#groups-rings-fields
1 messages Ā· Page 305 of 1
hmm. what is your exact definition of an ideal?
what is your profs definition of a ring? does it include identity or not?
It does include identity
then I think you can easily prove this
ohh ok
I mean try to prove it 
right. that was slick. usually, i see it defined as a subgroup of the additive group of R which is absorbative
Since it's closed under addition and it has the 0 element, it must have its additive inverse
right yea, that's what I learned as well
not quite. you need to use the fact that your ring has an identity, like Neamesis suggested
because the ring has additive inverses
the ideal absorbs the additive inverses which belong in the ideal
ring has additive inverse -a, but I don't see how that implies -a belongs to our Ideal I
put your proof into symbols, that would be more helpful (Only 14th century mathematicians did math just using words alone š)
identity is also in ideal? how do you justify that? 
nevermind. I thought of a counterexample
hint: ||try to use the fact that if 1 \in R then -1 \in R as well||
yup
so if a \in I, then (-1)(a) is also in the ideal
I forgot how you prove (-1)(a) = -a 
for completeness: ||0 = (1 + (-1))a = a + (-1)a so (-1)a = -a by uniqueness of the additive identity||
Has some of you ever seen the notation: P.R[X]? If some of you knows what it means, can you tell me? We have never done this in class and now I am confused
It is the ideal generated by elements of the form $$rf(x)$$ where $$r \in I$$ and $$ f(x) \in R[x]$$
Alex
Another way to describe it would be to just consider the map $$ \phi : R[x] \to \frac{R}{P}[x]$$ where $$ \phi(\sum_{i=1}^{n} a_{i}x^{i}) = \sum_{i = 1 }^{n} (a_{i} + P)x^{i}$$
Alex
which you can check is a surjective homomorphism and its kernel is the polynomials whose coefficients are elements of P, in other words are elements of PR[x]
oh okay so it is just the multiplication of the ideal with the ring, I don't know why he changed notation, before we always used pR[X] without the dot and I was not sure of what was meant
thank youu
I mean i gather that this is what they mean. With that interpretation the isomorphisms they list make sense
Why do you say it doesn't work?
I am pretty sure you're right, since all the operations they do are coherent with the product
I have a banal question about this proof. Why does it hold that p is a maximal ideal? shouldn't it only be prime?
or in other words, why is A/p a field?
after replacing A with A_P, P becomes the unique maximal ideal in A
How can I show that if M has a finitely generated submodule N such that the quotient M/N is finitely generated, then M is finitely generated?
I got it
Idea:
Take N is finitely generated by {n_1,...,n_a} and M/N is finitely generated by {m_1+N,..., m_b + N }.
So I have to show M is finitely generated by {n_1,..,n_a, m_1,.., m_b}.
Let m in M, if m is in N then we can write m as a linear combination of {n_1,...,n_a}.
If m is not in N, then we can write x + N as a linear combination of {m_1 +N,..., m_b + N }, and then x = r_1m_1 +..+r_bm_b + n for some r_i in R and n in N, clearly we can write n as linear combination of {n_1,.., n_a}.
Hence we can write m as a linear combination of {n_1,.., n_a, m_1,..., m_b}.
Is it correct?
I belive this is correct. This is essentially the same construction you would use by considering the short exact sequence $$ 0 \to N \to M \to \frac{M}{N} \to 0$$
Alex
isn't the maximal ideal p^e={a/s| a in p and s not in p}?
Yeah I thought of the exact sequence but the book doesn't introduce it yet
ah ok. What you did is correct still
Thank you
yes. i was just identifying A with A_P and P with P_P ( = p^e)
okay that's good then, thank you. I was just confused on how the identification worked
How can I show that any R-module M can be expressed as a quotient of a free R-module F.
I am thinking about let m be a maximal ideal in R then R/m is a field then somehow we can use that every vector space has a basis, any hint?
No, you're overcomplicating it a lot
Hint: think of a map from the free module with basis M
With basis M?
Oh
You mean if I let any set $S$ then we can make a free module $F = \bigoplus_{s\in S} Rs$?
Notknowš
I would just write $\bigoplus_{s \in S} R$.
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
Is it different?
What does Rs mean
Rs = {rs | r in R }
Rs without the subscript is throwing it off lol
Actually I thought as cyclic module
how are you defining (+)_{s in S} R?
i mean $\bigoplus_{s \in S}R_s$
c squared
like, what do those symbols mean to you?
Set of tuples (r_1,r_2,...,r_s) where r_i = 0 for all but finitely many
S is not finite
this works if S is finite.
if S is not finite, this does not work. instead, you want all functions f : S ā> R such which are zero for all but finitely many S.
this works for any set S
addition and multiplication are done component-wise
Yes
I know I was not sure how to explain but now I know
great. so if you have an $R$-module $M$, you are putting $F(M) = \bigoplus_{m \in M}R$
c squared
this is the free module with basis M, or the free module generated by M
Yes
I think we can identify for which m, r_m is non-zero and then we can map to their sum
is the radical of an ideal always the intersection of the maximal ideals containing it?
I think the intersection of all prime ideals containing it
that's for sure correct
I was wondering about the other statement as well
Not necessarily no
mmh okay
does then rad(I)=QR_Q follow from the primary decomp of I
QR_Q is the maximal ideal of R_Q
Sorry but isn't the definition of a base a set of elements S of a module such that every element of the module can be written as a finite sum of multiples of the set S. If i recall correctly $$\bigoplus_{s\in S}R $$ is the set of all sequences of R indexed by S who have almost all their terms equal to zero. The cartesian product of free modules is generally not free
Alex
rad(I) is the intersection of all primes containing I.
Since Q is a minimal prime over I and is maximal, it is the only prime over I.
If you take an infinite family of free modules, of course
hahahahha wow, I get lost so easily, that's clear, thank you very much
Yes, S is a basis if every element can be uniquely written as a finite linear combination of elements in S.
The direct product of free modules is in general not free. For commutative rings I think this happens iff the ring is artinian iirc
So you should consider as the free module to be the direct sum of copies of R indexed by elements of M. It's description is precisely the one you gave @crystal vale. Sequences of R indexed by M whose terms are almost all zero, except for a finite set.
Then you consider the map $$ \phi: \bigoplus_{m \in M} R \to M $$, which you can easily see is surjective and by the first ismoorphism theorem you can get the desired result
Alex
So my function works, thanks @wide surge @kind temple
I'm teaching an intro linear algebra thing tomorrow. I want to show my students some 'weird' examples of fields to really show them that the definition isn't just number-like things. Any suggestions?
So far I want to show them:
- The field Z/2Z, but presented as {True, False} with And and Xor operations.
- The field Q(sqrt(2)).
- The field of quotients of polynomials.
Not really satisfied with these, so I'd be interested in suggestions 
F((x)) the field of formal laurent series over F, maybe F((x^1/2)) as well.
the p-adic numbers (although this may seem too number-like and definitionally out of reach)
but exotic examples i feel like are hard to come by since fields are pretty tame in general. they are all extensions of Z/pZ or Q
Sure, I guess I just don't want them to get the idea that fields are somehow "just" numbers
I love the Laurent series idea!
I have no idea how I'd introduce the p-adics though... :(
Honestly those three examples are excellent
i think the vector spaces can get kinda funky. for example, the power set of a set is a vector space over Z/2Z
the integers with bitwise xor is a Z/2Z vector space. i believe it should work with R as well, modulo some base 2 representation stuff
"Infinite dimensional" fields are a great class of examples
So... fields of rational functions, yeah
Meromorphic functions would be a good example too but a bit out of reach methinks
Yeah, unfortunately they haven't seen vector spaces yet :( I have a few fun ideas to get this "direction and magnitude" idea stamped out ASAP
ah, that is unfortunate
I honestly don't know why the course is set up the way it is -- they see matrices before vector spaces -- but whatever, I have to deal with it
woah thatās kinda wild. what do they do with them? row reduction?
I think they just learn how to multiply them first 
Yeah. I'm trying to think of good ways to motivate the way they're multiplied...
counterpoint: fields are just numberlike things 
Grumble grumble
but a field of rational functions over a finite field is pretty interesting
I want them to realise that linear algebra isn't just the real numbers
This is mostly the point
it has infinitely many elements and finite characteristic
do you mean you want to show thereās more to linear algebra than real vector spaces, or that thereās more to linear algebra than real numbers? Because R^n has plenty of geometry and stuff that isnāt covered by just thinking about real numbers
i think that the examples you have, with potentially a few more, would get the idea across. i remember seeing fields like this for the first time and certainly not thinking of them as number-like things
the surreal numbers is another really cool weird field
but itās obviously numberlike
Lol me marking linear algebra last year
Kept having to cross stuff out cause people falsely assume characteristic 0
Then I will really drum in the idea that things might not be char 0
This is a great catch I think
What proportion would you say got that wrong....?
Oh I mean it wasn't even like meant to be about characteristic lol
Just a couple of people made that assumption without realising which made stuff easier
It was funny though cause I took a linear algebra practice exam and it turns out it was false if a matrix had an inseparable minimal polynomial
So like at one point I got stuck cause I needed that to not be the case lol
That's kinda cool
Nonseparable irreducible polynomials are such bs
Well the minimal polynomial of a matrix may not be irreducible, but yeah
they are definitely pretty weird
i want there to be a real world analogy of this
itās so real
Does anyone have a wealth of examples of nonseparable polynomials?
It's the kind of thing you encounter but aren't given enough intuition/examples for
Come to think of it, the only examples I know are the minimal polynomials for x in the extension F_p(x)/F_p(x^2)
or over F_p(x^n) in general
We need an inseparability hero
my prediction is jagr or chmonkey to the rescue
More or less any example reduces to this I think.
But you can do
Fp(x) / Fp(f(x^p))
for whatever f you like
I guess I should have expected this
It's at least easy to show that any irreducible non-seperable polynomial is off the form f(x^p) where p is the characteristic of the field.
Can you give a good ol' example
He just gave an example š
The minimal polynomial of x over F_p(x^2) is X^2 - x^2. For p=2 this is inseparable
Similarly for x over F_p(x^p)
Of a polynomial?
Okay, say f(t) = t^2 and p=3.
Then F3(x) / F3(x^6) is an non-seperable extension, x has minimal polynomial
t^6 - x^6
The / sign confuses me hella hard here
Aight
This is totally similar to the notation Gal(E/F).
Fp(x^6) seems highkey isomorphic to Fp(x)
It is
Oh so it's more about the embedding
That's right
It's like adjoining roots of x
Precisely!
Yasss!
So I guess the examples can be slightly more interesting if you sort of mix algebraic and transcendental stuff.
Like say F9 = F3(i) where i^2 = -1
Then F9(x) / F3(x^3) is non-seperable and x+i has minimal polynomial
t^6 + x^3 t^3 + x^6 + 1
oh dear
are the elements of this F9 basically $\varepsilon 1 + \eta i$ where $\varepsilon, \eta \in {-1,0,1}$?
PKThoron
actually yeah, it's a 2D vector space where the basis vectors are just 1 and i, like in C over R
cool cool
but then my function is not a module homomorphism
what should that function looks?
Alright so here is a characteristion of all of them:
Take some algebraic extension K/F of fields with characteristic p.
Take an element x in K that does not have a p^n-th root in K.
If f is the minimal polynomial of x, then f(t^p^n) is irreducible and non-seperable, and all such polynomials appear in this way.
I think we can identify non-zero elements, say for example $(r^1_{m_1}, r^2_{m_2},...,r^n_{m_n},0,0,......)$ then we map this element to $r^{1}m_1 +...+r^{n}m_n$
Is it correct?
Notknowš
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Yeah it looks so bad
Yes.
How can I properly define this function?
Wait I had a very active tag but now I haven't, why?
this is a dumb question , but associativity is always defined for just one operation each time, right?
i,e:
the rule
(A#BxC = A#(BxC) is not associativity (for binary operations # and x)
are powers of primes, prime?
no
do you have a counter example in mind, because I don't see one
look
This wouldn't usually be called associativity, I don't think it has its own name
Any prime
2^3 is divisible by 2^2 , it is instantly not prime by definition
Do you have an example in mind? I would be interested to see that
oh wait I was thinking about prime ideals
Same thing
so I am dumb, xD, sorry
which works the same
no take 2Z in Z
I guess (0)^n = (0) would be a possible example
thanks, I was thinking that but I wasnt sure if that had a name
wait this confuses me more
I was just saying basically every example is a counterexample.
But yeah there are a few examples that actually work, (0) being one of them
when ring is integral domain
If I consider a prime ideal P and its power P^n, is it enough to say that p^n = p*p^n-1 is in P^n, however p, p^n-1 both are not in P^n?
okay that makes sense, thanks
yeah
For Noetherian integral domain (0) is the only example.
But in for example
k[x^2^-n : n in N] then rad(x) is a prime that squares to itself.
oh
And then I guess boolean rings will give a bunch of examples (but they're not integral domains)
does someone have a proof of why for a commutative ring R and a prime ideal p Quot(R)=Quot(R_p)?
I kind of don't see it, I thought about dividing elements of R_p, but then I get (a/b)/(c/d) with a,c in P and b,d in R\P, doesn't this lead to a°d/b°c which then is in P since it is an ideal?
So you need R to be an integral domain for the field of fractions to really make sense here, but it's just
(a/b) / (c/d) = (ad / bc)
You don't need a or c to be in P, that's not relevant
it is an integral domain, forgot to mention it
Right so then every element of Quot(R_p) is in Quot(R) and conversely
a / b = (a/1) / (b/1)
(Maybe to keep things unambiguous) it's usually not called associativity AFAIK, but IMO it's sensible to think of it as some kind of associativity.
Is this by Nakayama's lemma applied to pR_p?
Yeah. You don't need to localize either, depending on your formulation of Nakayama.
If I is finitely generated and I^2 = I, then I = (e) for an idempotent e.
Valuation domains my beloved
okay if you do that identification it makes sense
thanks a lot
funny how one of the questions
I posed the other day
the counterexamples people gave were like subgroups of affine groups over finite vector spaces
I just proved that essentially those were the minimal counterexamples (as in, other counterexamples degenerate into one of those in some meaningful way to me)
Nice!
yeah that was cool
So like the minimal counterexamples come from a representation of a group H into V (fin. dim. vector space over F_p) which is both irreducible and faithful
and just Aff(H)
does someone know how the dimension of R and it's localization S^-1R are connected? (S mult closed and R comm ring)
I was looking through gathmann but I don't find anything
Krull dimension? It will either decrease or stay the same, since you have a correspondence between prime ideals of S^-1R and prime ideals of R not intersecting S
okay that makes sense, that's why it can0t be bigger then
thank you
(thank you for being so patient all the time)
Maybe a dumb question but when does a ring have that notion of a "division algorithm". I suppose presumably we want elements to have inverses so a field but my confusion would be on the ordering of these elements or what is the defining characteristics for order between two elements.
Soft question related to F[x] and how the division algorithm exists and we have the order where we talk about the deg of the polynomials
Like for regular integers you are just looking at the value of r and making sure r < |b|
If you have something like a=bq+r, where b != 0
And for the polynomials it is about degree
You may want to look into "Euclidean domains"
Okay thanks š
as the other guy said, a Euclidean domain is exactly a ring where you have some kind of division algorithm
My only slight confusion is what type of order it would be.. looking at the degree of polynimals isn't a total order because different polynimals can have the same degree
Hmm they are not even Fields
the Euclidean function doesn't have to have an explicit formula or be dependent on any specific value
it's just a vague measure of "size"
Oh I realized we get over that issue with r=0
something being a field is actually a really, really strong condition for a ring to have. if it interests you here's the tower of inclusions for common classes of rings
but turns out, a Euclidean domain is actually "really close" to a field
Dang, ātowerā is right lmao
Ohh looks like we are going to cover this topic in the next few chapters
yeah they are important notions in ring theory, you'll see them a lot
Whole ass descending filtration
You algebra folks got everything already covered and named
Not if your idea is stupid enough
And then it turns out that it already has a name
AND APPEARS IN 3 FUCKING PAPERS IN TOTAL
sounds like some personal experience
Towers of rings is a classic in algebra, you even have little sub towers, you can look at universal catenary rings for another chain
With tower of rings you mean
R_1 -> R_2 -> ... -> R_n
Where every map is an embedding?
As in, like a tower of field extensions
No I was meaning the chain of inclusions as Hchan said
Mm
Iām aware tower of rings isnāt really the appropriate term, I was just using the words they used,
Cohen Maculey rings are cool
I should learn what those are at some point
(like past the definition, more like why I should care about them)
This is my chance to shill for Miller and Strumfels again
You like combinatorics and comalg, theyāve got just the book for you
that has been on my "I should get to this at some point" list for a while
perhaps that'll be the next adventure after I finally properly learn commalg this summer
For what itās worth Iāve only read part 1, so potentially the book takes a nose dive in quality, but at least those 6 chapters are fantastic
I doubt it'll take a nosedive tbh
I've read other stuff by Sturmfels and his writing is 
Yeah itās a super well written book, Iād really like to finish it off if I ever get the chance
this semester I'm working through Manivel's Symmetric Functions, Schubert Polynomials, and Degeneracy Loci
summer will be commutative algebra time
and then next fall idk
but Miller, Sturmfels is up there on the list
Sturmfels' Algorithms in Invariant Theory also looks really nice
and not too long
but part III in Miller, Sturmfels really looks up my alley
Hilbert schemes of points do seem quite cool, applied for an REU project on those last year
So much maths to learn, so little time, just unfair really
Is the following proof of lying over for integral extensions correct? If A ā B is injective and integral, then for any prime p of A, A_p ā B_p is injective (exactness of localisation) and integral; in particular, the A_p-module B_p is non-zero, so B_p/pB_p is non-zero by the local-global principle. And B_p/pB_p = B (⨯)_A A_p/pA_p is such that Spec B_p/pB_p = preimage(p). So we are done.
Hi, I have a homework question: "Let R be a ring with identity. Show that R is a division ring if and only if the only left ideals of R are {0} and R". I showed the first direction, but how do I show that R is a division ring from the assumption on left ideals?
for some a in R, what can <a> be? what does that tell you about a?
Take non-zero element r, now generate the left ideal by r, it can be (0) or R but it cannot be 0 so it will be R
I think the ring has to be domain first
what do you mean?
I mean what if there exists some non-zero elements x and y such that xy = 0
having 2 left ideals only should be sufficient to prove it, even w/o assuming domain
well, <r> contains r...
okay so if a is a nonzero element of R then Ra = <a> = R (since Ra = 0 if and only if a = 0). So R is a principle ideal. Does this tell me that it's a division ring somehow?
an equivalent characterization of a priciple ideal is this: <a> = {r in R: a | r}{r in R: r = xa}. can you prove that?
I'm not sure how
you can prove it by showing inclusion in both ways
I know I mean I don't know how to go from x in Ra implies x = ra to a | r
sorry this seems obvious I've been writing the solutions to this HW for the past 6 hours and generators are my weakest topic
okay I just realised since we're not assuming commutativity this isn't entirely true, fixed
but anyways, what part are you stuck on
(a | r is not true, since we can't assume commutativity, by the way)
Okay so <a> = {ra | r in R}. Let x be in <a>. Then x = ra. By cancellation xa^-1 = r. But that requires R to already be a division ring
by definition, <a> is the smallest left ideal containing a. Now the set S = {ra | r in R} is a left ideal (check that), which indeed contains a, so <a> is in S.
Now conversely, since a is in S, every element of the form ra must be in <a>, which is exactly the form of every element in S, so S is in <a>. what does that mean
Okay I think my confusion is that the way my prof. introduced it I was confusing the definition of generator. I also found a theorem that says a ring with 1 is a division ring if and only if it has no nontrivial left ideals
yeah, that is exactly the theorem you are proving right now
I'm silly
But I don't think the proof in the book uses this equality between S and Ra
it's just what I immediately thought of right now, im sure there are more proofs
I appreciate it regardless I understand now
can i say module homomorphism of Z- modules are exactly group homomorphism?
Yes
Abelian groups can be naturally identified with ā¤-modules
yes
Part iii here is the last hw problem I need. I don't really see how to get Z and 3Z here; from the 2nd iso theorem so far what I think I could get is something like R/I = Q/I
I thought about trying to show Z is a subring of R and then showing 3Z is an ideal of Z, where 3Z and Z = 3Z, but I don't see why he would make me do (i) and (ii) here if they didn't pertain to the solution for (iii)
How do you get R/I = Q/I from 2nd iso theorem?
that was basically nonsense my thought process was that for R a subring of Q, I an ideal of R, R/(I and R) = Q/I. But I is a subset of R so (I and R) = I
What exactly does the 2nd iso theorem say?
Let R be a ring, I an ideal of R. Support R' is a subring of R such that R'+I = R. Then (I and R) is an ideal of R' and R'/(I and R') = R/I
Why just don't we try to construct a mapping?
a mapping for the second isomorphism theorem?
No simple homomorphism where kernel is I and image is Z/3Z
I am thinking of constructing a homomorphism between R to Z/3Z with kernel I
What if I send a/2^n to a2^n
Just you have to check it is well defined
And I think it is
I will try like this, thank you
For any $R$-module $M$ and an exact sequence
[
0 \rightarrow N' \xrightarrow{f} N \xrightarrow{g} N'' \rightarrow 0
]
the induced sequence
[
0 \rightarrow \text{Hom}_R(M, N') \xrightarrow{f^} \text{Hom}_R(M, N) \xrightarrow{g^} \text{Hom}_R(M, N'')
]
is exact.
Notknowš
I got it but don't get the significance of it
is there such thing as a complete (totally ordered) group like a complete field, ie satisfies least upper bound property?
Yeah but idk about satisfying lub
Z maybe?
Is there an example of a crossed B-Module $p:E\to{B}$ where $B$ is Abelian but $E$ isnāt? Iāve been thinking about it for a while, so far Iāve only been able to deduce that $E$ must be Metabelian, and p canāt be constant, so the kernel of $p$ must be some normal subgroup with $[E, E]\subseteq{ker(p)}\subsetneq{E}$
NAT Enthusiast
I guess you can do something like E=Q8, B = Q8/Z(Q8) = C2xC2
Where B acts on E by conjugation.
Why is the kernel of this map I_1 \cap ... \cap I_n? Is there some general statement?
any element in the kernel of this map must be projected into each I_k
and if pi_k(r) = I_k in the quotient, then r in I_k
since this happens for all k, then r is in the intersection of all I_k
I guess the general statement would be that the kernel of a homomorphism
R -> Prod R_i
is the intersection of the kernels of the corresponding
R -> R_i
maps
How can I show if $P_\alpha \text{ is projective for each}\alpha$ then $P = \bigoplus_{\alpha } P_\alpha$ is projective?
Notknowš
Write down your definition of projective and check that P satisfies it.
Remember that a map from a direct sum is the same as specifying a map from each summand
I want to use the result M is projective if and only if it is a direct summand of free module F
Okay
This would also work
I am using this definition
Just remember that a direct sum of free modules is free
So you mean I can take $F_\alpha = P_\alpha \bigoplus Q_\alpha$ for each $\alpha$ then $\bigoplus_{\alpha} F_\alpha = P \bigoplus_{\alpha} Q_\alpha$, is it correct?
Notknowš
Thank you @rocky cloak 
Aye aye, richard walked me through this
If P is a direct summand of a free module of finite rank, then how can I show P is finitely generated projective? Yes it is projective by definition but finitely generated, hint?
im learning about localization right now
is this basically a general version of a fraction field but not in the integral domain?
did they choose S to be multiplicative so that the equivalence class (x, s) has addition and multiplication operations that resembles fractions and the localization is still a ring?
yes
Anyone?
Hint: something is finitely generated if and only if it is a quotient of a free module of finite rank
I got the one direction
Quotient of a free module of finite rank is finitely generated
The quotient of finitely generated is finitely generated
Well a hint for showing the other way is that it's a very similar argument to the proof that every module is a quotient of a free module
Oh yes
You can kind of say that
Thanks!
Is it correct that if M is finitely generated and M/N is finitely generated then N is finitely generated?
M is finitely generated and M/ker \phi is isomorphic to free module now I have to show ker \phi is finitely generated
I got it, thanks MSE
just for sanity check, for a finite dimensional algebra A, the duality functor Hom_k(-,k) : mod A \to mod A^{op} sends right/left A-modules to right/left A^{op}-modules, not left/right A^{op}-modules
I think I get associativity issues if i assume right modules get sent to left A^op -modules
A left A-module is the same as a right A^op module and vica versa.
So you can think of the duality either as sending left A-modules to left A^op-modules or you can think of it as sending left A-modules to right A-modules.
Typically one picks a convention so that mod R always means for example left modules.
And then if you want to talk about right modules you just say mod R^op
right right, the R probably also varies in location sometimes to distinguish the two
Yeah, some people do that
R-mod vs mod-R
Is the multiplicative set S in localizations precisely the same as a multiplicative submonoid?
Whats the point here? Is the fact that det(A) is 1 means A-1 has integer entries so we can make sense of A-1 as a linear combo of group elements?
I did this exercise yesterday in module theory
Haha bruh
So a matrix with integer entries exactly describes a homomorphism G -> G.
A homomorphism is an isomorphism if it has an inverse, so we need A^-1 to be an integer matrix.
Exactly describes a homomorphism G->G when G is free right
Or just finitely generated
Let ( n = d_1 d_2 ) be a positive integer. Now let ( M = \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z} ), and consider the exact sequence
[
0 \to d_1 M \to M \to d_2 M \to 0.
]
This sequence is split if and only if ( d_1 ) and ( d_2 ) are relatively prime.
Notknowš
Now let ( d = \gcd(d_1, d_2) ). Then
[
d_1 \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z} \oplus d_2 \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z} = d \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}.
]
Right?
Notknowš
Consider d1=d2 = 2 for example
Yeah, in general
d1Z + d2Z = gcd(d1, d2)Z
so d1Z/nZ + d2Z/nZ = gcd(d1, d2, n)Z/nZ
Bros just multiplied by (nZ)^-1
What do you mean by this?
For the first direction let exact sequence split then Z/nZ = d1 Z/nZ \bigoplus d2 Z/nZ hence dZ/nZ = Z/nZ, and since d divides n so d = 1, is it correct?
And for second direction, since gcd(d_1, d_2 ) = 1, so d1 Z/nZ \cap d2 Z/nZ = {0}, hence we get split exact sequence
Just poked fun at what's going on in here
So you can identify the field generated by the transcende basis with the field of rational functions in that many variables.
After that you just need to show that the algebraic closure is unique. The usual argument involves extending the homomorphisms with Zorn's lemma or transfinite induction
For the first direction, let the exact sequence split. Then we have:
[
\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z} \cong d_1 \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z} \oplus d_2 \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}.
]
Hence, we get:
[
d \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z} = \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}.
]
Since (d) divides (n), it follows that (d = 1).
Notknowš
Is it correct? @rocky cloak sorry to ping
No it is wrong
Say E/F is an algebraic extension and K is algebraically closed.
If you have a map from F -> K you can extend it to a map from E like this:
for x in E let f be is minimal polynomial. Using the map F -> K we can turn f into a polynomial with coefficients in K. Since K is algebraically closed it has a root. Define a map by sending x to one of these roots. This gives a well defined map F[x] -> K.
Repeat inductively for E/F[x].
If G is free group of rank n, and you have a set {ai} of n Z-linearly independent elements, it is not necessarily a basis?
That's correct. For example
{2} is not a basis for Z
Hmmm ok im trying to connect that with the module theory stuff i learned last term
Z has the invariant rank property, which just means that given a free Z-module, any basis is the same size. But that does NOT mean that a set of lin ind of size of the rank will be a basis
Yeah that's right.
Not every set of linearly independent elements can be extendeded to a basis
Culture shock
man
I'm stuck trying to find a solvable group H with a faithful irreducible representation over some F_p
Like is there something more you need about H.
Like you can just use a cyclic group or even the trivial group
can't be abelian
or rather the affine group Aff(H) can't be supersolvable
I'm not sure what Aff(H) is, but if you want non-abelian and easy thing to do would be take V a vector space and take H = GL(V)
that won't be solvable
PSL is simple innit for most n,p
Like you want an example for all n and p?
S3 = GL(V)
So that's the representation
Just permuting the 3 non-zero vectors in V
3?
Yes
ah right mb
I'm tired
I'm confused
cause an element of V is just something like (0,1)
V is the 2-dimensional F2 vector space.
G is the group of invertible 2x2 matrices with coefficients in F2. It acts on V in the obvious way making an irreducible faithful representation
This will permute the nonzero vectors
(1, 0), (0, 1) and (1, 1)
ah that's what you meant
And in fact all permutations arise making G isomorphic to S3
You can also have S3 act on 2-d spaces over any field in much the same way to get an irreducible faithful representation
(but then GL(V) would be bigger)
i wont get involved lol
F would be that and then E it's algebraic closure
Make an isomorphism Fp(X) -> Fp(Y)
Field with p elements, the prime field of your fields
Well I assumed you wanted both fields to have characteristic p
The isomorphism Fp(X) -> Fp(Y)?
Well elements of Fp(X) looks like rational functions in X, so you just replace the variables using f
To get a rational function in Y
Well you can add, multiply and divide stuff
Say X just consisted of one element x.
Then you would also contain x^2 and x+1 and (x+1)/x^2 etc
Hello this is kind throwing me for a loop
prime field of K = smallest field contained in K (will always be Fp or Q depending on characteristic)
Frac(R) = field of fractions, completely different thing

Yes, Fp(X) will be equal to Frac(F[X]), I guess that's one way to see that it equals the field of rational functions
So Fp(X) is defined to be the smallest field contained Fp and X, and when X is an algebraically independent set this will be the set of rational functions.
Fp[X] is defined to be the smallest ring containing Fp and X, and when X is algebraically independent it will be the ring of polynomials.
Frac(Fp[X]) will be the smallest field contained Fp[X], hence will be Fp(X)
I think I would probably take a few steps back and review some material before attempting this problem
You wake a rational function
p(x1, x2, .. ) / q(x1, x2, ...)
and map it to
p(f(x1), f(x2), .. ) / q(f(x1), f(x2), ...)
It gives a homomorphism Fp(X) -> L
then you have to extend that to a map K -> L
.
Well you want this to have an inverse / be bijective
Well, think about what happens to
1/(x1 - x2) for example
this actually sounds suspiciously like a universal property, but after looking it up apparently taking the algebraic closure just doesn't play nice that way
There's no uniqueness no
there's still a guaranteed lift though, surely that's gotta mean for something
Yeah it's nice, just not a universal property
Well it's algebraically closed, and it's an algebraic extension
is there any special notation for the kernel of a group action without invoking the permutation representation?
Yeah, if X is your G-set you can write G_X, though this notation is sometimes used just for stabilisers...
I would maybe just say "let K be the kernel of the action of G on X" lmao
Or idk, define your own notation
ig ill use this, thanks! just wanna prevent the inevitable hand cramps as much as possible by reducing the amount of stuff i need to write :p
It's not
What am i confused by
The roots are 1+i, 1-i, -1+i and-1-i
Oh thats what it meant? Lol
Aka ±1±i
Also, the splitting field of a degree n f(x) in F[x] would be n! Only when each intermediate field extension has p(x) irreducible in (x-a)p(x) ?
I probably didnt say that accurately enough
I'm looking for the original text by Noether where this proof is given. The trouble is I can't read German
Original article: https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF01456821
Claimed translation: https://arxiv.org/pdf/1503.07849
I cannot read German either so I cannot verify that the translation is any good
perhaps better ones out there exist
Thanks!
does anyone know why showing the R' (11.7) satisfy the UMP in (11.3) implies that R_f is isomorphic to R[X]/<1-fX> ?
for any $R$ module $M$, i have to show, $Hom_R( R, M ) \cong M$
so i am sending $\phi \rightarrow \phi(1)$, it works, right?
Because $\phi(1) = 0$ implies $\phi = 0$ and also it is onto.
Notknowš
If P is a projective module then I have to show there exists a free module F such that P\oplus F is free.
Any hint?
i think you can use exact sequences for this
No actually we have to take a big free module
How?
Maybe there is another way
like i think you can show that 0 -> F -> R^K -> P -> 0
splits
if P is projective module
But how can I say R^k -> P is surjective?
i think you can just take the map e_i to an element in the generator of P
But P is not finitely generated
it doesn't have to be
when i say R^K
i just mean that R is the direct sum of rings R
Then how R^k -> P is surjective
Okay then it just gives me P is a direct summand of free module
F=ker(R^k -> P)
But ker not necessarily to be free
oh shoot yeh that's true i missed the part that F must be free rip
but maybe you can
do F to be R^N -> ker(R^k->P)
to get the exact sequence
R^N -> R^K -> P -> 0
then show that this splits
R^N -> R^k, I don't get it
like you use the surjective map R^N -> ker(R^k -> P)
to get the map R^N -> ker(R^k -> P) -> R^K
then get the exact sequence R^N -> R^K -> P -> 0
If P is a stably free module then if I add any free module to P then it gives me a free module, right?
In my textbook, it says that if P \oplus R^m = R^n for some m,n in N
The direct sum of free modules is indeed free.
Good morning guys, I wanted to show that if $0 \to N \to M \to P \to 0$ is an exact sequence, with $\iota: N\to M$ the inclusion and $\pi: M \to P $ the projection, then M Noetherian iff N and P Noetherian. Now I have =>, but what about <= ? Is it okay to define $N_k=M_k \cap N$ and $P_k = \pi(M_k + N)$ if $M_o \subseteq M_1 \subseteq M_2 \subseteq \ldots$ is an ascending chain of M?
damn_guuurl
Yes, that would be the right idea
No but my stable free module is not free
that's nice, thank you! š
Is it correct that R(pi) = R, but Q(pi) is isomorphic to Q(x) which cannot be embedded in C?
Oh, right š I was thinking the field of rational functions are bigger than C, but if the base field is Q then I realize you can embed in C 
š
In fact you can embed the field of rational functions in uncountably many variables
Oh yeah, map one to pi, one to e... wait
Give me a sec, just need to prove that pi and e are algebraically independent real quick š
My textbook used the definition that, a finitely generated projective R-module P is said to be stably free if P \oplus R^m = R^n for some m, n \in N.
Is it necessary that P to be finitely generated?
Not really necessary I guess, but an infinitely generated module is stably free if and only if it is free
Can I get the definition of a stably free module?
I am very confused right now
i have to show stably free P is free iff P has unimodular extension property
And I get the equivalent definition of unimodular extension property that every surjective R^k -> P can be split, but it is always true since P is projective module
P is stably free if P(+)R^n is free for some positive integer n
What's the definition of P having the uep?
I would think the statement was R has uep iff every stably free module is free.
Every unimodular row can be completed into non - singular matrix
Okay, but this statement doesn't mention P
Isn't the same what i said?
Well maybe you had a typo, but you wrote that P should have uep
I have to show this one
Alright, this makes sense to me
Oh my bad then
So if I let P to be finitely generated then my textbook definition is equivalent?
Is it true?
No, this is just P being projective like you said.
So maybe you have copied it down wrong somehow...
Oh
Is it some terminology for a module M such that if add any free module F to M then M\oplus F is free ?
That should be equivalent to being projective
One direction is trivial
Like say P is projective, and P(+)Q is free, then F = (P(+)Q)^(N) is free and P(+)F = F
Any free module, like including 0?
Oh I got your point
if $P \oplus R^m \cong R^n$ then $P\text{ is homomorphic image of } R^n$, hence $P$ is finitely generated
Notknowš
Wait, under which map
i am not sure but P \oplus R^m is isomorphic R^n, so i think there exist a mapping such that P will be homomorphic image of R^n
R^n -> P(+)R^m -> P
I mean, P is projective but it's sort of irrelevant.
X is always the homomorphic image of X(+)Y
Just by the canonical projection map X(+)Y -> X
i understand the proof of the later statement
so that's why we are in interested in finitely generated stably free module
Does R-mod have a biproduct or what
It does yeah
Ah that makes sense
I somehow expected the average ring to make this potentially pathological
i am working with commutative ring, so is it also true that infinitely generated stably free module over non-commutative ring is free ?
Yes, commutativity doesn't play into it
okay
any hint?
i think it helps
i got it this
but can anyone help me to understand this in matrix terminology?
so it means we extended our function f to f' such that if we make a matrix of f' then there is a submatrix which is associated to f
so author did ii => iii and iii => ii
but why?
A row is the same as a map
R^n -> R
and a unimodular row is a surjective map R^n -> R.
So then finding more rows would mean extending the map to
R^n -> R (+) R^n-1
Presumably they find it easier to prove
i <=> ii and ii <=> iii
as opposed to
i => ii => iii => i
So how ii) helps here, ii gives us P \oplus R \cong R^m for some m in N.
Yes, that's right. So you can frame things in terms of maps R^m -> R, which correspond to rows
But it says every unimodular row, so isn't every surjective R^n -> R for every n, or just fix m ?
I'm not sure what you're asking exactly. But if you have
P (+) R = R^m and you want to prove that P is free you want to look at R^m -> R
If your proving the other implication then you would just look at arbitrary n yes
say i want to show iii => ii, then by iii, is it means every surjective R^m ->R can be extended into R^m -> R ( + ) R^(m-1)?
oh i think it means, if P ( + ) R = R^m, then every surjective R^m -> R can be extended into bijective R^m -> R ( + ) R^ (m-1)
now i have to show P is free
correct?
then i think, proposition 3.4 will be help
right?
does someone have a hint for showing that the polynomial ring in n variables over an algebraically closed field is a jacobson ring? iāve already been told to use the nullstellensatz but i donāt see it i feel iām missing something really obvious :S
Hello
If we construct the rees algebra then by definition of multiplication therein elements can never loop back into the lower layers right
So with graded structures the whole point is that we can separate the algebra out into subgroups a way where we always go up with multiplication?
I don't get how C is free A - module?
Show that if I is an ideal and f is not in the radical of I, then there exists a maximal ideal containing I but not f. If you vary f, this shows that I is an intersection of maximal ideals - i.e., that your ring is Jacobson.
In any ā-graded algebra A, A_m A_n ā A_{m+n}. so yes.
Well, it's hard to say what exactly the point is. AFAIK there are a lot of applications.
C is defined as a free module.
Also maybe consider V(J) for some proper Ideal J and leverage the fact that you have a correspondence between its points and maximal ideals
Thank you
I think it should be $A^{\oplus (M \times N)}$
Then it's the (M x N)-indexed sum of As (each of which is free over the 1-element set) so as a whole it's free over (M x N)
Is it true that if "every subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic" then is "every subgroup H is cyclic if and only if the group G is cyclic" also True?
G is a subgroup of G, so yes.
If we change it to proper subgroup, I'm not sure.
Wtf xD
The question is asking me if we have no proper, nontrivial subgroups of G. Then show that G is cyclic.
I'm thinking take {e} the trivial subgroup and G itself, the non-proper one, and then show that these are both cyclic
Then use the theorem to show that G must be cyclic
ā/⤠is a non-cyclic group all of whose proper subgroups are finite cyclic.
Wouldn't you have already shown that G is cyclic by that point?
Fort Boyard
Yea, you're right
Did not see that circular reasoning
Back to the drawing board i guess
Try looking at <x> for some x in G.
I have a problem asking me whether $2\mathbb Z$ is ring isomorphic to $3\mathbb Z$ and $4\mathbb Z$. The $4\mathbb Z$ case seems to be an obvious isomorphism, but I'm not sure about the $3\mathbb Z$ case. Would it be right to say that $\forall a \in 2\mathbb Z, a = 2b$ for some $b \in \mathbb Z$, then map that to $3\mathbb Z$ by multiplying by 3?
oops
Silver
actually ig that's not a homomorphism
hmm
that's what i was thinking but i dont think it satisfies multiplication
Yeah there are only two group isos and you can just check they aren't multiplicative
ohh i didnt think about taking the group isos š
i saw the 3/2 one what's the other one
-3/2
would i need to show that these are the only additive isomorphisms?
wait is 2\Z also not isomorphic to 4\Z???
nvm i figured it out š
the ring of even integers
my book defines rings without unity
š
this is normally written as simply 2Z
i've been typing it in latex lol
so the backslash is there out of habit
They are not. (2Z)(2Z) has index 2 in 2Z, while (4Z)(4Z) has index 4 in 4Z.
meinebow
$F = { { g^i | 1 \leq i \leq p-1 } | g \in G \setminus 1 }$
^ how would you write that, it kinda feels ugly to me
IvL
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
left and right for the curlys is the first thing that comes to mind
But the spacing still seems a bit off
Iām guessing this is true but just wanted to check, are our standard addition and multiplication on the natural numbers uniquely the only operations that satisfy the ordered field axioms on that set (minus the rule of having inverses for either)?
Why do we consider the field fixed by ALL automorphisms in Aut(K)? If you take just one element in Aut(K), the set fixed by that morphism is still a subfield of K right? Whats the difference of considering the field fixed by all morphisms simultaneously vs just one particular one?
Im early in learning galois theory so i imagine these questions will become more clear later but
Pick a countable set A and two bijections $A \to \bQ, A \to \bQ(\sqrt{2})$
PKThoron
That's too brainfry for me rn, sorry
Wait when I said natural numbers I didnāt mean any countable set, Iām assuming itās natural numbers with our fixed standard order. and in that case Iām pretty sure standard addition and multiplication are the only two that satisfy the ordered field axioms
Yeah as I said dropping the requirement for inverses of either addition or multiplication
Not sure if that has a name
āEven if they were we would have to check the maps are automorphismsā, the maps would certainly be homomorphisms because we just need to map generators, but is the point of that comment is that for some reason the map may not be bijective?
You do want a multiplicative identity, right?
Otherwise you could grab 2N, which is order isomorphic to N
Yeah, multiplicative identity equal to second least element (idt it would even make sense to be 0 cuz that would probs contradict w distributivity)
I'm not sure what the author means here either
Either way, the automorphisms of Q(cube root of 2 = y) can't tell Q(y) and Q apart
Not sure why that's important tho
The field fixed by an automorphism g is related to <g> (the cyclic subgroup generated by g) in the same way the field fixed by a group G of automorphisms is related to G.
(Assuming <g> and G are finite for simplicity.)
meinebow
I don't understand this notation. What is $x_g$? Do you mean $x \cdot g$?
Spamakinš·
like what is g(x_g)?
I think your R definition is misspelled, probably meant x_g instead of x{g} ?
I think g(x_g) is just shoving an invented variable x_g into the polynomial
If K is not generated by 1 (for example complex numbers), take any element that isn't in <1> (for example i)
Then the element is in R
Take I = {g1(x)=x}
Then i * g1 won't be in J, so J is not an ideal?
I might not understand what generation in this context means
u tell us
it isnt in J, but in R, u gotta prove it @grand ridge
Can I say (P(A),symmetric difference ),whereA={1,2},a Klein's four group?
That is correct
I mean for every set of automorphisms in Aut(K) you can consider the field fixed by those automorphisms.
This will be the same as the field fixed by the subgroup they generate. One of the central ideas in Galois theory is that when K is a Galois extension then you have a correspondence between subgroups and intermediate field extensions.
Yes, J is a proper ideal
It doesn't contain 1
I guess the easy argument would be, consider the algebraic closure of K.
Consider a map R -> algclosure(K) given by mapping x_g to a root of g.
R is clearly surjective and the kernel contains J. Hence J is contained in a maximal ideal
Well (x_g)^2 maps to the square of whatever x_g maps to for example
The map is surjective
Every element is the root of some irreducible polynomial.
I guess you need to account for polynomials having multiple roots. Which you can do, but the image is nonzero anyway, so for proving that J is proper you don't actually need it
Anyway, I guess maybe why you want to prove this is to prove algebraic closures exist (?). So maybe you don't want to assume that in the proof.
In which case you can just be a lot more explicit:
If R is a ring and f(x) is a monic polynomial, then R[x]/(f(x)) is nonzero (this should be straight forward). Say 1 is in J. Then R/J = 0. 1 is the linear combination of finitely many polynomials f1, f2, ..., fn. So R/(f1, ..., fn) = 0. So (K[x1]/(f1))[x2]/(f2) ... = 0
Contradiction
y'all, why wouldn't $\mathbb R / \langle x^2 \rangle$ be the same as $\mathbb R / \langle x^2 + 1 \rangle$
Silver
i know the latter is isomorphic to the complex numbers, but can't you use the same idea for the former
where you have all polynomials of degree less than 2
the former isn't a field
the latter is
R[x]/(x^2) isn't a field because x is a zero divisor
š
ohhh that makes sense
but what about R/x^2 + C where c is positive nonzero
i mean based off what my prof told me that would just be R[sqrt(-c)]??
okay firstly you should be careful because you're quotienting R[x] not R
Now R[x] is a PID so any quotient by an irreducible polynomial gives a field since the ideal generated by it is nonzero prime and hence maximal (because PID)
x^2 is reducible so you don't get anything good out of it lol
oops idk why i said R
ok that makes a lot of sense tysm
what doesn't make sense š
He's just using R as an example ring
Ig it's an abuse of notation
But what you have is like R (your ring)/(ideal generated by g_i's)
Now you can write this out as like (K[x_{g1}]/g1)[x_{g2}]/(g2)....
You keep going like this Now each of these quotients on their own are non zero
But you postulate they should be 0
Ergo contradiction
But it says that the elements of C are formal linear combination of elements of M Ć N, so what are the basis elements?
let k be a finite field. given any element a in the algebraic closure of k. how do you prove it's minimal polynomial has distinct roots?
The notes i took go something like this:
thus p_b(x) divides p_b'(x), implying that p_b' is zero.
now, consider p_b(x) = a_0+a_1x+...+a_rx^r; p_b'(x) = a_1+2a_2x+...+rx^r-1. there exists a_i (i>=1) such that a_i=/=0```
does this suffice? or is there some other subtle point
i should specify that p_a denotes the minimal polynomial of a over k
but the elements of C are the all finite linear combination of a_i(m_i, n_i)
i think they treat every (x,y) as linearly independent element
The set M ⨯ N.
Exactly.
There is indeed a subtle point. Here's a hint: your proof actually works for k a field of characteristic 0, but not for k a finite field.
now i got it, thanks
in a presentation of a group, are the generators always assumed to not be the neutral element and not equal to each other?
Yes
If you have n generators, they're assumed to not be in each other's span either
Imagine a map from $\bZ^{\ast n}$ to your group that just sends the relations in your presentation to $e$
PKThoron
(The free product of Z with itself)
Of course, it can happen that there will be relations like $a = e$ or $b = c^{-2}$ but then that's not a very economical relation, and people wouldn't really use those
PKThoron
I've thought about that before, is that an implicit assumption or part of the definition? because otherwise there's no reason why a group presentation would not hold for all subgroups of that group
you can still characterize the group through its universal property or whatever
If they all could happen to be the neutral element, then you couldn't tell whether it's describing the group you want or just the trivial group
like, you could still characterise the group being presented as the "largest" group that admits said relations is what I'm trying to get at here
it's not a problem of whether the presentation uniquely determines a group
it's just a technicality of, does the definition admit smaller groups
Yeah, and in that case all the generators are a priori independent of another
If you want the "most general" group, they end up having to be independent
It's like asking whether the x in Z[x] has to be independent of Z!
M^n is the n-fold product of M with itself (the ideal generated by elements that are product of n things from M).
R/M^n is the quotient ring R modulo M^n
oh ok thanks
i have to show $(A\otimes B) \times (A\otimes B) \rightarrow A\otimes B$ such that $(a\otimes b, c\otimes d)\mapsto ac\otimes bd$ is well defined
can i say, for fixed $a\otimes b\in A\otimes B$, let the mapping $f: A\times B \rightarrow A\otimes B$ such that $(c,d)\mapsto ac\otimes bd$, then it induce the R-linear $f_{ab}: A\otimes B \rightarrow A\otimes B$ such that $f'(c\otimes d) = ac\otimes bd$.
then let $g: (A\otimes B)\times (A\otimes B) \rightarrow A\otimes B$ such that $(a\otimes b, c\otimes d) \mapsto f_{ab}(c\otimes d)$
i think this is incomplete, help me
Notknowš
thanks!
another question about semidirect products, there is if i understand correclty the case of a normal subgroup N being acted on by another subgroup U by conjugation such that G = NU, and then we say that G is the inner semidirect product of N and U. So is this just a special case of the outer direct product where our map $\varphi : U \rightarrow{} \mathbf{Aut}(N)$ is just conjugation?
eggman
You need also that N n U = 1
ah, yeah, mb
if A is R-algebra , and N, P be A-module, can i say N,P are R-module too?
The outer semidirect product is isomorphic to the inner one in a way that respects N and U. It is a reconstruction of G, if you like, from the relevant information. Much like the inner and outer direct product, in fact.
And yes, the action is conjugation
I don't think it's fair to say one is a special case of the other.
The outer semidirect product is exactly constructing a group with N and U as subgroups such that it is the inner semidirect product of those subgroups.
And conversely if G is the inner semidirect product it will be isomorphic to the outer semidirect product
Yup
they defined R-algebra as, A is a ring, which is also an R-module satisfying the condition a(xy) = (ax)y = x(ay), a in R, x,y in A.
so if N is A-module, how can i make it into R-module? i am thinking that fixed a in A then rn = (ra)n
Try replacing a with 1
But why? Does it change something?
What's 1*n
I see
Yeah got it
Can I say N is (A, R) bi-module?
Here A and R both are commutative
To be N -(A, B) bi module, we need N to be A module and B module and also (an)b = a(nb), but here both ring Commutative and A is B-algebra
any comment?
i want to prove that, let $M$ be an $R$-module, $A$ an $R$-algebra and $N,P$ be $A$- modules. Prove that
$(M\otimes_{R} N)\otimes_A P \cong M\otimes_R(N\otimes_A P)$
Notknowš
so to make $(M\otimes_R N)$ $A$-module, first i will fix $a\in A$ then the map $M\times N\rightarrow M\otimes_R N$ such that $(m,n)\mapsto m\otimes an$, now this is $R$-bilinear so it induce $\phi_a:M\otimes_R N \rightarrow M\otimes N$ such that $m\otimes n \mapsto m\otimes an$. Now in MSE, they said that $\phi_a \in End(M\otimes_R N)$ hence it induce the module structure
Notknowš
in semidirect products, for the map $\varphi : U \xrightarrow{} \mathbf{Aut}N$, does composition with an automorphism on either side yield an isomorphic semidirect product?
eggman
This definition and $A$ said to be $R$ - algebra, when $A$ is a ring and $A$ is a $R$ - module with $a(xy) = (ax)y = x(ay), a\in R, x,y \in A$.
Let $A$ follows above definition then we have to find the ring homomorphism $f:R \rightarrow A$ such that $ra = f(r)a$ so let $f(r) = r(1)$ then it is additive by module property of $A$ and it is also preserve multiplicativity by the property
$a(xy) = (ax)y = x(ay), a\in R, x,y \in A$.
And $f(r)a = r(1)a = 1(ra) = ra$ so it follows the Atiyah definition also.
Notknowš
So I can say both definitions are equivalent, right?
Thank you
ayy atiyah macdonald type shiii
Yes
I want to show that for the commutative ring $R$, $R[X] \otimes R[Y] \cong R[X,Y]$, so first I construct a bi-linear mapping such that $f: R[X] \times R[Y] \rightarrow R[X,Y]$ which maps $(p,q)\mapsto pq$. So it induce the unique R-linear $f': R[X] \otimes R[Y] \rightarrow R[X,Y]$ such that $f'(p\otimes q) = pq$.
But now I want an inverse of $f'$, any hint?
Notknowš
This isnāt the right way to go about it IMO
You want to show that for any R-Algebra A that A (x) R[x] is isomorphic to A[x] as an A-algebra (which implies it holds as an R-algebra too, which means as a ring)
To do this you want to use universal properties, you want to show that
1: Maps R[x] -> B for an R-algebra B is a choice of an element in B (R[x] is the free R-algebra on one element)
2: Given an R-algebra B, and an A-algebra C, that R-algebra maps B -> C are the same as an A-algebra map A (x)_R B -> C [this is the extension of scalars adjunction]
When you combine this, you see that A (x)_R R[x] has the property that a map from this into an A-algebra C is just a choice of an element in C, so itās the free A-algebra on one element, aka A[x]
tensors

Yes
interesting
anyone š¢
So composing with an automorphism of U gives you something isomorphic, but on the other side it's not so clear what you mean exactly.
Something that is true is that you get something isomorphic if you conjugate by an automorphism of N
oh sorry, i meant an automorphism Aut N -> Aut N
Yeah, so conjugation by automorphism of N would yield an (inner) automorphism of Aut(N). But an arbitrary automorphism will not do
If you want an example, consider N = C12 and H = C2.
Then Aut(N) = C2xC2, so from any nontrivial map H -> Aut(N) you can achieve every other by composing with automorphism of Aut(N), but
D4xC3, C4xD3 and D12 are all different
hmm, thanks!
Also worth noting that you can have "exceptional" isomorphisms between semidirect products. Meaning you're not concerned with the specific embedding of N for example.
If you take something like N=S3 and H=C2, then any semidirect product is isomorphic to NxH, even though there are lots of nontrivial maps H -> Aut(N)
for k a field, ideals of k[x1, ... xn] have a basis because you can view the ideal as a k-vector space?
whereas if R is just noetherian then its not clear that ideals of R[x1, ... xn] are f.g, thats where hilberts basis theorem comes in?
something seems off on what i said
im learning about monomial ideals
isn't R Noetherian implies R[x_1,..., x_n ] Noetherian ?
Both of the things you said are correct
But you have the word "whereas" between two statements that have nothing to do with eachother.
Yes that is the Hilbert basis theorem
This is sort of irrelevant from the second poiny
Since 1) that is a k-basis, not a k[x1,...,xn] generating set and 2) the basis may be infinite
You want to think of g1 as a polynomial in x1. Whether you write that as g1 or g1(x1) is up to you.
Well it's one of the isomorphism theorems.
(A/B)/C = A/(B+C)
I think it probably depends on the starting field
It's theorem C on Wikipedia
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Isomorphism_theorems
In mathematics, specifically abstract algebra, the isomorphism theorems (also known as Noether's isomorphism theorems) are theorems that describe the relationship among quotients, homomorphisms, and subobjects. Versions of the theorems exist for groups, rings, vector spaces, modules, Lie algebras, and other algebraic structures. In universal a...
N = B, K = B+C
is there a "simple" way besides just experience to easily see why the A4 would have no subgroup of order 6?
Well, just looking at the group is fairly "simple" I guess.
There's only 12 elements after all.
fair point
There are tricks to see it quickly though. Any subgroup of index 2 is normal, so a subgroup of order 6 is the same as a surjective map A4 -> C2.
So if you know that A4 is generated by 3-cycles or you know it's commutator subgroup that would do it
Hmm the commutator subgroup is the V4 iirc? So the argument here would just be that a subgroup of order 6 would need to contain the V4 which isn't possible?
Many ways
Hom(A4,C*) = Hom(A4,U3)
But U2 notsubset U3
Proove it š
Hom(A4,C*) ~ U3, so f : A3 ā> U2 is trivial because of the order
sorry, i no neither U3, U3 nor C*
Yup
Every element is a root of some polynomial
Of R/K
Because of how J is defined
Maximal ideals don't contain 1
Hey folks, just a quick reminder that the Abstract Algebra Lecture series is meeting regularly again ^_^
We will meet to discuss Group Presentations in about 10 minutes over in the ā ā #1055201711679082516. More information can be found in our thread: ā ā #1317307081535000606
Not sure how to think about this to be honest
i haven't done abstract alg in a while and I can't parse how to do this even with the primary assumption since homomorphisms don't "distribute over direct sums"
Unless informally consider the intersection of the direct summands with the kernel but it doesn't really work out nicely like that
I mean following the hint seems like a good start.
If M is p-primary you can tell everything you need about M from the dimensions of p^(i-1)M/p^iM.
Unless I fully decompose the module into p-components, use the fact that the p-component of a subgroup should be a subgroup of the larger group's p-component and then "rebuild it" after quotienting by the broken down subgroup
actually I'm pretty sure this works
since we'd be quotienting by a direct sum of the summand's subgroups
I don't remember this nor get why this would be helpful
so for a field K, the ideals in K[x]/(g) for some polynomials g are just the principal ideals generated by the divisors of g right
Yes. In general the ideals of R/I correspond to ideals of R that contain R. So in particular, since every ideal of K[x] is of the form (f), and (f) contains (g) iff f | g, you have the answer
ah, enligthening, thanks
hi can i get a hint for b)
how did you do a?
hi
um i'll post my progress on this problem
i was working on this problem, i skipped part (a)
Suppose h in H and k in K. Then consider (hk)^n = e where n is minimal.
That means h^n = e and k^n = e. Then n must be a multiple of r and s and in that case n is minimal if n = lcm(r,s)
Why does it mean h^n and k^n = e?
because G is abelian
Just because two things multiply to the identity doesn't make them both the identity
Abelian or otherwise
yeah i think part (a) is handled by case 1
so you will have to use ab^gcd(r,s) rather than ab as a generator
but i can't articulate why this works because my brain turned to mush
Seems to be
Prove all the field axioms one by one
They should all be immediate unless I'm missing something
oh ab should still work
you say if (ab)^k = e then a^(rk) b^(rk) = e and so b^(rk) = e
but b^(rk) is not e, and this is the part i'm stuck on
why is b^(rk) not e
it should follow from the fact that r and s are coprime
But then if h^n and k^n were inverses of each other then h^n = k^(-n) which means k^(-n) is an element whose order divides r and s which implies the order of k^(-n) is 1 which implies k^(-n) = e
ok sure
n must be a multiple of the order of h and the order of k
then, you need to choose h and k to be generators and it should work
ok nic
so what happens if we do this in the case where r and s aren't coprime
i don't get it
i was kinda thinking that it's basically the same approach
it doesn't?
no
that's news to me, do you have a concrete counterexample?
yes
šæ
for example G=<Z30,+>
a=5, b=3, r=6, s=10
a+b = 8 has order 15 but lcm(6,10)=30
oh huh
idk, it came before that in the book
but can this be answered?
because i think that will unlock the rest of the proof for me
sorry idek what k is
you can kind of nuke the problem with it if it is allowed
visually i think of it like split G into it's Tor_p groups and show each one has the necessary prime power of the lcm
well if k=s there's a bit of a problem i think
unless s = lcm(r,s)
is the case work really necessary š
wait i will check this
ok i think i got confused because we started talking about part (a)
not really
but maybe this only doesnt work because your task actually assumes a product?
no no
since G is abelian
the product hk commutes, h & k are the generators
so (hk)^n = h^n k^n
so h^n k^n = e iff h^n = e & k^n = e
for part (a) my solution should use hk^gcd(r,s) as the generator
but i'm more interested in part (b)
u said ur askin for help in (a)
in other works hk?
no i'm asking for help in (b)
oke
HK is a quotient of (Z/rZ) x (Z/sZ) but i'm not sure if that helps
i only need to show that b^rk is not e in case 2a
yeah i dont think thats a clever approach
no wait
ah i gotta eat dinner
i think it works
possibly there's another approach that doesn't need casework but you need a way to describe the generator, and (hk) doesn't work for all groups
think of the prime factorization
$r = \prod_{p | r} p^{e_p}$ $s = \prod_{p | s} p^{f_p}$
Goƫtia
thus $m = lcm(r,s) = \prod_{p | m} p^{\max(e_p,f_p)}$
Goƫtia
which boils down to two cases both leading to a quite nice result
if $e_p > f_p$ then since H is cyclic u get the existence of unique subgroup of order $p^{e_p}$
Goƫtia
like wise if $f_p > e_p$
Goƫtia
oh lord whats happening
oh
just find an element in H with order a maximal power of p
same with K
whatever the larger power is, that power has to exist in HK
same for every p and then combine them all together using part a
correct, thats the idea of what i just said, basically it stems from prime factorization
u genius
geniuses
no u
actually there is another way to do part (b), but that would be overkill
im older than you here though OwO
18
I meant that im older than him since i was in this server before him kekw
which elders? XD
me
bet

i am older than Goetia yet i respect them equally
OwO
age is just a number though Uwu
