#groups-rings-fields
1 messages Β· Page 317 of 1
because most of the exercises in some earlier chapters (even late exercises), I can kinda work out a solution in my head
but im worried that i wont gain the pattern recognition
to be able to solve a large problem
book name please
why dont you send one problem here and see people how they are doing it
and yes dont expect any pattern some times you have to proov by contradiction but sometimes you have to proove by some trivial rizzics example argument
This is from an old prelim exam
Preliminary exams are offered in August and January of each year.
Spring 24
i will send you the solution of that problem , because it is done in my class
mention your base field
real numbers
crack
What is a reducible form?
If you mean that it's factored into irreducible polynomials, then yes, that's a correct factorization into quadratic polynomials and the roots of those aren't real numbers, so you can't reduce anything to linear polynomials.
onto map from noetherian module M to M is one one
Yes that result I really like, no reason
i think this is true when the field is Q
Yes.
More generally it holds for rings such that Z -> R is an epimorphism.
Z/n should be clear. For (subrings of) Q:
f(1/b x) = b/b f(1/b x) = 1/b * b f(1/b x) = 1/b f(b/b x) = 1/b f(x)
the rest part of the claim you can solve yourself, and here M need not be free
why 0 ideal is maximal ideal of M_n(R) where n is biggere than equal to 2
This is true when R is a field.
You can show that the ideals of Mn(R) are exactly Mn(J) where J is an ideal of R
You can show this pretty explicitly by just multiplying your ideal by elementary matrices
professor said that it is true for any commutative ring with unity
he said 0 ideal is not left /right maximal ideal
Well maybe they misspoke or you misunderstood.
But the maximal (twosided) ideals of Mn(R) corresponds exactly to maximal ideals of R. You don't even need R to be commutative
okay
i just saw my POD and you are right
The proof is quite straightforward, itβs a good exercise, I enjoyed doing that last semester
yes the idea is to multiply the matrix with E_(pq) which has entries 0 except pq entry
true or false?
Every finite subset of R^2 is an algebraic variety
i think {(n,0) | n an integer} won't be a variety
oh that's infinite duh
riiight right ok i guess it's true
although...
Lmfao
the solutions manual says it's true but i don't see why it must be true
Is a single point an algebraic variety
Arenβt varieties closed under finite union
i think you can multiply the elements of the bases pairwise to create a new basis
whose variety is the union
Yes
Axe
like that, right?
Yee
sweet
The wonders of a field being an integral domain
hmm
Let $G,H$ be groups and let $\phi:G \to H$ be a homomorphism.
Is it true that if $\psi:H\to G$ is a homomorphism such that $\psi \circ \phi \cong id_G$ and $\phi \circ \psi \cong id_H$ then $\phi$ and $\psi$ are isomorphisms?
π’πΎππππ ππΆπππΆ
(It's not a h.w. assignment, I'm just curious if the two identity conditions mean that both $\phi$ and $\psi$ are bijections)
π’πΎππππ ππΆπππΆ
the condition is that psi phi = the identity map, right?
idk what \cong means lmao
and phi psi = the identity map in H
yeah it should be = right?
then it should work
Isomorphic to the identity?
But yes
I believe so? Assuming that isomorphic to the identity means that they differ from the identity by an isomorphism
This is nothing group-theoretic by the way, its just set theory
yes
I'm sorry
I am dealing with different notations, and got them all mixed up
I meant equal
Then its basically by definition of bijectivity
$\phi(a)=\phi(b)\implies\psi\phi(a)=\psi\phi(b)\implies a=b$, so one-to-one
Axe
At least, its a fairly simple exercise to show the existence of an inverse of f iff f is both injective and surjective
This is basically the definition of isomorphism in any category, it just happens that in the category of groups a bijective homomorphism is an isomorphism
$\forall h\in H: \phi(\psi(h))=h$, so $\phi$ is onto as well
Axe
Yes, I just canβt help myselfβ¦
Itβs like plugging 5 + 7 into a calculator, I guess.
I just needed the reassurance.
Well there is definitely a strong underlying reason for it. It has to do with the properties of the forgetful functor
Now I'm guessing its because of the monadicity rather than adjointness
(Monadicity basically means that the category of groups is a category of algebraic structures over Set)
is {(x,0) | x >= 0} an example of a subset of R^2 that is not an algebraic variety?
does this question belong in a different channel?
ah ok that makes sense
i'm not sure
maybe we can throw out any term containing y
the resulting polynomial in one indeterminate has infinitely many zeros
lol
System of a down bio?
can i though? 
i think i should take a break
thanks for the help
the next section is extension fields
W
True
Let g(x) = f(x,0). How many zeros does g(x) have (at least)? How many polynomials in R[x} do you know that have that many zeroes?
suppose that R' is an R algebra and a is an ideal then is it true that a \otimes_R R' = aR'?
this isn't a homework question, but I was thinking that I can use the fact that R' \otimes R[X] = R'[X]. and then replace the variables X with a. Does that work?
No this isnβt true
Thereβs a surjection from the left to the right but the failure of injectivity is determined by Tor^R_1(Rβ,R/a)
This works for Rβ actually any A-module M
How to show adj(AB)=adj(B)adj(a) over a commutative ring with unity
over a field it is easy
I'm trying to tackle a question where I happen to be dealing with double cosets over the same subgroup, namely the set H\G/H = {HgH : g in G}, is there a special name for such a case?
I DONT THINK
i guess write A as the image of a generic matrix (X_ij) and B as the image of a generic matrix (Y_ij), you then need to prove it over Z[X_ij, Y_ij] which is easy because it is a domain so you can go the fraction field. the map Z[X_ij,Y_ij]->R is well defined/behaved because of commutativity and unit and adj(AB), adj(A),adj(B) are indeed the image of adj((X_ij)(Y_ij)), adj((X_ij)),adj((Y_ij))
tell me if you think its wrong but i believe it works
can you do littile work and leave it to me to fill the gaps
there are all elements there you can check if it works directly
the map is X_ij -> a_ij Y_ij->b_ij
minors have coeffs polynomials in a_ij and b_ij
please write in latex it is confusing
double cosets is a part of group theory and outlined in dummit & foote excersises but i saw them first time modular form (hecke algebra) in a book of modular forms many results about double cosets will be given
How is it any different over a field than any other ring?
there is a problem actually
if we see the actual proof for field it uses a property of non zero divisiors
im on phone so its not easy but, take a commutative unitary ring R and two matrices $A,B\in M_n(R)$. write $(a_{ij}){ij}$ and $B=(b{ij}){ij})$. Then A and B have coefficients in $C=\mathbb Z[a{ij},b_{ij};i,j]\subset R$, now you can prove the theorem in C
k[r,a,y,a,n,e]
to prove that consider the ring $D=\mathbb Z[X_{ij},Y_{ij};i,]$ with $X_{ij},Y_{ij}$ unknows for each $1\leq i,j\leq n$ and consider matrices $A_{gen}=(X_{ij}){ij}$ and $B{gen}=(Y_{ij})_{ij}$
k[r,a,y,a,n,e]
The map $D\to C$ given by $X_{ij}\mapsto a_{ij}$ and $Y_{ij}\mapsto b_{ij}$ extends uniquely to a ring homomorphism
k[r,a,y,a,n,e]
so that $adj(A_{gen}B_{gen})$ maps to $adj(AB)$, $adj(A_{gen})$ maps to $adj(A)$ and same for $B$
k[r,a,y,a,n,e]
so that you just need to prove the theorem in D
now $D$ is a domain and the theorem is true in its field of fraction. Finally since the adjoints have coefficients polynomials in the coefficients of the initial matrices the theorem is true in D and you are finished
k[r,a,y,a,n,e]
Then let k be the field of rational functions in as many variables as there are entries in A and B together and let the entries of A and B be those variables. You get that the entries of the LHS and RHS are the same polynomials in the entries of A and B.
Shoot, I forgot to check if it's already answered. Sorry.
now we can use the non zero divisior property for polynomials, and apply homomrphism on adjoint to get the desired result
Can anyone tell how to show uniqueness of elementary divisors
You can do it by proving the more general theorem, Krull Remack Schmidt:
If a module can be written as a finite direct sum of modules with local endomorphism rings, then it can be done so in a unique way.
Jagr the π
Notice End_R(R/p^n) = R/p^n is a local ring
Is that the same reason why End_R(R) = R?
Yup
The main idea is say
M = Sum Mi = Sum Nj
Then consider the compositions
Mi -> M -> Nj -> M -> Mi
Then the sum of these for all j will be the identity on Mi, so if it has local isomorphism ring, one of them must be an isomorphism, which implies Mi is a direct summand of Nj
suppose we dont know that result then?
I wasn't supposing you did...
dont go to general case
Okay, then just take my hint and replace Mi with R/(pi^ni)
Mi -> M is inclusion?
same for M-> Nj
Yes
but i dont know local isomorphism
Then don't worry about it.
Just ask yourself what are the homomorphisms R/(p^n ) -> R/(p^n) and when are they isomorphisms
identity one is isomorphism
It's always a good idea to look at the simplest possible cases.
What are the homomorphisms Z/4 -> Z/4 for example?
1 goes to 1 and 1 goes to 3 , are isomorphisms
So what seperates the isomorphisms from the non-isomorphisms?
1 goes to an element which is relatively prime to 4
Yup.
So then if the sum of homomorphisms is an isomorphism, could it be that the terms are all non-isomorphisms?
it follows from the fact that it holds over the reals
if a polynomial identity with integer coefficients holds over a field of characteristic 0 then it holds for all commutative rings
i see it was already answered but its one of my fav things i had to share it lol
For E/F algebraic and considering some map E -> Fbar, can I say something about how that map maps inseparable elements of E over F?
Purely inseperable elements will map to themselves (or to something unique at least), but in general the situation is the same as any algebraic element. It will map to one of its conjugates.
purely inseparable elements will map to themselves because they dont have any other conjugates?
Yup
so hom(E, Fbar) is the same size as hom(Es, Fbar) because the elements in E\Es are the purely inseparable ones, so there is always only one spot for them to go in the maps anyway?
Kind of yeah.
E/Es is purely inseperable. That doesn't mean the elements of E are necessarily purely inseperable over F, but where they are mapped are determined by where Es is.
Indeed this is a way to define separable degree
You should have Hom_F(E, F bar) though, as you probably know lol
To take an example, let
F = F2(t)
and let s be a root of
f(x) = x^4 + x^2 + t
and let E = F(s).
Then Es = F(s^2), s is purely inseperable over Es (being the root of x^2 - s^2), but
f(x) = (x-s)^2 (x - s+1)^2
so s and s+1 are conjugates.
Actually maybe you don't for your purposes, but what I wrote is normally what you will be interested in anyway
So a homomorphism may map s to either s or s+1, but if you know where s^2 is mapped, then s has to map to the unique square root of that
That seems whacky, I was not aware of that
cool right
i like it because at first it seems illegal and not true but its also trivial
Why on earth is that true
the special case implies the general case
I guess it's sort of hard to make polynomial identitets that only hold in some rings.
Besides like 2x = 0, what can you really do
I guess yeah, but it seems very surprising at first that something which is true over such a nice ring would be true over them all
Well I guess what's hidden in there is that a polynomial identity is an extremely constrained thing
Yeah also true I suppose, I definitely see what you mean now about once you reason it out it is somewhat trivial, I guess torsion is pretty much the only concern
Not quite a one liner, but
||If it holds in Q, then by continuity and density it holds in R. Then it holds for algebraically independent elements, hence holds in Z[x1, ..., xn]. By homomorphisms it holds in all commutative rings.||
||If K is a field of char. 0 then Z[x_1,...,x_n] injects into K[x_1,...,x_n] which injects into the set of maps K^n -> K as K is infinite||
Let k be an infinite field. If v is nonzero in k, is it true that {1, v, v^2, ..., v^d} form a linearly independent set?
v = 1
Linearly independent over what? Z?
Over k I guess
Oh yeah
Over Z it is still false by considering like k = Q say
This seems pretty easy to prove via something like linear independence but I've been stuck πΉ
Here's an example. f(x, y) = x^2 + y^2 so f(Ξ»x, Ξ»y) = ???
then you can factor out something nonzero
And use the fact that k[x, y] is a domain
You can think of this as a polynomial in lambda.
Then what you're trying to prove is that a polynomial that is 0 everywhere must be 0
Are you getting that we can write $\sum_{k = 0}^d \lambda^k f_k(a_1, \dots, a_{n + 1}) = 0$?
okeyokay
Lol nah ur goo
Ok my hint is slightly less useful but still applicable
I guess my hint gets you what you wrote
Sorry, what do you mean by polynomial in lambda in this case?
And then apply what jagr wrote
Treat lambda as a variable
Act as if you're in the ring k[a1, ..., an][Ξ»]
Ohh okay
You really do need that the field is infinite
Like what is written here.
The fk(...) are just numbers, so this is a polynomial in lambda
Is there a result saying that if p(a) = 0 for all a in k \ {0} where k is a field and p in D[x] where D is a domain, then p is actually the zero polynomial?
I guess if that's true then that makes sense yeah
If k is infinite and sits in the center of D it should be true
I guess it's easier in the case D=k which is the case here though
Sorry I'm a little confused, I get that we can view it as a polynomial with a variable in lambda, but are the coefficients in k or k[x_1, \dots, x_{n + 1}]? Since we're saying that \lambda^0 f_0(a_1, \dots, a_{n + 1}) = 0 where f_0(a_1, \dots, a_{n + 1}) are in k
Ah okay I guess that's what I just asked
the coefficients are in k yeah
Okay thanks, that solved things!
I'm not sure the result has a name, but a degree n polynomial having at most n roots is well known
Oh yeah I remember that one lol
why do group representations need not be isomorphisms?
Would be kinda boring if they were. Then we could only do group representations of GLn
It'd defeat the whole point of using group representations, lol
If you are actually intending to ask why group reps don't have to be injective homomorphisms, i.e. faithful, the answer is that we get a more interesting theory if we consider ones that aren't as well as ones that are.
The goal is often to understand the irreps, and irreps need not be faithful.
ok thanks
Also just like
Group act on stuff "in nature" all the time
And we study that
It isn't just a matter of wanting to study a group by embedding it in something else (though this is sometimes useful too!)
the only reps worth studying

We could only study ONE SINGLE representation of GLn
Only one up to isomorphism maybe
Boytjie Returns
Hmmm don't get used to it
That emoji lmao
Or emote i suppose
Its a funny one
Not true, even up to isomorphism. Take n = 1. Then the weight -1 rep is not iso to the weight 1 rep. They are inequivalent, i.e. non conjugate isomorphisms GL1 -> GL1.
Likewise there
there's the inverse transpose representation of GLn for any n, and this is not isomorphic to the standard n-rep, but it is coming from an (outer) automorphism of GLn
Damn good point
still a good reduction for why the maps G-> GLn really shouldn't be isos because such reps are simply the outer automorphism group of GLn, practically by definition, and rep theory needs to be built around studying more things because there are more things in nature.
i have a problem asking me to find the degree of sqrt(pi) over Q(pi)
i think it's 2 because sqrt(pi) is a zero of x^2-pi, but how do i know x^2-pi is irreducible?
Perhaps what does it mean for any f(x) = x^2 - a to be irreducible in a field with some element a? Not in the form f(x) = g(x)h(x) for degree 1 polynomials g, h
if i can show it has no zeros in Q(pi) that would suffice
sure, so can some rational function of pi generate pi's own square root?
No one of them is isomorphism
If G is an Abelian group and |a|=m, |b|=n are finite. Then what is the order of ab?
Claim: |ab|=mn.
Certainly (ab)^mn =1 so |ab|<=mn.
Assume d be any power such that (ab)^d = 1. Let d=(mm)q +r so (ab)^r=1 or a^rb^r=1
Idk how to proceed further
consider a = 2 and b = 4 mod 8
sorry i have to go, i'll think more about this later
|2| = 4 and |4|=2
But |8| = 1 oops
wait wait I oopsed you
because mod 8 is written additively
so that's the wrong multiplication. The value of ab is actually 6
Oh yes |2+4|=|6| = 4 i guess
no 6 mod 8 has additive order 4. But still not |2||4|
|4 + 4| =/= lcm(2, 2)
True
basically I think you gotta go case by case in the structure theorem for finite abelian groups
Now in your proof use definition of lcm
I don't have much space to play
Just definition of order i guess
Doesn't it fail?
See counterexample #groups-rings-fields message
play? oh I see you don't know this theorem yet
Yes
well consider two cases.
- a = b^l or b = a^l for some integer l.
- Neither is true.
I'm fairly certain these are the only considerations necessary to arrive at what I know from the structure theorem.
basically, the lcm guess should hold if they are 'linearly independent' and it shouldn't hold when they're linearly dependent, but some other considerations can work.
sorry i was watching the white lotus finale, so good

but i think the answer is no, right?
this isn't really justified by any of the theorems in this chapter, as far as i can see
well it probably is and i just can't see it
if f(pi)/g(pi) were a zero of x^2-pi, with f,g in Q[x], we would have
f(pi)^2 - pi*g(pi)^2=0, and then pi would be a zero of
f(x)^2-xg(x)^2 and pi would be algebraic over Q
right, so for any transcendental t in C we have Q(t) is isomorphic to Q(t^2)[x]/(x^2 - t^2). In particular [Q(t) : Q(t^2 ) ] = 2. Take t = sqrt(pi) and you're done.

how you have seen the isomorphism
first, there is a Q(t^2)-linear map of rings Q(t^2)[x] -> Q(t), taking x to t. This is automatically well defined since R = Q(t) is a ring and a vector space over the field K = Q(t^2). Any element y in such a ring R has a well defined K-linear map of rings K[x] -> R taking x to y.
Second, this map takes the polynomial x^2 - t^2 to 0, because it takes x to t and also it takes t to t, since it is Q(t)-linear
Therefore there is a well defined homomorphism even after quotienting by the ideal, and we have our homomorphism Q(t^2)[x]/(x^2 - t^2) -> Q(t).
To show it's an isomorphism, check that Q(t^2)[x] -> Q(t) is surjective and has actually the ideal (x^2 - t^2) is the entire kernel.
Isomorphism from the quotient ring is then the first isomorphism theorem.
We proved (x^2 -t^2) was a maximal ideal, it's generated principally by an irreducible. Therefore since the map from the quotient is a well defined homomorphism, (x^2 - t^2) is the entire kernel: the map has image including not just 0, so the kernel is a proper ideal containing (x^2 -t^2). Therefore the kernel is (x^2 - t^2).
The map is surjective because, after descending to the quotient, we see that t is in the image (it's the image of x), and so the image of the quotient is a subfield of C containing t.
But Q(t) is the smallest field containing t.
You just shown that (βΟ) is transdental using Ο is transdental isn't it?
M_i is direct summand of Nj how
You have maps
Mi -> Nj -> Mi
that compose to the identity
yes M_i is direct summand and the we can change the roles of M_i and N_j
Yes, or use the fact that Nj is indecomposable
oh thats also fine
please send a reference ofthis proof
How I find the left and right cosets of $D_4 \text{ in } S_4$? Is there an easier way than to compute all elements?
rabbits_advocate
since $S_4$ is 4!
rabbits_advocate
D_4 meaning the dihedral group of 8 elements?
yes
Also, it depends on the specific subgroup of S_4 isomorphic to D_4
I dont think theres an easier way besides computation for cosets, right? At least there are only 5 unique ones in total :P
The galois grp of x^4-6x^2+2 over Q should be D4 since galois ext galois grp etc, where roots are $\pm\sqrt{3\pm\sqrt{7}}=\pm\alpha, \pm\beta$, but when I do $(\alpha, -\beta, -\alpha, \beta)$ on $a\alpha+b\beta+c$ to find the fixed elements in splitting field where a, b, c in Q I get -a=b and b=a? Or does it rlly not fix linear combinations of roots but something like $\sqrt{2}$ or $\sqrt{7}$ instead?
Cro
The galois grp of x^4-6x^2+2 over Q should be D4 since galois ext galois grp etc, where roots are $\pm\sqrt{3\pm\sqrt{7}}=\pm\alpha, \pm\beta$, but when I do $(\alpha, -\beta, -\alpha, \beta)$ on $a\alpha+b\beta+c$ to find the fixed elements in splitting field where a, b, c in Q I get -a=b and b=a? Or does it rlly not fix linear combinations of roots but something like $\sqrt{2}$ or $\sqrt{7}$ instead?
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l.49 The galois grp of x^
4-6x^2+2 over Q should be D4 since galois ext galoi...
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you left one out. Proceed, with fingers crossed.
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by lagrange's theorem there are only 3 distinct ones
but i suppose I have to go through all 24 elements in S_4 to find them?
then also do that again to find the left cosets scince the group is not abelian
Then how to find a basis of splitting field using the two roots instead?
Left and right cosets may be different
5 as you count the actual subgroup twice
I don't really have a reference at hand, but I'm sure it's covered in most books on module theory
I guess multiplied by 3 also for the conjugates
not in dummit foote
Well ig usually when people count cosets a sign is chosen right
It is proven on page 467, but I guess you're saying that they have a different proof
yes
I see the proof is given in theorem I.4.6 in Frobenius algebras by Skowronski and Yamagata.
They have the assumption that the modules are over a finite dimensional algebra, but that is only used to show it can be written as a direct sum of things with local endomorphism ring. The uniqueness step is unchanged
i dont have have that book, please send link or screen shots of the proof
They were talking about left and right cosets of the abstract group D_4 in S_4
.
Ih sure oop
:3
Chungus
thankyou majesty
Ok I worked it out but I cannot find any auto of order 4 that send roots to roots, all of them are order 2? Cuz by image once I send alpha1 to alpha2 then alpha2 sends to alpha1? I am very confused pls help
Let $f(x) = x^2 - 6x + 2 = (x - 3)^2 - 7$. We construct the splitting field of $f(x^2)$ in two steps:
\begin{itemize}
\item The splitting field of $f(x) \in \mathbb Q[x]$ is $F = \mathbb Q(b)$, where $b^2 = 7$.
\item The splitting field of $f(x^2) \in \mathbb Q[x]$ is $E = \mathbb Q(c,d)$, where $c^2 = 3 + b$ and $d^2 = 3 - b$.
\end{itemize}
Of course, the roots of $f(x^2)$ are ${ \pm c, \pm d }$. A straightforward calculation shows that
$$(cd)^2 = c^2 d^2 = (3 + b) (3 - b) = 9 - b^2 = 9 - 7 = 2 \implies cd \notin F.$$
Now we deduce that
\begin{itemize}
\item Since ${ c, d, cd }$ are all quadratic over $F$, we have that $\mathrm{Gal}(E/F)$ is isomorphic to the Klein group $V_4$.
\item Since $F/\mathbb Q$ is a quadratic extension, $\mathrm{Gal}(E/F)$ is a normal subgroup of $\mathrm{Gal}(E/\mathbb Q)$ of index $2$.
\end{itemize}
So far, we have constructed the elements of $\mathrm{Gal}(E/\mathbb Q)$ that fix $F$, hence fix $b$. Now we have to construct the elements that swap ${ b, -b }$.
Eduardo LeΓ³n
By Eisenstein's criterion, $f(x^2)$ is irreducible, so $\mathrm{Gal}(E/\mathbb Q)$ acts transitively on its roots. Hence there exists $\tau \in \mathrm{Gal}(E/\mathbb Q)$ such that $\tau(c) = d$. Notice that $\tau(d^2) = \tau(2 / c^2) = 2 / \tau(c^2) = 2 / d^2 = c^2$, so we have $\tau(d) = c$ or $\tau(d) - c$. And, at this point, I think I've given you enough generators to reconstruct the isomorphism type of $\mathrm{Gal}(E/\mathbb Q)$.
Eduardo LeΓ³n
Really, from $\tau(c) = \pm c \iff \tau(d) = \pm d$, you can see that $\mathrm{Gal}(E/\mathbb Q)$ respects the partition of ${ \pm c, \pm d }$ into ${ \pm c }$ and ${ \pm d }$. So you can think of ${ c, d, -c, -d }$ (in this order) as the vertices of a square, and $\mathrm{Gal}(E/\mathbb Q)$ will act on it by symmetries of the square. Therefore, $\mathrm{Gal}(E/\mathbb Q)$ is a subgroup of $D_8$ of order $8$ (by earlier calculations)... which has to be all of $D_8$.
Eduardo LeΓ³n
Still grinding Galois theory πͺ I've started reading Galois Theory by David Cox now
Logic has snuck into my universal algebraic geometry
Isomorphism between the lattice of closed sets of some topology on a set of congruences (analogous to ideals/normal subgroups) and the lattice of infinite conjunctions of finite disjunctions of equational identities (ordered by implication) quotiented out out by equivalence in some class K of algebras
If you take only the formulas consisting if infinite conjunctions, then you get the complete lattice of regular closed sets, and can use some version of the Nullstellensatz to get a correspondence between kernels of maps into ISP(K) and equivalence classes of these infinite conjunctions in K
I cleaned up the argument a bit.
Let $f(x) = x^2 - 6x + 2$. We compute the splitting field of $f(x^2)$ in two stages:
\begin{itemize}
\item The splitting field of $f(x)$ is $F = \mathbb Q(b)$, where $b^2 = 7$.
\item The splitting field of $f(x^2)$ is $E = \mathbb Q(c,d)$, where $c^2 = 3 + b$ and $d^2 = 3 - b$.
\end{itemize}
Since $F/\mathbb Q$ is a quadratic extension, $H = \mathrm{Gal}(E/F)$ is a normal subgroup of $G = \mathrm{Gal}(E/\mathbb Q)$ of index $2$. We shall compute $H$ first.
By construction, $c$ and $d$ are quadratic over $F$. And so is $cd$, because
$$(cd)^2 = c^2 d^2 = (3 + b) (3 - b) = 9 - b^2 = 9 - 7 = 2.$$
Therefore, $H$ is isomorphic to $V_4$, generated by the elements
$$
\alpha : \begin{cases} c \mapsto c, \ d \mapsto -d, \end{cases} \qquad
\beta : \begin{cases} c \mapsto -c, \ d \mapsto d. \end{cases}
$$
By Eisenstein's criterion, $f(x^2)$ is irreducible. Hence, there exists $\gamma \in G$ such that $\gamma(c) = d$. Moreover,
$$\gamma(d)^2 = \gamma(d^2) = \gamma(2 / c^2) = 2 / \gamma(c^2) = 2 / d^2 = c^2.$$
Therefore, either $\gamma(d) = c$ or $\gamma(d) = -c$. The latter is more convenient, because it has order $4$:
$$\gamma : \begin{cases} c \mapsto d, \ d \mapsto -c. \end{cases}$$
Notice that $\beta = \gamma \circ \alpha \circ \gamma^{-1}$. Therefore, $\alpha$ and $\gamma$ generate a subgroup of $G$ that properly contains $H$. But the only such subgroup is $G$ itself. And you can see that $\alpha$ and $\gamma$ satisfy the same relations as in the usual presentation of $D_8$.
Eduardo LeΓ³n
Deadline passed still thank you very much! Was thinking of the 2 step thing and figured out earlier
Can someone help me understand adjoining roots to to a polynomial ring? For example, with the real f(x) = x**2+x+10 the root r is not in R[x]. How do I think about R[x][r] as an R algebra?
In commutative-land, an $R$-algebra is simply a ring $S$ with a ring homomorphism $f : R \to S$. To see how $S$ is an $R$-module, just define scalar multiplication as $r \cdot s = f(r) \cdot s$.
Eduardo LeΓ³n
Maybe I can rephrase my question, Is it true that (R[x][y])/<f(y)> = R[x][r]? as R algebras
This really needs to be made precise. Let $R \subset S$ be an inclusion of commutative rings, and let $s \in S$ be an arbitrary element. Let $f : R[x] \to S$ be the $R$-algebra homomorphism that sends $x \mapsto s$. Denote by $R[s] \subset S$ the smallest $R$-subalgebra of $S$ containing $s$. Then $R[s] \cong R[x] / \ker(\varphi)$.
Eduardo LeΓ³n
Thank you, that is helpful and seems correct
Is this "2d rubik's cube" a group? If so which one is it?
yeah it's most definitely a group, actually computing it looks like a pain in the ass though
thanks
do you allow odd centers of rotation?
what's the best way to tell? I know for example 3x3x3 rubik's cubes are a group but 4x4x4 rubik's cubes are not.
No idea, this is just a video I found
...they should always be a group
4x4x4 is not
it's because of some parity iirc
hmmm, it seems like there's some associatve thing going on
okay
that's interesting, I'll look into that more later
my original statement may not be true then, I'll retract it for now
The 0x0x0, 1x1x1 and 3x3x3 rubik's cubes are the only ones that admits a group structure, because those are the only ones with trivial tangent bundle 
You can formalise it as some quotient of the free group with four generators acting on the set of all states of that grid
But actually computing that quotient sounds like something I'd rather not do
I think it makes more sense to talk about the group acting on that set though, right? Someone writes in the comments of that MSE post that
What you are saying is that the action of the group of moves on the set of achievable positions of a cube with edges of length 4 or more has nontrivial stabilizers. Statements like "Rubik's Cube is a group" are so unclear that that it is pointless to discuss whether they are true or not!
i wrote this general logic to try to prove that if u in F has a minimal polynomial of odd degree over K then K(u)=K(u^2). but it seems to work as long as the minimal polynomial has any odd degree terms (and even, but if there were odd but no even it wouldnt be minimal).
any polynomial p(x)=o(x)+e(x) (o odd e even)
p(x)=x(e'(x))+e(x) e' also even
e(x)=E(x^2)
p(x)=xE'(x^2)+E(x^2)
if min poly f of u is f(u)=uE'(u^2)+E(u^2)=0 implies u=-E(u^2)E'(u^2)^(-1) in K(u^2)
thus, u in K(u^2) implies K(u)=K(u^2) (since K(u^2) in K(u) is trivial)
yeah I saw that
can we say that if u has a minimal polynomial with even and odd degree terms over K then K(u)=K(u^2)?
It just so happens that some group actions have the property that you can take some element of you set X as the "origin" and any other element in X corresponds to a unique element of the group acting on it
This is, canonically, the case with the left/right multiplication group action of a group on itself
This has to do with heaps, I'm pretty sure
Interesting
are those the group actions with trivial stabilizers? Or is that just a necessary condition?
Yes, these are the group actions where the stabiliser of every element is trivial
No, if it were a necessary condition, then group actions would be boring tbh
Besides, nontrivial stabilisers can be dealt with using the orbit stabiliser theorem
wait, do you mean it's not a necessary condition, but just a sufficient one?
What?
Oh i thought you meant trivial stabiliser being necessary for being a group action
Im tired

ah, lol 
Group actions are goated ngl
for real π₯
I'm thinking about reading Actions of Groups by John McCleary actually https://www.cambridge.org/highereducation/books/actions-of-groups/9E2CF39D99D882E664FFAB8547B39469
I think you just need to use multiplicativity. We have K < K(u^2) < K(u), and [K(u) : K] = [K(u) : K(u^2)] [K(u^2) : K]. Now if [K(u) : K] is odd, what values can [K(u) : K(u^2)] take?
im guessing that's the intended proof. but like does my logic also work and prove a more general result?
Hello everyone
I am a little confused on how we go from gtheta = g'theta to see that (gtheta)((g')^(-1)theta) = e_H
I know that we can show two cosets xH and yH are equal iff (xy^(-1) is in H
I think that's what is being applied here, but I'm just confusing on the flow of the proof in applying that theorem
hmm, your proof actually works for any polynomial such that f(u) = 0, not just the minimal polynomial. It seems too strong, but your proof looks correct 
theta(g) = theta(g')
-> theta(g) [theta(g')]^-1 = e
-> theta(g) theta(g'^-1) = e
the key here is seeing that if theta is any group homomorphism, [theta(g)]^-1 = theta(g^-1)
nice, thanks!
if this was a peer review I would give it a thumbs up, but hopefully some other more knowledgeable peers can weigh in too 
and so from the last step, can we then say that
-> theta(g) theta(g'^-1) = e
-> theta(g * g'^-1) = e
-> g * g'^-1 in ker(theta)
-> gker(theta) = g'ker(theta)
thank you for pointing out that key property :D
Reading the answer, I think this is what's going on:
There is a group G generated by the possible rotation moves on a nβ¨―nβ¨―n cube, and a set Y of possible states of the cube, with a "basepoint" x_0 = the "solved" state. G\ acts on Y, and we can define a set X to be the orbit of x_0 ("solvable states"). Now whenever a group G acts on a set, we can try to define a group structure on the orbit of an element x by (gβ x)(hβ x) := ghβ x. If the stabiliser of x is a subgroup H, then the orbit of x is isomorphic (as a G-set to be precise) to the set G/H of left cosets of H in G, and this is the same as trying to define a multiplication on G/H. In particular, it's well-known from group theory that this will work iff H is normal (in fact, this is pretty much the canonical motivation for normal subgroups).
Apparently for n = 3, the stabiliser of x_0 is a normal subgroup of G, but for n = 4 it is not. But the natural structure of the problem - a group of moves acting on a set of cube states - is well-defined for any n. I think the group structure on the set of states is somewhat unnatural because it depends on a choice of "identity element" or "solved" state.
There is some ambiguity about when exactly two states are considered the same - should we just record the colours of all squares, or track and distinguish different squares of the same colour (so that if there's a move sequence starting from a particular state whose net effect is to swap some pairs of small cubes such that all colours are the same, do we choose to treat the initial and final states as the same or not?), or track even the orientations of centre squares (i.e. in the previous scenario, if all cubes are in the same position but some of the centre cubes got rotated, is that different or not?). In all of these cases, you can describe things by a group of moves acting on a set of states. I don't know for which of them the normal stabiliser subgroup phenomenon happens.
Also, just going to note that the argument there suggests the normal stabiliser will fail for any n β₯ 4, in case anyone reading this thinks "parity" means it works for odd n.
Yes, it is true that K(u) = K(u^2) whenever the minimal polynomial of u has any odd-degree terms. (Note: if it has only odd-degree terms then by irreducibility it has to be x, so u = 0 β K(u) = K(u^2) = K. So we can assume there is always at least one even-degree term.)
It requires the fact that E'(u^2) β 0. This would not be true if e.g. f had only even-degree terms (because E' = 0). And if the minimal polynomial has only even-degree terms, you can show that for any f, f(u) = 0 β f_even(u) = f_odd(u) = 0.
let F=Q(pi^3). a basis of F(pi) over F should be {1,pi,pi^2}.
but i dont know how we know this spans the whole thing. certainly it spans over F[pi] but im not sure how we are still guaranteed with denominators
i'm just learning this stuff, but isn't pi algebraic over Q(pi^3)? which means you don't need denominators to form F(pi), right?
oh god i'm so confused 
i think im not sure why that fact is true
so to be clear if we were to distinguish between different middle pieces of the same color it would be a group right?
I think what I was remembering with parity is that there is a parity of the middle pieces which allows us to distinguish some of them from each other but not all four.
oh yeah there's a result that if f(x) in F[x] is irreducible with a root k, then a basis is {1, k, k^2, ..., k^[(deg f(x))-1]}
just completely forgot about it and was trying to derive from scratch
I'm not sure. What you want, I think, is to distinguish enough information that any group element fixing a state has to preserve the position and orientation of every cube.
You need {1,pi,pi^2} to span F(pi) = β(pi) as a vector space over F = β(pi^3). So can you write any rational function in pi, f(pi), as a linear combination whose coefficients are rational functions in pi^3, i.e., as p(pi^3) + q(pi^3) pi + r(pi^3) pi^2 where p, q, r are rational functions?
Luke
What have you tried so far?
Algebra: chapter 0 is introductionary abstract algebra?
It is, but it's not a conventional textbook. It tries to teach algebra with the language of category theory.
prayer
why isn't $1 \trianglelefteq {1,-1} \trianglelefteq Q_8$ a composition series of $Q_8$?
donut123
The quotient Q_8/{1, -1} is of order 4 and hence is not simple
You need to refine your series just a bit
oh i forgot thats a requirement
Knowing the definition of a composition series does help lol
lmfao yeah
I guess you could say you need to refine your understanding of them

If the composite A β B β C is a localisation of commutative rings, must A β B be an epimorphism? (Of course, B β C must.)
I mean,
Z -> Z[x] -> Z[1/2]
is a localization
Or
R -> R x R[S^-1] -> R[S^-1]
#help-8 message
there's a problem with my proof that sqrt(pi) is transcendental
i didn't show that g(x) is nonzero
i'm working on another problem which asks me to show that a rational function of a transcendental is another transcendental. i'm hitting the same problem where i need to show that a certain polynomial is nonzero
Show that if g = 0, then either f_1 = f_2 = 0 or x is a square of a rational function (namely f_1/f_2). Then show that the latter cannot happen.
The abstract way to do that question BTW is to prove that the product of algebraic numbers is algebraic. Then sqrt(pi) is algebraic β sqrt(pi)β sqrt(pi) is algebraic.
maybe that will be easier
riiight
i don't think it will be easier to prove the product of algebraic numbers is algebraic
ACtually it's quite easy to prove that
You are aware that a complex number y is algebraic iff Q[y] is a finite-dimensional Q-algebra?
no
Do you know what a field extension is?
that's the chapter i'm doing now
Great
If I have a field extension F <= E, do you know what I mean if I write [E : F]?
not exactly
OK what do you mean by that
i just know it's called the index
Do you mean you do know but you can't remember
Great yes this is the dimension of E as a vector space over F
A finite extension E >= F is one where [E : F] is a finite number.
Fact: if x is algebraic over F then the extension F[x] is finite
You should hopefully be able to prove this fairly directly
Together with the tower law and this observation, the result that the product of algebraic numbers is algebraic comes out
that's stuff the book hasn't covered yet
Well great! You'll cover it soon.
they're not actually asking me to prove sqrt(pi) is transcendental, so maybe i don't have to do that
but they are asking me to prove that if alpha is transcendental over F, every element of F(alpha) that is not in F is transcendental
any way to do that before i get to vector spaces?
Yes it is very straightforward
Hint: Elements of F(alpha) are quotients of polynomials in in alpha with coefficients in F
Let me rephrase that
the problem is showing h(x) is constant
or wait, what do i need to show...
h(x) must be the zero polynomial. i need to show that this implies f(alpha) and g(alpha) are constant, i guess
Hint: multiply
Oh wait nvm you've got there
Where has h(x) come from?
multiplying by the denominators
But 0 times g(alpha)^n is 0
Why do you need to put the constant a_0 on the other side?
You're done!
hm i'm not so sure
Well ok, take your time
see i didn't use the premise that f(alpha)/g(alpha) is not in F yet
this should make it more clear how i got h(x)
i'm gonna eat dinner, i'll be back later
I think it needs transitivity of algebraicity in towers though.
Or not, nvm.
How do I show that x is not the square of a rational function?
For the proof about sqrt(pi)
For this one I can check the solutions manual
i think i can handle the case when the degrees of f and g differ
wait the solution manual doesn't worry about showing h(x) is nonzero
this is what it says
am i overthinking this?
Treat it analogously to showing that 2 is not a square of a rational number.
i think i got it, we have xg(x)^2=f(x)^2 and g(x) is nonzero
F[x] is an integral domain, so xg(x)^2 is nonzero and so is f(x)^2, and thus f(x) is nonzero
this means the left side has odd degree and the right side has even degree; a contradiction
thanks for the help π
can anyone explain how to obtain the penultimate statement about [a,T] x [ab] generating the semi direct product, and how to show isomorphism to S_3 x Z_2
the notation is kind of confusing, but I believe that <a,T> x <ab> does not generate T xx V, but rather tells you what the isomorphism is
namely $\phi: T \rtimes_{\varphi_1} V \xrightarrow{\sim} S_3 \times \mathbb Z_2$,
where $\phi( 1 \rtimes_{\varphi_1} \langle ab \rangle) = 1 \times \mathbb Z_2$ and $\phi(\langle a, T \rangle \rtimes_{\varphi_1} 1) = S_3 \times 1$
HChan
(the "<a,T>" is abusive-ish notation on the author's part, it's supposed to represent the subgroup of the semidirect product generated by T xx 1 and 1 xx a)
It's not really abuse of notation.
T is a subgroup of G and a is an element of G and <a, T> is the subgroup generated by a and T.
not properly though, it should be Tx1 and 1xa
G is not defined as an exterior semidirect product.
T and V are sylow subgroups
oh, right
But yeah the point <a, T> and <ab> are normal subgroups that don't intersect and generate G, so G is the direct product of them
how does one see that we have an isomorphism?
to write down the isomorphism explicity:
$\phi(ab) = (e,1)$ (I'm using $e$ here to denote the identity because $1$ is not the identity of $\mathbb Z_2$)
$\phi(a) = ((12),e)$
$\phi(t) = ((123),e)$ where $t$ is the generator for $T$.
HChan
you can check for yourself that this extends to a well-defined isomorphism
(you can take the presentation of S_3 to be {x^3,y^2,xyxy})
I'm pretty sure the latter isomorphism between <a,T> and S_3 is not unique, but this is the one I found
thanks. the way the solution i posted is written i thought there might be a more direct way to show isomorphism
well, there is an intuitive argument as to why they are isomorphic (and that's how I found phi), but I don't immediately see a simple way of showing the isomorphism that doesn't involve some kind of construction:
The order of a is 2 and the order of t is 3. So the obvious isomorphism is to just send a to (12) and t to (123). And S_3 is generated by those two permutations, so all we have to do is check this is well-defined
is it reasonable to say that the study of group representations is the study of ways a group can act linearly on a given vector space
hello, is this equation correct?
where V(I) is defined as follows
the equation is from a homework problem that asks me to prove it, but i don't think it's correct
Should be unions.
Or possibly
V(I1 \cap I2 \cap .... Ik)
alright nice thks
It would have been \cup then inside the V
\cap innside, \cup outside
Oh thats what you meant, i was slightly confused the "or possibly"
For (c), are we keeping in mind the fact that Aut(F27) acts on the roots of x^27-x which just happen to be all elements of F27
Im not sure if im thinking of it properly
I don't have an answer to your question, but for a) and b) is the answer phi(26) = 12 in both cases? I'm not sure I understand the difference between generating the field vs the multiplicative group
(b) was 12, the answer to (a) was 24
The solution for (a) just said the only subfield of F27 is F3. So there are 27-3 = 24 generators.
ah, that makes sense 
For the first part of c) the answer is 3 right? Since F_27 is a splitting field we have |Aut(F_27)| = |Gal(F_27 /F_3)| = [F_27 : F_3] = 3, correct?
In general the number of automorphisms is always less than or equal to the degree.
So just showing that the extension is Galois, or just explicitly giving the three automorphisms will do
As for the action I guess it's nice to keep in mind that the orbits of the Galois group are the conjugates of an element
So it just comes down to knowing the degree of the minimal polynomial of these elements
Orbits of the Galois group G mean you take an element x and consider the set gx for g in G?
With G acting on F27 for the first part
Thats what orbits are so I'd assume so :P
Sir Yes Sir π«‘
so i did this exercise that says that if G/Z(G) is cyclic, then G is abelian
but isnt G abelian if and only if it equals Z(G)?
yup
Is the degree of min poly of these elements all the same? So the size of all orbits are the same so number elements / size of orbit = # orbits?
So another way to put it is that G/Z(G) is cyclic iff it is trivial
i was trying to do this exercise where |G| = pq, and if p does not divide q-1, G is abelian
you case work on order of Z(G)
if |Z(G)| = p
Then |G/Z(G)| = q
which is prime
so cyclic
so abelian
oh
ok that makes sense
"Hence we may assume Z(G) = 1.
Sec. 4.4 Automorphisms 135
If every nonidentity element of G has order p, then the centralizer of every nonidentity
element has index q,"
(both p and q are prime)
why is the centralizer of every nonidentity element have index q?
Well, the centralizer of g is not everything (that would put g in the center), so can't have index 1.
And it contains the subgroup generated by g which has p elements, so has index at most pq/p
i got that, by why is it not just p?
Because p doesn't divide pq/p = q
Interesting exercise though. I would have thought one already knew Cauchy's theorem or the sylow theorems before this, making this step redundant
they actually did have cauchy's theorem before this
but they use it for a different variation on this
to prove that its cyclic
that kinda had me confused too, cuz i thought you just go like it has to have a group of order p, and a group of order q
there is only one trivial homomorphism Z/nZ to C, because C has no non-identity element which has finite order, right?
but now i have to find the homomorphism Z/nZ to C\ {0}
i meant group homomorphism
so in this case image of 1 has finite order which divides n
so total number of homorphism is n? Because it sum of all euler function of divisor of n?
If n=p_1 ... p_k for primes p_i (not necessarily distinct), is the composition series of Z/nZ always of length k+1? Since at each step you remove exactly one prime in order for G_i/G_{i+1} to be simple
k, as your series is
H_0 = 1 < Z_p1 < Z_p1p2 < ... < Z_p1...pk = H_k
Yes. Alternatively, the number of n^th roots of unity in β is n.
There are k+1 groups in that chain, but I don't know how we define the length of a composition series, does that mean it has length k? 
The length is usually defined to be the number of adjacent pairs.
Because e.g. that is the number of factors G_i/G_{i+1}, length(G β¨― H) = length(G) + length(H), etc.
I see, so the trivial series 1 < G has length 1?
Yes (unless G = 1 maybe).
Oh yeah thats a good reason for it
Yee
girls
i totally didnβt spent almost two weeks finding this snake-proof of the four-lemmas
Hey, in question (c), we are considering Aut(F27) as a group action on the set from (a), and then as a group action on the set from (b). How do we know that elements acting on those sets result in elements still in that set?
Well, carefully examine the definition of those sets and the definition of a field automorphism I suppose
A generator a for the field F means you take the smallest field containing a, and that should be F?
What is a generator of a field?
if you assume char 0 for instance, 1 generates Q
It is just what you said. An element such that the only subfield containing it is everything
Ok cool just wanted to make sure
Also the empty set does
It doesnβt sit right with me very much in the same vein that Z[x] is generated by x as a comm unital ring
It's a set of elements
oh, ok cause automorphisms should take generators to generators and units to units ...
Automorphism preserves most stuff really
yeah
That would be a generating set, not a generator :P
Thatβs pretty sick, I hadnβt seen that before
just do it with a spectral sequence next time it's much quicker
i dunno what a spectral sequence is 
My prof argued something in (c) saying Aut(F27) acts on those sets with no stabilizer. This would mean that (for the set in (a)) the size of each orbit is 3 right, so there would be 24/3 = 8 orbits. Aut(F27) acts with no stabilizer is because: the stabilizer of an element is a subgroup of G, and the only subgroup of Aut(F27) is {1} and Aut(F27), but the only elements fixed by Aut(F27) are those in F3 which are not in the set from (a) or (b)?
Wow only comment since 5 hours
I betrayed the channel for #advanced-number-theory 
Consider the standard action of $GL_2(\mathbb{Z})$ on $\mathbb{Z}^2$ by matrix multiplication.
Determine all the stabilisers of this action.
I am struggling to find the stabiliser of a general vector $v \in \mathbb{Z}^2$. I have tried just solving the equation $Av = v$, but have a few cases and am not sure if I have the correct answer/ if this is the correct approach.
Luke
Consider the action of A in GL2Z on an integral basis for Z^2
What does this mean?
See what happens just for v=(1,0) and w=(0,1).
Then, if a (nonzero) point of Z2 is stabilized, what is a condition required for the determinant of A?
The way youβre doing it originally should work I think though
Is it true that the only element of the stabiliser of a general $(x,y)$ not in the integral basis is $I$?
Luke
I used the condition that $det(A - I) = 0$
Luke
And $det(A) = \pm 1$
Luke
Yeah this is basically it. DetA has to be 1. If itβs negative it reverses the vector and therefore doesnβt stabilize it
So what I would do is find matrices which have determinant 1 and preserve the vectors (1, 0) and (0,1). You can write the vector (x,y) as x(1,0) + y(0,1) for x,y integers. Can you take it from there?
Yes, but are you sure this is an $\iff$ scenario?
Luke
Just because a matrix fixes the basis vectors thus fixes the vector, the converse is not obviously true
Should be
this doesn't seem right, what if a matrix has two distinct eigan values, it is a clear contradiction
While I was driving home I realized I spread misinformation mb dawg
Give me a sec I need paper for this
if i want to determine all group endomorphism of R to R, how can i do that? I know it gives f(q) = qf(1) for all q in Q, and if f is continuous then f(x) = xf(1) for all x in R. But when f is not continuous, how can i do that? Is there exist non-continuous function R to R such that f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y) ?
my guess it's likely going to be some kind of huge set determined by the free choice of the image of uncountably infinite many real numbers (that form a minimal generating set of R over Q), because you're essentially trying to understand the equivalence classes of real numbers that are algebraically dependent to each other over Q
Yep, plenty. The keyword here is Cauchy's functional equation. But any even slightly well-behaved solution usually has to be scalar multiplication.
E.g., for any other solution, its graph is dense in β^2 (in particular, it is discontinuous everywhere, is not monotone on any interval, etc.).
All group endomorphisms β β β are given by linear maps from β to β when it is considered as a vector space over β
Yes
The first proof I saw for the density of the graph of such a function is among my favourite proofs of all time
Can I get the result, I want to prove that?
One trick you can use. If you scale v down so that its entries are relatively prime. Then you can make a basis containing it.
But even without this it should be possible to just set up the equations
I have to show that Z cannot be Q-vector space.
If it is Q vector space then there exists ring homomorphism Q to End(Z) but since End(Z) is isomorphic to Z, as ring isomorphism.
And Q is field, so Q must be subring of Z, but then Q must be cyclic as additive structure but it is not, so it is not possible.
Is it correct?
End Z is ring isomorphic to Z right?
I would appreciate it if someone could validate my intuition
I have to find the order for the matrix, let A be that matrix then A^n = [ cos nx -sin nx, sin nx cos nx], but how can I choose n such that nx = 2kΟ ?
well you usually can't - most rotations don't have a finite order
Yes exactly
Can anyone verify it?
so.... what's the problem?
But the author asked to determine the order so here the order is not finite
are your rings unital? If not then no - Z is inital in Ring so there can only be one ring homomorphism Z -> Z
End Z is a set of all group homomorphism of Z
then yeah it's Z
So is it correct?
so there's two cases here, one where your angle isn't a rational multiple of 2*pi, and one where it is - the former case is what we've discussed
Yes
No I got it, I was confused
no worries
Hi, how can I improve this stupid proof ? do you have some suggestion to make it elegant ?
yeah it's fine
Okay thank you
As a general rule of thumb you donβt want to start a sentence with maths, you should have a sentence which leads into it
Also your second sentence is redundant, thatβs what linear independence is
I think the proof is about as simple as it could be, but it could probably be written better. Think of your proof as a conversation youβre having with someone, trying to convince them itβs true. It should read like that
yepp I note
ok i'll improve, thanks for your advices
I want to understand the group of rotation of the cube, or say some rigid body, how can I understand it?
Do you have an idea how to show rigourously that the degree of the field extension Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(7)) over Q(sqrt(2)) is two ?
well it's either degree 1 or 2, so show that sqrt(7) isn't in Q(sqrt(2))
or show that the minimal polynomial of sqrt(7) over Q(sqrt(2)) is quadratic, which is essentially equivalent
All subrings (not necessarily with unit) of the rationals are given by localizations of Z at some multiplicatively closed subset of Z right? So to characterize all subrings I must characterize all such subsets?
Oh I guess also nZ for some n as well whatever
You mean subrungs of the rationals, right? Localisations of Z are not typically going to consist of integers
But yeah I think these will look like localisations of nZ for some n. For example 3Z[1/2] I think is an example?
the only invertible elements of Z are 1 and -1
localisation changes that
so they cant be subrings of the integers
Yea I meant subrings of rationals whoops
Ok so I think that identifies all unital subrings of the rationals
Without unit though seems trickier
I don't think it changes much
maybe identify the nonzero positive integer n closest to 1 contained in your subrng, and then try to prove if its a localisation of nZ
Ah but 3Z[1/2] is not unital, is it?
What I mean is the rung generated by 3Z and 1/2, so the 'localisation' of 3Z at {2, 4, 8, ...} whatever that means
But (2) is not a multiplicatively closed subset of 3Z
So I guess it's not a localization
That's sort of my hangup
This is really obvious, but just to be sure: Z/4 and Z/2 x Z/2 have isomorphic composition factors, right?
Yeah
I guess I could just describe it as nZ[1/p : p in S] for some S subset of the primes
And forget the word localization exists
oh how nice the world would be if isomorphic composition factors implied isomorphism
Semisimple rings say hello
Here's a thought. This is a localisation of the Z-module 3Z. So there is some sense in which it is a localisation. I don't know how it would work in rung-land, but it's an idea
Do isomorphic composition factors imply isomorphic vibes atleast?
There are some properties that rely only on the composition series, sure
For example solvability
they imply equal cardinality in the finite case
:P
It's hard to pin down which properties two groups with the same composition series will share, I think
I think it's quite subtle
sometimes can make all the difference though
Yup
I will introduce a new property of groups
a group G satisfies the shoinky property if and only if the free product of its composition factors is isomorphic to the automorphism group of some boolean algebra
I've got a property that is implied by isomorphic composition factors
β¨
Grothendieck group moment
I don't really know much about (algebraic) K-theory but it is arguably the study of exactly this, isn't it lol
$\mathbb{R} \oplus \mathbb{R} \text{ and } \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}$
and if the former makes sense or not
(in the context of algebra stuff like group rings and fields
because i was looking at the ring of integers and the quotients of it and the book uses the "direct product" but doing stuff like Z/4Z x Z/5Z but I was taught in group theory to use the Z/4Z oplus Z/5z
and i dont know if it is because the latter was the additive structure
and now i am trying to talk about it as an entire ring
what is the diff between
$\oplus \text{ and } \times$
As a set you can consider them the same thing
like i dont konw if the symnols are specific to specific to looking at it as a group vs a ring
or group under addition vs group under multiplication
π
Any nontrivial ring will never be a group under multiplication
You are right, we talk about R x S when we are talking about products of rings
When we are talking about Abelian groups (or modules) we want to talk about \oplus, the direct sum
okay
I am thinking of a good way to describe why we want it to be this way
Well, me neither. But the Grothendieck group at least is precisely about ignoring the extension problem.
Here are a few reasons:
- In the sense of category theory, the (finite) product of rings is a categorical product, but not a categorical sum. Whereas if we look at Abelian groups, it is both the product and a sum.
- In the case that we are taking the product of infinitely many rings, when we look at the underlying group structure, this is different from the infinite sum of the underlying rings.
I suppose we use \oplus for modules because it is then easier to see the summands (components you sum) as submodules, which is often easier
i guess i dont even have a concrete defintion of what these mean
also has to do with the subtle (but important) difference of infinite products and infinite direct sums, and I've personally seen infinite direct sums more in module theory than products so I guess thats why they prefer it
like this is pretty much how the book defines it
Yup
(also something something classification of finitely generated modules over PID?)
so my impression is it is just to note that we are not just looking at the componetwise additive structure but now we have also this notion of componentwise multiplication
and so the x is used
π€·ββοΈ
basically
It is fair to say that it is mostly convention :)
not sure how the details pan out if you take non finite or amount of these products or sums
or if that even makes sense
I use oplus when I am using its coproduct property and times when I use its product property so true
Let's not worry about that for now. You'll come across it later. I just wanted to explain that there is a genuine difference in the infinite case.
π got it
I dont think i will
but thanks for believing in me π₯Ή
what if you have to use both in the same proof
go go gadget change notation without telling?
Lmao
I actually just haphazardly pick one tbh
I think I do this actually
I think of it as signalling that the proof uses the identification between them.
I simply dont work with structures which allow a nice \oplus π
Unless itβs infinite in which caseβ¦
dont have to choose when you can't even define "finitely many nonzero values"
Holy Moly the font!
Maybe I could summarise by saying:
When you write R (+) R, I think "that's an Abelian group!" whereas when you write R x R I think "that's a ring!"
This is true af
thats about what i got from it
well
omw to view R x R as the underlying multiplicative monoid
it is quite nice
comic sans??
Comic Neue
just think, someone approved my preamble
and now we all get to enjoy the result from it
they need to be fired
i aint seen a font like that since elementary school
immediately
It's genuinely a well-made font.
And the choice is obviously to rile you up ya dinguses
True.
Comic sans is less well-made than comic neue but yes, it still stands
boytjie im listening to aphex twin rn
whats the difference between them?
based
They are different typefaces made by different people. But here is a side-by-side comparison of one of the fonts:
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/2/20/Comic_Neue_and_Comic_Sans_comparison_(DYK).svg/1920px-Comic_Neue_and_Comic_Sans_comparison_(DYK).svg.png
I would too but I'm too busy listening to dnb artists maybe 2 people in the netherlands have heard of
its way more bearable
at least
What is .svg/.svg.png? 
There are just lumpy bits in Comic Sans that have been removed in Neue. The kerning is better. The proportions are better imo. There are also several other fonts in the Comic Neue family
its the future
oh yea what were some good dnb artists
i forgot about ur suggestions
ok
IMANU
Buunshin
(I'm seeing them live in a month THEYRE COMING TO MY CITY EXCUSE ME)
(the artist I was referring to at that moment was Circumference)
Mozey, Chase and Status, 4amKru, Bou, Gray, Phibes
Nia archives too of course, but this isnβt too algebraic
Chase and Status, Bou are peak
Yes it is, Noisia's logo is 4 circles
Which is like algebraic geometry
So close enough
I'm guessing you do it subtly though, like:
$R \oplus S$ blah blah $R \rotatebox[origin=c]{-12}{$\oplus$} S$ blah blah $R \rotatebox[origin=c]{-24}{$\oplus$} S$ blah blah $R \rotatebox[origin=c]{-45}{$\oplus$} S$
sheddow
Nononono otimes and oplus are way different
Coproduct in CRing vs coproduct in R'-Mod where R and S are naturally R'-modules from context

The tensor product would be a coproduct in Rβ-alg
I mean at least I would implicitly be taking the tensor product over Rβ

Defeated by my own words
What if you have different R' though
Is a composition series of G basically just a path through the tree (or lattice I guess) of its normal subgroups?
such that the quotient of each successive pair of subgroups is simple, yes
you described a subnormal series
No
Its in the lattice of subnormal subgroups
(Such that each quotient is simple)
good point. That's a subtle but important detail
although honestly we might as well just write $1 \triangleleft H_1 \triangleleft ... \triangleleft H_n \triangleleft G$ at this poin t it's just the easier way of thinking about i t
β» Wew Lads Tbh β»
But evidently 2Z_4 is not a normal subgroup of D_8
le 1 < Z(D_8) < C_4 < D_8 has arrived
Ah yes, I just realized: if H is normal in G, there may be a subgroup N < H that is normal in H but not in G, right?
Yee
Subnormal series are very powerful tho
Ive seen them used in automorphism tower stuff
Very.. weird proof
I'm trying to think of an explicit one where there must be at least one subgroup that's subnormal. S_4 doesn't work
But if we're looking at paths in the lattice of subnormal subgroups we can skip this qualification right? Because a path by definition can't "skip" any nodes, so each subgroup must be maximal
No
Take the subnormal series
1 < G
Lol
ah got it, C_3 \wr C_3 should work
Freaky ahh product of groups
You misunderstand "path" haha
I tend to call it a chain
C_2 wr C_3 probs doesn't work cause Q_8 is Hamiltonian
(I.e. a chain in a poset (P, <) is a sequence of elements
a_0 < a_1 < a_2 < ... < a_n
Not necessarily distinct)
You mean in the case G is not simple? I'm thinking about the full lattice of subnormal subgroups of G, so there would be a maximal subgroup between 1 and G. Like, take a group G, draw a tree of all its subnormal subgroups, then you can draw a path from the root G to a leaf, which would necessarily be the trivial group (I'm talking about paths as in computer science, dunno if there is a better term for lattices)
maybe this only makes sense for finite groups
so in the remark is K0=K'' and then AutK0(F)=K0'=K'''=K'? is that what it's saying?
Also "chain of subnormal subgroups wouldnt even be correct lol"
Dumb me
A subnormal series is a chain of subgroups
1 = H_0 < H_1 < ... < H_n = G
Where each is a normal subgroup of the next
You can make it a tree by just not merging the nodes though, right? Either way, I think it doesn't matter, since you can draw a path from the root to a leaf anyways
But thats very counterproductive
Just use a lattice
Its way easier to visualise
yeah, I guess 
A tree would just convolute things
but anyways, my idea is that if I want to find a composition series (or actually all composition series) of a finite group, I can just draw the lattice of subnormal subgroups, then each path from the root of the lattice correspond to a composition series, is that correct?
No, the problem is that its not just a chain of subnormal subgroups
Its a chain of subgroups such that each is normal in the next
.
So i guess there your tree idea is good?
But still, what you usually do is take a subnormal series and refine it until its maximal right
I might be formulating myself poorly, but how about this: I start with G, then find all maximal normal subgroups N_1, N_2, ... Then for each N_i I find all maximal subgroups that are normal in N_i, say N_i_1, N_i_2, ... until I eventually hit {1}. Then for example G > N_1 > N_1_2 > ... {1} is a composition series, and all composition series can be found this way. Does that make sense?
Yeah
Is there some easy way to show that this is just sgn(pi)? (sigma is a permutation aswell)
if someone could confirm my understanding that'd be appreciated
How are you defining sgn?
by definiton its almost exactly the same as on the picture, but we replace sigma(i) with i and sigma(j) = j. This thing seems obvious to me but for some reason I cant think of a good argument why. So far Ive just written that its because sigma is a bijection
Actually that argument does work if you are careful lol
Just justify why it's okay considering that sigma may change the order
Hm thats weird, I got this product by trying to prove that sgn(pi sigma) = sgn(pi) sgn(sigma) and so far I got to sgn(pi sigma) = sgn(sigma) * the thing u see above
oh okay so it works
yeah but thats the part i have trouble with
Probably the best way is to notice: what happens to each term when you switch iand j?
well nothing really happens
Exactly
Hm so maybe a good argument would be:
sigma is a bijection so every pair (i, j) is achieved by some (sigma(k), sigma(l)) but it might be in the wrong order (i>j), but that doesnt change the product.
because what Id like to do is just write this product and remove the sigmas
Yes exactly
Another equivalent thing would be to notice you can just index the product by unordered pairs of distinct things
So that the ordering goes away entirely lol
By the way, the reason I asked which definition you used is that there many different equivalent definitions - probably the best is that the sgn function is the unique group homomorphism S_n -> {-1, 1} which sends transpositions to -1
Yes, Ive seen some other definitions. Its probably defined this way because we were doing permutations prior to homomorphisms, so we didnt officially now what a homomorphism is. Personally I always with of sgn as of (-1)^number of moves to sort the permutation
anyway, thanks a lot for help
Npp
Does this proof look good?
the second to last line should read "... implies a has finite order"
I think you're overcomplicating this a little bit. For example, you don't at all need to deal with the case that H=G seperately.
But yeah the logic is fine
Is that the only part that's a bit extra fluff?
I guess you could show it directly that finite order => in H => identity
Would be a little cleaner, without the contradiction
This is what I'd do too
But for the rest I agree with Boytjie, nothing wrong with it :3
alright, i'll write up that approach separately for completeness sake, thank you all
Dedication
Hmm, yeah, I think so... But I'm not sure thinking about the fixed group of the fixed field of the fixed group is the easiest way
btw, what book is this? Is using apostrophe for the fixed field/group common?
hungerford and I'm not sure but it's what we do in class
but in class we went over that
- L'''=L' for all subfields
- H'''=H' for all subgroups of G
- F is Galois iff K''=K
this K0 remark seemed similar and I wanted to make sure I was understanding correctly
but like yeah basically it's Galois if K is the only thing fixed by G (or, alternatively, if anything outside of K can be moved by something in G), right?
like that's the basic idea of a Galois extension?
something like F=Q(2^1/3) isn't Galois because any root of x^3-2 in F (i.e. 2^1/3) must be mapped to another root. but the only root in F is 2^1/3. so the only map in G is the identity, which fixes all of F.
my intuition for a Galois extensions is that it is a looser form of algebraic completeness
am I on the right track?
so the extension contains everything that is "algebraically indistinguishable" from things in the extension
Yes. It also says that F/K is Galois iff K'' = K (and so F/K0 is Galois for a general algebraic extension).
Yeah, that sounds correct π The apostrophe is a map between subgroups and intermediate fields, which is called Ο and Ο here. For any field extension, Galois or not, this is what's called a Galois connection, which is basically a weak form of isomorphism between preorders. When the extension is Galois, this connection is upgraded to an actual isomorphism, ie. E = Ο(Ο(E)) and G = Ο(Ο(G)), and the lattices of intermediate fields and subgroups are isomorphic (but reversed)
No, but it often helps to locally introduce notation for something you're going to talk about a lot and I think that's what it is.
I'm not sure I like that the apostrophe is used for the maps in either direction, but I guess with context it's not that big a deal
Galois connectionnn
Peak
Also this theorem is pretty nice, it gives some context to why it's called a normal extension
Actually, since Galois theory played a role in motivating group theory, I suspect it's the other way round.
Which raises the question of where whichever one came first got the word 'normal' from.
Yeah, good point. I suspect they consulted the list of overused terms in mathematics, or maybe that was actually its first entry 
is it true that there is no injective homomorphism S_n - A_(n + 1) for any n? I think yes it is true for every n > 1
it is easy to check that when n is even it is not possible, so we have to consider the case when n is odd
Now n = 3 is easy, for n >= 5, for this if there exist a subgroup of order n! in A_( n+ 1) then there will be non -trivial homomorphism A_( n + 1) -> S_( n + 1 )/2, and it cannot be injective homomorphism so it implies A_(n+1) has non-trivial normal subgroup, which is not possible
finite p group with more than one maximal subgroup
how to think about the number of least(max) number of such maximal subgroup?
Name of book?
does the first equation work if I_1,..., I_k were just sets
or must they be ideals?
what if you consider the sets {x,x-1} and {x,x-2}
then V({x,x-1}β©{x,x-2})=V({x})={0}
but V({x,x-1})βͺV({x,x-2})=β
oh yeh that's true thanks
if $|a|=m$ and $|b|=n$ in an Abelian group, then $|ab|=mn$ if gcd$(m,n)=1$ otherwise idk if there is formula for $ab$\
like in $Z/4Z$, $|2|=2$ but $|2+2|=|4|=1$ idk how to relate these results.
Abstract Afzal
NORMAL SUBGROUP. According to Kramer (p. 388), Galois used the adjective "invariant" referring to a normal subgroup.
According to The Genesis of the Abstract Group Concept (1984) by Hans Wussing, "The German Normalteiler (normal subgroup) goes back to H Weber , Lehrbuch der Algebra, vol. 1, Braunschweig, 1895. p.511 and is possibly linked to Dedekind's term Teiler (divisor), which was employed in ideal theory" [Dirk Schlimm].
I don't think Galois really gave names to types of extensions, as most was framed purely in terms of roots of polynomials
It will divide the lcm at least
If d is the gcd, then
a^d and b^d has relatively prime orders, hence there product has order lcm/gcd. So the order should be a multiple of lcm/gcd
G is nilpotent iff Phi(G) is nilpotent
why every rng is an ideal of some ring
A set generates G iff its image generates G/Phi(G).
In particular all minimal generating sets has the same number of elements, equal to the dimension of G/Phi(G), and an element of the Frattini subgroup is always redundant in a generating set
Freely adjoining a unit to your rng gives a ring which has your rng as an ideal.
In fancy abstract nonsense words the inclusion of the category of rings into the category of rngs has an adjoint.
And there is an equivalence of categories between Rng and the slice category Ring/Z
ahh nilpotent, was thinking of that
haha, i think its after this section of sylow
i vaguely can recall this: nilpo iff all sylow subgroups normal
now the "analogy" to being analogous makes more sense, for whatever that means
what is the ring containg all continuous function with compact support as an ideal
i dont know any category theory yet and may i will not
Like you're asking what you get from this construction? Otherwise it's an ideal in the ring of all continuous function
This construction would just add in the constant functions with integer values (and then any sums of those with the original functions)
how did you come to know this?
sorry i am blind enough to see this

if l = lcm
Then (ab)^l = a^l b^l
which equals...
oh i see
im confused with this proof how can we choose the value a so that it has the prime decomposition we want it to have? in this case a = I times the product of the Q_i^{e_i}. Also A is a dedekind domain
movie scene
Oh yeah, I think I've seen that in Bourbaki.
(it's Aluffi if you weren't sure btw)
Based
Assuming that we know that if sgn(pi) = 1 then pi can be written as a product of cycles (1 i j) how do we show that if sgn(pi) = 1 then pi is a product of cycles (1 2 i)? We dont have to use the first part, I jusy mentioned it because it might be useful
What is (1 2 j) (1 2 i) (1 2 i)?
(i j 1) = (1 i j)
holy crap
how did you come up with it so fast
like really ive been thinking about it for at least two hours, but I focused on a different approach
Is there a similar trick if we want pi to be a product of (i (i+1) (i+2)) cycles? Im really sorry about those silly questions, but Im really bad at this stuff sometimes.
Well, if (1 2 i) generates it, that means (1 i j) is a product of such. So just try to multiply some of them together and there you go.
I gues more or less the same should work for your other example, though you may need to do some induction
ookay thanks a lot
A useful general concept is that if s and t are permutations, then
s t s^-1
is the same as t except with the symbols reshufled according to s
)
