#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 309 of 1
oh yeah lol
Or just this lol
ok ok so for example K -> F_3 exists if K has 3 elements and is iso right
all are iso i think
right?
There's only one ring with 3 elements yeah
What is [R : Q]?
Its prolly not a finite extension of Q eh
lol
e moment pi moment
Its transcendental
Finite extensions are always algebraic
It's the continuum, |R|
does there only exist at most one field homomorphism to the field of rationals?
Yes, that would have to be an isomorphism, and Q has trivial automorphism group
Can you say that in more words
are you saying that If F is a field, then there is at most ring homomorphism F -> Q?
Enpeace is also correct if this is what you are saying
I dont see any other interpretation
They may be trying to ask which fields embed in Q
in more words
Kinda the same question
Yes, but we ought to approach the question differently :)
💥
how does one prove that. i kno whow ot prove q has trivial automorphism group
Third line, by the Euclidean algorithm and row operations, we may assume that f_1 has leading coefficient 1, degree d, and that deg f_i < d for j ≠ 1.
I don't get it
Q has no subfield other than itself, and any ring homomorphism to a nonzero ring must be injective, hence by the FIT any ring homomorphism from a field into Q must be an isomorphism
are they divide f_i, i =2,3..,n by f_1?
We can also be hella pedestrian: let F be a field of char 0, x in F irrational over Q. Then x can't map to 0 (else what happens with x^-1?), so it maps to a rational a/b. So bx maps to an integer a. So bx/a maps to 1. Now x is irrational, so bx/a is still irrational, so bx/a - 1 is nonzero. But it maps to 0.
Isn't Q having no subfields equivalent to the statement that if f : F -> Q is a field hom then F = Q? Or are there easier ways to show that Q has no subfields?
I should have phrased it positively. If x in char 0 is nonzero, it maps to a rational a/b, so bx/a - 1 maps to 0. Hence x must already be a/b.
My proof idea was this: there is a unique field hom from Q to any char 0 field F, in particular id : Q -> Q is unique. Then if f : F -> Q there is a hom g : Q -> F, and since id is the only hom Q -> Q we know that f o g = id, so f is surjective, therefore F = Q
There are easier ways, namely by the fact that any subfield of Q must contain 1, hence Z, hence Frac Z = Q
Nice
can i get a finitely stably free module which is not a free?
alternatively
any subfield of Q must contain every integer a, hence 1/a as it is a subfield, thus b/a for all integers a, b
hint?
i don't know much about modules, which is not free, one is Z/nZ over Z but not sure about stably free
(2, 1+sqrt(-5)) in Z[sqrt(-5)] should be an example.
is it trivial example?
Trivial in what way?
i mean i just know the definition of stably free but i don't know how to come up with example
Well, it's not so easy to come up with examples in general.
But to check an example you can just come up with a finite free resolution
okay thank you jagr
I think maybe, I made a mistake and this example is not stably free
how R noetherian helps here?
What are u learning rn? ^
Quillen-Suslin Theorem
Does anyone know the classification of all subgroups of $\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}_p$, ex. $\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}_2$?
lacchu
p prime ?
I'd assume so
It doesn't change much anyway
why?
what do you mean by n+1 classes ?
In the case of Z times Z2 for example
We can classify the subgroups by taking a subgroup of Z, which is kZ, then {0}, or {1}, or {0,1}
Make sentences plz I d'ont get you
I'm asked to give a classification (and proof) of the forms of subgroups of Z times Z2 after having proved that all subgroups of Z are of the form kZ for k in N.
So you think we have n+1 distinct subgroups in Z x Zp ?
I'm not so sure about the generalization but I think there are 3 types of subgroups of Z x Z2
Fact
There are n+1 distinct subgroups of Zn x Zn
Could you describe them for me? I’m not sure that sounds right
doesn't Z2 x Z2 have 4 subgroups?
Should be 5 total including the trivial ones - {e}, Z2xZ2, Z2x{e}, {e}xZ2, and the diagonal {(0,0), (1,1)}
The gist of it, is that subgroups of a direct product either look like a direct product, or are almost like a direct product in the sense that they are one after you quotient out some kind of algebraic “resonance” between the two factor groups
iirc if you tack on the extra condition that the two groups are algebraically independent (i.e. there does not exist any quotients of the two that are isomorphic), then the subgroups should all be direct products (someone verify this for me please)
Intuitively, its because algebraic independence forbids any “resonance”, so any subgroup collapses into a direct product
Is a finitely presented group with exponent finite? I know it is not always the case if the group is finitely generated, but maybe the condition of finitely related is enough to make it finite
oh yeah i missed {(0,0),(1,1)}
for a problem, i proved that for a list of pairwise comaximal ideals I1,...,Ik that
R=Ik+intersection_1^(k-1)Ij
but is this just like... not as much something to prove and more just like a better and more intuitive way to think about comaximal ideals?
like i was thinking of it as just each pair individually generate the ring, but like maybe it's better to think that you can complete any single ideal into the ring by just adding stuff that's in all the others? it sure as hell made proving the CRT easier at least haha
i'm not sure if i'm quite making sense...
I may be giving bad advice here, but I feel like this is subsumed by CRT and is better remembered as a consequence of it (or an intermediate lemma along the way to proving it): indeed, if x ≡ 1 (mod I_k) and x ≡ 0 (mod I_1, ..., I_{k-1}), then 1 = (1-x) + x shows your comaximality.
Specifically, I feel like it shouldn't be necessary to remember any more than the following: (i) pairwise comaximal ⇒ product = intersection (ii) CRT (iii) I, J comaximal ⇒ I + J + K = R ⇒ I^k + J^l + K^m = R for any positive integers k, l, m (similarly for more ideals).
I might decide this is a terrible claim and take it back later.
If R is a local commutative ring with maximal ideal m and M an R-module such that M/mM is finitely generated, M need not be finitely generated. A counterexample is ℤ[1/p] over the localisation ℤ_{(p)}, which becomes 0 modulo (p). Can this be done without completely killing M modulo m?
More precisely, does there exist R, m, M such that M/mM is finitely generated and non-zero and M has no non-zero finitely generated quotient or at least summand? (Otherwise we can "cheat" by adding a finitely generated module to a counterexample.)
Wait, M/mM is a finitely generated quotient. No finitely generated summand then...
I'm confused lol
Oh okay you clarified
Well why should M have any nontrivial proper summands to begin with? That should give easy counterexamples too
That's just to prevent a counterexample like ℤ[1/p] (+) ℤ/pℤ.
I'm curious if there's an example where the non-fg part is "really" responsible for the non-zero fg quotient.
Question: what is Z[1/p]?
Localisation at element p is the general thing
So Z[1/p] is the smallest ring containing Z and 1/p?
Smallest subring of Q yes
Thx
That is in general what the square brackets means ig
But ye you can do this even when you can't talk about Q
Like given a commutatve ring A and an element f you can formally invert f to get A[1/f]
And there is a natural map A -> A[1/f] which may not be injective (indeed we can have A[1/f] = 0 even if A isn't 0)
This is all true, but I only really need its module structure, specifically because it has the presentation <a0, a1, ... | an = p a_{n+1}> that ensures each generator is killed modulo p.
Is A[1/f] the ring of fractions when taking the multiplicatively closed subset to be the {f^n}
if u \in End(M) for a module M then if im(u) \cap \ker(u) = 0 then must im(u) + ker(u) = M?
wait nevermind its not true
peel off your skin
WAT
I guess this is false even just over fields
with like the right shift on k^N which is injective but not surjective
Similarly for multiplication by 2 on Z
For the same reason lol
true for fin dim vector spaces, thought it would be the same
but I guess modules suck
If you assume the module is Noetherian you might get something nice
So these conditions are equivalent to ker(u^2) = ker(u) and im(u) = im(u^2).
Ah, of course.
Well even just oo dim vector spaces
It is true for finite-length modules, because len(ker(u)) + len(im(u)) = len(ker(u^2)) + len(im(u^2)) = len(M).
it's true for inf dim vector spacse?
Ig no cause of the multiplication by 2 on Z example
No, I gave a counterexample
ah yeah makes sense
No that's precisely what potato is saying: the finite-dimensionality is what's making it nice
And indeed this means you can do this whenever you don't have a field (or 0)
And Raghuram has identified a suitable generalisation to modules
so it's not modules that are nasty, it's infinite things
It might be true for Artinian modules...
I could believe that
yeah that sounds right
Woah you guys are acting like mathematicians rn
Away from infinity and before!
Are yall mathematicians r smth
No i will not do such a thing
Hope you're having a good trip
You'll do great
Thankss I hope it'll be ok
Just practise diligently
like some kind of.... clerk perhaps. some kind of diligent one.
I have learnt by now to always prepare for pedantry by writing footnotes in my notes lol
Not from him but in general
If A is a Dedekind domain with field of fractions A, K its field of fractions, L/K finite Galois and B the integral closure of A in L; and p is a prime of A, is it true that when we base-change to A_p, B becomes a product over the primes lying above p?
Interesting; do you experience people nitpicking a lot in talks?
Well this is a bit more like a formal reading group set up and people often do this with grad students ig
Like more nitpicky than they would be if it were somebody from another uni or whatever
Ah, OK.
I see.
Idk how one is supposed to do this for maths talks aha
How do you mean?
I mostly just ensure I write up smth nice beforehand so I have good notes to go from
You really just practise the talk until you're fluent
You shouldn't have to check your notes every five seconds, for example
But idk if people like go over it a ton and memorise bits or whatever lol
Yeah sure
It may be too late for me now anyway lmao
is splitting presered by direct limits?
Wait, everything is a subring of L so there is no chance of this.
Splitting is preserved by any functor whatsoever
I didnt know that^
that's op
Ong
It's just that gf = 1 ⇒ F(g) F(f) = 1...
That functors preserve retracts is a very useful fact
Ohh bruh
- an ses splits iff some section-retraction pair exists
/ that a direct sum is a coproduct IG
When does one learn that kind of math?
could you elaborate why is this equiv to splitting?
Tbh this is mostly just smth you will learn at some point doing algebra or whatever lol
Sure, as soon as I know which kind you're talking about.
Though not in undergrad prolly lol
I think ive been kind of bored with galois theory and number theory rn
can't relate in my (5th? 15th?) number theory arc rn
Cuz for an ses to split u need fg = 1
you're just constantly travelling along a tiiiny arc segment of that arc
Well more specifically ig look at the splitting lemma
ohh
Yeah number theory is a bit interesting i guess. I think we are only now finally getting to the more interesting bits with fractional ideals or class number things i guess
Its an intro class so idk much
Ah a class
Yea lol
sections get sent to sections and you use one of th equivalent def. for splitting?
which of the like 4 definitions is this referring to?
The one with lectures and maybe assignments and/or exams.
oh yeah
sorry, but what is the other way kind of splitting in which what I said is not true? I am prob missing something very basic
groups and modules have different notions of splitting, in a sense
Why?
It's true for all of them, but you wanted me to explain what "splitting" has to do with pairs (g, f) satisfying gf = 1, and that depends on which kind you're talking about.
are you familiar with this?
not sure if that's what you are asking
Yep. I was wondering about just localising.
If A, B, C are just regular groups, then r having a section need not imply B = AxC or q having a retraction like for modules
ah, ic ic
but then the sequence is still called split
OK actually I've only seen this for the fields, let me think for a minute if the ring version follows obviously.
WHY does it use both the big and small \mathcal{O}
I
Neukirch's taste is incomprehensible to mere mortals
I thought my notation was bad /j
r having a section means there exist a p map back into B with ..
with rp = id_C
Oh so they differ by something in the kernel
it means that r fixes the image of p in B
i.e. every element can be represented as a pair (a, c) where a in A, c in C, due to the sequence also being exact
Ok im tryna think about it
multiplication then is of the form
(a, c) * (a', c') = (a \phi_c(a') , c c')
for some automorphism \phi_c of A
Grad school is too quick for me, i wish i could spend more time thinking about earlier concepts
OK, so O is free, so we can view the LHS as sitting inside the tensor product with \hat{K} = K (⨯)_K \hat{K}, and since O (⨯)_o K = L, that's L (⨯) \hat{K}. Of course the RHS sits inside \prod \hat{L}_w. Using a basis of O, the LHS is elements whose components lie in \hat{o}; similarly for the RHS upon choosing bases of \hat{O}_w over \hat{o}. Now if we can just see that the change of basis is defined over \hat{o}...
Maybe one just has to redo the proof with fields.
did you do undergrad in math?
Yeah but i didnt get into theory much
Wouldve been cool if i did
I did a lot of applied stuff back then and also didnt know how much i liked algebra and other further math topics
All i knew was calculus / analysis type of math and so i thought i just didnt like math too much
ah, interesting
Because i didnt take any algebra besides some theory lin alg course that , looking back now, i COMPLETELY didnt understand yet somehow got an A+ 😂
Makes no sense
I already proved part a. Is the proof for part b just stating that all ideals are left ideals?
No, because you've proven that Ann M is an ideal
But (b) asks about Ann K for any subset K of R
Ah ok thank you!
were your guys's math programs in undergrad really fking hard? Because the school i went to for undergrad made their pure math courses so damn hard it scared me away from ever doing it
averages of like 50-60% when all the students there are really good students
Is it true that any non-zero prime ideal of an integral domain contains a minimal non-zero prime ideal?
Probably higher than 50-60 on average (maybe 75? 70?), but it was pretty tough.
never went to school 🦊
Thats like trivially true for pids right
Yes, or more generally any 1-dimensional integral domain.
All non-zero prime ideals are minimal prime ideals.
Dedekind domains
Probably some UFDs that I can't come up with
This is a bit esoteric, but valuation rings with value group dense in ℝ
That is over my head atm lol
Roughly speaking, anything like k[X_1, ..., X_n]/(f_1, ..., f_{n-1}) (more intuitively, the solution set to the polynomial equations should be 1-dimensional).
Hmm, I really don't have any simple example that isn't basically "Dedekind domain" though.
Even more generally, if every prime ideal p has a finite height (maximum length n of a chain of prime ideals p_0 ⊊ ... ⊊ p_n = p) such as if the ring is Noetherian, or more generally if there are no infinite descending chains of prime ideals. (Because you just keep shrinking the prime ideal until you can't any more.)
Also, any UFD: any prime ideal is generated by irreducible elements, so P ≠ 0 ⇒ P contains an irreducible x ⇒ (x) ⊆ P is a minimal non-zero prime ideal.
Nice 👍
Why are prime ideals generated by irreducible elements?
Oh i think i got it
If x ∈ P, one of the irreducible factors p of x has to lie in P, and x ∈ (p) ⊆ P.
P has a finite generating set of irreducible elements?
Oh is it prime ideals only contain irreducible elements
That makes sense
Not necessarily finite (e.g. the ideal generated by all the variables in a polynomial ring in infinitely many variables).
Well, no: (2) contains 4, for example. Rather that if it's prime, I can find some generating set which is just irreducible elements.
Oh
And (x) is a prime ideal because x is irreducible? Irreducible element always implies prime element?
For a UFD specifically.
Indeed, it's false in a Dedekind domain that is not a UFD. For example, in ℤ[sqrt(-5)], 6 = 2⨯3 = (1-sqrt(-5))⨯(1+sqrt(-5)) and you can show that all factors are irreducible, but none of them divides the other. So eg (1+sqrt(-5)) divides 2⨯3 but neither 2 nor 3.
Is it true that if R ⊆ S is an inclusion of integral domains such that S is finitely generated over R, and R is a Jacobson ring, then R and S have the same Krull dimension?
No
Do you mean finitely generated as an algebra?
If so just look at like Z < Z[x]
Right, that was dumb.
So it's only closed points which pull back to closed points...
What about dim S ≥ dim R?
Or rather: is it possible to reduce the dimension of a Jacobson integral domain by a localisation inverting a single (or finitely many) elements?
i mean there is always 0 in h(R/p) \cap f(M1)
let s be in ann(m) (which is nontrivial) for m nonzero in an R module M. let S={1,s,s^2,...} which is a multiplicative system. then we can define the localization S^-1M right? and in the localization, and for any x in <m>, we will have x/s'=0/s' for any s'? meaning that we can have a nonzero/s'=0/s' even if 0 is not in S?
so in general, if we have something in S that lies in a nontrivial annihilator of some of M, then that element will be... equal(?)/congruent to 0 in the localization?
am I right?
Yep.
To be precise, define (0 : S)_M := {m : sm = 0 for some s in S} (this is a submodule iff S is multiplicative). Then the kernel of the natural map M → S^{-1}M: m ↦ m/1 is precisely (0 : S)_M.
This is the reason why equality in a localisation is defined by m/s = n/t ⇔ u(mt-ns) = 0 for some u in S --- you need to kill anything if it annihilates/is annihilated by u, or u can't be invertible.
My exams are over, now i will soon start AA (one of the subjects I am excited to start) 
As the special case of this where R is an integral domain and S = R \ {0}, the kernel of M → S^{-1}M is precisely the torsion submodule of M. S^{-1}M kills the torsion submodule of M and turns the quotient into a vector space over S^{-1}R (the field of fractions of R).
Hi, I've been trying this problem for a while, but I can't seem to find where to start. Could someone help?😃
Hint: I write p(x) = x^2 + x + 1. Note that (x-1)p(x) = x^3 - 1, so the roots of p(x) are primitive 3rd roots of unity.
I know that the roots are equal to $e^{2i\pi/3}$ and $e^{4i\pi/3}$. But what do i do with this information? @coral spindle
joel
No, this is not true
We are not working in C.
There is no meaning to those symbols in F_p.
I am saying that to be a root of p(x), x must be a primitive 3rd root of unity
Hopefully you know when the quotient F[x]/( p(x) ) is a field based on a commonly understood property of polynomials. So use this property and the observation above.
rightt so for example $X^2+X+1$ is reducible in $F_3[X]$.
joel
So then the quotient is not a field
by chinese remainder theorem right
But what about for example $F_{11}[X]$? How do we prove that this is irreducible in there?
joel
Why
Because $X^2+X+1$ has a zero for $\alpha=1$
joel
So when is X^2 + X + 1 irreducible
And what did I say the zeroes of the polynomial were? I did implicitly assume that p =/= 3, which is a case you have dealt with now.
well the roots are primitive 3rd roots of unity
that's what you siad
said
So $X^3=1$
joel
No, that's merely a 3rd root of unity, not a primitive one
The good news is there's only one 3rd root of unity that isn't primitive in any field
But I digress
So when is the polynomial irreducible in F_p?
When X^3 is not 1?
You don't seem to be connecting the dots here so I will just say it
p(x) is irreducible in F_p (where p =/= 3) iff there does not exist a primitive 3rd root of unity in F_p.
Using your knowledge about the group of units of F_p will allow you to solve this now
holy hecking chonkers \sqrt{-3} \not \in F_p^\times le quadradic reciprocity has arrived
?!
So no element of order 3?
this was for the other person
That is what a primitive 3rd root of unity is, yes
Boytjie's method is far better but this is immediately what came into my mind:
X^2+X+1 factorises if and only if the discriminant, -3, is a square mod p. Apply quadratic reciprocity (and multiplicativity of Legendere symbols) to get (-3 | p) = (p | 3). The only non-zero quadratic residue mod 3 is 1, hence X^2+X+1 is reducible only when p = 1 mod 3.
This truly is a wholesome chungus quadratic reciprocity moment
as was claimed
Did you know it has 99999billion proofs/?!?!?!
I once had to work out precisely when X^2+Y^2, X^2+XY+Y^2, X^2+3XY+Y^2 were all irreducible mod p there was so much fuckin reciprocity bullshit
This doesn't sound fun
p = 13 is the smallest case there's your hint
Never work out when things are irreducible, the only acceptable proof is “tried to find factors, couldn’t”
it was essentially the same proof I just gave but for -4, -3, and 5 respectively and then you chinese remainder theorem'd it all together. It wasn't too bad just a bit tedious
Can someone give me a hint on what I should do to prove that $X^4 +2$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{F}_{5^3}[X]$ please
Kroros
heyo
is there like a rule to create these commuative diagram? like why is there a dashed aroow?
just curious
Dashed arrow means "there exists"
And often also "there exists a unique"
where can i learn more
By learning category theory
Well it's literally category theory
Category theory is applied everywhere
For a non abstact-nonsense algebra focused book I recommend Aluffi's Algebra Chapter zero
for category theory?
It doesn't do pure category theory, rather how categorical thinking and is applied in abstract algebra
In a sense, I assume you're more interested in how it's used in algebra
This book is great for that
For pure category theory I have been recommended "category theory in context"
👍
anyone know shorter proof of 4.13?
what book is that

I think i should make a thread for D&F 
you should
it is not book it is just online stuff
i see, seems interesting
is it commutative alg?
no
oh
yes
i think #1272080242004983819 is not active
Afzal's Abstract Algebra thread
yeah, prob bcz neam will be busy
Because 4 and 3 are relatively prime it suffices to check that it's irreducible over F5. This you can do quite easily by brute force or by noticing that 2 is a primitive root modulo 5
I see, thank you
what was a field again I forgor
A ring but everything except 0 gets an inverse
I see
so a groupe with multiple binary operations and every element except the identity gets an inverse
We usually require commutativity too
where do division rings come up? i havent seen it before
i mean tbf i barely seen any noncommutative ring theory so
Endomorphism rings of simple modules
simple modules have no proper submodules right
Yes
(d) My approach(perhaps anyone's approach) is breaking down LHS into $[F(\alpha_1, ..., \alpha_r):F(\alpha_1, ..., \alpha_{r-1})]....[F(\alpha_1, \alpha_2):F(\alpha_1)]$, I played with a few examples like $Q(2^{1/4}, 2^{1/6})$ and $Q(2^{1/4}, 3^{1/4}, 6^{1/6})$ and I think the statement is true. So $F(\alpha_i) \cap F(\alpha_j)=F$ for all $i \neq j$ should imply (I found counterexamples for intersection!=F) that minimal polynomial of $\alpha_i$ over F should still be irred over F(1, ..., i), but where do I start?
Cro
I'm not sure I have a good hint for this other than trying to get a feel for it through examples.
Q(2^1/3) and Q(2^1/3, third root of unity) could be good examples to consider
Is it an counterexample to that equality? cuz I think 9=3*3 over F=Q is fine. I mean like is it some linear algebra property? What property?(I didn't take department of math linear algebra last year not familiar enough, guess is something like linear dependent over larger field is still linear dependent over smaller field according to stackexchange)
3*3 = 9 which is bigger than 6
This doesn't use intersection but still gives min poly invariant
only 6?
oh right 2^1/3 * 1^(1/3) is next root
And indeed 2^1/3 in three directions, 2^2/3 in three directions spans Q(2^1/3, 3rd root 1)
if a group has at most m solutions to x^m=e then it has at most phi(m) elements of order m (phi is euler's totient function)
does this sound right?
thanks 🙏
when talking about irreducible elements in a domain we ignore 0 right
yes non-zero non-unit element
Is there a relatively elementary proof from the classical Hilbert's Theorem 90 that if L/K is a finite abelian extension of fields and N(y) = 1 then y ∈ L^⨯ is a product of finitely many g(x)/x's, where each g ∈ Gal(L/K), x ∈ K^⨯?
Serre uses this in Local Fields for K a maximal unramified extension of a local field (i.e., a complete DVF with algebraically closed residue field, I think) using a Galois cohomology computation, but it seems like it should be provable directly from the cyclic case by induction (unless it's not true without the hypothesis on K).
Elements here have inverses because the modules are simple, and is multiplication in endomorphism rings just usually not commutative or?
I cannot imagine there being many commutative endomorphism rings
Is there a known criterion?
(Nontrivial criterion i should add. The module being trivial is not a useful criterion)
Man idk why im being stupid, because the modules are simple the maps are all injections but are they surjective as well?
im f < M
So im f = 0 or im f = M
I.e. f is either 0 or a bijection
Thanks
I.e. division ring
Nice
Pesky 0
What are some good example classes for simple modules
cyclic abelian groups
F over F a field ofc
prime*
any simply module must be cyclic, clearly
so isomorphic to a quotient R/I
submodules of R/I are the ideals in the interval [I, R] by the correspondence theorem
so if R/I is simple then [I, R] is the 2-element lattice
i.e. I must be a maximal ideal
there you go, classification of simple modules using UA
Why is this clear
Oh cause otherwise
suppose M is not generated by a single element
let m =/= 0 in M
=> <m> =/= M and <m> < M
contradiction
You'd have two different generators a, b spanning two different submodules
Yeah that's the better way to phrase it
I meant "linearly independent", I suppose!
Clearly? That was a whole exercise in dummit and foote! Hehe
But ya i remember that one was easy
lol
it was clear to me qwq
And why does this hold
because R is the free R-module on one generator
Oh
and if a module M is generated by the set X, then M is isomorphic to a quotient of the direct sum of R indexed by X
this is a general UA fact, too!
although usually phrased in terms of free algebras but who caares it's all the same
When you look at finite groups' reps over char 0 fields that aren't algebraically closed, it happens much less often than one would perhaps expect. And ofc this just doesn't happen in positive characterstic since all finite division rings are fields
So all simple modules over commutative rings are fields,,,
a simple module over a simple ring R is either R or 0
You want an example?
Is I the kernel of R->M by r -> r*m with m the generator of M
There is a unique simple 4-dimensional $\bR Q_8$-module, and its endomorphism ring is $\mathbb H$
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
exactly
that map must be surjective, hence we get R/I \cong M
that's awesome
like
of course
why wouldn't it
It is quite poetic
While I appreciate the example, the quaternions were the precise division ring I did NOT need to see lol
😭
Hahahaha
trauma response
I’m have a hw question about them i still havent done
Well you'll have to look away from real division algebras, naturally.
I assume you can get stuff like R<x,y> in two noncommuting invertible variables x,y
invert 1+x then
Anyway, fin-dim central division algebras can be constructed via homological methods using the Brauer group. So if you really want to just pump out a bunch of examples there are methods for doing this, but they're tedious
what's the Brauer group?
Whats a central algebra
A central k-algebra is a k-algebra whose centre is k
I love it when a classification of stuff has a group structure
coll
n x n matrices over k?
Yes
You are aware of what I mean when I say "k-algebra" right?
Wdym
I think it is probably one of the more famous k-algebras out there
I mean a ring with a central embedding of a given field k
Yeah idk how i havent seen it
k
Yea
So a ring R with a map f : k -> Z(R)
K embeds into the 1x1 matrices i guess right lol
So a central k-algebra is one where f is surjective
it embeds into nxn matrices
No matter what n
Oh ok nvm yea
If you meant to say diagonal, then yes
Yea
When I think k-algebras I just think polynomial rings over R, and other function algebras
Holomorphic, continuous and so on
Ok
And the silly C and H ofc
Not silly not silly
Well C is a quotient of a polynomial ring over R
So what?
Every fin-dim k-algebra is
commutative ones at least
and C is indeed a field extension of R.
Indeed
me when
k[X] is the free commutative k-algebra on generators X
Yeah
absolutely crazy
The quaternions slightly annoy me because they overshoot being algebraically closed
More square roots of -1 than necessary
what polynomial objects in the variety of noncommutative rings does to a mf
det went
when me first saw proof of existence of alg closure.
you take X = {x_f : f in k[t] \ k}, i.e. a new variable for each non-constant poly
I wonder if there is such a theorem for polynomial algebras in arbitrary varieties
probably not..
oh. my. science. it's the hecking chonkers schur index
that would be too nice
🥺 you're too good for this world
I don't know how that interacts with the endomorphism algebra though.
I also don't particuarly care about endomorphism algebras
Well for a start the schur index is going to be the sqrt of the dim
yeah
It's so crazy how we call objects in algebra "algebras"
As long as I choose the right field, but let's move past that for now
wh
what
It's like calling differential manifolds "analyses"
I know right
Oh but topology has topologies
at least we universal algebraists have actual good reasons to call them algebras
But yeah fundamentally it doesn't tell us very mcuh about the algebra. You are right.
very sad
that's discrimination
If we just want to get a handle on the representations this works very nicely
Like, I can plod along and calculate all the character values
That's not hard at all
why do we care about endomorphism algebras again
are they the blocks
wdym by that
There's like, M_n(E) sitting in the group
yurrrr
where E is the endo of some module
yeah
Many such cases!
Wew is this a wholesome chungus artin-wedderburn?
please confirm
caring about block iso classes in char 0 is woke
maybe. Give it a solid 70%
Praise me
what are blocks here?
blocks of the group algebra
You know how matrices can have blocks on the diagonal? Imagine a ring of matrices having blocks too
Ong 😂
This is honestly a helpful description I swear lmao
a bit like cosets?
are they disjoint?
And like
Uh no
Algebra is a weird variant on the name al-khwarizmi
It's like direct product decompositions
ah okay
a block is a primitive central idempotent e of a ring R and is also eR
It's like calling sets and set theory
the phrasology is goofy
Once upon a time i was going crazy when i first learned quotient groups. I thought it was so cool
Wew Wew Wewwwwwww did you know that Galois conjugate characters have the same Schur index but they may not have the same Brauer class of endomorphism algebra?????
Or no
I'm gonna be sick
So fucked up right? I love it <3
My little Schur indices are menaces 
all fields are algebraically closed UNFORTUNATELY for you so
or are Q... you can have Q
no
Yes
no
Navarro says Yes oxoxoxoxoxoxox
who?

U guys are both british pls dont argue ❤️
He had his 60th bday conference recently
One Love ❤️
fuck I was going to type "cares" but I can't now
do they have their british license?
I did hear about this conference
You presumably didn't go
I don't go places
I may have........
that's not how you fucking spell license idiot
thanks for the invite
what are you gonna do, travel back in time?
I would've probably been out of my depth anyway
Oh Wew it was actually really good. And now I feel bad
don't feel bad I actually don't care
Phew
where was it hosted
In Valencia
oh YEAH that's why I didn't go
Moreto and Rizo presented a really cool McKay-esque conjecture based on these "picky" elements
they're very cool
definitely cannot afford to go abroad for conferences
I've had enough of McKay-esque conjectuers for one lifetime
OK fine >:(
I don't think they've put the paper on the arxiv yet
But it's very cool
it does sound kind of cool if you would tell me what a picky element is
I was typing it out!
An element is picky if it lies in exactly one Sylow p-subgroup
So p-picky I suppose
And I'm not stuttering
I would love to tell you more but I can't quite remember the details...
"It's p-picky, b-baka"
looks away embarrassed
this is equivalent to the fusion class being fused by... something
automorphisms of S I think
yes
Malle gave a talk which classified the picky elements in groups of Lie type. They have a lot bc of things called regular unipotent elements, amongst other things
But yeah you should expect picky elements to have a lot of interest
I suppose if Sylow subgroups are your local data these elements could tell you exactly WHERE locally you are
Do people collaborate on papers here?
it has happened
Nice
I think? like once
I mean, this is a handy place to meet people
Yea^
Yes exactly!
It would make sense to happen
This is huge in groups of Lie type
scrumptious simply scrumptious
although the server is fairly heavy on non-researchers I suppose, and given the amount of branches of math..
AH IT IS THIS! If every element satisfies this then your Sylow must be normal, your fusion system essential rank 0 AHHHHHHHHHHHHHHH mmmmmmmmm GOOD
same
oh my hecking chonkers it's the stable element theorem
but for the wrong mackey functor
Guys help, he's speaking Martian
that's got me thinking now. About something unrelated I will now google
you both are speaking Martian
If/when the paper comes out I will let you know
NOOOOOoooooooooo he's being weird !!!! not me !!!!!!!!!!!
we all tell ourselves that
smh
my goofy ahh forgetting about the Segal-Carlsson completion theorem
I'm locked in buddy
ok I did just lock out but I've locked back in
we lock ouin
ok I've locked back out again
if you coun't locking out as reading about G-spectra that is
are G-spectra perhaps the sets of normal subgroups P such that for normal subgroups N, M, we have
[N, M] < P => N < P or M < P
?
Quick q: the splitting field of x^3 - 1 over Q has degree 3 right? The solution manual says the splitting field is Q(sqrt(3)i), ie. degree 2
It has degree 2
Because X^3 - 1 = (X-1)(X^2 + X + 1)
And the latter factor is irreducible
And -- tbh this is the most important bit -- a single root of the latter factor genuinely does generate the whole extension
aah, I was thinking x^3 - 1 was irreducible
You may want to have a quick look at the cyclotomic polynomials
These will explain the situation
I will, thanks 
In general X^n - 1 will have a splitting field of degree phi(n) over Q, for example
but yeah
That's the search term
qwq they are not
It does so here because its quadratic right
another time UA terminology is bound to be inferior because of obscurity
Or it generates the whole splitting field because thats the only irreducible factor of the polynomial
I'm basically trying to understand why this is true
I guess you could observe that 1 is already a root of x^3 - 1, so you just need to adjoin an element of degree 2 to get the splitting field?
Sure that's true. It works because it's quadratic. But the thing is that it works in general
For any prime p, x^p - 1 factors in a similar way
Ya thats assuming the remaining factor is irreducible over base field
haha I understand nothing about this besides
- functor
- finite
- group
- G-Set
- category
Ya the point u were making is that for any x^n-1, adjoining a root to x^(n-1) + … + 1 factor generates all roots ?
surely you understand "equivalent"
Definitely not for all n!
But for primes
I was too lazy to write that down
Ah ok yea
In my number theory class we were looking at cyclotomic fields but we only kept it to primes
But yeah, the roots of X^{p-1} + X^{p-2} + ... + 1 are the primitive pth roots of unity, and it's just not terribly hard to see that one such thing generates all of them
Ya its cyclic group type shi
I'm so glad all of the coefficients of cyclotomic polynomails are \pm 1. I've checked the first 104 and it seems to hold!
the devilish large number:
the devilish 105:
Whats \pm 1
plus minus 1
Oh ok
ah okay I presumed it was 105
but out of fear of being wrong I just said large number
I don't remember why it's 105
For 105 its not ? Lol
$\pm$
let me google
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
lovely 3 * 5 * 7
yeah it says it's because it's the product of 3 distinct odd primes
ok? whatever
😭 such an arbitrary fucking reason
"why don't your congruences 3-permute?"
"yeah cuz these random ahh fucky wucky maps aren't surjective"
Well that is the smallest such thing
It's not a coincidence either that the smallest non Abelian group is of order the smallest squarefree composite
well yeah I think it's clear any multiple of 105 also fucks up
I love the number 6. It is my favourite number. You already know why.
6? Group orders have to be equal to the power of a prime buddy
Quiet.
Latin squares of order up to 6 but not including 6 are nice
are latin squares just cayley tables
Uh almost
of quasigroups, yes
yeah kind of
They're a bit more free
I love Latin squares
quasigroupoids
quasigroup object in a quasigroupoid
n-quasigroups
there you go. Now go write a paper about them
did you know that a reduced Latin square is the cayley table of a group iff the stabiliser of the group action of permuting the rows and columns has the same order as the latin square, and the Latin square is then a Cayley table of it's stabiliser?
that also immediately proves Cayley's theorem
first row and column the same
I see
usually
1, 2, ..., n
the n there, yes
it's so cool
regular representation moment
you can go even further by looking at the isotopy class of such a Latin square
and then you have a nice formula for the size of that class
anyhow, that was my talk on Latin squares
oh yeah, if a Latin square is symmetric along its main diagonal, then its stabiliser of the abovementioned group action must be abelian
this has to do with said stabiliser being one of the nuclei of the underlying quasigroup (if L is reduced), which must be a subsquare, hence abelian if L is symmetric
then you can do a symbol transformation and yada yada I actually have a way cooler proof
involves giving a closed formula for the elements in the stabiliser
no idea what a nuclei of a quasigroup is but I'll take your word for it
but I believe the symmetric => abelian thing
set of elements that associate with the rest of the elements in some way
like a jacobi relation or
no
left nucleus:
elements x such that for all a, b
x * (a * b) = (x * a) * b
middle nucleus and right nuclus similarly
I see
okay so you know how that the underlying group of that group action (I'll call it the transformation group action) is S_n x S_n?
cuz you permute the rows and columns and that's two independent permutations and such
if L is symmetric, then the stabiliser must be elements of the form
$$(\sigma, \sigma^{-1})$$
.enpeace_music
and then of course it must be abelian
so it's a subgroup of the twisted diagonal embedding of S_n into S_n ^2 but how does that mean it's abelian
am I le stupid
cuz stabiliser is closed under composition
so
$$(\sigma_1, \sigma_1^{-1}) \circ (\sigma_2, \sigma_2^{-1}) = (\sigma_3, \sigma_3^{-1})$$
for some permutation $\sigma_3$
oh ok yeah
which is like, genuinely one of the coolest proofs ever imo
if you write it like that sure but like, (1,1^-1)(2, 2^-1) = (12, 1^-12^-1) = (12, (21)^-1)
but maybe I'm silly
this notation is confusing me
what's confusing about it
.enpeace_music
no but it must be true in the stabiliser
as every element of the stabiliser is of that form
sure
hold on, let me restate this
I got that
Let $T^L$ denote the stabiliser of a symmetric square $L$.
Then let $(\sigma_1, \sigma_1^{-1}), (\sigma_2, \sigma_2^{-1}) \in T^L$.
As every element in the stabiliser must be skew-symmetric like that, there must be a permutation $\sigma_3$ such that
.enpeace_music
$$(\sigma_1, \sigma_1^{-1}) \circ (\sigma_2, \sigma_2^{-1}) = (\sigma_3, \sigma_3^{-1})$$
.enpeace_music
so we've shown that 1^-12^-1 = (12)^-1 which is of course equivalent to it being abelian
ye
my complaint was about a minor confusion in the notation more so than a conceptual misunderstanding
this proof is nice
I'm sowwy I promise the actual proof I wrote down is actually good
same ngl
thank you! probably one of the cooler proofs I've written
although perhaps not that substantial of a result
except maybe the proof of some Noetherianness condition related stuff for congruence relations
Well, the endomorphisms of the R-module R are R, which can be commutative. More generally, the endomorphism ring of a simple representation of a finite-dimensional algebra over a field F is a finite-dimensional division algebra over F. This could be commutative and if F is algebraically closed (or e.g. a finite field) it has to be commutative.
If you have a direct sum M1 (+) ... (+) Mn of simple modules which are not isomorphic to each other, then the endomorphism ring is the product of endomorphism rings of the individual Mi's, so it has a chance to be commutative.
Otherwise I can't think of a lot of examples.
But examples where F is an algebraically closed field (usually taken to be ℂ) and the endomorphism rings of simple modules are F (either because they're finite-dimensional or for other reaons) are quite common.
Oh, that sounds interesting. Has this been studied non-trivially outside of ℝ (or real-closed fields)? I know there is real/complex/quaternionic type in that case, but never found any similar structural results if you wanted to look at e.g. representations over ℚ(1^1/257) or something.
Yes it has been studied a lot!
Well
There's a lot that is still mysterious
But the key term is the Schur index of a character
Alright, that looks interesting. It seems to have lots of surprising properties.
Thanks!
Do you know Isaacs' book? Chapter 10 is what you want. That and chapter 9 if you're not familiar with changing the field from C
Isaacs' Character Theory
Christ now that I say that I realise it doesn't scratch the surface
Unger's paper here has a good survey of various things you need to know about the Schur index
i'm trying to show that if F extends E and E extends K, then [F:K] = [F:E][E:K]
i've tried using the bases of these spaces, but i can't seem to figure anything out from that
is there another approach i should take
proceeds to spend the next 10 years working with 2000 groups where this is just all elements
I do not at all.
Wow, Discord has Markdown support for links?
This is all elements in all groups
Because, by definition, groups are associative
Yes, that was my point.
Quasigroup theory is very silly
Indeed, we cope by mainly studying axioms and consequences of those axioms
anyone can help me to go through this
i can share my doubt
I think lang can help me here
What is a FR
Using the bases is the correct approach; try to write a basis for F over K in terms of the basis of F over E and E over K
Finite resolution I think k
This is about finite free resolutions I think
Ah interesting
Hmmmm
Yes p\subset Q'_i \cap R
I understand up to that d lies in every associated prime of N. After that I don't get it
i don't get it how every one of the factor module in filtration of N admits a FR?
i got it
i don't get it how (f) is isomorphic to R_0[x] as R[x] module?
f maps to 1 + p[x], right?
Qi' is the preimage of an ideal of R0[X], so it contains the preimage of P0 ie P. Hence Qi' ∩ R contains p. As they have shown, it also contains d ∉ p, so the inclusion is strict.
p was chosen to be maximal among intersections P ∩ R for P such that R[x]/P does not have finite FR. So Qi' ∩ R ⊋ p means R[x]/Qi' = R0[x]/Qi has finite FR.
wait my argument was bad nvm
No nevermind it wasn't
Take a matrix of the form in SL(3,p):
[a b c]
[d e f]
[0 0 g]
Take g not congruent to +-1 (mod p).
I think the keywords to look up for this kind of thing are weak/strong approximation for algebraic groups (SLn is one such algebraic group).
this cannot be the image of a matrix in SL(3,Z) by the reduction homomorphism
E.g. by the third sentence here https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Approximation_in_algebraic_groups, and in https://mathoverflow.net/questions/123009/simply-connected-simple-algebraic-groups someone seems to think it's well-known that SL_n is "simply connected" (whatever that means).
So the answer ought to be yes. Of course that's not a proof, but at least you know what to expect.
Hmm. Why?
Are you assuming the lift also has those 2 zero entries?
oh wait, nevermind
sorry
I guess I'm too tired haha
I don't know enough algebraic number theory to understand that
https://library.slmath.org/books/Book61/files/70rapi.pdf I'm pretty sure this implies it's true for SLn
Oh there are no proofs here just stringing together results from the literature
appears to be a short proof using elementary matrices
(f) is a principal ideal of R0[x], which is an integral domain, so it is isomorphic to R0[x] (as R0[x] and hence as R[x] modules) by multiplication by f.
thanks!
Yes
Is there any result which is used here?
Nothing that you can't prove in two lines.
I don't get how integral property works here
R0[x] is an integral domain, so multiplication by f is injective on R0[x].
Multiplication by f is injective on R0[x], you mean q(x) -> q(x)f(x) is injective map
Yes it is
And it is surjective
So R0[x] isomorphic to (f) as R_0[x] module
Correct?
I just started studying quantum mechanics for research and i have a few questions, is there anyone who can help me?
So now I have to show it is also isomorphic as R[x] module, I think we can just extend the map
bro never asked
You can lead a horse to water
Is it general true that if A and B are isomorphic as R-module then it is also isomorphic to Q - module if there is surjective ring homomorphism Q to R ?
are you saying to make A and B into Q-modules by setting a*x = f(a)x sort of thing?
Yes
Yes. This is "restriction of scalars along Q -> R" and that is a functor
So in particular there is this case
But this is true for any map of rings
So not need to be surjective?
Yeah
the "extension" of scalars case happens when you have injection R->S and you want to make an R-module into an S-module right?
and then you need tensor products for that?
Not necessarily an injection but yes
Yes
Yes
First we make S \otimes_R M
Then we define S \otimes_R M as S - module
Right?
yeah pre sure
im tryna remember the details of this thouh
stuff like, when can you actually embed the R-module M into an S-module
with R->S ring hom
I kind of forget these details
Exactly, via the S-module structure on S
And then the "compatibility" with the original action on M is encoded in the tensor product
Not rly sure what you mean by this
As in, when can you literally extend scalars without changing the underlying abelian group?
Yea! I suppose thats the question
this was discussed in dummit and foote and i remember a lemma was like, the quotient with kernel of some inclusion map is the largest quotient that can be embedded or smth
Well there is a notion of descent which you can look at
so if M -> S(x)R M is injective R-module hom or something
Oh I mean that is different
Oh because the abelian group in S (x)R M is different?
If this m -> 1(x)m map is injective, then you can say we have embedded the Rmod M into an S-module, right? But, we havent necessarily kept the underlying abelian group the same ?
Like you will basically never keep it the same
Yeah
Sure. There isn't any dedicated quantum mechanics channel though, so you might end up having to post different questions in different channels (e.g. perhaps: questions about groups or Lie algebras here or #advanced-algebra , about Hilbert spaces and operators might be #advanced-analysis , solving Schrodinger's equation for specific Hamiltonians in an ODE or PDE channel, etc.).
If S is a quotient of a ring R, then for any S-modules, S-linear maps are the same as R-linear maps, S-submodules are the same as R-submodules, two S-modules are isomorphic iff they are isomorphic as R-modules, etc.
Yea ok thnx
Thanks @tough raven ❤️
Can I DM you?
If it helps, it is true that you can embed M into some S-module iff this map is injective, and one sufficient but not necessary condition for it to be injective is that M is flat (in particular, free or more generally projective) and R → S is injective.
OK.
yea that helps, thanks
wouldn't it be H is closed under *|_H?
binary operations on a set are always closed on that set since they are functions X x X —> X, so having a term for that would be a bit redundant.
but substructures aren’t always invariant under binary operations. so we say that H is closed or invariant under the group operation
You mean substructures with respect to the structure of G if we disregard the magma structure?
Like a topological space / manifold etc
i didn’t mean substructure in a technical sense
Right
do you think it holds in a more technical sense? i am interested in what you meant by your comment on top spaces and manifolds
Well, a set can have many different structures attached to it
So, for example a lie group is a set which has a smooth manifold structure and a group structure, interacting nicely (namely the group operations are smooth maps)
A substructure of a lie group is then a subset which is both a submanifold and a subgroup
ah sure
In that sense it is a substructure of the underlying manifold, which is closed under the group operations
right
Can't say I'm too well-versed on Lie groups though, i know the definition but that's basically it
In (universal) algebra there's a related concept called a reduct, where you forget the some of the structure (in the form of operations)
So a module, for example, has an underlying abelian group, and that abelian group would then be a reduct of the module
But that is beside the point, kind of
by respecting the substructure on G, you meant, a subset of G which has some other structure but is also a subgroup of H?
i guess i’m a bit confused there
Did i say respecting the substructure on G?
I meant that youre a substructure of G if you're a subset respecting (being closed under) the structure of G
Structure being a very handwavey concept here
got it
What are class fields?
#advanced-number-theory is probably a better channel to ask this question in.
Oh ok
Does anyone have an example of a normal extension that is not a splitting field? I know such an extension must have infinite degree
wait, just Q-bar over Q is an example I guess, since it's not a splitting field
whats a normal extension?
an extension F <= E is normal if every irreducible polynomial in F that has a root in E splits into linear factors in E




