to rational-coefficient polynomials yea?
like opposite of transcendental
This would give more (maybe less?) than what I’m willing to call irrationals though?
does this have to do with the constructible numbers
Yes
yeah all numbers that are algebraic are solutions of any nth degree polynomial equation
id assume less cuz it omits transcendentals
It has more than that yes but no transcendentals
oh yeah and it gives u rationals too
youd need to filter those out somehow
but a bigger problem is no transcendentals imo
I mean if you like masochism go ahead and deal with transcendentals
Another related thing which I think is nice to study in the context of transcendentals is periods
e + pi is rational
is e*pi rational
if u dream hard enough
this is a joke btw
Periods include all algebraic numbers and some transcendentals (pi, ln(2), zeta(3) etc) too
i once thought that pi is algebraic because of x^2-pi=0
what is ln(-1)?
ipi i think
right
Riemann zeta function I believe?
It’s not? I have no idea then!
Is it similar to a swear word for you 😂?
it ranges from that to basic algebraic geometry
at some points
makes sense cuz groups rings and fields well everything got those basically 🤣
where are the groups in my non-associative algebra
symmetry groups
or displacement/lmult groups if youre working with (left)quasigroups/loops
this guy has access to negative ascii characters
just use the 8th bit to encode sign
I want to prove that if E / (E n F) is finite then so is F(E) / F. Any ideas? I thought about picking a finite subset M so that (E n F)(M) = E and then writing F(E) = F(E n F)(M) but that doesn't seem very helpful
Why wouldnt that be helpful?
And Im assuming you mean E/(E n F) is a finite extension, not that E\(E n F) is a finite set
Yes, sorry
Why can we follow F(E) / F is a finite extension out of F(E n F)(M) / E n F being finite?
What is F(E n F) equal to?
Is it F(E)?
{x | x in E and x in F}
So they are elements of F...
So that gives you F(E) = F(M)
So from that we get F(M) / E n F is finite
Oh wait, we have F(E) = F(E n F)(M) = F(M)
now we just want to show F(M) / F is finite
Well that's clear because of how we picked M
M is a finite subset
Thanks!
What does it mean to 'characterize' algebraic field extensions with finite field extensions? All finite field extensions are algebraic. Now let L/K be an algebraic field extension. Then there exists M c L with L = K(M). If such an M can be finite, then L/K is also a finite field extension, otherwise not. Is this right?
I think it means that you can think of any algebraic field extension as being, in some sense, the "union" of all the finite subextensions. I think more formally its the colimit of all the finite subextensions. This boils down to every element x in L/K of the extension being contained in the finite extension K(x)
Often you can then extend results that are "preserved by colimits" from the finite case to the case of arbitrary algebraic extensions
I haven't had colimits yet. So what you are saying is, given $L/K$ an algebraic field extension, let $$P \coloneqq {U \subseteq L \mid \text{$U/K$ finite field extension}},$$ then $$L = \bigcup_{U \in P} U?$$
ILikeMathematics
You can edit your previous message fyi
I did, the TeX bot doesnt recognize it anymore though since the "edit time" has passed
Yeah this is correct
Hm yeah it makes sense, in the end it's just L having some infinite K-basis and we are unioning a bunch of subspaces together of finite basis, since all linear combinations of the infinite basis are finite atleast one of these subspaces will include them
Thanks
Let $\alpha, \beta \in \mathbb C$ and $m, n \in \mathbb N$ with $\gcd(m, n) = 1$ and $\alpha^m = 2$, $\beta^n = 3$. Show that $$\mathbb Q(\alpha, \beta) = \mathbb Q(\alpha \cdot \beta)$$ and find the minimal polynomial of $\alpha \cdot \beta$.
ILikeMathematics
We know that $(\alpha \cdot \beta)^{m} = 2 \beta^m$ and $(\alpha \cdot \beta)^n = 3 \alpha ^n$, so $\alpha^n$ and $\beta^m \in \mathbb Q(\alpha \cdot \beta)$. Maybe now WLOG let $n \leq m$ and consider $(\alpha + \beta)^n$?
ILikeMathematics
Show that x^n-2 and x^m-3 are irreducible over Q. This shows that Q(a,b) has degree nm over Q. Show the same for Q(ab).
Oh, that's good. We have
[Q(a, b) : Q] = [Q(a, b) : Q(a)] : [Q(a) : Q] = nm
since the two polynomials you gave are the minimal polynomials. And then we need to find a minpoly for alpha * beta, which should be
X^(mn) - 2^n 3^m
Thanks!
you should work out the details on why these are polynomials are irreducible
Where exactly did we use that gcd(m, n) = 1?
[Q(a,b):Q(a)] might be less then n otherwise
Q(a,b) has two subfields Q(a), Q(b), which are of degrees m,n respectively. so [Q(a,b):Q] is divisable by both m,n and hence is divisable by nm.
Wait, this line
[Q(a, b) : Q] = [Q(a, b) : Q(a)] * [Q(a) : Q] = nm
isnt quite correct as it stands, is it? I mean the intermediate step, we know that [Q(a) : Q] = m but we dont know yet if [Q(a, b) : Q(a)] = n, do we? We just know [Q(b) : Q] = n
So yes, its your justification, n and m both divide the LHS
But how do we know that it's not larger than nm
Q(a,b) is the compositum of Q(a) and Q(b), so you can create a Q-spanning set of size nm from a Q-basis of Q(a) and a Q-basis of Q(b)
if a_1,...,a_m is a Q-basis of Q(a) and b_1,....,b_n is a Q-basis of Q(b) then {a_i * b_j} where 1 <= i <= m, 1 <= j <= n spans Q(a,b) over Q
I haven't done much with the compositum yet, is there a way to see this without it too?
Intuitively I see why this is true but we haven't had it in class
how did you define Q(a,b) then?
Smallest field/intersection of all fields containing Q and the set {a, b}
ok
The set of all Q-linear combinations of a_i * b_j is a field like that, so Q(a,b) is contained in it.
@ripe harbor also, returning to your previous argument,
The minimal polynomial of b over Q(a) divides the minimal polynomial of b over Q and this means that [Q(a,b):Q(a)] <= [Q(b):Q].
in my textbook, will this ever be connected to linear maps
i recognize this as the following being equivalent:
$$T(u) = T(v)$$
$$u - v \in \ker T$$
$$u \in v + \ker T$$
$$u + \ker T = v + \ker T$$
Altanis
for a linear map T and vectors u, v
and using the vector space as an additive group, $a^{-1}b = -a + b = b - a$
Altanis
This is just the first isomorphism theorem for two different structures
You’ll see it’s true for rings and modules and algebras and so on and so forth
OK
butt. my understanding is right that this is the same thing in linear algebra, where u consider vector spaces as groups under + and linear maps as homomorphisms?
Yup thats what I said

and all abelian groups are normal cuz $gag^{-1} = gg^{-1}a = a$, so in particular the abelian subgroup of additive integers $\bZ n = n \bZ$
Altanis
i like this interpretation a lot more now that i've worked with group isomorphisms. since isomorphisms (which are homomorphisms) are "orthogonal" to the law of composition, if you have an isomorphism phi: G->G', you can simply do a law of composition in either G or G' and uniquely identify it with that same composition in the other group by mapping through phi or phi^-1
although i guess ive seen this in linalg by like doing an operation on one set of coordinates and applying a change of basis, which is an isomorphism
oh shit i just realized conjugation resembles change of basis lmao
Yupie
Yay
i understand the if and only if is not required for the symmetric condition (Since you can just swap the roles of a and b and thatll be effectively the converse which is true), but is it not sloppy to write if and not iff?
Are you more convinced about homomorphisms are “orthogonal” to the group operation in the sense I outlined?
No I think it’s fine
well yes it's a true statement no?
they are independent operations
Mhm
One way I like to frame it is that
Homomorphisms are conceptually orthogonal to the group operation
In that they’re independent operations
But they’re also geometrically orthogonal in the commutative diagram
The two maps are at right angles to each other
So in a sense, the cat theory point of view merges the conceptual and geometric sides of orthogonality
ye
it's usually better to have weaker premises / definitions and stronger conclusions when they don't affect the argument
regardless, simplicity / conciseness is always better, iff doesn't convey anything meaningful here that if doesn't already convey
maybe as an analogy, to show that a nonempty subset of a vector space is a subspace, you only need to show closure under addition and scalar multiplication, even though this is equivalent to closure under all linear combinations, and the former is often simpler to show
How'd you know I know linear algebra

But yes I get it
This is a definition though, not a thm. I feel like it can just be said that the if case is sufficient
But I'm being pedantic
equivalence relations have useful properties, showing that something is an equivalence relation lets you invoke theorems about them
divides the minimal polynomial of b over Q
Why?
for any cyclic group G with generator a, is it true that a^-1 is always a generator too?
will those be the only 2 generators? or are there weird groups where theres many or something
yee
If the group has prime order, then every nontrivial element generates it.
In general, the order of a^n is |a|/gcd(n,|a|).
In G is finite and |a^n| = |a|, <a^n> = <a> by a cardinality argument.
If G is infinite, G is the integers, and the only two single generator sets are 1 and -1. You can determine what other subsets generate using Bezout's identity.
Returning to the finite case, a^n generates <a> iff |a| and n are coprime.
There may be any any number of generators
I.e. there are groups that are generated by exactly N generators, where you choose N
For example, a free group on N generators
All polynomials that have b as a root form an ideal of Q(a)[x].
The minimal polynomial of b over Q is such polynomial so its in that ideal.
In cycle notation, how do we do composition? I.e. (123) means we map 1 -> 2, 2 -> 3, 3 -> 1, right?
Now how do we quickly determine (123)(132)?
Is this 1 -> 3 -> 1, 3 -> 2 -> 3, 2 -> 1 -> 2 and so it is e = (1)?
i.e. from right to left?
yeah
Thanks!
the idea is that (132) and (123) are bijections from {1,2,3} to itself so the notation reflects this i.e. you compose them as functions
Yeah, thanks
For (123)(132) you can also notice that one is the inverse of the other
Hence the product is e
How do you notice that?
The inverse is a cycle written backwards
oh, so (321)
(123)’s inverse is (321)
And you can also cyclically rotate it, so can start with 1
And so (321) = (132)
Thanks! Also, is there a general method for determining all subgroups of a group? Like for S3, we have {e, d, d^2}, {e, s1}, {e, s2}, {e, s3} and the trivial one, {e}. How do we know those are all?
No general method, afaik. There are many techniques and properties that one can use.
The first one is the Lagrange theorem
Which you probably know
Yeah, |G| = |H| * [G : H]
Yeah, so this lets you deduce that there are definitely no subgroups of orders 4,5, so no need to check that anymore
Ah, right
You can also draw a subgroup lattice
Is that the subgroup diagram?
Because a subgroup of a subgroup is a subgroup - it enables you to see the structure of subgroups better
Is there mathematicians here and how do I find them
yeah but they’re mostly a conjectural subset no explicit examples are known
What you trying to say lol
I asked about graduate students in mathematics field (not applied)
Why?
So we know that non-trivial subgroups of S_3 can only be of order 2 or 3. And we know that identity is there, so there remains a free slot for one or two elements. And the subgroup must also be closed. And this should be enough to persuade us that there are only subgroups that you listed i.e. various 2-cycles and e, and two 3-cycles and e
my bad I was answering in maximal generality graduate students in pure math should be easier to detect at least up to isomorphism
I'd like to have mutuals online to know how they made it, their secret to succeed..etc
Alright I'm first year student
where
Wym by where, country or continent or u mean what field 
Right, thanks! Probably pretty helpful when there are more than 1 layers
all of that
Yeah, D&F promise that there are some “hair raising examples” of such diagrams even for groups of relatively small orders :)
North Africa, Algeria, Maths field
okay
You?
I'm french
I couldn’t find this book easily
You study in France
but I think it's not the best place to talk about that
Alright
loser 🤣
why lol
you too french
oui oui baguette
gros golmon va 
he said i'm so good in maths
lmao hell nah
i see thank you, my course is introductory so idk what some of these mean but i get the general picture
i see thank you so much

find an element g that takes your sigma "out of the subgroup"
i.e. find a $g \in G$ such that $g \sigma g^{-1} \notin H$
dying_sphynx
for example || sigma=(12), g=(13), then (13)(12)(13) = (23), so not in H, so H is not normal ||
not sure if it's "the quickest" way, likely not, but it's quick enough :)
also note that for this "closure with respect to conjugation" normality check, one only needs to check generators. So if you know generators h of H and g of G, then you can only check those pairs for belonging to H, i.e. check that ghg^{-1} \in H just for generators
the same, but more verbosely, from D&F:

