#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 318 of 1
Yeah we got a hint to this problem to find s^-1 for one of the cycles, but I couldnt get rid off those sts^-1 on the sides
Get rid of them?
well so for the previous problem I was able to show that we can write pi = s_1 t_1 s_1^-1 ..., where tall t_i were in the form (1 2 j), but the s's werent' so I had to get rid off them somehow, but couldnt
its in polish
but basically applying this idea
Show that if G is a nonabelian finite group, then $|Z(G)| \leqslant
\frac{|G|}{4}$
donut123
i know how to solve, but i thought i was kinda cool, so wanted to share
||if |Z(G)| is either |G| or |G|/2 or |G|/3 (these are the only possibilities by Langarange) then |G/Z(G)| <= 3 so must be cyclic, hence G is abelian. In particular, this means that G/Z(G) must 'at least' be the Klein-four group||
yup, same solution!
order doesn't necessary says that |G| = order
In fairness, you don't know if you'll use this one either.
Or do you?
Hmmmmm.
Like to me, the dihedral group of order n is D2n
I wonder if this statement can be seen as a special case of group extension theory.
I would be more comfortable with saying that the dihedral group of order 2n is D_n lol.
I use order for that though, thats the problem, i guess
So the theory says that such extensions are classified by H^2(C; Z) where C is the cyclic quotient and Z the central subgroup, viewed as a trivial C-module. This is not trivial (there are non-trivial extensions) but it might still be possible to show that every extension is abelian.
I use "dihedral group of order 2n is D_2n"
Use case enough
Im sure its useful somewhere
That is the standard meaning of order. You have to say somewhere that you're using order with a meaning where order(S_n) = n or you can't expect that sentence to be understood.
kek
I suppose in this case it can be inferred both from notation and from context
But yeah i agree
I wouldn’t say it’s super uncommon
But I was like trying to use class equation
There was another cool one
If M is a maximal subgroup of G, and M is normal, then |G:M| is prime
|G:M| = |G/M| right? In this case at least
||Then it follows from the fact that G/M must not have any subgroups, hence is prime cyclic||
major brainfart.. if S \subset R is the annihilator of N \subset M an R-module, is there a word for what N is in terms of S
Uh basically but you need some things
Let p some prine dividing |P:M|
By Cauchy theorem, there is a subgroup H of order p
By the fourth isomorphism theorem, this subgroup is of the form G/N for some N containing M
Wait what am I thinking of lol
Ah sorry I'm thinking of this: the probability that two random elements in a non-abelian group commute is <= 5/8 I think
But M is maximal, so either N = M or N= G
That’s kinda interesting
I also wonder like is this bound sharp?
I imagine it is not but am unsure lol
Oh, I guess D_8 is a counterexample lol
Klein 4 is abelian lol
But yes for the quotient nvm sure
Indeed non-trivial finite p groups have nontrivial centre
5/8 is similarly sharp for my question
I think you can just check with small groups like Q8
Every time I say D8 I brace myself for someone correcting me with D4
I was about to lmao
Why would anyone use D_2n
If you do, you should be obligated to write S_n!
and ∞Z for all the subgroups of Z
what does it mean for a pairing to be perfect?
is it just when a bilinear map is nondegenerate
So you have a pairing A(x)B -> C
It's perfect when the associated map A-> C(x)B* and B->C(x)A* are isomorphisms
so it is the same as non degenerate?
Non-degenerate means the maps are injective.
oh, so only in fin dim then
Yeah, for findim vector spaces injective would imply isomorphisms (in the case C = k)
I mean yeah but thats pretty obvious right?
Let f : G -> G/M be your projection and suppose H < G/M a nontrivial proper subgroup, then f^{-1}(H) contains M, but cant be G as f is surjective. Thus, contradiction and G/M must contain no subgroups.
Then take any nonidentity element gM in G/M. As it has no subgroups <gM> = G/M, so it is simple and cyclic, so prime cyclic
pfft
is that… the full icosahedral group? the binary icosahedral group? isn’t there another one even?
oh S5
😭
A_60 the famous smallest nonabelian simple group
the icosahedral group 
is there a trick to this question or must it be done manually
there's a good formula for conjugation of permutations
Spamakin🎷
I suspect both of those are not simultaneously possible unless C is "one-dimensional" (maybe rank-1 projective over a commutative ring would do).
AFAIK the terminology actually comes from considering bilinear pairings over non-fields (for ℤ at least), where injective ⇏ bijective.
E.g. <x, y> := x1 y1 + 2 x2 y2 + x1 y2 + x2 y1 between ℤ^2 and ℤ^2 (or simpler, <x, y> := 2xy between ℤ and ℤ) are non-degenerate but A → B* and B → A* have images of index 2.
yeah I saw it in the context of poincare duality giving you a perfect pairing on cohomology if you don't care about torsion
so I suppose in that case it's stronger than just non degenerate
Yep.
The other two contexts I know of are lattices in number fields (you can do finite separable extensions of Dedekind domains if you want to be general) with the trace pairing, and root data (which I think are something like "root systems over ℤ" or root systems with a lattice between the root and weight lattices).
that is kinda neat
it really is quite straight forward to prove
just gotta keep track of some notation
I would recommend you prove it
I want to show that in a commutative Boolean ring with unity, every ideal is principal.
I know if the ideal is finitely generated then it is.
But How can I do for arbitrary ideal I?
Hint?
That would imply every boolean ring is Noetherian, which isnt true, as any infinite product of rings isnt Noetherian
Do you perhaps mean finitely generated Boolean rings?
no for finitely Boolean ring, i know how to show it
In general its not true
Consider the boolean ring 2^N where 2 denotes the two element boolean ring and N is the natural numbers
Then you have an infinite ascending chain of ideals corresponding to powers of the surjective endomorphism
(x_1, x_2, ...) -> (x_2, x_3, ...)
i see
If every ideal was principal, then 2^X must satisfy the ACC
Which this disproves
This is essentially proving that Conjugacy classes of S_n are determined by cycle types, and it's exactly what we need
If your boolean ring is Noetherian, then you already have that it's a PID. Otherwise I don't think this is true
It's also Artinian, and also it must be finitely generated as a whole
All these are equivalent for Boolean rings
But if you have not finitely generated, as empeace said, it doesn't hold
Finite, yes
Boolean algebras are locally small
how to eliviate the frattini argument to be "somehow" applicable to infinte groups or in general groups
Let $P \le G$ be a Sylow $p$-subgroup. If $N_G(P) \le H \le G$, then $H$ is equal to its own normalizer; that is, $H = N_G(H)$.
longboard kayak
also for naive reading now the question arises where in the case of infinite groups we can't argue the damn frattini's
or it's safe to assume we don't care about infinite cases at all(repeatedly mentioned in the text)
Let G = <s, r: s^2 = 1, srs = r^-1> be the infinite dihedral group.
Then P = <s> is a 2-Sylow subgroup and N(P) = P.
Take H = <s, r^2>, then H is normal N(H) = G.
The problem is that G (and H) doesn't act transitively on its sylow subgroups. Is this what you call the Frattini argument?
idk, i was trying to find out what goes wrong in the infinite case
there was an exercise:
(i) Let $X$ be a finite $G$-set, and let $H \le G$ act transitively on $X$. Then $G = HG_x$ for each $x \in X$.\\
(ii) Show that the Frattini argument follows from (i).
longboard kayak
so yeah, the transitive action is clicking the thing?
this seemed like a nice application to the argument, but there is no restriction of being finite
to which i found this which feels like the proof of frattini's argument but some how the constraint is not there!
I mean it just pulls the P and xPx^-1 are H conjugate out of nowhere with no justification
Hi Jagr
Remember about the problem : |Aut(G)| = 3, find G
There is no solution if G is finite
But what about if G is infinite ?
naively i have to say we can get some restriction on INN
as G/Z can't be no trivially cyclic and the only possibility here is 1 or Z3
so abelians?
Yeah Inn must be trivial
then every element must be of order 2, again, as else you'd have the nontrivial involution
x -> -x
Of order 2
I.e. we've got a vector space over F_2
from two non-trivial Aut elements right?
Well x -> -x is an automorphism of order 2, which is impossible by Langrange if |Aut(G)| = 3
So x = -x for all x
Thus G must be an F_2-vector space
There is probably an argument without choice, but with choice G has a basis B so you have at least Sym(B) automorphisms.
If |B| > 2 then |Sym(B)| > 3 which is impossible
If |B| = 0, 1, 2 then G must be finite which was already disproven
What is the addition of the vector space in this case? g + h := gh? Doesn't this require G to be abelian?
The argument doesnt really have anything to do with the finiteness of G
.
I love assuming vector spaces have a basis
Hey, if you can't find a basis that's a skill issue. No need to blame the vector space
If the argument works for any choice of basis then its a good enough argument for me
🔥
Time travel
who's theorem????
Freaky name
(I have the maturity of a 13 year old)
Me too bro
What is the meaning of the notation in the middle(I guess it's model theory related, but I literally have no idea)?
indeed there are various other typos too lol
"Is called on inner automorphism"
":-"
ye lol
Lol
This is the only file I found on group automorphisms let alone inner automorphisms so this will have to do.
Maybe some of you have a pdf about group automorphisms and characteristic subgroup?
I found 3 PDF's and 1 of them is not helpful(at all) - also, they are too short.
If someone knows a book that covers automorphisms, and characteristic subgroup I'd appreciate it.
Maybe Finite Groups by Gorenstein? https://bookstore.ams.org/view?ProductCode=CHEL/301
LMAO
T_a(x) = axa^-t does not deduce x in G
Would be the interpretation of
That
Left side is true, by definition so "T does not deduce x in G" can only mean that x is not in G
what text is this?
Just my prof’s course notes
This is not a good one.
Maybe something else?
I can't find a PDF of it, and am not going to spend 70$ for one topic
I'm assuming you have looked through all the standard algebra texts, like D&F, Artin, etc?
Don't know what D&F is
Dummit and foote
You can look through #book-recommendations , for algebra in general there's Lang, Hungerford, Aluffi (x2), and lots more I'm forgetting now
And for group theory in particular there are also loads, for example Actions of Groups or Finite Group Theory by Isaacs
https://www.cambridge.org/highereducation/books/actions-of-groups/9E2CF39D99D882E664FFAB8547B39469
https://bookstore.ams.org/view?ProductCode=GSM/92
@keen badge did you find what you were looking for? If not, I found a pdf you could use, but you have to DM me for it
-# 🏴☠️
can someone explan c to me please
Take x in R
0 in Z/2Z acts on R by the identity
1 in Z/2Z acts on R by sending x to -x
What does e) mean? Z/2 x Z/2 acts by reflection, ie sending edges to its opposite side?
it acts by reflections through the diagonals, and by sending edges to their opposites in pairs
if you have a rectangle with edges a,b,c,d it can act by (a b)(c d), (a c)(b d), (a d)(b c) and e
How does that work, what do you mean by act?
through the diagonal? but that doesn't send the rectangle to itself
are you familiar with group actions?
this is the beginning of the chapter of my notes
it doesn't really explain it
interesting choice
I would probably define group actions before I gave a bunch of examples 
oh yeah oops im thinking of a way it acts on squares
yeah ur right
oh literally under it it says this
text books dont have to be read in order, you can skip ahead to the definition and come back later
oh lol
I think it's just reflection through the other axis, just weird that they just say "by permutations"
i remember hearing some quote recently about how very few text books are meant to be read in order
yeah idk. if they had said pairs of disjoint permutations it might have been better
like every group action is a permutation in some way, so its kinda vague to say "by permutations"
yeah, agree
Hopefully the examples make more sense after seeing the definition. You can think of group actions in many ways, like a collection of functions as in the notes, or equivalently as a kind of "multiplication" f : (G, X) -> X, or even as a group homomorphism from G to the automorphism group Aut(X) (which is just the group of bijections on X if X is a set)
Note that if G is Z_2 then the possible group actions on X is pretty restrictive: f_0 must be the identity by definition, and f_1 must satisfy f_1 o f_1 = Id, since 1 + 1 = 0
it’s true
i just had a high school math comp
and there was one question
f: {1,2,3,4,5,6,7} -> {2,4,6,8,10,12,14} is surjective, and 1/2f(1/2f(1/2(f(n))) =n
and my sol was reminding me of group action stuff
but like not really related to groups at all
more so just permutations
but i guess thats just what a group action is
idk you can think of f as permuting {1,2,3,4,5,6,7}, since n |-> f(n) |-> 1/2f(n) which is still in the set. then its obvious to see either you have 2 3-cycles, 1 3-cycle, or none, with the rest mapping to themselves
i messed up the sol tho cuz i thought number of 3-cycles is 765/3! instead of 765/3
Hi, I'm trying to prove the following statement:
"Let $K$ be a field and $f \in K[X]$ be an irreducible seperable polynomial of degree 5. Then $Gal(f)$ contains an element $\sigma$ of order 5". How do we prove this statement? I know that the action of $Gal(f)$ on the zeroes of $f$ is transitive because $f$ is irreducible, so for any $\alpha$ such that $f(\alpha)=0$, we have $\exists \sigma$ such that $\sigma(\alpha)=\beta$. But how am i supposed to go further with this information?
joel
Or is it actually really obvious?
I have a theorem in my book stating that this
And using Cauchy's theorem, we are done?
I love algebra 
Yup that's it
we proved that every subgorup of Z is of then form bZ
why this proposition
i dont see any prupose of this
it seems like artin is trying to define GCD using the above proposition
also this one
So now you can say Za + Zb is a cyclic subgroup
but doesn't he state this here
(this is the paragraph just above this proposition)
it characterizes the addition/intersection of subgroups of Z and is also a way to define the gcd/lcm
the converse of this also holds:
if you have dZ = aZ + bZ, then
- d divides a and b
- if e divides a and b, then e divides d
- d = ra + sb for some r,s in Z
so d must be the gcd.
- is kind of an extra property about the gcd that arises from this equality. 1) and 2) are the only ones which are necessary to pin down the gcd.
since Za + Zb = gcd(a,b)Z, so it is cyclic
i see well its good time to prove this bi conditional thing

i see, 
if i have to show F[X]/<X^2 - 1 > is isomorphic to F[X]/<X^2> if char F = 2, where F is field.
Let char F = 2, then X^2 - 1 = (X-1)^2, so map F[X]/<(X-1)^2> -> F[X]/<X^2> by f(x) + <(x-1)^2> -> f(x+1) + <x^2>, then it is well defined homomorphism, and we can verify it is bijective, so it is isomorphic.
is it correct?
looks right
basic idea is that f(x) = ax+b is always an automorphism of a polynomial ring as long as a is a unit
an in fact all possible automorphisms of R[x] that fix the base ring must be of this form
Really basic question: $N = \begin{pmatrix}1 & 0 & b \ 0 & 1 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1\end{pmatrix}$ is a subgroup of $G = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & a & b \ 0 & 1 & c \ 0 & 0 & 1\end{pmatrix}$, but I'm struggling to work out what $G/N$ is. I think it's $\begin{pmatrix} 1 & a & 0 \ 0 & 1 & c \ 0 & 0 & 1\end{pmatrix}$, but this is not closed under multiplication as far as I can see. What am I missing?
sheddow
not sure if there's a matrix representation of the group available in that form, but it should just be Z^2 no?
Yeah, or R^2 if the matrices are over R I guess
it's isomorphic to [1 a b; 0 1 0; 0 0 1] as a multiplicative matrix group but I don't see a way to derive this form ground up
I'm pretty sure the quotient is $\begin{pmatrix}1 & 0 & a \ 0 & 1 & b \ 0 & 0 & 1\end{pmatrix}$ btw, I made an error to begin with because the homomorphism I wrote down wasn't a homomorphism 
sheddow
yeah, or what you wrote down is correct too I think
you can use the homomorphism phi([1 a b; 0 1 c; 0 0 1]) = [1 0 a; 0 1 0; 0 0 1] for example
So let
[
G := \mathbb{U}_3(F) = \left{ \begin{pmatrix} 1 & a & b \ 0 & 1 & c \ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \middle| a, b, c \in F \right}.
]
First one should convince oneself that
[
Z(G) = \left{ \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & b \ 0 & 1 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \middle| b \in F \right}
]
so that since ( Z(G) \leq G ) is a normal subgroup, the quotient is well-defined.
Then we have that
[
gZ(G) = g'Z(G) \Leftrightarrow gg'^{-1} \in Z(G),
]
i.e., ( gg'^{-1} ) is of the form
[
\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & b \ 0 & 1 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}.
]
But to find when it is the case that two matrices are related in this way, we first need to see if there is a general form for the inverse ( g^{-1} ) for ( g \in G ). I claim there is. By Gauss-Jordan elimination (or direct computation), we find that the inverse of
[
g = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & a & b \ 0 & 1 & c \ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}
]
is
[
g^{-1} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & -a & ac - b \ 0 & 1 & -c \ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}.
]
Therefore, we see that
\begin{align}
gZ(G) &= g'Z(G)
\Leftrightarrow gg'^{-1} &\in Z(G)
\Leftrightarrow
\begin{pmatrix} 1 & a & b \ 0 & 1 & c \ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}
\begin{pmatrix} 1 & -a' & a'c' - b' \ 0 & 1 & -c' \ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}
&= \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & \ 0 & 1 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}.
\end{align*}
One finds that this holds whenever ( a = a' ) and ( c = c' ). Therefore, since the quotient does not discriminate on ( b ), we see that every element ( g \in G ) when viewed inside the quotient is equivalent to some element of the form
[
g = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & a & 0 \ 0 & 1 & c \ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix},
]
so that each element in ( G/Z(G) ) can be represented this way. Therefore, it is indeed the case that
[
G/Z(G) = \left{ \begin{pmatrix} 1 & a & 0 \ 0 & 1 & c \ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \middle| a, c \in F \right}.
]
I hope this is right (you can check the details!) 🙂
Benjamin
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ouch, that did not work as I wanted it (Ig this latex bot is different from the one I am used to)
hmm
Let me try this:
So let $G := \mathbb{U}_3(F) = \left{\begin{pmatrix} 1 & a & b\ 0 & 1 & c\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \middle| a,b,c \in F\right}$. First one should convince oneself that $Z(G) =\left{\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & b\ 0 & 1 & 0\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \middle| b \in F\right}$ so that since $Z(G) \leq G$ is a normal subgroup the quotient is well-defined.
Then we have that $gN = g'N \Leftrightarrow gg'^{-1}N = N$ i.e. $gg'$ is on the form $$\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & b\ 0 & 1 & 0\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}.$$
But to find when it is the case that two matrices are related in this way, we first need to see if there is a general form for inverse $g^{-1}$ for $g \in G$. I claim there is. By Gauss-jordan elimination we find (I claim) that the inverse of $$g = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & a & b\ 0 & 1 & c \ 0 & 0 & 1\end{pmatrix}$$ is $g^{-1} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & -a & ca-b\ 0 & 1 & -c\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}.$$
Therefore, we see that
\begin{align*}
gN &= g'N\
\Leftrightarrow gg'^{-1}N &= N\
\Leftrightarrow \begin{pmatrix}1 & a & b\ 0 & 1 & c\0 & 0 & 1\end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} 1 & a' & b'\ 0 & 1 & c'\0 & 0 & 1\end{pmatrix} &= \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & \ast\ 0 & 1 & 0\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}.
\end{align*}
One finds that this holds whenever $a = a'$ and $c = c'$. Therefore since the quotient does not discriminate on $b$ we see that every element in $g$ when viewed inside the quotient is equivalent to some element on the form $$g = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & a & 0\ 0 & 1 & c\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$$ so that each element in $G/N$ can be represented this way. Therefore it is indeed the case that $$G/N = \left{\begin{pmatrix} 1 & a & 0\ 0 & 1 & c\ 0 & 0 & 1\end{pmatrix} \middle| a,c \in F\right}.$$
Benjamin
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thank you
Show that $Q_8$ is isomorphic to a Sylow 2-subgroup of $SL(2, 5)$. (Hint. Show that $SL(2, 5)$ has a unique involution.)
longboard kayak
well after knowing all the subgroups of Q8 one can tell what is the involution and where does it lie
however how to show it's the unique in the vector space too?
just by looking at the matrices ?
or take a general matrix and form a polynomial to do the characteristic analysis to then conclude from all the possible outcomes?
$SL(2,5)/Z(SL(2,5)) \cong A_5$.\\
$Z(SL(2,5)) = \{\pm I\}$, and $-I$ is the unique involution in $SL(2,5)$.\\
Since $A_5$ is simple and has no elements of order 2 lifting to more than one element in $SL(2,5)$, $-I$ is the only involution.
longboard kayak
that sounds? tho i have shown no rigour in the claimed isomorphism!
gotta understand this proof now
i think we have to construct some action of the vectorspace (acting) on the plane
honestly i have no sophisticated knowledge on prjective line(which i would like to take care), but the action somehow seems intuitive here, it goes to S6 after reading a bit about the projective line for there are 6 elements and the kernel is C2
so factoring through the quotient we can show there is a injective mapping from the G/Z to S6
and now from the injection it's clear that it has to be A5? or something more?
so we standing on the fact: the only group of order 60 that can be embedded in S6 is A5
how do i show b and c
for c, show every finitely generated subgroup is cyclic, and since the group is not cyclic, so it cannot be finitely generated
how did u recognise that they will be cyclic
think about the lcm of the orders
i only know that the orders divide p^m for some m
suppose G = (z1,z2) with the order of them being p^2 and p^3, whats the group generated by both?
b) If proper there is some element z not in H and z is the primitive p^nth root of unity for some mu_p^n but then it geneates this group and this mu_p^n contain all the smaller groups mu_p^k for k leqslant n. But this forces the group to only contain elements zeta such that zeta is a primitive root of unity for mu_p^ell for ell less than n since if larger then the larger contains the smaller so in particular contains the element z we excluded. So the group must be finite and every finite subgroup of the multiplicative group of a field is cyclic. 🙂
(I believe this work, sorry for not writing nicer).
order divides p³?? btw isn't this argument simple enough that since all elements have finite order and the group is abelian, the order of a finitely generated set is bounded, but the mothergroup is infinite.
that's the sketch yes, you only need to show that the group generated by two elements is cyclic
and the argument can be modified to prove b)
is that so man? if p³ divides the order then p³ ≤ the order. also (z1z2)^p³ = 1 this must mean the order is p³. is that right
the group is abelian, so (z1z2)^(p^3) = z1^(p^3)z2^(p^3) = z1^(p^3). I don't know how you're getting that that is equal to 1
in fact you can explicitly compute what the order of z1z2 is, but don't do that just yet. think about it conceptually. if you can't then do that
aaah like i thought z1^p³ = (z1^p²)^p = 1, but if that's wrong i dunno
oh, wait, that looks right, I misread the original question since we're dealing with powers of p only that makes the question much easier
ooh even easier
what is the cyclic argument
hmmm, how about this one instead, it should be much cleaner (I'm assuming the FT of algebra for this one):
- ||how many solutions can the equation x^{p^n}-1=0 have in the complex plane at most?||
- ||Suppose G is generated by <z1, ..., zn>. Let p^n be the order of z1, and I also tell you in fact z1 has the biggest order among all the generating elements||. ||What is the size of G at least?||
- ||what is the size of G at most? What do you conclude about G?||
first, n solutions ig. secondlyy aaaah is that gonna be p^n??
p^n solutions
oh yeah p^n solutions
size of G is atleast p^n?
at most i dunno, well atmost we gotta consider the order of all other elements and multiply them with p^n
what is z2^(p^n)
are you saying it's gonna be 1?
why?
then what else... i can't tell anything about z2^(p^n)
if g is a random element, then g^(p^n) = 1 i think
can you tell me why?
g is a word of z1,z2,...,zn and z1^(p^n) = 1, thuus
no, that's not enough

yes right we should think about the rest of the elements
p^n is the largest order you said right?
oh then it is indeed 1, all other element has order less than p^n
that's still not enough, one keyword I'm looking for
lcm?
abelian
Q. if the order of f is n and the order of g is m, what do I know about the order of fg?
A. fucking nothing, if you don't tell me that fg=gf
true true
and in fact for every integers n,m,p there exists a group where the order of f is n, the order of g is m, and the order of fg is p
but now go back to looking at this
size of G is at most p^n ??
man i see 
G is cyclic
so this is one way to prove it, it does require you to assume some things about polynomials in C but it's a really slick proof
your class may or may not be okay with those assumptions
hmm but well they expect us to have read complex analysis, which I didn't anyways, but i see the proof and this can surely be modified to prove b... or can it? does that mean proving every proper subgroups are finitely generated
oh, the question's not assuming finitely generated?
that's not too bad of a fix, you just need to show that subgroups of Z(p^infty) are downwards-closed
i.e. if G is a proper subgroup with an element g of order p^n, then every element of order less than or equal to p^n are also in G (the proof we just did does this)
and now think about why that means G has to be finitely generated
that can be shown indeed but how do i show elements of order more than p^n are not in G? from the question, it seems there must exist some n, for which all elements z s.t. z^(p^m) = 1, m>n, z is not in G. so i gotta show the existence of such n first. this should be true since if there is no upper bound of such n then G doesn't remain proper. but the other part?
you don't have to
ohh why is thaat
everything smaller than G is in G, and there are only finitely many such elements
so what happens if G is not finitely generated?
G takes on the whole mothergroup
you skipped a few steps there, that's not necessarily true
it's because Z(p) is countably infinite
or in human words, there are no "in between" infinities
Z(p) is the set of all z with z^p = 1 and there are at most p solutions, so isn't it finite!!
i can only tell then G is not finite then
that is true, but I can keep increasing the p
so z^p=1, then z^(p^2)=1, z^(p^3)=1 etc
this is a very infinite group
hmmm that's right
so here's a hint - subgroups of Z(p) are characterized by the biggest number n such that z^(p^n) have a solution in the subgroup
so to begin with the proof i take a proper subgroup G, if there is no maximum n for which z in G has z^(p^n) = 1, then G is simply the mothergroup by definition. now we only prove the size of G is p^n and we're done, and we're gonna do it kinda the same way we proved c ig.
sounds like a proof
yehhh thankss dude, have been hanging on it since the morning
Hello, guys I am trying to learn proof of unsolvability of quntic polynomial using galois theory.
This is what i have understood till now. There is a one to one relation between Field extenstion and Galoi group of that field extension. If the field is extended by use of radical then it's galois group is abelian and the base field is abliean and normal group to it. This is what i think is going on. But I am not able to understand why that is the case
I would suggest getting a book that covers Galois theory. Perhaps Fraleigh.
Thank you for your recommendation!
🇵🇱 uuybnuuy
G is just the real numbers though
I think the idea here was to just show it's iso to R
G = R. They are literally equal.
So anything you say about the set G is also true about the set R.
A rose by any other name
but if we must - yes, x^3+y^3 is ((x^3+y^3)^(1/3))^3 so it's closed. It's borderline tautological
yeah I remember (all those years ago 👴) that at these early stages the things you're showing are so obvious they become difficult
This seems like a trick ish question lol
Or a question to check if you're paying attention
I always get anxious that im missing something, no matter how well I know the subject matter
Hello
I'm working through a set of elementary proofs for groups, can I post it here to get it verified?
yes
gimme one sec
ok
This is the problem set
proof for number (a)
I use proof by contradiction and I wanna know if this is how it's intended to be done
proof for numbers (b) & (c)
Next time just post it, its what this channel is for :)
This looks good
This isnt contradiction, its direct
O
but I'm assuming b and c are distinct right?
No
Youre just assuming that they satisfy the same property, which implies they are the same
Thats a direct proof of uniqueness
"not necessarily abelian"... uses additive notation but with oplus instead of + 💀
Thank you I was going crazy too
EVEN WORSE
OPLUS
WHY
Why are we treating them like tensors
Istg
yeah, like let's use oplus to prevent any confusion with ordinary addition, but let's also call the identity element 0, because why the heck not 
yeah true my bad
IN THIS HOUSEHOLD WE USE 1 AND •
I wanted to quickly write it down, I'll pay attention next time
but you didn't write the exercise sheet I'm guessing? We're not making fun of you
Were making fun of the mf who did, yee ass convention
I saw someone use W(X) for a general free algebraic structure
!???
W?????
haha, what a loser 
-# I don't know what the correct convention is
F_K(X)
F because Free algebra
And K because its always with respect to some class of algebras
ah yeah, I've seen that, atleast for groups
my eyes
Abelian group G^-1 such that G \oplus G^-1 ≈ 0
am I correct in understanding here that the proof here requires me to show that there is no common element at all, and that's all I'll ever need to demonstrate?
No, you still have to prove that theyre the same if g - h is in S
Also, "S" for subgroup qwq
I see
I'm finding the proof a bit confusing as I don't immediately see the relation between the difference of g and h and the cosets being disjoint
Suppose that S + g and S + h had a common element, say x. This means that x = a+g and x = b+h for a, b in S
=> a+g = b+h
=> g-h = -a + b
=> g-h in S
You can fill in the steps where needed
a & b would be present in S already right?
I see, that makes sense
I was kinda tripping up over that
cause I just assumed s & s' don't necessarily have to be in S
Its by definition of coset
👍
Words in X
I do too
Is this paper from the 1960s or something what is this
2002
Hi, is anyone available for help to understand a proof from J.S. Milne's book : Fields and Gallois Theory?

Here is the proof i'm having trouble with ^^.
I have another way to prove a) but the proof from the book makes no sense to me. And I feel like I might be missing something important.
My proof is quite simple,
as any element of F(a) is in the form P(a) where P is in F[X], this means that for every phi (homomorphism), phi(P(alpha)) = P(phi(alpha)). From there it's pretty obvious that chosing phi(a) gives the result. Also, alpha can only be transcendantal because it would be absurde do to phi(P) = P(phi)
What makes no sense to me :
- The first sentence : I read F[a] is isomorphic to F[a]. I don't know what he's trying to say there
- the second sentence feels so wrong, I think I'm missing something. gamma = 1 cannot be chosen as an image of alpha through phi as it would mean that phi is not injective but it is because it is a homomorphism of fields...
- same goes for the third sentence. If I understand corectly, there can't be nonzero elements mapping to zero as phi is injective
F[alpha] means the F-subalgebra of F(alpha) generated by alpha. It’s the polynomials in alpha, which because alpha is transcendental means it’s isomorphic to F[x]. There’s a map F[x] -> F[alpha] sending x to alpha, this being injective is saying alpha is transcendental
Now because F[alpha] is a polynomial ring, you can send alpha to any element of Omega to define a ring map. You can even send it to 1, this won’t be injective but this is okay because F[alpha] is a polynomial ring not the field F(alpha). But, F(alpha) is the field of fractions of F[alpha].
Now the point is, for what choices of the image of alpha do you actually induce a map from F(alpha) well you need the map to send nonzero things to units so that p/q can map to phi(p)/phi(q). but as Omega is a field, this is just saying phi is injective
So when is the choice of omega in Omega going to make the map F[alpha] -> Omega by p(alpha) -> p(gamma) injective? Precisely when gamma is the root of no polynomial with coefficients in F, aka when gamma is transcendental
I'm re-reading it all, but it already makes a lot more sense to me, thanks!!!
I was definitely confused with F[X] and F(X)
I thought that F[alpha] = F(alpha) but that is only true when alpha is transcendental
It's all clear, thank you for your time and explanation
No, not true when alpha is transcendental
This is like saying rational function F(X) = Polynomials F[X]
yeah, that's what I meant 😆
Ah okay
but it is when alpha is algebraic if I understand correctly
This is true
And maybe a proof is like so, F[alpha] = F[x]/I
Where I is the kernel of F[x] -> F(alpha) where you map x to alpha
Errr
Okay sure
When alpha is algebraic I is nonzero, so its principal
And so it’s F[x]/(f(x))
If f(x) wasn’t irreducible, by the CRT you get that F[x]/(f(x)) is a product of rings, but then it isn’t an integral domain so it can’t be equal to F[alpha]
So we get that F[alpha] is a field
And so any nonzero p(alpha) has an inverse, and so you can write all ratios p(alpha)/q(alpha)
Addendum, if f(x) = p(x)^n where p is prime, then you can’t use CRT, but this isn’t an integral domain all the same
p(x)^n wouldn't be irreudible then
Yeah
The proof I can think of is with the minimal polynomial of alpha over F which can't have 0 as a root. Thus the constant coefficient is non zero and we can factor the rest of it by alpha, giving an explicit form of the inverse (multiplying by the inverse of the constant coefficient)
I am trying to show that if f(x) needs to be irreducible
Because otherwise F[x]/(f(x)) isn’t an integral domain
But actually this follows because quotient is an integral domain if and only the ideal is prime
Yeah I think you can just do it manually too
I was thinking of doing that but wanted to handle it via like maps from polynomial rings, since that’s the flavor of the proof you had shown
Yeah, I understand. That's also the reason I wanted to reed this kind of books. I always find abstract solutions to problems that I never find or not with such elegant solutions. I'm trying to learn how to do more mapping, factoring functions with quotients, stuff like that
I always feel stupid when writing down 2 pages and then someone draws 3 arrows and calls it a day
Hahaha
hi
when you take a direct product or direct sum of rings / groups what do you call the individual rings/groups that make up the sum / product?
like
Z/3Z x Z/4Z
you would say "Z/3Z" is a _____ of the direct product Z/3Z x Z/4Z
like does it have a name
direct summand
and like for the elements of the direct product what do you call the individual entries in the direct product?
like (r1, r2)
components? entries?
Yeah that is what i was thinking
TIL
yeah i get that
I want to show that a simple solvable group is cyclic. I'm kinda stuck, I can't think of a way to show that a group is cyclic other than finding a generator. Anyone have any hints?
nvm, figured it out. We must have G' = {e}, so G is abelian, and therefore has no subgroups, so it is cyclic of prime order
Yessir
Note this works even for G infinite, since you can still conclude it's abelian and then just pick any element to show it's cyclic lol
And then rule out the only extra case which is Z
ah yeah, didn't think about that case, but I guess it works anyway 
is it true that the algebraic closure of F is the set of roots to all polys in F[x]
no right
i cant think of a counterexample
isn't that pretty much the definition of algebraic closure? the set of all elements that's a root of some polynomial in F[x]
how do we know this set is always algebraically closed
i always thought it was this
but all the proofs that algebraic closure exists doesnt say anything about htat
I was about to say that if there is a polynomial in F[x] with a root that is not in F-bar, then you could adjoin it to F-bar to get a non-trivial algebraic extension, but it's kinda weird to talk about roots outside the algebraic closure. I think it makes more sense to talk about F-bar as the splitting field of the set of all polynomials
i meant what if theres a root of a poly in \overlien{F}[x] outside F bar
if F bar is defined as the splitting field of the set of all F polys
hmm, then you could adjoin that root to F-bar to get an algebraic extension, which is impossible since F-bar is algebraically closed
or rather, it's impossible to get a non-trivial extension
thats assuming the splitting field of all F polys is algebraically closed
I think you can argue that the only irreducible polynomials in the splitting field are linear, therefore the only algebraic extensions are trivial
o
how come proofs that algebraic closure exists isnt just proving this
hmm
I guess it's easy to prove that the splitting field of a finite set of polynomials exists, but maybe it's harder if the set is infinite?
i think this is false
its true for R and Q
but in general false
why?
i cant find anything that says otherwise
It's late at night, but I think this works:
Let F be a field, and E be the splitting field of all polynomials in F[x]. Assume there exists an algebraic extension E <= E', and let a in E'. Let f(x) be the minimal polynomial of a over E, and let g(x) be the minimal polynomial of a over F. Then g(x) splits in E, so g(x) = (x - a_1)(x - a_2)...(x - a_n), and we know f(x) divides g(x), so f(x) must be linear. Therefore E = E'
i am taking phi: K[x,y] -> K such that f(x,y) -> f(a,b). It is clear that < x-a, y-b> is in ker phi, how can i show other direction? hint?
but K[x,y] is not ED
<y> is prime ideal in k[x,y], right?
(not 100% sure on this proof, someone double check this for me please)
k[x,y]/<x-a,y-b> ~= k[x,y]/<x,y> = k
Seems like the kernel of the evaluation map k[x, y] -> k sending x to a and y to b, so yes seems good
well it is, and that's the proof idea OP had
but showing explicitly that the kernel of the ev map is generated by the linear poly's is annoying, so I instead opted to show that x->x-a, y->y-b are automorphisms, which is easier
oh so K[x,y]/<x,y> -> K by f(x,y) -> f(0,0)
Ye
i got it, thanks HChan
how do you know g exists
an algebraic extension of an algebraic extension is algebraic?
so the algebraic closure is the largest algebraic extension
anyway thanks for stuff
Well, there's a pretty big hint there to consider S3xS3. So what are the 2-Sylow subgroups of S3xS3?
oh
so two are S3
which has nontrvial intersection
and i need to find something else
wait wait wait. how exactly is S3 a sylow subgroup of S3 x S3
Let $G = S_3 \times S_3$. Then $|G| = 36 = 2^2 \cdot 3^2$, so the Sylow $3$-subgroups have order $9$. In $S_3$, the $3$-Sylow subgroups are cyclic of order $3$—each generated by a $3$-cycle. \\
Let $A = \langle ((1\ 2\ 3), \text{id}) \rangle$, $B = \langle (\text{id}, (1\ 2\ 3)) \rangle$, and $C = \langle ((1\ 2\ 3), (1\ 2\ 3)) \rangle$.
longboard kayak
any fault here?
a sylow 3-subgroup in S3 x S3 needs to have order 9, your A,B,C all have order 3
There's also only one 3-sylow subgroup, so that is maybe not so interesting
I guess bonus exercise is that the sylow subgroups of GxG' is ||of the form PxP'||
longboard kayak
this sounds?
Yeah, a is algebraic over E, so it must be algebraic over F. You could also think of the algebraic closure as the smallest field where every polynomial splits, which is isomorphic to the splitting field by uniqueness
A transitive permutation group $G$ on a set $A$ is called doubly transitive if for any (hence
all) $a \in A$ the subgroup $G_a$ is transitive on the set $A \setminus {a}$
donut123
donut123
I don't know how to do this problem.
And in the b part, is it mean that S is finitely generated subring?
Any hint?
Can someone double check my proof that double transitive implies primitive
From a previous exercise, a group is primitive if and only if for all a in A (the set being acted on), G_a is a maximal subgroup
Consider a subgroup H containing G_a
Suppose H is not G_a, so it contains something else
then there is some $\sigma$ such that $\sigma \cdot a \neq a$
donut123
since $G_a$ acts transitively on $A\setminus {a}$, $H$ acts transitively on $A$
donut123
Thus, $|O_a| = |G:G_a| = |G:H||H:G_a| = |G:H||O_a| \implies |G:H| = 1 \implies G = H$
donut123
i think for (a) you can have a look newton divided difference interpolation formula all the coefficients of that polynomial arebinomial coefficients
for (b) it is saying that it is finitely generated Z module
Show that the element $xy -zw$ is an irreducible element in $C[x, y, z, w]$.
Curvature
Consider it as an element of C[y,z,w][x], say
so C[x,y,w,z]/<xy-zw> = C[y,z,w]/<zw>
ohke
Any hint for part b?
how it will benefit me
is it free module over Z?
I have no idea
assume that it is finitely generated , so there must be some polynomial of degree with binomial coefficients of sufficiently lasrger degree
tell me is it correct or not, otherwise i will have to work out
Why binomial coefficients?
then f(a) will be integers for every integers a
are you following conrad notes on doubly transitive group action
No, dummit and Foote exercise
Is this proof all good?
You know the library is the genes**.is** of all knowledge.
PLEASE have a look at my question
Do all texts generally consider the identity permutation to be a cycle (of length 1)?
does anyone have any book recommendations for learning galois theory, i have a background in field theory and have some mild pre-existing knowledge of galois theory
lang is best
Seems to vary
$\frac{\mathbb{R[X,Y]}}{<Y-X^2>}$ is ufd?
Curvature
can anyone help me understand it now so like if a, b are subgroups of H then if a*b still belong to H idk
that is the subgroup requirement ,
so non abelian is AB does not equal BA
..
Group is abelian means it will hold for all elements
ok
Commutativity
Group elements never leave their group when you multiply then with each other.. thats a key requirement of being in a group (assuming the operation is multiplication)
so if a and b belong to g ab still belongs to g?
Yeah if g is a group
R[x,y] surjects onto R[x] with x -> x, y -> x^2, and by the 1st iso it is isomorphic to R[x,y]/<y-x^2>.
But R is UFD, so R[x] is UFD
can anyone see this, and ST=TS implies S invariant subspace
if v is a λ-eigenvalue, then S(v) is too, since TS(v) = ST(v) = λS(v)
and so $S(V) \subseteq V$ where $V$ is the eigenspace of $v$.
ark
Since on Q, it makes Cauchy functional equation so if f: Q ->Q is automorphism then f(x) = xf(1), and since it is automorphism 1 maps to 1, hence f(x) = x.
And if g is a field automorphism on R then it must be field automorphism on Q.
Then g(x) = x for all x in Q.
But I think I have to show g is continuous at 0.
I know that k ≥ 0 iff g(k) ≥ 0.
How to proceed further?
try to show that g is order preserving using the hint you have now.
then, use the fact that the rationals are dense in the reals, i.e., if g(x) != x, then there is a rational q between g(x) and x
no need for any more tools from topology/real analysis other than density
Yes g is increasing
I got it, thank you @kind temple ❤️

does a^b-1|a^c-1 iff b|c or does it work only for prime?
Prismatic Potato
I read it as a^(b-1) lol
If b divides c, then a^b - 1 divides a^c - 1
That works for all a.
a=0 breaks the converse at least
a=-1 also breaks it
And a=1
eh, just wondering after spending entire afternoon and night staring at finite fields
Dw yeah I just didn't udnerstand the typesetting originally but ye
that direction simply guaranteed by polynomial factoring, the converse is the problem
prime is probably right cuz irred in Z so it looks like x then by some corollary of gauss' lemma
no idea on composites
If c = bq + r with r<b, then the remainder of dividing
a^c - 1 by a^b - 1 is a^r - 1, so assuming a>1 so that a^r - 1 > 0 you get your iff
oh lol nice
hmm maybe i can make this a problem for my junior high tutor
This actually gives the gcd though, so it's going the extra mile
But yeah, same idea
Yeah that's why I think this is nice hehe
I got thrown off by the originL thing you shared cause I thought x meant the polynomial ting there lol
But x is still just an integer lol
suppose we have a basic nil potent block X of order n what is the dimension of the space of matrices Commuting with X
i want to learn to find galois group of cubic and quartric any friendly resources
I'm assuming you mean X is an nxn matrix with nilpotency n.
In any case, you can think about the C[x] module defined by X. A matrix commuting with X is exactly an endomorphism of this module.
So in this case the module is C[x]/(x^n), so the space is n-dimensional (given by polynomials in X)
do you mean all the space of commt=uting matrices is of dimension n
It's an n-dimensional space yeah. Specifically spanned by
1, X, X^2, ...
i did it for n=3 and i am getting answer 6, by explicit calculation
X = [0, 1, 0; 0, 0, 1; 0, 0, 0]
A = [a, b, c; d, e, f; g, h, i]
AX = [0, a, b; 0, d, e; 0, g, h]
XA = [d, e, f; g, h, i; 0, 0, 0]
Which means
d=0, a=e, b=f, g=0, h=d, i=e, g=h=0
So
A = [a, b, c; 0, a, b; 0, 0, a]
That's 3 dimensional
can you explain why endomorphism is helping us to find the dimension
Well because I find it easier to compute an endomorphism ring than to multiply a bunch of matrices.
The endomorphism ring of R/I is just itself, and dim C[x]/(x^n) is n
Very easy
that is my question , how every endomorphism is commuting matrix, i have never seen this trick
Well, it's just the definition of homomorphism.
A homomorphism of C[x] modules is a linear map that commutes with the action of x
okay makes sense
can you show the endomorphism is itself
Well it's cyclic, so determined by where 1 is mapped. And because the ring is commutative you can send it anywhere
but here we have module not ring
A module is defined over a ring
R/I is an R-module
If R is commutative (or just if I is twosided), then End_R(R/I) = R/I
oh fine
but @rocky cloak i never thought of this question using module i thought i can be done in pure linear algebra
I guess you can look at the flag of generalized eigenspaces, and then conclude that the matrix must have this layered upper triangular form
Or just write out the matrix multiplication with eistein notation or whatever
but module method is every nice i think it shouldbe used whenever possible
If n = [F(a) : F] and k = [F(b) : F] are relatively prime, then [F(a, b) : F] = nk, right? Or more generally if n = [K : F] and k = [L : F] are relatively prime, then [KL : F] = nk?
Yes, in general [KL:F] will be a multiple of the lcm
(and divide the product)
can someone help me understand this induction idk why i just need it spelled out a little clearer
gamma(L/K) is the galois group
the case n = 0 is that L = K(alpha_{0}) right? which is just L = K and you get the trivial group {id}
i figure thats the only way the base case is trivial
the induction seems as though its heading towards G(L/L) tho, i really dont know why im not understanding it
Your image seems to cut out right before the actual proof starts.
But anyway, the basic idea is that if K(a2, ..., an) is normal, then G(L/K) is an extension of G(L/K(a2, ..., an)) and G(K(a2, ..., an)/K).
The former is a group of prime order, hence abelian, and the latter is solvable by induction.
The tricky part is just making sure this is normal.
You can do this by making sure it contains the roots of unity by adjoining them first (or last I guess, according to the numbering)
the rest of it just goes if a1 is not in K then... but that part is fine
i think my brain just isnt working today
would the n = 1 case be L = K(a1)
or is the induction that we are just taking extensions of K, like K' = K(a1) and working with L = K'(a2,...an) until we have L = K*
Yeah, n=1 would be L = K(a1)
n=2 would be L = K(a1, a2)
general n would be L = K(a1, ..., an)
isnt the order of G(L/K(a2, ..., an)) just 1 since L = K(a2,...,an) so ur just doing G(L/L) which is just {id}
i dont get what u mean by then G(L/K) is an extension of G(L/K(a2, ..., an)) and G(K(a2, ..., an)/K) this book doesnt talk about groups being extensions of other groups
The group in question is
G(L/K)
If L = K(a2, ..., an), then that's n-1 elements. So by were in the n-1 case
So by induction G(L/K) is solvable
I was just describing my guess at what happens after your image cuts out
... But it seems you understood that part...
Like you're doing induction on the number of as. If a1 is in K, then you can remove it and now you have fewer as
That's it
wait
There is no higher math or anything complicated going on.
It's just if you have n things and remove one you now have n-1 things
ㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡㅡ
Why it holds
what is K? an arbitrary field?
K\{0} is a group under multiplication with q-1 elements
Did you understand why what jagr said up here is true
Or relevant, rather.
If you did, then this should be immediate.
If you didn't, now's the time to say.
Do I need R to be integral here?
Someone gave me this proof:
Let x in R, say R has dimension n, then 1, x,...,x^n, those vectors are linearly dependent.
So there exists c_i's in C, at least one c_i is non-zero such that c_0 + c_1x +..+c_nx_n = 0, so x is a root of non-zero polynomial in C[y], and C is algebraic closed so x in C.
Is it correct? But here we didn't use an integral part of R
Yes but see the proof, we didn't use the integral part of R
well the big assumption here is that there does exist such an x
if we know that R is a field, for instance, then we know that at least one x exists by the primitive field theorem
an immediate counterexample I can think of is the ring C^2
(0,1) * (1,0) = 0 so this is not an integral domain
But how does C^2 contain C ?
x -> (x,0)
Yes but I thought it means that C \subset R
well if you wanted to I'm sure you can modify the structure of R such that that is possible
I don't see the distinction between that and there just existing an embedding of C into R I sidestepped this issue, see below
I don't get if
R being an n-dimensional vector space over C just implies that there exists vectors v1, ... , vn such that they span R over C
this does not guarantee that the basis vectors are all the power of some single number
No, I pick x such that 1,x,x^2,..,x^n are n+1 vectors so they must be LD
no
you cannot assume that you can always find such an x
that's not the definition of a vector space
I just pick x
what if everything in R was nilpotent with degree less than n?
if R is not an integral domain I don't see why that isn't possible
Then x^n = x^m
Can you please listen first?
I am saying that take x in R
Then take vectors 1,x,x^2,..,x^n, if they are not distinct that means x^i = x^j, for some i≠j, then take polynomial y^i - y^j, so this polynomial has root x, so x in C.
If they are distinct vectors, since dimension is n, so this set of vectors must be LD
distinct does not imply LI, though
See dimension is n, so how can n+1 vectors are LI?
let me just find a counterexample.
I claim that you need integral domain, because you need R to be a field for this to work
C[x]/<x^2> is a ring containing C, and it is also a finite dimensional vector space over C but clearly non isomorphic
so, run your argument through me again and let's figure out where the problem is, if there is one, together
Yes, but then x^2 = 0 in C[x]/<x^2>, so y^2 = 0 has a root x, cannot I say x in C?
It makes no sense
I do not know what you are trying to do
Where am I wrong?
I mean x^2 = 0 in C[x]/< x^2>, right?
So that's means x satisfy y^2 = 0 equation
Can I use C is algebraic closed here?
The quaternions is a finite dimensional noncommutative domain that contains C.
However, you don't need the full commutativity assumption, it's enough to assume C is in the center
You're using that the c_i commute with x, for this to be a contradiction
Corollary: M_2(C) is not a domain lol
THE integral domain i think is used where x non zero implies x^n is nor zero
Okay say R is commutative then where I used R is integral?
The integral part is just commutativity. Do you mean where you're using that R is a domain?
Yes
You have a polynomial
x^n + c1 x^n-1 + ... + cn = 0
Since C is algebraically closed this factors as
(x - a1)(x - a2) ... = 0
for complex numbers ai.
Now you have a product of things that are zero, so in a domain one of the factors must be zero. I.e. x is equal to one of the ai
You already looked at the example C[x]/(x^2)
here x^2 = 0 factors as (x-0)(x-0), but x is not equal to 0.
I see
Yes
there is another standard question, that evey finite dimensional vector space over a field which is also an integral domain is again a field
Yes I saw this question on MSE
Or every artinian domain is a division ring
how
The proof is essentially the same.
Consider the chain of ideals generated by (x^n) to conclude that x is a unit
That was done in class i forgot
Greetings my friends. I will now probably be living in the combinatorial structures chat since I've now begun learning about my thesis topic
well. there is still algebra involved so i will prolly ask here too
i am doing combinatorial algebra stuff
Betraying us i see
Good luck
I always have trouble with combinatorics omfg
If its one branch of math I'll fail its that
What's the topic?
All the combo haters in this chat are missing out on some of the most beautiful math out there in algebraic combinatorics 😔
And what text are you using?
My supervisor wants to look into expanding the ideas presented in the paper glicci simplical complexes by nagel and romer
Rn i am looking through this review paper thats called a survey of stanley reisner theory and im also looking through monomial ideals by herzog and hibi
I've been meaning to look at that text, seems useful to keep on my shelf
Can you link the survey?
Sure
I've seen Stanley Reisner theory come up in some stuff but idk what it is
I say the same thing about universal algebra but noooo
Yea but have you considered you're wrong and I'm right?
Most people tend to forget to consider this fact but it really is essential
I have, and rejected the thought as it was too silly
Monomial ideals is really nice, but holy shit does it get hard fast haha
How do I prove this btw? I have a hunch that you could embed KL in the tensor product of K and L, which might have degree nk over F, but I know very little about tensor products, so I'm not sure
What I said was slightly wrong actually.
There's a surjection from the tensor product to KL, so the degree is less than the product, but it doesn't necessarily divide it.
It will be a multiple of the lcm though
I see, thanks 
Hey, need some help trying to classify groups.
I have the group of unities of $\mathbb Z_{21}$, which is of order 12 and is {1,2,4,5,8,10,11,13,16,17,19,20}. According to the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups I know this isomorphic to either $\mathbb Z_4 \cross Z_3$ or $\mathbb Z_2 \cross \mathbb Z_2 \cross \mathbb Z_3$, but how do I know which of them is isomorphic to the group above?
Michael
Well OK
You can distinguish G = Z_4 x Z_3 and H = Z_2 x Z_2 x Z_3 by looking at the presence of an element of order 4. The group G has an element of order 4, the group H does not.
But this is easier still. Z_21 as a ring is isomorphic to the ring Z_3 x Z_7 by the Chinese remainder theorem. Now exercise: the group of units (R x S)* of the ring R x S is equal to (not merely isomorphic to!) R* x S*.
We understand well the group of units of Z_p where p is a prime. It is Z_{p-1}. Perhaps you know this -- it is not entirely straightforward to prove.
So in fact I can tell you that the group of units of Z_21 is isomorphic to Z_2 x Z_6 which in turn is isomorphic to Z_2 x Z_2 x Z_3.
No inspection of the group was necessary.
Huh, interesting. Didn't know that. And Z_6 is isomorphic to Z_2 x Z_3 since 2 and 3 are coprimes right?
That's right
That's in fact another application of the Chinese remainder theorem, just restricted to groups rather than rings
I see, nice
But if we want to use this way, do you often do it by just looking at the orders of different elements and seeing if they're structurally alike that way?
That is a quick and easy way to distinguish the groups but
Do I often do it that way? No haha
idk if computer algebra systems do
Hehe alright, do you have some other neat ways of distinguishing them?
This is pretty much the only way if you're just given them as a Cayley table
Okay well ty for answers!
Basically the same idea, but the latter has more elements of order 2 than the the former.
It may or may not be easier to count solutions to x^2 = 1, than determine if there is an element of order 4
I guess it depends on which elements are listed first! :P
Why are you blue now
You joined them?
them (derogatory)
does there exist a 7*7 matrix such that the space of commuting matrices has dimension 6
When I woke up I was blue dabba dee dabba dai
There does not.
Break the corresponding module up into cyclic module. Then the endomorphism ring of each summand is its dimension, so if you just look at the endomorphisms that preserve the decomposition that's already 7-dimensional.
Then you can have more if there are homomorphisms between the summands
what do you mean by break module into cyclic module, is it direct sum
Yes
decomposition into cyclic module V= Rx_1 +Rx_2...+Rx_n end endomorphism of directic sum is direct sum of individual, using this we are getting dim 7
The endomorphism ring of a direct sum decomposes as
Sum_i,j Hom(Rx_i, Rx_j)
But if we just count the i=j part that already gets us to 7
hello for this result does anyone know where or not
the statement would still work if we changed T = \phi_s^{-1}(T') instead of towards T'= \phi_s{T} as stated originally
im thinking that might not work because T'^{-1} (S^-1M) might not even be a T^-1 R module
is that correct?
the isomorphism may fail because defining T from T' does not guarantee the necessary condition S ⊆ T (equivalently, φ_S(S) ⊆ T') required for the standard proof.
I'm still keeping the explicit condition that S \subset T
(from dummit,foote) i want to build a statement like this to prove it by induction: \
Prop. If f = (c1)(c2), $|f| = 2$ and $(c1) \cap (c2)$, then order of f = 1. \
f $\in S_\text{n}$ - product of disjoint cycles, seems not legitimate to use f = (c1)(c2). but if (c1)(c2) is not f, then how can we define an order?
shdvv
what do you mean by "and (c1) \cap (c2).."? that they intersect nontrivially?
Not sure about that proposition you've stated! Are you saying that e.g. (1 2 3)(4 5) is of order 1, i.e., is the identity?
Yeah any as pointed out you don't actually say what that should be equal to, though I apparently imagined it meant empty intersection
either way your proposition is quite confusing because you say at the start |f| = 2 then at the end you say order f = 1
if |f| means the order of f, then that statement clearly cant be true
if finitete intersection of maximal ideal is contained in some maximal is it true at least one max ideal od collection is equal to the ideal in which intersection is contained
If a product of ideals is contained in a prime ideal, then one of the ideals is contained in the prime ideal.
Maximal ideals are prime and product is contained in intersection. So the answer should be yes
Realising I misread 🤦♂️
can it be prooven using chinese remainder therem for maximal ideals
so image of maximal ideal is of the form R/M_1* R/M_2 .. 0... R/M_n
onto map so image of maximal ideal is maximal
in a polynomial ring R[x1, x2, ... xn], for lets say R a domain, what are the prime ideals? I guess those generated by irreducible polynomials would still be right? And any ideal generated by some variables (xi : i in 1 to n)
Havent really thought about that much because I havent really worked with polynomial rings with more than one variable, and for the last while its just been polynomial rings over fields because I was doing galois theory
I mean this is just super hard in general
Yeah, I guess I just need to see more examples in general
But checking specific examples is easy usually
Irreducible elements are not always prime though
It is fine here if R is a UFD (so R[x1,..,xn] is too)
Ok
Well I don't think it implies UFD
In a domain where factorization into irreducibles is possible .... irreducible implies prime implies its a UFD?
i think i read that in my number theory notes
from my prof
Yes, you need factorisation to be possible
And then this is true
Amusingly I went over the proof of this when presenting part of a number theory class recently lol
oh nice haha
I think you can describe it like, take P a prime ideal in R, then look at the algebraic closure of the field of fractions of R/P, let's call it K.
Then you get a map R -> K by sending the xi to arbitrary elements. I think they should correspond to the same ideal iff they have the same Galois orbit.
So then you're looking at the Galois orbits of K^n
This still misses some prime ideals though, since the xi don't need to map to something algebraic
... seems like it would be hard to give a good description though
Why does the proof that Gal(R/Q) is trivial not work for Gal(Q-bar/Q)? AFAICT the only ingredients is that any automorphism fixes Q and preserves order, plus the fact that Q is dense in R. This is true for Q-bar too, so what fails?
what order precisely is being preserved here? Q-bar isn't a subset of R
a model structure on seconds
but wait, what about Gal(Q(sqrt(2)/Q)? Why isn't that trivial by the same argument?
because I can send sqrt(2) to -sqrt(2) so there is an automorphism
is Q dense in Q(sqrt(2))? what's the topology here
hmm... the subspace topology of R?
well that's YUCK
surely that can't be the part of the argument that fails. Q(sqrt(2)) has a well defined order, right?
I think this is the part where I just "Gal(R/Q) is trivial because Aut(R) is trivial"
isn't Galois groups and automorphism groups pretty much literally the same? 
atleast over the prime field
well yeah they're both trivial
oh I see what you mean. Yes this holds more generally
I still don't see which part of the argument fails
I can't do any more math until I figure this out
well it's pretty clear that for Q(sqrt(2)) the part that fails is that automorphisms have to be order preserving
so peep that part REALLY closely
ah, I see it: in R a number is positive iff it is a square, which is not true in Q(sqrt(2)). So an automorphism sends squares to squares, but not necessarily positives to positives
thanks 
Can you find an upper bound on this order, by finding a finite number of words in x, y such that every other word must be equal in G to one of them?
For example, how can you "simplify" xyxxyyxyxx?
well yeah i was thinking of words, i didnt see that i pressed the enter already
alr i would try a bit on this path
is there any specificity in the way you creawted that "xyxxy...." or it was just random word
does it look fine?
Using the relation $(xy)^3 = 1$, we can derive rewriting rules such as $yxy = x^2 y x^2$ and $yx^2y = x y x$
longboard kayak
for the last reasoning if 0< z < n/d then n/d | z was impossible hence n/d < z for all z such that (x^k)^z=1
any word in $G$ may be written in the form $x^i$ or $x^i y x^j$ for $0 \le i,j < 3$. There are $3$ elements of the first type and $9$ of the second, yielding at most $12$ distinct elements.
longboard kayak
problem books?
How do I prove cos(2pi/5) is irrational so that I know Q(cos(2pi/5)) is not the same field as Q
The question was for finding the splitting field of x^5+1 and all it's subfields
Mostly random, but I tried to make it not simplify too much.
Cos(2 π/5 ) is x+ x^-1/2 where x is primitive 5th root of unity so is x^-1
But why does that matter. I was thinking about the complex conjugates but wasn't sure what to do with it
If Q(x+x^-1)= Q then x+x^-1 is some rational
Agreed
So x^2-qx+1 =0 minimal polynomial for x
But the degree of minimal polynomial for x is phi(5) that is 4
This result you can find in cycloctomic extensions in dummit foote
Where x = e^(i2pi/5)?
That's what I was afraid of
Didn't really discuss cycloctomic polynomials
Yes
Hence was trying to avoid these thms 😭
That's a part of field theory , you can use that
The thing is it kinda trivializes some of the x^p-1 questions, no?
I mean at least knowing what my galois group should be
And this type of extensions usually seen in cycloctomic extensions part
Oh I guess that theorem was actually for all n
I suppose I'll use it and move on
Which theorem
What the Galois group corresponds to the splitting field x^n-1
,w primitive root
Yes
Oh man is this a new way to say cos(2π/7) is irrational
Which there is some know result about which n for has a cyclic group for U(n)
My book just uses that notation for invertible residues mod n
When n is 2,4 ,p^n,2p^n
Where p is odd prime
Yes
I meant to say cos(2pi/5) but if I can just use the properties of cycloctomic polynomials then I basically skip all of that
Yes
I guess one can probably to some trigonometry to deduce it's equal to (sqrt(5) - 1)/4
If you want to avoid Galois theory
Well I need to use Galois theory because I have to construct all the subfields. However I was am starting to realize idk how to show some polynomials are minimal and or not. Also a struggle with knowing which permutations of the roots are valid
The only Galois theory I have is basically finding the subfields of a field extension is related to the Galois group where we analyze the group automorphisms of the field extension
Can you use Eisenstein?
Yes but my understanding there is a difference between minimal and irreducible
Like if one tacks on another complex root to your polynomial
Over a field a polynomial is minimal iff it is irreducible
Anyway, you can notice that x^5 + 1 and (-x-1)^5 + 1 has the same splitting field.
The latter is
-x^5 - 5x^4 - 10x^3 - 10x^2 - 5x
which after you divide by x is irreducible by Eisenstein.
But can't I just have say like (x-r1)(x-r2)(x-r1) and add say another complex root? Or is the issue that it might be reduce from an overall degree 4 to 2 degree 2s
I don't understand what you're suggesting
Or maybe that's not possible either for Q[x] if the complex roots come in pairs
Basically like Q(i) but then instead of suggesting (x^2+1) I say (x^2+1)(x^2-2)
The latter reduces into 2 degree 2 polynomials
And are you suggesting the second one minimal or irreducible? (it's neither)
Isn't X^5 + 1 = Phi_2 Phi_10, so that the spltting field is that of Phi_10, i.e., ℚ(zeta_10)?
Yup
Well I just showed it is reducible I guess and so neither because we know it should be degree 2
Both of those are polynomials satisfied by i (and there are more), but x^2 + 1 is the only (up to scaling by a constant) irreducible one and is also the minimal polynomial of i.
Yeah.
Anyways I was basically thinking of how the degree 5 polynomial could reduce and gets it's minimal polynomial for Q(w). I mean we know (x-1) is linear factor but 1 is already in Q so we are left with the degree 4 polynomial
But that requires me to show x^4+x^3+x^2+x+1 does not reduce
Over Q



